Biology Exam: Sample Questions Bank

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1. In eukaryotic cells, myosin interacts with Actin microfilaments to cause contraction.

Explanation

In eukaryotic cells, myosin is a motor protein that interacts with actin microfilaments to cause contraction. This interaction between myosin and actin allows for various cellular processes, such as muscle contraction and cell movement. Therefore, the statement "In eukaryotic cells, myosin interacts with actin microfilaments to cause contraction" is correct.

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About This Quiz
Biology Exam: Sample Questions Bank - Quiz

The questions in this bank have been compiled by senior students at Masaryk University, and are intended to help better prepare you for your final exam.

Please note,... see morethese questions are NOT past papers. The questions were put together using the Course Syllabus, Lectures, Practical Reports, and the faculty recommended text book 'Campbell, A. Neil, Reece, J. B. : Biology'.



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2. The function of the Golgi apparatus is to modify, sort, and package proteins and other materials from the endoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation

The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and other materials that are produced in the endoplasmic reticulum. It receives these materials in vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum and then processes them by adding or modifying certain molecules. It also sorts the proteins and materials into different vesicles, which are then transported to their final destinations within the cell or outside of the cell. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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3. Protein tyrosine kinase receptors transduce signals regulating cell growth, differentiation, survival, and migration.

Explanation

Protein tyrosine kinase receptors play a crucial role in transmitting signals that regulate various cellular processes such as cell growth, differentiation, survival, and migration. These receptors are involved in activating intracellular signaling pathways upon binding to specific ligands, leading to the activation of downstream signaling molecules and ultimately influencing cellular behavior. Therefore, it is correct to say that protein tyrosine kinase receptors transduce signals regulating cell growth, differentiation, survival, and migration.

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4. A kinase is a molecule with enzymatic (catalytic) activity.

Explanation

A kinase is a type of enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a specific molecule, usually a protein. This process, known as phosphorylation, is crucial for regulating various cellular processes such as signal transduction, metabolism, and cell division. Therefore, a kinase does indeed possess enzymatic (catalytic) activity.

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5. Reverse Transcriptase allows the transription of viral single-stranded RNA to a DNA molecule. 

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template. It is commonly found in retroviruses, which have RNA genomes. Reverse transcriptase allows the viral RNA to be converted into DNA, which can then be integrated into the host cell's genome. This process is essential for the replication and propagation of retroviruses. Therefore, the statement that Reverse Transcriptase allows the transcription of viral single-stranded RNA to a DNA molecule is correct.

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6. Cell cycle is driven by complexes of cyclins and cyclin dependant kinases (CDKs). 

Explanation

The statement is correct because the cell cycle is indeed regulated by complexes of cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins are proteins that regulate the progression of the cell cycle by binding to and activating CDKs. CDKs are enzymes that phosphorylate target proteins, leading to cell cycle progression. These cyclin-CDK complexes control the transitions between different phases of the cell cycle, ensuring proper cell growth, DNA replication, and division.

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7. Deficiencies in meiotic recombination lead to meiotic defects. 

Explanation

Deficiencies in meiotic recombination can indeed lead to meiotic defects. Meiotic recombination is a crucial process that occurs during meiosis, where genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes. This process helps to create genetic diversity and ensure proper segregation of chromosomes during gamete formation. However, if there are deficiencies in this recombination process, it can result in errors such as chromosome nondisjunction, unequal crossing over, or the formation of abnormal gametes. These defects can lead to genetic abnormalities, infertility, or developmental disorders. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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8. Cyclins are responsible for the control the progression of cells through the cell cycle.

Explanation

Cyclins are proteins that regulate the cell cycle by binding to and activating cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). This activation allows CDKs to phosphorylate target proteins, which in turn control the progression of cells through the cell cycle. Therefore, it is correct to say that cyclins are responsible for controlling the progression of cells through the cell cycle.

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9. Proteosomes are involved in protein degredation.

Explanation

Proteosomes are large protein complexes found in cells that play a crucial role in protein degradation. They break down damaged or misfolded proteins into smaller peptides, which can then be further degraded or recycled. This process is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis and removing proteins that are no longer needed or may be harmful to the cell. Therefore, the statement "Proteosomes are involved in protein degradation" is correct.

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10. The dominant allele will be expressed in a heterozygote.

Explanation

In genetics, the term "dominant allele" refers to an allele that is expressed or observed in the phenotype of an individual, even if it is present in a heterozygous state. This means that even if there is only one copy of the dominant allele and one copy of the recessive allele, the dominant allele will still be expressed. Therefore, the statement "The dominant allele will be expressed in a heterozygote" is correct.

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11. Transcription is the process of creating a complementary RNA copy of a sequence of DNA.

Explanation

Transcription is indeed the process of creating a complementary RNA copy of a sequence of DNA. During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a specific region of the DNA called the promoter, and then proceeds to synthesize a single-stranded RNA molecule using the DNA template strand as a guide. This RNA molecule is complementary to the DNA template strand, with the exception that RNA contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T) as one of its nucleotide bases. Transcription is a vital step in gene expression, as it allows the information encoded in DNA to be transcribed into a functional RNA molecule, such as mRNA, which can then be translated into a protein.

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12. Cancer stem cells can originate from progenitor cells and stem cells.

Explanation

Cancer stem cells can indeed originate from both progenitor cells and stem cells. Progenitor cells are partially differentiated cells that have the potential to give rise to specific cell types. Stem cells, on the other hand, are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types. Both progenitor cells and stem cells have the potential to acquire mutations and transform into cancer stem cells, which possess self-renewal and differentiation capabilities and contribute to tumor growth and progression.

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13. Myogenesis is the formation of muscular tissue. 

Explanation

The given statement is true. Myogenesis refers to the process of muscle tissue formation. It involves the differentiation and fusion of myoblasts, which are precursor cells for muscle fibers. This process is essential for the development and growth of skeletal muscles in the body.

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14. Manipulation with growth factors and their receptors is crucial for the development of new differentiation protocols for stem cell-based therapies 

Explanation

The given statement suggests that manipulation with growth factors and their receptors is important for the development of new differentiation protocols for stem cell-based therapies. This implies that growth factors and their receptors play a key role in guiding the differentiation of stem cells into specific cell types, which is essential for successful stem cell-based therapies. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct as it aligns with the importance of manipulating growth factors and their receptors in the development of stem cell-based therapies.

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15. An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. 

Explanation

An oncogene is a gene that, when mutated or activated, can promote the development of cancer. These genes can stimulate cell growth, inhibit cell death, or promote the formation of blood vessels to supply nutrients to tumors. The presence of an oncogene increases the likelihood of cancer development. Therefore, the statement "An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer" is correct.

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16. An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. 

Explanation

This statement is correct because an oncogene is a gene that has the ability to transform a normal cell into a cancerous cell. These genes can be mutated or overexpressed, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Therefore, the presence of an oncogene increases the risk of cancer formation.

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17. A protooncogene is a normal gene that has the potential to become an oncogene due to mutation or increased expression. 

Explanation

A protooncogene is a normal gene that has the potential to become an oncogene due to mutation or increased expression. This means that under certain circumstances, such as genetic mutations or changes in gene regulation, a protooncogene can transform into an oncogene, which is a gene that contributes to the development of cancer. Therefore, the given statement is correct, as it accurately describes the potential of protooncogenes to become oncogenes.

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18. Proteosomes degrade unwanted and damaged proteins by proteolysis. 

Explanation

Proteosomes are specialized protein complexes found in cells that play a crucial role in protein degradation. They are responsible for breaking down unwanted or damaged proteins through a process called proteolysis. Therefore, it is correct to say that proteosomes degrade unwanted and damaged proteins.

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19. Growth of the oocytes that takes place in the ovaries during fetal development represents a key period in terms of accumulation of molecules that are crucial for autonomy of early embyogenesis. 

Explanation

During fetal development, the growth of oocytes in the ovaries is a crucial period for the accumulation of molecules that are necessary for the autonomy of early embryogenesis. This implies that the growth of oocytes in the ovaries during fetal development plays a significant role in providing the necessary components for the successful development of an embryo. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct as it acknowledges the importance of this growth process in the ovaries during fetal development.

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20. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the β globin gene

Explanation

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the β globin gene. This means that there is a change in a single nucleotide in the gene sequence, leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin molecules. These abnormal molecules cause red blood cells to become sickle-shaped, which can block blood flow and lead to various health complications. Therefore, the statement "Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the β globin gene" is correct.

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21. RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

Explanation

RNA contains uracil instead of thymine as one of its four nucleotide bases. In DNA, thymine pairs with adenine, while in RNA, uracil pairs with adenine. This difference in nucleotide bases is due to a chemical modification that occurs during the transcription process, where DNA is converted into RNA. Therefore, the statement is correct, and RNA indeed contains uracil instead of thymine.

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22. Neurogenesis is the process by which neurons are generated from neural stem and progenitor cells.

Explanation

Neurogenesis refers to the formation of new neurons from neural stem and progenitor cells. This process plays a crucial role in the development and functioning of the nervous system. It occurs primarily during embryonic development but can also continue throughout adulthood in certain regions of the brain. The statement accurately states that neurogenesis is the process by which neurons are generated from neural stem and progenitor cells, making the answer "Yes" correct.

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23. Embryonic induction is thought to be initiated by small signalling molecules (morphogens) their expression/synthesis is genetically controlled so that these factors have appropriate biological activity at the correct time and place in the embryo.

Explanation

Embryonic induction is a process in which one group of cells influences the development of adjacent cells, leading to the formation of different tissues and organs. This process is initiated by small signaling molecules called morphogens. These morphogens are genetically controlled, meaning their expression and synthesis are regulated by specific genes. This ensures that the morphogens are produced and active at the appropriate time and location in the embryo, allowing for proper development and organization of cells and tissues. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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24. Embryonic induction/gastrulation is initiated by the key signalling morphogen) from specific clusters of cells (organizers).

Explanation

Embryonic induction/gastrulation is indeed initiated by a key signaling morphogen from specific clusters of cells known as organizers. This process involves the movement and rearrangement of cells, leading to the formation of the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) and the establishment of the body plan during early embryonic development. The organizers release signaling molecules that instruct neighboring cells to differentiate and adopt specific cell fates, ultimately shaping the developing embryo.

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25. Non-dysjunction is the failure of a chromosome pair to seperate properly during cell division. 

Explanation

Non-dysjunction is indeed the failure of a chromosome pair to separate properly during cell division. This can result in an abnormal number of chromosomes in the resulting cells, leading to genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes" as it accurately states the definition of non-dysjunction.

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26. Down syndrome is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21. 

Explanation

Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This condition is known as trisomy 21. Individuals with Down syndrome typically have characteristic physical features, intellectual disabilities, and may experience various health complications. The statement provided in the answer is correct, as it accurately states that Down syndrome is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21.

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27. Gene p53 induces expression of target genes involved in apoptosis.

Explanation

The gene p53 is known to play a crucial role in regulating cell growth and division. One of its important functions is to induce the expression of target genes that are involved in apoptosis, which is the programmed cell death process. Apoptosis is a vital mechanism for maintaining tissue homeostasis and eliminating damaged or abnormal cells. Therefore, it is correct to say that gene p53 induces the expression of target genes involved in apoptosis.

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28. MPF plays a major role in controlling the cell cycle. 

Explanation

MPF, also known as maturation-promoting factor, is a protein complex that regulates the progression of the cell cycle. It controls the transition from the G2 phase to the M phase, where cell division occurs. MPF is responsible for initiating various cellular processes, such as chromosome condensation and nuclear envelope breakdown, which are essential for cell division. Therefore, it can be concluded that MPF plays a major role in controlling the cell cycle.

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29. Growth factors are usually proteins or steroid hormones. 

Explanation

Growth factors are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in regulating cell growth, division, and differentiation. They are typically proteins or steroid hormones that bind to specific receptors on the surface of target cells, triggering a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately promote cell proliferation and survival. Therefore, it is correct to say that growth factors are usually proteins or steroid hormones.

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30. Reverse Transcriptase is used to transcript viral RNA into DNA.

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is capable of synthesizing a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand from an RNA template. This process is known as reverse transcription. In the context of the given statement, reverse transcriptase is used to convert viral RNA into DNA, allowing for further analysis and study of the viral genetic material. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes."

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31. Mendel's research was done on tomato plants.

Explanation

Mendel's research was not done on tomato plants.

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32. Gastrulation is the development of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm germ layers. 

Explanation

Gastrulation is the process during embryonic development where the single-layered blastula transforms into a three-layered structure called the gastrula. The three germ layers formed during gastrulation are the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system, skin, and hair; the mesoderm forms muscles, bones, and blood vessels; and the endoderm develops into the lining of the digestive and respiratory systems. Therefore, it is correct to say that gastrulation is the development of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm germ layers.

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33. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) refers to single base differences of DNA sequences between individuals of a population. 

Explanation

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) refers to the occurrence of a single base difference in the DNA sequences of individuals within a population. This means that at a particular position in the DNA sequence, one individual may have one base (e.g., A) while another individual may have a different base (e.g., G). Therefore, the statement "Yes" is correct as it accurately describes the concept of SNP.

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34. Malignant tumours often metastasize.

Explanation

Malignant tumors are cancerous and have the ability to spread to other parts of the body, a process known as metastasis. This is in contrast to benign tumors, which do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other areas. Therefore, the statement "Malignant tumors often metastasize" is correct.

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35. Pluripotency is the ability to differentiate into many different cell types

Explanation

Pluripotency refers to the ability of a cell to differentiate into multiple cell types. This means that a pluripotent cell has the potential to develop into various specialized cell types, such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or blood cells. Therefore, the statement "Pluripotency is the ability to differentiate into many different cell types" is correct.

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36. One strategy of gene therapy is replacement of problematic gene

Explanation

Gene therapy is a promising approach for treating genetic disorders. One strategy in gene therapy involves replacing a problematic or defective gene with a functional one. This can be done by introducing a healthy copy of the gene into the patient's cells, either through direct delivery or using viral vectors. By replacing the problematic gene, the therapy aims to restore normal gene function and alleviate the symptoms of the genetic disorder. This approach has shown potential in treating various genetic diseases and holds promise for future medical advancements.

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37. Mutations in human genes can cause developmental problems. 

Explanation

Mutations in human genes can indeed cause developmental problems. Genetic mutations can alter the normal functioning of genes, leading to abnormal development and growth. These mutations can disrupt important processes such as cell division, differentiation, and signaling, resulting in various developmental disorders. Examples of such disorders include Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and muscular dystrophy. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct as it acknowledges the link between gene mutations and developmental problems in humans.

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38. Squamous cell carcinomas are derived from epithelia that forms protective cell layers. 

Explanation

Squamous cell carcinomas are indeed derived from epithelia that forms protective cell layers. This type of cancer originates from the squamous cells, which are flat cells that make up the outermost layer of the skin and line the hollow organs of the body. These cells serve as a protective barrier, and when they become cancerous, they can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, the statement "Squamous cell carcinomas are derived from epithelia that forms protective cell layers" is correct.

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39. Ionic radiation can be a cause of gene mutation.

Explanation

Ionic radiation can be a cause of gene mutation because it has enough energy to remove electrons from atoms and molecules, leading to the formation of free radicals. These free radicals can then react with DNA, causing changes in the genetic material and potentially leading to mutations. Therefore, exposure to ionic radiation increases the risk of gene mutations.

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40. E.Coli is Gram Negative.

Explanation

E.Coli is classified as Gram-negative because it does not retain the violet crystal stain in the Gram staining process. Gram-negative bacteria, like E.Coli, have a thinner peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls, which does not retain the stain, causing them to appear pink or red under a microscope. Gram-negative bacteria also have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which further contributes to their classification.

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41. Laminopathies are rare genetic disorders involving the lamin proteins of the nuclear membrane.

Explanation

Laminopathies are indeed rare genetic disorders that affect the lamin proteins found in the nuclear membrane. These disorders can result in a variety of symptoms and can affect different organs and tissues in the body. Lamin proteins play a crucial role in maintaining the structure and integrity of the nucleus, and any abnormalities in these proteins can lead to the development of laminopathies. Therefore, the given answer "Yes" is correct as it accurately states that laminopathies are rare genetic disorders involving the lamin proteins of the nuclear membrane.

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42. Microtubules are tubules made of dimers of alpha and beta tubulin units.

Explanation

Microtubules are indeed tubules composed of dimers of alpha and beta tubulin units. This statement accurately describes the structure of microtubules.

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43. The cytoskeleton consists of intermediate filaments, microtubules and microfilaments.

Explanation

The given statement is correct. The cytoskeleton is a network of protein filaments that provide structural support and shape to cells. It is composed of three main components: intermediate filaments, microtubules, and microfilaments. Intermediate filaments provide mechanical strength to cells, microtubules are involved in cell division and intracellular transport, and microfilaments are responsible for cell movement and contraction. Therefore, the statement that the cytoskeleton consists of intermediate filaments, microtubules, and microfilaments is accurate.

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44. Transcription takes place in the nucleus. 

Explanation

Transcription is the process by which genetic information in DNA is copied into RNA. This process occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, where the DNA is located. Therefore, the statement "Transcription takes place in the nucleus" is correct.

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45. In eukaryotic cells, cytokinesis occurs by use of a contractile ring of overlapping microfilaments.

Explanation

The statement is correct because in eukaryotic cells, cytokinesis, which is the process of dividing the cytoplasm and forming two daughter cells, occurs through the use of a contractile ring. This contractile ring is made up of overlapping microfilaments that contract and pinch the cell membrane, leading to the separation of the two daughter cells.

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46. Chromatids are joined at their centromere.

Explanation

Chromatids are joined at their centromere during cell division. The centromere is a specialized region of the chromosome that holds the two sister chromatids together. This connection ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes during cell division.

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47. Chromosomes are attached to the nuclear envelope or nuclear lamina via proteins of the inner membrane; LAMINA B RECEPTOR and LAMINA ASSOCIATED PROTEIN (LBR and LAP2).

Explanation

Chromosomes are indeed attached to the nuclear envelope or nuclear lamina through proteins such as Lamin B Receptor (LBR) and Lamin Associated Protein 2 (LAP2). These proteins help to anchor the chromosomes to the inner membrane of the nucleus, providing structural support and organization within the cell. This attachment is important for various cellular processes, including DNA replication, gene expression, and chromosome segregation during cell division.

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48. The negative charge of DNA allows it to move in gel electrophoresis.

Explanation

The negative charge of DNA allows it to move in gel electrophoresis because gel electrophoresis is a technique that separates DNA molecules based on their size and charge. DNA is negatively charged due to the phosphate groups in its backbone. When an electric current is applied to the gel, the negatively charged DNA molecules are attracted to the positive electrode and move towards it. The smaller DNA fragments move faster through the gel than larger fragments, resulting in separation of the DNA fragments based on their size.

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49. The PCR process requires the use of primers. 

Explanation

The PCR process requires the use of primers because primers are short DNA sequences that bind to the specific target DNA sequence that needs to be amplified. These primers serve as the starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase, allowing for the amplification of the target DNA region. Without primers, the PCR process cannot initiate and proceed. Therefore, the statement "The PCR process requires the use of primers" is correct.

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50. Both cancer cells and stem cells have high telomerase activity.

Explanation

Both cancer cells and stem cells have high telomerase activity. Telomerase is an enzyme that helps maintain the length of telomeres, which are protective caps at the ends of chromosomes. Normal cells have limited telomerase activity, leading to gradual telomere shortening and eventual cell death. However, both cancer cells and stem cells have high telomerase activity, allowing them to maintain their telomeres and continue proliferating. This is one of the characteristics that make cancer cells and stem cells similar in terms of their ability to divide and grow indefinitely.

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51. Defficiencies in meiotic recombination lead to meiotic defects and possibly cell death. 

Explanation

Deficiencies in meiotic recombination can cause errors in the exchange of genetic material between chromosomes during meiosis, leading to meiotic defects. These defects can result in abnormal chromosome segregation, formation of nonviable gametes, or the production of offspring with genetic abnormalities. In severe cases, cell death may occur due to the inability to properly complete meiosis. Therefore, the statement is correct in stating that deficiencies in meiotic recombination can lead to meiotic defects and possibly cell death.

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52. Ubiquitin proteosome pathway eliminates abnormal proteins. 

Explanation

The ubiquitin proteosome pathway is a cellular mechanism responsible for eliminating abnormal or misfolded proteins. It involves the tagging of these proteins with ubiquitin molecules, which target them for degradation by the proteasome. Therefore, the statement that the ubiquitin proteosome pathway eliminates abnormal proteins is correct.

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53. Interphase consists of G1, S and G2. 

Explanation

Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle and is divided into three stages: G1, S, and G2. During G1, the cell grows and carries out its normal functions. The S phase is when DNA replication occurs, ensuring that each daughter cell will have a complete set of chromosomes. Finally, during G2, the cell continues to grow and prepare for cell division. Therefore, the statement "Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2" is correct.

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54. Alteration of protein primary structure leads to changes in upper structure. 

Explanation

When there is an alteration in the primary structure of a protein, it can lead to changes in its upper structure. The primary structure refers to the specific sequence of amino acids that make up the protein, while the upper structure refers to the higher-order folding and arrangement of the protein. Any changes in the primary structure can affect the interactions between amino acids and disrupt the folding process, leading to changes in the overall structure of the protein. Therefore, it is correct to say that alterations in the protein's primary structure can result in changes in its upper structure.

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55. Ames test is used to assess mutagenic potential of chemical compounds. 

Explanation

The Ames test is a widely used method to determine the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds. It involves exposing certain bacteria to the chemical compound in question and observing if it causes mutations in their DNA. If the chemical compound is found to induce mutations, it is considered to have mutagenic potential. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes" as the Ames test is indeed used to assess the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds.

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56. HPV can cause cancer in a cell which already has a mutated p53 gene.

Explanation

The statement is correct because HPV, or human papillomavirus, can cause cancer in cells that already have a mutated p53 gene. The p53 gene is a tumor suppressor gene that helps regulate cell growth and prevent the formation of tumors. However, when the p53 gene is mutated, it loses its ability to control cell growth effectively. HPV can then infect these cells and interfere with their normal growth and division, potentially leading to the development of cancer.

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57. All four FGFRs (Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptors) must be present for normal development.

Explanation

The statement suggests that the presence of all four FGFRs is necessary for normal development. This implies that each FGFR likely plays a unique role in the developmental process, and the absence of any one of them could potentially disrupt normal development. Therefore, the answer "Yes" indicates agreement with the statement that all four FGFRs must be present for normal development.

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58. Deamination is the removal of amine group from a molecule.

Explanation

Deamination is a biochemical process in which the amine group (-NH2) is removed from a molecule. This process can occur in various molecules, such as amino acids, nucleotides, and neurotransmitters. The removal of the amine group can have significant effects on the structure and function of the molecule. Therefore, it is correct to say that deamination involves the removal of the amine group from a molecule.

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59. Both cancer cells and stem cells secrete growth factors and cytokines. 

Explanation

Both cancer cells and stem cells secrete growth factors and cytokines. This suggests that there may be similarities between the two types of cells in terms of their signaling mechanisms and ability to influence the surrounding microenvironment. The secretion of growth factors and cytokines by cancer cells can contribute to tumor growth, angiogenesis, and immune evasion, while in stem cells, these factors play a crucial role in regulating cell differentiation and tissue regeneration. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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60. Both tumorous and normal tissues are composed of heterogenous combination of cells, with different phenoypic characteristics and different proliferative potentials.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that both tumorous and normal tissues are composed of a heterogenous combination of cells. This means that within both types of tissues, there are different types of cells with different characteristics and proliferative potentials. Therefore, it is possible for both tumorous and normal tissues to have cells with varying phenotypic characteristics and proliferative potentials.

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61. Tumorigenic cells are probably cancer stem cells.

Explanation

The statement suggests that tumorigenic cells are likely to be cancer stem cells. This implies that the cells responsible for initiating and driving tumor growth may possess stem cell-like properties. These properties enable them to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types within the tumor. This theory aligns with the concept of cancer stem cells, which propose that a small subset of cells within a tumor possess the ability to self-renew and give rise to the heterogeneous cell population found in tumors. Therefore, the answer "Yes" supports the notion that tumorigenic cells are probably cancer stem cells.

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62. DNA Ligase joins together the Okazaki fragments into a continuous strand of DNA.

Explanation

DNA Ligase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in DNA replication. It is responsible for joining the Okazaki fragments, which are short segments of DNA that are synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication. These fragments are synthesized in the opposite direction of the replication fork and need to be connected to form a continuous strand of DNA. DNA Ligase catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent Okazaki fragments, thus sealing the gaps and creating a continuous DNA strand. Therefore, the statement "DNA Ligase joins together the Okazaki fragments into a continuous strand of DNA" is correct.

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63. The interior of the lysosomes is acidic when compared to the slightly alkaline pH of the cytosol.

Explanation

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes. These enzymes require an acidic environment to function optimally. The acidic pH of the lysosomes helps in breaking down various molecules, such as proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates. On the other hand, the cytosol, which is the fluid inside the cell, has a slightly alkaline pH. The difference in pH between the lysosomes and the cytosol is essential for maintaining the proper functioning of lysosomal enzymes and preventing them from damaging other cellular components. Therefore, the statement that the interior of the lysosomes is acidic when compared to the slightly alkaline pH of the cytosol is correct.

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64. One strategy of gene therapy is replacement of problematic gene

Explanation

Gene therapy is a medical technique that aims to treat or cure genetic disorders by replacing or modifying problematic genes. By replacing a problematic gene with a healthy or functional one, gene therapy can potentially correct the underlying cause of the genetic disorder. This strategy holds promise for treating a wide range of genetic diseases, including those caused by a single gene mutation. Therefore, the statement "One strategy of gene therapy is replacement of problematic gene" is correct.

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65. Progenitor cell self-renewal must be activated at the first step.

Explanation

The given statement suggests that the activation of progenitor cell self-renewal is necessary at the initial step. This implies that the process of progenitor cell self-renewal cannot proceed without this activation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes" as it aligns with the requirement mentioned in the statement.

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66. Telomerase is strongly expressed in embryonic cells. 

Explanation

Telomerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in maintaining the length of telomeres, which are protective caps at the ends of chromosomes. During embryonic development, cells undergo rapid division and growth, and it is important to preserve the integrity of the chromosomes. Therefore, telomerase is strongly expressed in embryonic cells to prevent telomere shortening and maintain chromosomal stability. This allows embryonic cells to divide and differentiate effectively, contributing to the development of a healthy organism.

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67. Cancer stem cells can originate from progenitor cells and stem cells. 

Explanation

Cancer stem cells can indeed originate from both progenitor cells and stem cells. Progenitor cells are more differentiated cells that have the potential to give rise to specific types of cells, while stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types. Both types of cells can undergo mutations or genetic alterations that can lead to the development of cancer stem cells, which have the ability to self-renew and give rise to different types of cancer cells. Therefore, it is possible for cancer stem cells to originate from both progenitor cells and stem cells.

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68. The MYF5 gene intervene in myogenesis.

Explanation

The MYF5 gene plays a role in myogenesis, which is the process of muscle formation and development. This gene is involved in the activation and differentiation of muscle precursor cells, leading to the formation of skeletal muscle. Therefore, it is correct to say that the MYF5 gene intervenes in myogenesis.

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69. Chromatin contains DNA, non-histones and histone proteins.

Explanation

Chromatin is a complex of DNA, proteins, and RNA that forms the genetic material in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. It consists of DNA tightly wrapped around histone proteins, forming nucleosomes. Non-histone proteins are also present in the chromatin, playing various roles in DNA replication, transcription, and repair. Therefore, the statement that chromatin contains DNA, non-histones, and histone proteins is correct.

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70. Drosophila melanogaster is a species commonly used in genetic and physiological studies. 

Explanation

Drosophila melanogaster is indeed a species commonly used in genetic and physiological studies. This species of fruit fly has a short life cycle, a small genome, and is easy to maintain in a laboratory setting. It has been extensively studied and its genetic makeup is well understood, making it a valuable model organism for research in genetics, development, and behavior.

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71. P53 induces apoptosis. 

Explanation

P53 is a protein that plays a crucial role in regulating cell cycle and preventing the formation of tumors. One of the ways it does this is by inducing apoptosis, which is programmed cell death. When P53 detects DNA damage or other abnormalities in a cell, it can activate the apoptotic pathway to eliminate the damaged cell. Therefore, the statement "P53 induces apoptosis" is correct.

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72. Laminopathies are rare genetic disorders involving the lamina proteins of the nuclear membrane.

Explanation

Laminopathies are indeed rare genetic disorders that affect the lamina proteins of the nuclear membrane. These disorders are characterized by abnormalities in the structure and function of the nuclear envelope, leading to various health issues. The correct answer, "Yes," confirms the statement provided.

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73. It is necessary to target cancer stem cells for sucessfull cancer treatment. 

Explanation

Targeting cancer stem cells is necessary for successful cancer treatment because these cells are believed to be responsible for tumor growth, metastasis, and resistance to traditional cancer therapies. Cancer stem cells have the ability to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types within the tumor, making them a key target for therapy. By specifically targeting and eliminating cancer stem cells, it may be possible to prevent tumor recurrence and improve patient outcomes. Therefore, it is crucial to focus on targeting cancer stem cells in order to achieve successful cancer treatment.

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74. Spindle fibers involved in chromosome movement at mitosis are microtubules.

Explanation

The statement is correct. Spindle fibers play a crucial role in chromosome movement during mitosis. They are made up of microtubules, which are long, hollow tubes composed of tubulin protein subunits. These microtubules attach to the chromosomes at the kinetochores and help in pulling the chromosomes apart towards opposite poles of the cell. Therefore, the statement "Spindle fibers involved in chromosome movement at mitosis are microtubules" is accurate.

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75. During transcription, a DNA sequence is read by RNA Polymerase which produces a complementary, antiparallel RNA strand. 

Explanation

During transcription, RNA Polymerase reads a DNA sequence and produces a complementary RNA strand. This process is essential for gene expression as it allows the genetic information encoded in DNA to be copied and used to synthesize proteins. Therefore, the statement "During transcription, a DNA sequence is read by RNA Polymerase which produces a complementary, antiparallel RNA strand" is correct.

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76. In eukaryotic cells, translation takes place in the cytoplasm. 

Explanation

In eukaryotic cells, translation is the process by which proteins are synthesized. This process occurs in the cytoplasm, which is the fluid-filled region outside the cell nucleus. The cytoplasm contains all the necessary components, such as ribosomes and transfer RNA, for the translation process to occur. Therefore, the statement "In eukaryotic cells, translation takes place in the cytoplasm" is correct.

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77. In eukaryotic cells, translation takes place in the cytoplasm. 

Explanation

Translation is the process in which the genetic information in mRNA is used to synthesize proteins. In eukaryotic cells, translation occurs in the cytoplasm, specifically in the ribosomes. This is because the mRNA molecules are transcribed in the nucleus and then transported out to the cytoplasm where the ribosomes are located. Therefore, the statement "In eukaryotic cells, translation takes place in the cytoplasm" is correct.

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78. PCR is used to amplify and simultaneously quantify a targeted DNA molecule

Explanation

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique used in molecular biology to amplify a specific DNA molecule. It involves a series of temperature cycles that allow the DNA to be replicated in large quantities. Additionally, PCR can also be used to quantify the amount of DNA present in a sample by using fluorescent dyes or probes. Therefore, it is correct to say that PCR is used to amplify and simultaneously quantify a targeted DNA molecule.

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79. Carcinomas can arise from epithelial tissue. 

Explanation

Carcinomas can arise from epithelial tissue because carcinomas are a type of cancer that originates in the epithelial cells, which are the cells that line the surfaces and cavities of the body. These cells can undergo genetic mutations that lead to uncontrolled cell growth and the formation of tumors. Therefore, it is correct to say that carcinomas can arise from epithelial tissue.

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80. The cell cycle is regulated by a family of proteins

Explanation

The statement is correct because the cell cycle, which includes processes such as cell growth, DNA replication, and cell division, is indeed regulated by a family of proteins. These proteins control the progression of the cell cycle by activating or inhibiting specific events at different stages. They ensure that the cell cycle proceeds in a timely and coordinated manner, preventing errors and maintaining the integrity of the genetic material.

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81. Polymorphism is when the frequency of a rare allele in a population is more than 1%.

Explanation

This statement is incorrect. Polymorphism refers to the presence of multiple forms or variants of a gene or trait within a population. It does not specifically refer to the frequency of a rare allele being more than 1%. Polymorphism can occur with alleles that are common or rare, as long as there are multiple variants present in the population.

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82. Telomerase activity is detectable in 85-90% of human tumour cells. 

Explanation

Telomerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in maintaining the length of telomeres, which are protective caps at the ends of chromosomes. In normal cells, telomerase activity is usually turned off, leading to gradual telomere shortening with each cell division. However, in cancer cells, telomerase activity is often reactivated, allowing the cells to continuously divide and avoid senescence or cell death. The statement suggests that telomerase activity is detectable in 85-90% of human tumor cells, indicating that a majority of cancer cells have reactivated telomerase, which supports their uncontrolled growth and proliferation.

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83. Hormones regulate cell differentiation. 

Explanation

Hormones are chemical messengers that are responsible for regulating various processes in the body, including cell differentiation. Cell differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized and take on specific functions. Hormones play a crucial role in this process by signaling cells to differentiate into specific cell types. Therefore, it is correct to say that hormones regulate cell differentiation.

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84. ALV (Avian Leukosis Virus) induces B-cell lymphomas in chickens. 

Explanation

ALV (Avian Leukosis Virus) is known to cause B-cell lymphomas in chickens. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct because it aligns with this information.

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85. Mitochondria have their own DNA and ribosomes.

Explanation

Mitochondria have their own DNA and ribosomes, which are responsible for their ability to produce energy in the form of ATP through cellular respiration. This unique characteristic of mitochondria is due to their evolutionary origin as free-living bacteria that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells. The presence of DNA and ribosomes within mitochondria allows them to replicate and produce proteins independently of the host cell's nucleus. This autonomy is crucial for the proper functioning of mitochondria and their role in energy production within cells.

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86. Microfilaments are filaments consisting of a double strand of globular Actin units.

Explanation

Microfilaments are indeed filaments consisting of a double strand of globular Actin units. Actin is a protein that forms the structural framework of cells and plays a crucial role in cell movement and muscle contraction. These filaments are important for maintaining cell shape, providing mechanical support, and facilitating cell movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes."

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87. In eukaryotic cells, transcription takes place in the nucleus. 

Explanation

In eukaryotic cells, transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA molecules from DNA templates. This process occurs in the nucleus because that is where the DNA is located. The DNA is transcribed into RNA by RNA polymerase enzymes, which can only access the DNA in the nucleus. Once the RNA is synthesized, it can then be transported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm for further processing and translation. Therefore, it is correct to say that transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

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88. In eukaryotic cells, cytokinesis occurs by use of a contractile ring of overlapping microfilaments.

Explanation

Cytokinesis in eukaryotic cells refers to the division of the cytoplasm to form two daughter cells. This process involves the contraction of a contractile ring, which is composed of overlapping microfilaments. The contractile ring constricts the cell membrane, leading to the separation of the two daughter cells. Therefore, the statement that cytokinesis occurs by the use of a contractile ring of overlapping microfilaments in eukaryotic cells is correct.

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89. An optical microscope's resolution power is limited by the wavelength of light. 

Explanation

The statement is true because the resolution power of an optical microscope is determined by the wavelength of light used. The resolution of a microscope refers to its ability to distinguish two closely spaced objects as separate entities. The wavelength of light used in the microscope determines the smallest distance between two objects that can be resolved. As the wavelength of light increases, the resolution power decreases, limiting the microscope's ability to distinguish fine details. Therefore, the resolution power of an optical microscope is indeed limited by the wavelength of light.

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90. The synthesis of cyclin D is initiated during the G1 phase.

Explanation

During the G1 phase of the cell cycle, cyclin D is synthesized. This is an important step in the progression of the cell cycle as cyclin D binds to cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) to form active complexes that drive the cell cycle forward. The synthesis of cyclin D allows for the activation of CDKs and the subsequent progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle. Therefore, the statement that the synthesis of cyclin D is initiated during the G1 phase is correct.

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91. Single nucleotide polymorphisms are the most common type of genetic variation.

Explanation

Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are indeed the most common type of genetic variation. SNPs occur when a single nucleotide (A, T, C, or G) in the DNA sequence is altered. These variations can happen throughout the genome and can be inherited or arise spontaneously. SNPs are important in genetics research as they can be used as markers to identify genetic differences between individuals, study disease susceptibility, and understand population genetics. Therefore, the statement "Yes" is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the prevalence and significance of SNPs as the most common type of genetic variation.

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92. Polyploid is a term used to describe cells containing more than two paired sets of chromosomes. 

Explanation

The term "polyploid" refers to cells that have more than two sets of paired chromosomes. This means that instead of the usual two sets, polyploid cells have three or more sets of chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes" because the given statement accurately describes the definition of polyploid.

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93. Progenitor cells have many properties of embryonic stem cells. 

Explanation

Progenitor cells are cells that have the ability to differentiate into specific cell types. They are derived from embryonic stem cells and share many similar properties. Both progenitor cells and embryonic stem cells have the potential to develop into various types of cells in the body. Therefore, it is correct to say that progenitor cells have many properties of embryonic stem cells.

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94. P53 induces the expression of genes that are involved in both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways. 

Explanation

P53 is a tumor suppressor protein that plays a crucial role in regulating cell death. It can induce the expression of genes involved in both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways. The intrinsic pathway is activated by cellular stress, while the extrinsic pathway is activated by external signals. Therefore, it is correct to say that P53 induces the expression of genes involved in both apoptotic pathways.

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95. Cells survive a crisis by expressing "telomerase" which elongates telomeric DNA. 

Explanation

Cells survive a crisis by expressing "telomerase" which elongates telomeric DNA. This statement is correct because telomerase is an enzyme that adds DNA sequences to the ends of chromosomes, known as telomeres. Telomeres protect the chromosomes from degradation and prevent the loss of genetic information during cell division. During a crisis or stress, cells may activate telomerase to maintain the integrity of their DNA and ensure their survival.

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96. Niche cells are specific anatomic locations that regulate how stem cell populations participate in tissue generation and repair. 

Explanation

The statement describes niche cells as specific anatomic locations that regulate how stem cell populations participate in tissue generation and repair. This implies that these niche cells play a role in controlling and directing the behavior of stem cells in tissue regeneration and repair processes. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct as it confirms the given statement.

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97. Cadherin is involved in cell to cell interaction.

Explanation

Cadherin is a type of protein that is found on the surface of cells and plays a crucial role in cell-to-cell adhesion. It helps in binding cells together and maintaining the integrity of tissues and organs. By forming strong connections between adjacent cells, cadherin ensures proper cell communication and coordination. Therefore, it is correct to say that cadherin is involved in cell-to-cell interaction.

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98. The extracellular matrix is located on the outside of eukaryotic cells.

Explanation

The extracellular matrix is a complex network of proteins and carbohydrates that surrounds and supports cells in tissues. It provides structural support, regulates cell behavior, and helps with cell signaling. It is indeed located on the outside of eukaryotic cells, forming a protective layer between cells and their environment. This matrix plays a crucial role in maintaining tissue integrity and function.

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99. The cytoskeleton is always present in eukaryotic cells.

Explanation

The cytoskeleton is a network of protein filaments that provides structural support and helps with cell movement and division. It is a fundamental component of eukaryotic cells and is found in all eukaryotic organisms. Therefore, it can be concluded that the cytoskeleton is always present in eukaryotic cells.

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100. DNA denaturation is the joining of DNA strands.

Explanation

DNA denaturation is the process of separating the two strands of DNA, not joining them. Denaturation can occur through various methods such as heating or exposure to chemicals, which disrupt the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together. This results in the separation of the strands, allowing for processes like DNA replication or transcription to occur. Therefore, the statement that DNA denaturation is the joining of DNA strands is incorrect.

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101. 90% of DNA is unique genes.

Explanation

The statement "90% of DNA is unique genes" is incorrect. DNA is made up of both coding and non-coding regions. Only a small portion of DNA consists of genes, which are the segments that code for proteins. The majority of DNA is made up of non-coding regions that have regulatory functions or are considered "junk" DNA. Therefore, the correct answer is No.

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102. Teratocarcinomas are embyonal carcinomas that appear along the migration pathway of germinal cells.

Explanation

Teratocarcinomas are indeed embryonal carcinomas that develop along the migration pathway of germinal cells. This type of cancer typically arises from pluripotent cells and can contain a variety of tissue types, including elements from all three germ layers. Therefore, the statement "Teratocarcinomas are embryonal carcinomas that appear along the migration pathway of germinal cells" is correct.

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103. Therapy against tumour growth is more specifically directed against cancer stem cells.

Explanation

The statement suggests that therapy against tumor growth is specifically targeted at cancer stem cells. This implies that there are specific treatments or interventions that are designed to inhibit or destroy cancer stem cells, which are believed to be responsible for tumor initiation, growth, and resistance to treatment. Therefore, the answer "Yes" indicates agreement with the statement that therapy against tumor growth is more specifically directed against cancer stem cells.

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104. Eukaryotic cilia and flagella consist of a "9+2" arrangement of microtubules connected by Dynein.

Explanation

Eukaryotic cilia and flagella are indeed composed of a "9+2" arrangement of microtubules connected by Dynein. This arrangement refers to the structure of the core of cilia and flagella, where nine pairs of microtubules surround a central pair of microtubules. Dynein is a motor protein that helps in the movement of cilia and flagella by sliding the microtubules past each other. Therefore, the given answer "Yes" is correct.

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105. Bacterial cells contain a peptidoglycan cell wall.

Explanation

Bacterial cells contain a peptidoglycan cell wall, which provides structural support and protection to the cell. This cell wall is unique to bacteria and is composed of a mesh-like network of peptidoglycan molecules. It helps maintain the shape of the cell and prevents it from bursting under osmotic pressure. Additionally, the peptidoglycan cell wall acts as a barrier against harmful substances and helps bacteria evade the host immune system. Therefore, the statement "Bacterial cells contain a peptidoglycan cell wall" is correct.

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106. Chromatids separate during Anaphase of mitosis and Anaphase 2 of meiosis.

Explanation

During Anaphase of mitosis, the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. Similarly, during Anaphase 2 of meiosis, the sister chromatids also separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell, resulting in the formation of haploid daughter cells. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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107. Cyclin D levels are controlled by extracellular mitogenic signals.

Explanation

Extracellular mitogenic signals regulate the levels of Cyclin D, which is a protein involved in cell cycle progression. These signals stimulate the production of Cyclin D, leading to its increased levels. Therefore, it can be concluded that Cyclin D levels are indeed controlled by extracellular mitogenic signals.

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108. An undifferentiated cancer is more malignant than a cancer of that type which is well differentiated.

Explanation

An undifferentiated cancer refers to a type of cancer where the cells do not resemble the normal cells of the tissue they originated from. This lack of differentiation indicates a higher degree of malignancy, as the cancer cells have lost their specialized functions and can grow and spread more aggressively. In contrast, a well-differentiated cancer retains some resemblance to the normal cells and is typically less aggressive. Therefore, it is correct to say that an undifferentiated cancer is more malignant than a well-differentiated cancer of the same type.

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109. Okazaki fragments are short molecules of single-stranded DNA that are formed during DNA replication.

Explanation

Okazaki fragments are indeed short molecules of single-stranded DNA that are formed during DNA replication. They are created on the lagging strand of the DNA template and are synthesized in the opposite direction to the replication fork. These fragments are later joined together by DNA ligase to form a continuous strand of DNA. This process allows for efficient and accurate replication of the entire DNA molecule.

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110. Programmed Cell Death is a serious disease.

Explanation

The statement "Programmed Cell Death is a serious disease" is incorrect. Programmed cell death, also known as apoptosis, is a natural process that occurs in the body to eliminate unwanted or damaged cells. It is a crucial mechanism for maintaining tissue homeostasis and preventing the development of diseases such as cancer. Therefore, programmed cell death is not a disease itself, but rather a normal physiological process.

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111. Gastrulation occurs along the embryonic axis and is followed by differentiation.

Explanation

During gastrulation, the cells in the embryo rearrange themselves to form three layers: the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. This process is crucial for the subsequent differentiation of these layers into different tissues and organs in the developing embryo. Therefore, gastrulation is indeed followed by differentiation.

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112. Patau Syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 13. 

Explanation

Patau Syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 13. This condition is also known as trisomy 13. Trisomy refers to the presence of an extra chromosome in a person's cells. In the case of Patau Syndrome, the extra chromosome 13 disrupts normal development and leads to various physical and intellectual disabilities. Therefore, the statement "Patau Syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 13" is correct.

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113. Freeze fracturing is a method used to look at membranes that reveal the pattern of integral proteins. 

Explanation

Freeze fracturing is a technique that involves freezing a sample and then fracturing it to reveal the internal structures. This method is commonly used to study cell membranes and their integral proteins. By freezing and fracturing the sample, the membrane is split along its lipid bilayer, exposing the proteins embedded within it. This allows researchers to examine the arrangement and distribution of integral proteins in the membrane, providing valuable insights into its structure and function. Therefore, the statement that freeze fracturing is a method used to look at membranes and reveal the pattern of integral proteins is correct.

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114. The primary structure of proteins is related to the sequence of nucleotides. 

Explanation

The primary structure of proteins is determined by the sequence of amino acids, not nucleotides. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA, which carry genetic information. Proteins, on the other hand, are composed of chains of amino acids that fold into specific shapes to perform various functions in the body. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.

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115. Proteins are modified at the golgi apparatus. 

Explanation

Proteins are indeed modified at the Golgi apparatus. The Golgi apparatus is a cellular organelle responsible for processing, modifying, and sorting proteins and lipids that are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum. It receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum and modifies them by adding or removing certain molecules, such as carbohydrates or phosphate groups. These modifications are crucial for the proper functioning and targeting of proteins within the cell or for secretion outside of the cell. Therefore, the statement "Proteins are modified at the Golgi apparatus" is correct.

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116. A patient with trisomy 18 suffers from Edwards disease.

Explanation

A patient with trisomy 18 suffers from Edwards disease. Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 18. This condition leads to various physical and developmental abnormalities, including heart defects, kidney malformations, and intellectual disabilities. Therefore, it is correct to say that a patient with trisomy 18 suffers from Edwards disease.

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117. The cellular responses to inductive signals of growth factors depends on competence and community effect.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that cellular responses to inductive signals of growth factors indeed depend on competence and community effect. Competence refers to the ability of cells to respond to specific signals, while community effect refers to the influence of neighboring cells on cellular responses. Therefore, if cells are competent and there is a supportive community effect, they will respond to inductive signals of growth factors.

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118. Nuclear transfer is a form of cloning which involves removes DNA from an oocyte, and injecting the nucleus which contains the DNA to be cloned.

Explanation

Nuclear transfer is indeed a form of cloning that involves the removal of DNA from an oocyte and then injecting the nucleus, which contains the DNA to be cloned. This process allows for the creation of genetically identical organisms. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct.

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119. Oocyte growth takes place in the ovary.

Explanation

Oocyte growth is a process that occurs in the ovary. The ovary is the reproductive organ in females where oocytes, or immature eggs, develop and mature. Therefore, it is correct to say that oocyte growth takes place in the ovary.

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120. At the Metaphase check point, chromosomes must be joined to mitotic spindles to advance to Anaphase. 

Explanation

At the metaphase checkpoint, chromosomes must be properly attached to the mitotic spindles in order to ensure accurate segregation during cell division. This checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are aligned at the center of the cell and attached to the spindles before proceeding to anaphase. If the chromosomes are not properly attached, the checkpoint will halt the cell cycle progression until the attachments are corrected. Therefore, the statement "At the Metaphase check point, chromosomes must be joined to mitotic spindles to advance to Anaphase" is correct.

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121. The nucleus is composed of proteins and nuclear acids. 

Explanation

The nucleus is composed of proteins and nuclear acids. This statement is correct because the nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells that contains the cell's genetic material. It is composed of proteins, such as histones, which help organize and package the DNA, and nuclear acids, specifically DNA and RNA, which carry and transcribe the genetic information.

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122. Ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and skin. 

Explanation

The ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers in embryonic development. It gives rise to various structures including the nervous system and the skin. The nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves, originates from the ectoderm. Additionally, the ectoderm also gives rise to the epidermis, which is the outermost layer of the skin. Therefore, it is correct to say that the ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and skin.

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123. Transcription can be disturbed by DNA methylation.

Explanation

DNA methylation is a process where methyl groups are added to the DNA molecule, which can affect gene expression. Methylation can silence genes by blocking the transcription process, preventing the production of RNA from the DNA template. Therefore, DNA methylation can indeed disturb transcription, making the answer "Yes" correct.

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124. DNA denaturation is the process by which double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid unwinds and separates into single-stranded strands.

Explanation

DNA denaturation is indeed the process of unwinding and separating the double-stranded DNA into single-stranded strands.

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125. Patient karyotypes are written in an idiogram.

Explanation

Karyotypes are indeed written in an idiogram. An idiogram is a diagrammatic representation of the chromosomes of an organism, showing their number, size, and banding pattern. It allows for the visualization and analysis of chromosomal abnormalities and can be used to diagnose genetic disorders. Therefore, the statement is correct.

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126. Both cancer cells and stem cells have extensive proliferative abilities, self renewal capability and the ability of invasion.

Explanation

Both cancer cells and stem cells have extensive proliferative abilities, self-renewal capability, and the ability to invade surrounding tissues. Cancer cells are characterized by uncontrolled growth and division, similar to the self-renewal ability of stem cells. Additionally, cancer cells can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body, a process known as metastasis. Stem cells also possess the ability to invade and migrate to different tissues during development and tissue repair. Therefore, it is correct to say that both cancer cells and stem cells share these characteristics.

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127. The PDB archive contains information about experimentally-determined structures of proteins, nucleic acids, and complex assemblies.

Explanation

The PDB archive is a database that stores information about experimentally-determined structures of proteins, nucleic acids, and complex assemblies. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes" because the statement accurately describes the contents of the PDB archive.

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128. Lysosomes destroy any foreign body and unwanted cell organelles within a cell. 

Explanation

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes. They play a crucial role in the breakdown and recycling of cellular waste materials, foreign substances, and worn-out organelles. This process, known as autophagy, helps maintain the overall health and function of the cell. Therefore, lysosomes do indeed destroy any foreign body and unwanted cell organelles within a cell.

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129. The control of restriction point transition by mitogens is mediated by  Rb phosphorylation.  

Explanation

The control of restriction point transition by mitogens is mediated by Rb phosphorylation. This means that when mitogens are present, they cause the phosphorylation of the Rb protein, which in turn allows the cell to progress through the restriction point and continue with the cell cycle. Therefore, the statement "Yes" is the correct answer as it accurately reflects this relationship between mitogens, Rb phosphorylation, and the control of the restriction point transition.

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130. Growth factors are responsible for controlling the migration and survival function of cells.  

Explanation

Growth factors are signaling molecules that regulate cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation. They play a crucial role in controlling the migration and survival function of cells. By binding to specific receptors on the cell surface, growth factors activate various signaling pathways that ultimately determine the fate and behavior of cells. Therefore, it is correct to say that growth factors are responsible for controlling the migration and survival function of cells.

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131. Progenitor cell self-renewal must be activated at the first step.

Explanation

The statement suggests that the activation of progenitor cell self-renewal is necessary at the first step. Since the answer is "Yes," it implies that the activation of progenitor cell self-renewal is indeed required at the initial stage.

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132. Almost all programmed cell death occurs by necrosis. 

Explanation

This statement is incorrect because programmed cell death primarily occurs through apoptosis, not necrosis. Apoptosis is a controlled process that allows cells to self-destruct in a programmed manner, while necrosis is an uncontrolled cell death caused by external factors such as injury or infection. Therefore, the correct answer is No.

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133. In apoptosis, there is replication of chromosomes.

Explanation

Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process that occurs in multicellular organisms. During apoptosis, there is no replication of chromosomes. Instead, the cell undergoes controlled self-destruction, leading to the dismantling of cellular components. This process is essential for maintaining proper tissue development, eliminating damaged or infected cells, and preventing the formation of tumors. Therefore, the statement that there is replication of chromosomes in apoptosis is incorrect.

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134. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease.

Explanation

Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease, meaning that both copies of the gene responsible for the condition must be mutated in order for an individual to have the disease. In other words, an affected person must inherit one mutated gene from each parent. This mode of inheritance is characteristic of autosomal recessive disorders.

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135. Mendel's research was conducted on Pisum Satvium.

Explanation

Mendel's research was indeed conducted on Pisum Sativum, which is commonly known as the garden pea. This plant species was chosen by Mendel for his experiments on inheritance because it possesses several easily observable traits that can be easily manipulated and controlled for breeding purposes. Mendel's groundbreaking work with Pisum Sativum laid the foundation for the modern understanding of genetics and inheritance.

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136. The human geonome contains aproximately 25 000 coding proteins.

Explanation

The statement is true. The human genome is estimated to contain approximately 25,000 coding proteins. These proteins are responsible for various functions in the human body and play a crucial role in maintaining cellular processes and overall health.

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137. Chromatin contains DNA, non-histones and histone proteins.

Explanation

Chromatin is a complex of DNA and proteins that make up the genetic material within the nucleus of a cell. It consists of DNA, as well as non-histone proteins and histone proteins. Histones are proteins that help in organizing and packaging DNA, while non-histone proteins have various functions such as gene regulation and DNA repair. Therefore, the statement that chromatin contains DNA, non-histones, and histone proteins is correct.

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138. Mitochondia are localized in the close proximity of actin-myosin complexes in myofibrils.

Explanation

Mitochondria are known to be localized in the close proximity of actin-myosin complexes in myofibrils. This positioning allows for efficient energy production and distribution to the muscles during contraction. The close proximity ensures that ATP, the energy currency of the cell, is readily available for the actin-myosin complexes to perform their contractile function. Therefore, the statement "Mitochondria are localized in the close proximity of actin-myosin complexes in myofibrils" is correct.

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139. The purpose of Mitosis is to reduce the number of chromosomes. 

Explanation

Mitosis is a process of cell division in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The purpose of mitosis is not to reduce the number of chromosomes, but rather to ensure that each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes as the parent cell. This allows for growth, repair, and replacement of cells in the body. Therefore, the statement that the purpose of mitosis is to reduce the number of chromosomes is incorrect.

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140. Progenitor cells have many properties of embryonic stem cells. 

Explanation

Progenitor cells are a type of stem cell that have the ability to differentiate into specific types of cells in the body. They are similar to embryonic stem cells in that they have the potential to develop into various cell types. This similarity is due to the fact that progenitor cells retain many properties of embryonic stem cells, such as self-renewal and the ability to differentiate into multiple cell lineages. Therefore, it is correct to say that progenitor cells have many properties of embryonic stem cells.

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141. A tonoplast is the cytoplasmic membrane surrounding the vacuole. 

Explanation

The tonoplast is the cytoplasmic membrane that surrounds the vacuole in plant cells. It separates the vacuolar contents from the cytoplasm and regulates the movement of molecules in and out of the vacuole. This membrane is essential for maintaining the integrity and function of the vacuole, which is involved in various cellular processes such as storage, waste management, and maintaining cell turgor pressure. Therefore, the statement that a tonoplast is the cytoplasmic membrane surrounding the vacuole is correct.

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142. Myf-5 regulates muscle differentiation.

Explanation

The statement "Myf-5 regulates muscle differentiation" is true. Myf-5 is a transcription factor that plays a crucial role in the development and differentiation of muscle cells. It is involved in the activation of genes that promote muscle cell formation and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes" as it confirms the given statement.

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143. Endonucleases cleave phosphodiester bonds at the ends of polynucleotide chains. 

Explanation

Endonucleases are enzymes that cleave phosphodiester bonds within a polynucleotide chain. This means they can cut the chain at any point, not just at the ends. Therefore, the statement that endonucleases cleave phosphodiester bonds at the ends of polynucleotide chains is incorrect.

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144. PARP is the protein involved in a number of cellular process including mainly DNA repair and programmed cell death.

Explanation

The given statement is true because PARP, which stands for poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase, is indeed a protein that plays a crucial role in various cellular processes. It is primarily involved in DNA repair, where it helps in detecting and repairing damaged DNA strands. Additionally, PARP is also involved in programmed cell death, a process known as apoptosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes."

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145. The human geonome contains aproximately 25 000 coding proteins.

Explanation

The human genome contains approximately 25,000 coding proteins. This means that within our DNA, there are around 25,000 genes that provide instructions for building proteins, which are essential for various biological processes in the human body. These proteins play crucial roles in functions such as cell structure, metabolism, immune response, and many others. The number of coding proteins in the human genome is well-established through scientific research and analysis of the human DNA sequence.

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146. PCR denaturation usually occurs at 30 degrees celcius. 

Explanation

PCR denaturation does not usually occur at 30 degrees Celsius. Denaturation in PCR typically occurs at a higher temperature, usually around 94-98 degrees Celsius. This high temperature is necessary to separate the DNA strands and allow for the amplification process to occur. Therefore, the statement that denaturation occurs at 30 degrees Celsius is incorrect.

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147. Kleinfelters Syndrome is defined as trisomy of chromosome 4. 

Explanation

The given statement is incorrect. Kleinfelter's syndrome is not defined as trisomy of chromosome 4. Kleinfelter's syndrome is actually a genetic disorder in males where they have an extra X chromosome, resulting in XXY instead of the usual XY. This condition can cause various physical and developmental differences in affected individuals.

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148. 90% of DNA is unique genes.

Explanation

The statement "90% of DNA is unique genes" is incorrect. DNA is composed of both genes and non-coding regions. Only a small portion of DNA consists of genes, which are responsible for encoding proteins and determining traits. The majority of DNA is made up of non-coding regions, which have various functions such as regulating gene expression and maintaining the structure of chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is "No."

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149. Actin and myosin are not involved in contractile movement. 

Explanation

The statement is incorrect because actin and myosin are actually involved in contractile movement. Actin and myosin are proteins that interact with each other to generate the force required for muscle contraction. This interaction allows for the sliding of actin filaments over myosin filaments, resulting in muscle contraction and movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "No".

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150. 0.9% of NaCl is an isotonic solution for erythrocytes

Explanation

A 0.9% NaCl solution is commonly used as a physiological saline solution because it has the same osmolarity as human blood. This means that it has the same concentration of solutes as the cells in our body, including erythrocytes (red blood cells). When erythrocytes are placed in an isotonic solution, there is no net movement of water in or out of the cells, resulting in the cells maintaining their normal shape and function. Therefore, a 0.9% NaCl solution is indeed an isotonic solution for erythrocytes.

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151. Microfilaments are filaments consisting of a double strand of globular Actin units.

Explanation

Microfilaments are indeed filaments consisting of a double strand of globular Actin units. Actin is a protein that forms the structural framework of cells and is involved in various cellular processes such as cell division, movement, and shape maintenance. These filaments are important for maintaining cell shape, providing mechanical support, and facilitating cell movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Yes."

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152. Differential centrifugation destroys the cell and allows the cell organelles to stratify according to density.

Explanation

Differential centrifugation is a technique used to separate cell components based on their size and density. By subjecting the cells to high-speed centrifugation, the force causes the cells to break open, releasing their organelles. The centrifugal force then causes the organelles to move to different layers or bands within the tube, based on their density. This allows for the isolation and purification of specific organelles for further study or analysis. Therefore, the statement that differential centrifugation destroys the cell and allows the cell organelles to stratify according to density is correct.

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153. Growth factors are proteins which have low biological activity.  

Explanation

Growth factors are actually proteins that have high biological activity. They play a crucial role in stimulating cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation. These proteins are involved in various physiological processes such as embryonic development, tissue repair, and immune response. Their low concentration is sufficient to trigger cellular responses, indicating their high potency and activity.

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154. Inhibition of phosphorylation of kinase domains of FGFRs by synthetic inhibitor SU5402 leads to rapid differentiation.

Explanation

The given statement suggests that when the phosphorylation of kinase domains of FGFRs is inhibited by the synthetic inhibitor SU5402, it results in rapid differentiation. This implies that the inhibitor has the ability to prevent the phosphorylation process, which is necessary for the normal functioning of FGFRs. As a result, the inhibition leads to a change in the cellular state, causing rapid differentiation.

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155. Holiday junction is a mobile junction between four strands of DNA. 

Explanation

The statement is correct. A holiday junction is a structure that forms during genetic recombination or DNA repair when two double-stranded DNA molecules exchange genetic information. It consists of four strands of DNA that are temporarily connected at the junction point. Therefore, it can be described as a mobile junction between four strands of DNA.

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156. In cancer, expression of P16 and P21 is often lost. 

Explanation

In cancer, the loss of expression of P16 and P21 is a common occurrence. P16 is a tumor suppressor gene that regulates the cell cycle and prevents abnormal cell growth. P21 is also a tumor suppressor gene that inhibits cell division and promotes cell cycle arrest. When these genes are lost or their expression is reduced, it can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Therefore, the statement that the expression of P16 and P21 is often lost in cancer is correct.

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157. Minimal amplification of N-myc gene leads to a better prognosis. 

Explanation

Minimal amplification of the N-myc gene is associated with a better prognosis. This means that when there is only a small increase in the number of copies of the N-myc gene, it is generally more favorable for the patient's outcome. This could be because minimal amplification may still allow for some normal regulation of the gene's expression, while higher levels of amplification may lead to overexpression and dysregulation of N-myc, which can promote tumor growth and aggressiveness. Therefore, the statement "Minimal amplification of N-myc gene leads to a better prognosis" is correct.

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158. Raus Sarcoma typically affects connective tissue. 

Explanation

Raus Sarcoma typically affects connective tissue. This means that the disease primarily targets the cells and structures that provide support and structure to the body, such as tendons, ligaments, and cartilage. Connective tissue is found throughout the body, so Raus Sarcoma can potentially affect various organs and systems.

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159. Sarcoma is derived from connective tissues. 

Explanation

Sarcoma is a type of cancer that originates from connective tissues. Connective tissues provide support and structure to the body, and they include bones, muscles, cartilage, tendons, and blood vessels. Sarcoma can develop in any of these tissues and is characterized by the abnormal growth of cells in these tissues. Therefore, the statement "Sarcoma is derived from connective tissues" is correct.

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160. Ribozymes are catalytic RNA that catalyse the cleavage of RNA molecules. 

Explanation

Ribozymes are RNA molecules that have the ability to catalyze chemical reactions, specifically the cleavage of RNA molecules. This means that they can break down RNA molecules into smaller fragments. Therefore, it is correct to say that ribozymes catalyze the cleavage of RNA molecules.

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161. Genetic material is replicated furing the S phase of meiosis. 

Explanation

During the S phase of meiosis, genetic material is indeed replicated. This is an important step in the process of meiosis, as it ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. Replication occurs during the interphase of meiosis, specifically during the S phase, where DNA synthesis takes place. This allows for the formation of identical sister chromatids, which are later separated during the subsequent stages of meiosis. Therefore, the statement "Genetic material is replicated during the S phase of meiosis" is correct.

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162. Vacuoles in plants and animal cells are different. 

Explanation

Vacuoles in plants and animal cells are indeed different. In plant cells, vacuoles are large, central, and occupy a major portion of the cell. They store water, nutrients, and waste products, provide turgidity to the cell, and help maintain cell shape. Animal cells, on the other hand, have smaller and multiple vacuoles that are scattered throughout the cytoplasm. These vacuoles are involved in storing and transporting substances, but they are not as prominent or essential to the cell as in plant cells.

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163. Human eye resolution is 0.2mm. 

Explanation

The statement "Human eye resolution is 0.2mm" is true. Resolution refers to the ability of the eye to distinguish between two separate points or objects. In this case, it means that the human eye can differentiate between two points that are at least 0.2mm apart. This measurement is commonly used to determine the level of detail that the human eye can perceive.

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164. In a hypotonic solution, water passes into the cell. 

Explanation

In a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solutes outside the cell is lower than inside the cell. As a result, water moves from an area of higher concentration (outside the cell) to an area of lower concentration (inside the cell) through osmosis. This causes water to pass into the cell, leading to cell swelling or even bursting in extreme cases. Therefore, the answer "Yes" is correct.

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165. The electron transport chain is located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

Explanation

The electron transport chain is located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. This is because the inner membrane of the mitochondria contains the necessary proteins and enzymes for the electron transport chain to occur. The electron transport chain is a series of reactions that takes place in the inner membrane and is responsible for generating ATP, the energy currency of the cell. The inner membrane provides a suitable environment for the electron transport chain to take place and allows for the efficient transfer of electrons and the production of ATP.

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166. Deoxynucleoside triphosphates are the building blocks from which the DNA polymerases synthesize a new DNA strand.

Explanation

Deoxynucleoside triphosphates are indeed the building blocks used by DNA polymerases to synthesize a new DNA strand. These molecules provide the necessary nucleotides, which are then added one by one to the growing DNA chain during replication. Therefore, the statement "Deoxynucleoside triphosphates are the building blocks from which the DNA polymerases synthesize a new DNA strand" is correct.

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167. OMIM is a website for genetic disorders. 

Explanation

OMIM (Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man) is indeed a website that provides information about genetic disorders. It is a comprehensive database that catalogs and organizes information about various genetic conditions and their associated genes. Users can access detailed summaries, clinical descriptions, genetic and molecular information, and references to relevant scientific literature. The website serves as a valuable resource for researchers, healthcare professionals, and individuals seeking information about genetic disorders and their inheritance patterns.

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168. Ubiquitin proteosome pathway takes place in the nucleus and cytoplasm. 

Explanation

The ubiquitin proteasome pathway is a cellular process that involves the degradation of proteins. It occurs in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm of the cell. In the nucleus, it is involved in the regulation of transcription factors and the removal of misfolded or damaged proteins. In the cytoplasm, it plays a role in the degradation of proteins involved in cell cycle regulation, signal transduction, and protein quality control. Therefore, it is correct to say that the ubiquitin proteasome pathway takes place in both the nucleus and cytoplasm.

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169. Mdm2 is a cellular inhibitory protein. 

Explanation

Mdm2 is a cellular inhibitory protein, meaning it has the ability to inhibit or suppress certain cellular processes. This suggests that the statement "Mdm2 is a cellular inhibitory protein" is correct.

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170. In a hypertonic solution, water passes out of the cell. 

Explanation

In a hypertonic solution, the concentration of solutes outside the cell is higher than inside the cell. As a result, water molecules move out of the cell through osmosis, causing the cell to shrink or become dehydrated. Therefore, the statement "In a hypertonic solution, water passes out of the cell" is correct.

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171. The genome of the RSV (Raus Sarcoma Virus) and the genome of the ALV (Avian Leukosis Virus) are closely related. 

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer "Yes" is that both RSV (Raus Sarcoma Virus) and ALV (Avian Leukosis Virus) belong to the same family of viruses called Retroviridae. They are both RNA viruses that replicate their genetic material using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This close relationship between their genomes suggests a common evolutionary origin and similarities in their genetic makeup.

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172. Stem cells have no potential for tumorigenesis. 

Explanation

The statement "Stem cells have no potential for tumorigenesis" is incorrect. Stem cells have the potential to develop into different types of cells in the body, and under certain conditions, they can become cancerous and lead to the formation of tumors. This process is known as tumorigenesis. Therefore, the correct answer is "No."

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173. The more differentiated a tumour is, the less malignant it is.

Explanation

The more differentiated a tumor is, the less malignant it is because differentiation refers to how closely the tumor cells resemble normal cells. When a tumor is well-differentiated, it means that the cells closely resemble normal cells and are organized in a similar way. This indicates that the tumor is less aggressive and less likely to spread to other parts of the body. On the other hand, poorly differentiated tumors have cells that do not resemble normal cells and are disorganized, indicating a higher degree of malignancy and a greater likelihood of metastasis.

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174. Fruit flies are an important genetic specimen

Explanation

Fruit flies are commonly used in genetic research due to their short lifespan, ability to reproduce quickly, and their genetic similarities to humans. They have a relatively simple genome, making it easier for scientists to study and understand the effects of specific genes. Fruit flies have contributed to significant discoveries in genetics, including the understanding of inheritance patterns, the identification of key genes involved in development and disease, and the study of genetic mutations. Therefore, fruit flies are indeed an important genetic specimen.

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175. In animal cells, microtubules grow out from the centrosome, an organizing center next to the nucleus.

Explanation

Microtubules are protein structures that play a crucial role in cell division, cell shape, and intracellular transport. They are formed from tubulin proteins and originate from the centrosome, which is a small region near the nucleus in animal cells. The centrosome acts as an organizing center for microtubule growth and helps in the assembly and organization of the cytoskeleton. Therefore, the statement that microtubules grow out from the centrosome in animal cells is correct.

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176. Meiotic maturation is driven by MPF, CDK1 and Cyclin B.

Explanation

Meiotic maturation is indeed driven by MPF (Maturation Promoting Factor), which is a complex of Cyclin B and CDK1 (Cyclin-Dependent Kinase 1). MPF regulates the progression of the cell cycle from G2 phase to metaphase of meiosis I and from metaphase of meiosis II to the completion of meiosis. Therefore, the statement "Meiotic maturation is driven by MPF, CDK1, and Cyclin B" is correct.

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177. In cancer, expression of P16 and P21 is often lost. 

Explanation

In cancer, the loss of expression of P16 and P21 is a common occurrence. P16 is a tumor suppressor gene that regulates the cell cycle and inhibits the growth of cancer cells. P21 is also a tumor suppressor gene that controls cell proliferation and prevents the formation of tumors. Therefore, the loss of expression of these genes in cancer can contribute to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of tumors.

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178. As cells pass through the M/G1 phase, Rb is dephosphorylated. 

Explanation

During the M/G1 phase, Rb (Retinoblastoma protein) is dephosphorylated, which means that phosphate groups are removed from it. This dephosphorylation of Rb allows it to bind to and inhibit the activity of transcription factors, preventing the cell from progressing into the S phase and ensuring proper cell cycle regulation. Therefore, the statement "As cells pass through the M/G1 phase, Rb is dephosphorylated" is correct.

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179. The outer mitochondrial membrane contains numerous integral proteins called porins. 

Explanation

The outer mitochondrial membrane is known to contain porins, which are integral proteins. These porins act as channels, allowing the passage of various molecules, including ions and small proteins, across the membrane. Therefore, it is correct to say that the outer mitochondrial membrane contains numerous integral proteins called porins.

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180. Embryonic genome codes for proteins. 

Explanation

The statement "Embryonic genome codes for proteins" is true because during embryonic development, the genome of the embryo contains all the necessary genetic information to produce proteins. This is essential for the growth and development of the embryo, as proteins are involved in various cellular processes and functions. Therefore, it can be concluded that the embryonic genome does code for proteins.

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181. FGFs function as morphogens.

Explanation

FGFs, or fibroblast growth factors, are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in embryonic development and tissue repair. As morphogens, they can act as long-range signaling molecules, regulating cell fate and tissue patterning during development. This means that FGFs can diffuse through tissues, creating concentration gradients that provide positional information to cells, determining their fate and function. Therefore, FGFs function as morphogens by controlling cell differentiation and tissue organization in a concentration-dependent manner.

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182. Metal shadowing is useful for viewing viruses.

Explanation

Metal shadowing is a technique used in electron microscopy to enhance the visibility of viruses. In this technique, a thin layer of metal, typically platinum or gold, is deposited onto the sample, creating a shadow effect. This shadowing increases the contrast of the virus particles, making them easier to visualize and study under the microscope. Therefore, metal shadowing is indeed useful for viewing viruses.

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183. The amound of DNA is decreased in the S phase of mitosis.

Explanation

The statement in the question is incorrect. The amount of DNA is not decreased in the S phase of mitosis. In fact, the S phase is the phase of the cell cycle where DNA replication occurs, resulting in the duplication of the cell's genetic material. Therefore, the correct answer is "No."

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184. Southern blotting can be used to detect DNA polymorphisms. 

Explanation

Southern blotting is a technique used to detect specific DNA sequences. It involves digesting DNA samples with restriction enzymes, separating the fragments using gel electrophoresis, transferring the fragments onto a membrane, and then hybridizing the membrane with a labeled DNA probe. This technique is commonly used to detect DNA polymorphisms, which are variations in the DNA sequence between individuals. Therefore, the statement "Southern blotting can be used to detect DNA polymorphisms" is correct.

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185. Turner's Syndrome can be defined as 45, XO.

Explanation

Turner's Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It is characterized by the absence or partial absence of one of the X chromosomes, resulting in a karyotype of 45, XO. This means that instead of the normal 46 chromosomes, individuals with Turner's Syndrome have only 45 chromosomes, with a single X chromosome and no second sex chromosome. Therefore, the statement "Turner's Syndrome can be defined as 45, XO" is correct.

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186. CDC25 activates phosphatase.

Explanation

CDC25 is a protein that plays a crucial role in cell cycle progression. It acts as a phosphatase, removing inhibitory phosphate groups from cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and thereby activating them. This activation of CDKs is essential for the cell to progress through the cell cycle. Therefore, the statement "CDC25 activates phosphatase" is correct.

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187. A prion is a protein in a misfolded form.

Explanation

A prion is indeed a protein in a misfolded form. Prions are abnormal proteins that can cause other proteins to misfold and become infectious. This misfolding leads to the accumulation of these abnormal proteins in the brain, causing various neurodegenerative diseases, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and mad cow disease. The misfolded prion proteins can disrupt normal cellular processes and lead to the death of brain cells. Therefore, the statement "A prion is a protein in a misfolded form" is correct.

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188. Adenosarcomas are derived from secretory epithelia. 

Explanation

Adenosarcomas are a type of tumor that typically arise from secretory epithelia. Secretory epithelia are a type of tissue that produce and secrete substances, such as hormones or mucus. Adenosarcomas are characterized by the presence of both glandular (epithelial) and sarcomatous (connective tissue) components. This combination of features suggests that adenosarcomas originate from secretory epithelia. Therefore, the statement "Adenosarcomas are derived from secretory epithelia" is correct.

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189. P53 function is normal in cancer cells.

Explanation

The statement "P53 function is normal in cancer cells" is incorrect. P53 is a tumor suppressor protein that plays a crucial role in preventing the formation and growth of cancer cells. When P53 function is normal, it helps to regulate cell division and repair damaged DNA. However, in cancer cells, the P53 gene is often mutated or inactive, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and tumor formation. Therefore, the correct answer is "No."

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190. The nucleus manufactures ribosomes.

Explanation

The statement "The nucleus manufactures ribosomes" is true. Ribosomes are small organelles responsible for protein synthesis in cells. They are made up of RNA and proteins. The nucleus, which is the control center of the cell, contains the genetic material (DNA) needed to produce ribosomes. This genetic information is transcribed into RNA molecules, which then exit the nucleus and combine with proteins to form ribosomes in the cytoplasm. Therefore, the nucleus plays a crucial role in the manufacturing of ribosomes.

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191. OMIM online database can be used to find the genotype from a phenotype. 

Explanation

OMIM (Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man) is a comprehensive database that provides information on the relationships between phenotype and genotype. It contains detailed information about various genetic disorders and their associated phenotypes. By searching the database, researchers and clinicians can find information about specific phenotypes and the corresponding genotypes. Therefore, OMIM online database can be used to find the genotype from a phenotype.

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192. Haemophillia A is autosomal dominant. 

Explanation

Haemophilia A is not autosomal dominant. It is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning that the gene mutation responsible for haemophilia A is located on the X chromosome. Males are more commonly affected by haemophilia A because they have only one X chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes and can be carriers of the gene mutation without showing symptoms. Autosomal dominant disorders are caused by gene mutations on non-sex chromosomes and can be inherited from either parent.

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193. Glyceraldehyde is used for fixation in microscopes. 

Explanation

Glyceraldehyde is a chemical compound that is commonly used as a fixative in microscopy. Fixation is the process of preserving biological specimens by preventing decay or degradation. In microscopy, it is essential to fix specimens to maintain their structural integrity and prevent any changes that may occur during the imaging process. Glyceraldehyde acts as a fixative by cross-linking the proteins and other biomolecules in the specimen, stabilizing them and preventing any further changes. Therefore, it is correct to say that glyceraldehyde is used for fixation in microscopes.

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194. Stem cells are present in all tissues as a resource for self-renewal of tissues and organs. 

Explanation

Stem cells are indeed present in all tissues and serve as a reservoir for the renewal and repair of tissues and organs. They have the ability to divide and differentiate into various specialized cell types, which allows them to replenish damaged or old cells and maintain the overall health and function of the body.

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195. PML bodies are nuclear dots which are resistant to nuclease digestion. 

Explanation

PML bodies are nuclear dots that are resistant to nuclease digestion. This means that they are not broken down by enzymes called nucleases, which typically break down nucleic acids. The fact that PML bodies are resistant to nuclease digestion suggests that they have a unique structure or composition that protects them from being degraded. Therefore, the statement "PML bodies are nuclear dots which are resistant to nuclease digestion" is true.

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196. Transmission Electron Microscope resolution is 0.2nm. 

Explanation

The statement "Transmission Electron Microscope resolution is 0.2nm" is true. The resolution of a microscope refers to its ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. In the case of a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM), it can resolve details up to 0.2 nanometers in size. This means that the TEM is capable of providing high-resolution images with a high level of detail and clarity.

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197. Tonoplasts regulate the movement of ions around a cell, isolating materials that may be harmful. 

Explanation

Tonoplasts are a type of membrane found in plant cells that surrounds the vacuole. They play a crucial role in regulating the movement of ions, such as potassium and calcium, across the cell membrane. This regulation helps maintain the balance of ions within the cell and prevents the entry of harmful materials. Therefore, it can be inferred that tonoplasts do indeed regulate the movement of ions around a cell and isolate potentially harmful materials.

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198. Transcription ends downstream from the end codon. 

Explanation

The given statement is true. Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. It starts at the promoter region and ends at the termination site. The termination site is located downstream from the end codon, which is the codon that signals the end of protein synthesis. Therefore, transcription ends downstream from the end codon.

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199. 95% of DNA is composed of unique genes. 

Explanation

This statement is incorrect. DNA is composed of genes, but not all of it is unique. In fact, only a small percentage of DNA is made up of genes that code for proteins. The remaining portion of DNA consists of non-coding regions, repetitive sequences, and regulatory elements. Therefore, the correct answer is "No."

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200. Anaplasia is a change of cells that allows cancerous growth by differentiation.

Explanation

Anaplasia refers to a change in the cells where they lose their specialized features and become undifferentiated. This lack of differentiation allows the cells to grow in an uncontrolled and cancerous manner. Therefore, the statement "Anaplasia is a change of cells that allows cancerous growth by differentiation" is correct.

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In eukaryotic cells, myosin interacts with Actin microfilaments to...
The function of the Golgi apparatus is to modify, sort, and package...
Protein tyrosine kinase receptors transduce signals regulating...
A kinase is a molecule with enzymatic (catalytic) activity.
Reverse Transcriptase allows the transription of viral single-stranded...
Cell cycle is driven by complexes of cyclins and cyclin dependant...
Deficiencies in meiotic recombination lead to meiotic defects. 
Cyclins are responsible for the control the progression of cells...
Proteosomes are involved in protein degredation.
The dominant allele will be expressed in a heterozygote.
Transcription is the process of creating a complementary...
Cancer stem cells can originate from progenitor cells and stem cells.
Myogenesis is the formation of muscular tissue. 
Manipulation with growth factors and their receptors is crucial...
An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. 
An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. 
A protooncogene is a normal gene that has the potential to become an...
Proteosomes degrade unwanted and damaged proteins by...
Growth of the oocytes that takes place in the ovaries during fetal...
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the...
RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.
Neurogenesis is the process by which neurons are generated from neural...
Embryonic induction is thought to be initiated by...
Embryonic induction/gastrulation is initiated by the key...
Non-dysjunction is the failure of a chromosome pair to seperate...
Down syndrome is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21. 
Gene p53 induces expression of target genes involved in apoptosis.
MPF plays a major role in controlling the cell cycle. 
Growth factors are usually proteins or steroid hormones. 
Reverse Transcriptase is used to transcript viral RNA into DNA.
Mendel's research was done on tomato plants.
Gastrulation is the development of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and...
Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) refers to...
Malignant tumours often metastasize.
Pluripotency is the ability to differentiate into many different cell...
One strategy of gene therapy is replacement of problematic gene
Mutations in human genes can cause developmental problems. 
Squamous cell carcinomas are derived from epithelia that forms...
Ionic radiation can be a cause of gene mutation.
E.Coli is Gram Negative.
Laminopathies are rare genetic disorders involving the lamin proteins...
Microtubules are tubules made of dimers...
The cytoskeleton consists of intermediate filaments, microtubules and...
Transcription takes place in the nucleus. 
In eukaryotic cells, cytokinesis occurs by use of a contractile...
Chromatids are joined at their centromere.
Chromosomes are attached to the nuclear envelope or nuclear lamina via...
The negative charge of DNA allows it to move in gel electrophoresis.
The PCR process requires the use of primers. 
Both cancer cells and stem cells have high telomerase activity.
Defficiencies in meiotic recombination lead to meiotic defects and...
Ubiquitin proteosome pathway eliminates abnormal proteins. 
Interphase consists of G1, S and G2. 
Alteration of protein primary structure leads to changes in upper...
Ames test is used to assess mutagenic potential of chemical...
HPV can cause cancer in a cell which already has a mutated p53...
All four FGFRs (Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptors) must be present...
Deamination is the removal of amine group from a molecule.
Both cancer cells and stem cells secrete growth factors and...
Both tumorous and normal tissues are composed of heterogenous...
Tumorigenic cells are probably cancer stem cells.
DNA Ligase joins together the Okazaki fragments into a continuous...
The interior of the lysosomes is acidic when compared to the slightly...
One strategy of gene therapy is replacement of problematic gene
Progenitor cell self-renewal must be activated at the first step.
Telomerase is strongly expressed in embryonic cells. 
Cancer stem cells can originate from progenitor cells and stem...
The MYF5 gene intervene in myogenesis.
Chromatin contains DNA, non-histones and histone proteins.
Drosophila melanogaster is a species commonly used in genetic and...
P53 induces apoptosis. 
Laminopathies are rare genetic disorders involving the lamina proteins...
It is necessary to target cancer stem cells for sucessfull cancer...
Spindle fibers involved in chromosome movement at mitosis are...
During transcription, a DNA sequence is read by RNA...
In eukaryotic cells, translation takes place in the cytoplasm. 
In eukaryotic cells, translation takes place in the cytoplasm. 
PCR is used to amplify and simultaneously quantify a targeted...
Carcinomas can arise from epithelial tissue. 
The cell cycle is regulated by a family of proteins. 
Polymorphism is when the frequency of a rare allele in a population is...
Telomerase activity is detectable in 85-90% of human tumour...
Hormones regulate cell differentiation. 
ALV (Avian Leukosis Virus) induces B-cell lymphomas in...
Mitochondria have their own DNA and ribosomes.
Microfilaments are filaments consisting of a double strand of globular...
In eukaryotic cells, transcription takes place in the nucleus. 
In eukaryotic cells, cytokinesis occurs by use of a contractile...
An optical microscope's resolution power is limited by the...
The synthesis of cyclin D is initiated during the G1 phase.
Single nucleotide polymorphisms are the most...
Polyploid is a term used to describe cells containing more...
Progenitor cells have many properties of embryonic stem cells. 
P53 induces the expression of genes that are involved in both the...
Cells survive a crisis by expressing "telomerase" which...
Niche cells are specific anatomic locations that regulate how stem...
Cadherin is involved in cell to cell interaction.
The extracellular matrix is located on the outside of eukaryotic...
The cytoskeleton is always present in eukaryotic cells.
DNA denaturation is the joining of DNA strands.
90% of DNA is unique genes.
Teratocarcinomas are embyonal carcinomas that appear along the...
Therapy against tumour growth is more specifically directed...
Eukaryotic cilia and flagella consist of a "9+2" arrangement...
Bacterial cells contain a peptidoglycan cell wall.
Chromatids separate during Anaphase of mitosis and Anaphase 2 of...
Cyclin D levels are controlled by extracellular mitogenic signals.
An undifferentiated cancer is more malignant than...
Okazaki fragments are short molecules of single-stranded DNA...
Programmed Cell Death is a serious disease.
Gastrulation occurs along the embryonic axis and is followed by...
Patau Syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 13. 
Freeze fracturing is a method used to look at membranes that reveal...
The primary structure of proteins is related to the sequence of...
Proteins are modified at the golgi apparatus. 
A patient with trisomy 18 suffers from Edwards disease.
The cellular responses to inductive signals of growth factors...
Nuclear transfer is a form of cloning which involves removes DNA from...
Oocyte growth takes place in the ovary.
At the Metaphase check point, chromosomes must be joined to mitotic...
The nucleus is composed of proteins and nuclear acids. 
Ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and skin. 
Transcription can be disturbed by DNA methylation.
DNA denaturation is the process by which double-stranded...
Patient karyotypes are written in an idiogram.
Both cancer cells and stem cells have extensive proliferative...
The PDB archive contains information about experimentally-determined...
Lysosomes destroy any foreign body and unwanted cell organelles within...
The control of restriction point transition by mitogens is mediated...
Growth factors are responsible for controlling the migration and...
Progenitor cell self-renewal must be activated at the first step.
Almost all programmed cell death occurs by necrosis. 
In apoptosis, there is replication of chromosomes.
Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease.
Mendel's research was conducted on Pisum Satvium.
The human geonome contains aproximately 25 000 coding proteins.
Chromatin contains DNA, non-histones and histone proteins.
Mitochondia are localized in the close proximity of actin-myosin...
The purpose of Mitosis is to reduce the number of chromosomes. 
Progenitor cells have many properties of embryonic stem cells. 
A tonoplast is the cytoplasmic membrane surrounding the vacuole. 
Myf-5 regulates muscle differentiation.
Endonucleases cleave phosphodiester bonds at the ends of...
PARP is the protein involved in a number of cellular process including...
The human geonome contains aproximately 25 000 coding proteins.
PCR denaturation usually occurs at 30 degrees celcius. 
Kleinfelters Syndrome is defined as trisomy of chromosome...
90% of DNA is unique genes.
Actin and myosin are not involved in contractile movement. 
0.9% of NaCl is an isotonic solution for erythrocytes
Microfilaments are filaments consisting of a double strand of globular...
Differential centrifugation destroys the cell and allows the cell...
Growth factors are proteins which have low biological activity....
Inhibition of phosphorylation of kinase domains of FGFRs by...
Holiday junction is a mobile junction between four strands of...
In cancer, expression of P16 and P21 is often lost. 
Minimal amplification of N-myc gene leads to a better prognosis. 
Raus Sarcoma typically affects connective tissue. 
Sarcoma is derived from connective tissues. 
Ribozymes are catalytic RNA that catalyse the cleavage of RNA...
Genetic material is replicated furing the S phase of meiosis. 
Vacuoles in plants and animal cells are different. 
Human eye resolution is 0.2mm. 
In a hypotonic solution, water passes into the cell. 
The electron transport chain is located on the inner membrane of...
Deoxynucleoside triphosphates are the building blocks from which...
OMIM is a website for genetic disorders. 
Ubiquitin proteosome pathway takes place in the nucleus and...
Mdm2 is a cellular inhibitory protein. 
In a hypertonic solution, water passes out of the cell. 
The genome of the RSV (Raus Sarcoma Virus) and the genome of the ALV...
Stem cells have no potential for tumorigenesis. 
The more differentiated a tumour is, the less malignant it is.
Fruit flies are an important genetic specimen
In animal cells, microtubules grow out from the centrosome, an...
Meiotic maturation is driven by MPF, CDK1 and Cyclin B.
In cancer, expression of P16 and P21 is often lost. 
As cells pass through the M/G1 phase, Rb is dephosphorylated. 
The outer mitochondrial membrane contains numerous integral proteins...
Embryonic genome codes for proteins. 
FGFs function as morphogens.
Metal shadowing is useful for viewing viruses.
The amound of DNA is decreased in the S phase of mitosis.
Southern blotting can be used to detect DNA polymorphisms. 
Turner's Syndrome can be defined as 45, XO.
CDC25 activates phosphatase.
A prion is a protein in a misfolded form.
Adenosarcomas are derived from secretory epithelia. 
P53 function is normal in cancer cells.
The nucleus manufactures ribosomes.
OMIM online database can be used to find the genotype from a...
Haemophillia A is autosomal dominant. 
Glyceraldehyde is used for fixation in microscopes. 
Stem cells are present in all tissues as a resource for self-renewal...
PML bodies are nuclear dots which are resistant to nuclease...
Transmission Electron Microscope resolution is 0.2nm. 
Tonoplasts regulate the movement of ions around a cell, isolating...
Transcription ends downstream from the end codon. 
95% of DNA is composed of unique genes. 
Anaplasia is a change of cells that allows cancerous growth by...
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