Biology Quizzes Exam 4

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Biology Quizzes Exam 4 - Quiz

BIO 105


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Evolution is accepted as both scientific fact and theory. The scientific fact is:

    • A. 

      that evolution has occurred and contiunes to occur.

    • B. 

      the mechanism(s) by which evolution occurs

    • C. 

      that only natural selection can explain any evolutionary change

    Correct Answer
    A. that evolution has occurred and contiunes to occur.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that evolution has occurred and continues to occur. This is accepted as a scientific fact because there is overwhelming evidence from various fields of science, including paleontology, genetics, and comparative anatomy, that supports the occurrence of evolution. Fossil records show the gradual changes in species over time, genetic studies demonstrate common ancestry and genetic variation, and observations of natural selection and adaptation in present-day populations further confirm the ongoing process of evolution. Therefore, the fact that evolution has happened and is still happening is widely accepted in the scientific community.

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  • 2. 

    For what is Jean Baptiste de Lamarck noted?

    • A. 

      The theory of evolution by means of natural selection.

    • B. 

      Naming the dinosaurs as a group.

    • C. 

      Evolution by inheritance of acquired characteristics.

    • D. 

      An early version of the Hardy-Weinberg Theorem

    Correct Answer
    C. Evolution by inheritance of acquired characteristics.
    Explanation
    Jean Baptiste de Lamarck is noted for his theory of evolution by inheritance of acquired characteristics. This theory suggests that traits acquired during an organism's lifetime can be passed on to its offspring. Lamarck believed that these acquired traits could lead to the development of new species over time. However, this theory has been largely discredited in modern biology, as it does not align with the principles of genetics and natural selection.

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  • 3. 

    Variation that shows many intergrading traits in a population between two extremes (for example, light to dark with lots of shade in between) is called

    • A. 

      Natural variation

    • B. 

      Continuous variation

    • C. 

      Discontinuous variation

    • D. 

      Hardy-Weinberg variation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Continuous variation
    Explanation
    Continuous variation refers to a type of variation in a population where there is a gradual change in traits between two extremes. In this case, the variation is seen in the range of colors from light to dark, with many shades in between. This type of variation is often influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors, leading to a continuous spectrum of traits. It is different from discontinuous variation, where distinct categories or groups are observed. Hardy-Weinberg variation is not a recognized term and does not relate to the concept described in the question.

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  • 4. 

    In a population of flowers of about equal numbers of various colors, a new aggressive species bees prefer to gather nectar (and thus pollinate) from white flowers. Other bees are driven off. After a period time, the population of flowers has almost all white flowers. this is an example of:

    • A. 

      Stabilizing selection

    • B. 

      directional selection

    • C. 

      Diversifying (disruptive) selection

    • D. 

      Inheritance of acquire characteristics

    Correct Answer
    B. directional selection
    Explanation
    This scenario demonstrates directional selection because the aggressive species of bees preferentially gather nectar from white flowers, driving off other bees. Over time, this selective pressure results in a shift in the population towards a majority of white flowers.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following did Miller demonstrate in his experiments?

    • A. 

      That a cell could arise by randon natural processes.

    • B. 

      That the earliest fossils known were actually inorgamic artifacts

    • C. 

      That organic molecules could arise spontaneously from nonorganic chemicals when an energy source is applied in a simulated early Earth atmosphere.

    • D. 

      That the early Earth atmosphere contained oxygen gas in about the same percentage as today

    Correct Answer
    C. That organic molecules could arise spontaneously from nonorganic chemicals when an energy source is applied in a simulated early Earth atmosphere.
    Explanation
    Miller demonstrated in his experiments that organic molecules could arise spontaneously from nonorganic chemicals when an energy source is applied in a simulated early Earth atmosphere.

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  • 6. 

    A meteor was found that shows evidence supporting the idea that life once existed on

    • A. 

      Jupiter

    • B. 

      Comets

    • C. 

      Venus

    • D. 

      Mars

    Correct Answer
    D. Mars
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mars because Mars has been a subject of interest for scientists in the search for evidence of past or present life. Various missions and studies have provided evidence of water, organic molecules, and other conditions that could have supported life on Mars in the past. The discovery of a meteor that shows evidence supporting the idea of past life on Mars strengthens the belief that Mars may have once harbored life.

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  • 7. 

    Allopatric speciation begins with

    • A. 

      Geographic isolation of a population of a species.

    • B. 

      A change in chromosome number of one member of a population

    • C. 

      Natural selection within a large population of a species.

    • D. 

      widespread dispersal and interbereeding of popualtions of a species

    Correct Answer
    A. Geographic isolation of a population of a species.
    Explanation
    Allopatric speciation is a type of speciation that occurs when a population of a species becomes geographically isolated from the rest of the species. This isolation prevents gene flow between the two populations, leading to genetic divergence over time. As the isolated population adapts to its new environment, it may accumulate genetic differences that eventually result in the formation of a new species. Therefore, the correct answer is "geographic isolation of a population of a species."

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  • 8. 

    The Hardy-Weinberg Theorem shows that a population, if in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, will

    • A. 

      Show directional change in gene frequency

    • B. 

      show no overall change in gene frequency over time.

    • C. 

      have only common alleles (genes) and all rare alleles will become extinct

    • D. 

      Never be able to unergo natural selection

    Correct Answer
    B. show no overall change in gene frequency over time.
    Explanation
    The Hardy-Weinberg Theorem states that in the absence of certain factors such as mutation, migration, selection, and genetic drift, the gene frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation. This means that there will be no overall change in gene frequency over time. The theorem provides a baseline for understanding how genetic variation is maintained in populations and serves as a null hypothesis for studying evolutionary processes.

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  • 9. 

    The level of evolution that deals with the origin of variation within living things is

    • A. 

      Physical evolution

    • B. 

      Chemical evolution

    • C. 

      Biological evolution

    • D. 

      cultural evolution

    Correct Answer
    C. Biological evolution
    Explanation
    Biological evolution is the correct answer because it specifically focuses on the origin of variation within living things. It involves the processes of natural selection, genetic mutation, and genetic recombination that lead to changes in species over time. Physical evolution refers to the changes in physical characteristics of organisms, while chemical evolution refers to the formation of complex organic molecules from simpler compounds. Cultural evolution pertains to the changes in human behavior and social norms. Therefore, biological evolution is the most appropriate term to describe the origin of variation within living things.

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  • 10. 

    Microevolution involves

    • A. 

      Change in populations.

    • B. 

      Increase in fitness

    • C. 

      Natural selection

    • D. 

      Adaptation.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Change in populations.
    B. Increase in fitness
    C. Natural selection
    D. Adaptation.
    Explanation
    Microevolution refers to the small-scale changes that occur within a population over a relatively short period of time. These changes can include variations in the genetic makeup of individuals, which can lead to changes in the overall population. This can occur through various mechanisms such as mutation, genetic drift, and gene flow. Increase in fitness refers to the process by which individuals with advantageous traits have a higher chance of survival and reproduction, leading to those traits becoming more common in the population over time. Natural selection is the main driving force behind microevolution, as it favors individuals with traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success. Adaptation is the outcome of this process, where populations evolve traits that are well-suited to their environment, increasing their chances of survival and reproduction.

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  • 11. 

    The four parts of Darwin's Theory of Evolution are reproduction, variation, struggle for existence, and natural selection

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Darwin's Theory of Evolution consists of four key components. Reproduction refers to the ability of organisms to produce offspring. Variation refers to the differences that exist within a population. The struggle for existence refers to the competition among individuals for limited resources. Natural selection is the process by which individuals with traits that are advantageous for their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. Therefore, the statement that the four parts of Darwin's Theory of Evolution are reproduction, variation, struggle for existence, and natural selection is true.

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  • 12. 

    In the evolution controversy, the central issue seems to be

    • A. 

      the existence of species

    • B. 

      The interpretation of Chapters 1 and 2 of the book of Genesis

    • C. 

      acceptance or rejection of panspermia as an explanation of the origin of life.

    • D. 

      the acceptance or rejection of the concept of the niche.

    Correct Answer
    B. The interpretation of Chapters 1 and 2 of the book of Genesis
    Explanation
    The central issue in the evolution controversy is the interpretation of Chapters 1 and 2 of the book of Genesis. This refers to the debate between those who believe in a literal interpretation of the biblical account of creation and those who support the scientific theory of evolution. The conflict arises from differing views on the origin of species and the role of religion in explaining the natural world.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following positions would most likely hold that the Earth is no more that 10,000 years old?

    • A. 

      Young Earth Creationism

    • B. 

      Old Earth Creationism

    • C. 

      Deism

    • D. 

      Geocentrism

    • E. 

      Materialistic Evolutionism

    Correct Answer
    A. Young Earth Creationism
    Explanation
    Young Earth Creationism is the position that is most likely to hold that the Earth is no more than 10,000 years old. This belief is based on a literal interpretation of religious texts, such as the Bible, which suggest a young age for the Earth. Young Earth Creationists reject scientific evidence that supports an old Earth, such as radiometric dating and fossil records, and instead believe that the Earth was created by a divine being relatively recently.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following positions would most likely hold that the Earth is billions of years old but life was directly created by a supernatural being old?

    • A. 

      Young Earth Creationism

    • B. 

      Old Earth Creationism

    • C. 

      Deism

    • D. 

      Geocentrism

    • E. 

      Materialistic Evolutionism

    Correct Answer
    B. Old Earth Creationism
    Explanation
    Old Earth Creationism is the most likely position to hold that the Earth is billions of years old but life was directly created by a supernatural being. This belief system combines elements of both creationism and the acceptance of an old Earth, suggesting that a higher power was responsible for the creation of life but allowing for the possibility of an ancient Earth. This perspective differs from Young Earth Creationism, which asserts that the Earth is only a few thousand years old, and other options such as Deism, Geocentrism, and Materialistic Evolutionism, which do not necessarily involve the direct creation of life by a supernatural being.

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  • 15. 

    The main belief of a theistic evolutionist is that

    • A. 

      Evolution occurs, but God guides evolutionary change.

    • B. 

      The Earth is the Center of the Universe

    • C. 

      The Earth is flat

    • D. 

      The Earth is 10,000 years old.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evolution occurs, but God guides evolutionary change.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Evolution occurs, but God guides evolutionary change." This belief is held by theistic evolutionists who accept the scientific evidence for evolution but also believe that God is involved in the process. They see evolution as a tool used by God to bring about the diversity of life on Earth. This perspective reconciles the scientific understanding of evolution with religious beliefs about the role of a higher power in the natural world.

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  • 16. 

    Among evolutionists, which one is debated?

    • A. 

      The occurrence of evolution in the past and present.

    • B. 

      The mechanisms by which evolution occurred in the past and occurs today

    • C. 

      Both

    • D. 

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    B. The mechanisms by which evolution occurred in the past and occurs today
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The mechanisms by which evolution occurred in the past and occurs today." This is because among evolutionists, there is ongoing debate and discussion about the specific mechanisms and processes that drive evolution. While there is general agreement about the occurrence of evolution in the past and present, scientists continue to explore and debate the various mechanisms, such as natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow, that contribute to evolutionary change.

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  • 17. 

    Supernatural influence played no part in the history of the universe would be a position held by

    • A. 

      Young Earth Creationism

    • B. 

      Old Earth Creationism

    • C. 

      Deism

    • D. 

      Geocentrism

    • E. 

      Materialistic Evolutionism

    Correct Answer
    E. Materialistic Evolutionism
    Explanation
    Materialistic Evolutionism would hold the position that supernatural influence played no part in the history of the universe. This belief system is based on the idea that the universe and all life forms evolved through natural processes, such as natural selection and genetic mutation, without any intervention from a higher power or supernatural forces. It rejects the notion of creationism and views the universe as solely governed by scientific laws and principles.

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  • 18. 

    According to many creationists, macroevolution can occur within created kinds but not between kinds

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Many creationists believe in the concept of "created kinds," which refers to distinct groups of organisms that were created separately. According to this belief, macroevolution, which involves the formation of new species, can occur within these created kinds but not between them. This means that while significant changes can happen within a kind, such as the development of different breeds of dogs, evolution cannot lead to the formation of entirely new kinds of organisms. Therefore, the statement is true according to the perspective of creationists.

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  • 19. 

    Evolution is inherently atheistic

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement "Evolution is inherently atheistic" is not accurate. Atheism is a belief system that rejects the existence of a god or gods, while evolution is a scientific theory that explains the process of biological change over time. The theory of evolution does not inherently deny or affirm the existence of a god or gods, as it focuses on the natural mechanisms that drive the diversity of life on Earth. Many religious individuals and organizations accept the theory of evolution while also maintaining their faith in a higher power. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 20. 

    Scientific names are

    • A. 

      In the local language

    • B. 

      Very formally given.

    • C. 

      Often numerous and very local

    • D. 

      Unimportant for understanding biodiversity

    Correct Answer
    B. Very formally given.
    Explanation
    Scientific names are very formally given because they follow a specific set of rules and guidelines established by the scientific community. These names are constructed using Latin or Greek words and often include information about the characteristics or origins of the organism. The formal nature of scientific names ensures consistency and clarity in communication among scientists and helps to avoid confusion or misinterpretation.

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  • 21. 

    In the taxonomic hierarchy, a Family would be included in a(n)

    • A. 

      Order

    • B. 

      Genus

    • C. 

      Species

    • D. 

      Common name

    Correct Answer
    A. Order
    Explanation
    In the taxonomic hierarchy, a Family is a higher rank than a Genus and Species, but a lower rank than an Order. The taxonomic hierarchy categorizes organisms into different levels based on their characteristics and evolutionary relationships. The Order is a higher rank that groups together similar Families, while a Family groups together similar Genera. Therefore, a Family would be included in an Order in the taxonomic hierarchy.

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  • 22. 

    If you found a new species of prokaryote that was growing in a very hot, salty spring, you would most likely classify it in the

    • A. 

      Domain Archaea

    • B. 

      Domain Eubacteria

    • C. 

      Kingdom Protista

    • D. 

      Kingdom Fungi

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain Archaea
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Domain Archaea. This is because Archaea are known to thrive in extreme environments such as hot and salty springs. They are a group of prokaryotes that have unique genetic and biochemical characteristics, which distinguish them from other organisms. Domain Eubacteria includes typical bacteria that are found in various habitats, but not specifically in extreme environments like hot and salty springs. Kingdom Protista and Kingdom Fungi consist of eukaryotic organisms, which are not prokaryotes like the newly discovered species.

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  • 23. 

    Organisms that are eukaryotic, heterotrophic, multicellular and lack a cell wall would be classified in the kingdom

    • A. 

      Plantae

    • B. 

      Protista

    • C. 

      Fungi

    • D. 

      Animalia

    Correct Answer
    D. Animalia
    Explanation
    Organisms that are eukaryotic, heterotrophic, multicellular, and lack a cell wall would be classified in the kingdom Animalia. This is because the characteristics mentioned are typical of animals. Eukaryotic means that their cells have a nucleus, heterotrophic means that they obtain their energy by consuming other organisms, multicellular means that they are made up of multiple cells, and lacking a cell wall is a characteristic of animals as they do not have a rigid cell wall like plants or fungi. Therefore, the correct answer is Animalia.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the times that one of the Big Five mass extinctions occurred?

    • A. 

      End of the Cretaceous

    • B. 

      End of the Jurassic

    • C. 

      End of the Triassic

    • D. 

      Ordovician-Silurian

    • E. 

      End of the Permian

    • F. 

      End of the Devonian

    Correct Answer
    B. End of the Jurassic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "End of the Jurassic." The Big Five mass extinctions refer to five major extinction events in Earth's history, where a significant number of species went extinct. These events include the End of the Ordovician, Late Devonian, End of the Permian, End of the Triassic, and End of the Cretaceous. The Jurassic period, on the other hand, was a time of diversification and expansion of many groups of organisms, rather than a mass extinction event.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the mass extinctions saw the greatest percentage of species go extinct?

    • A. 

      End of the Cretaceous

    • B. 

      End of the Jurassic

    • C. 

      End of the Triassic

    • D. 

      Ordovician-Silurian

    • E. 

      End of the Permian

    • F. 

      End of the Devonian

    Correct Answer
    E. End of the Permian
    Explanation
    The end of the Permian saw the greatest percentage of species go extinct. This event, also known as the Permian-Triassic extinction, resulted in the extinction of approximately 96% of all marine species and 70% of terrestrial vertebrate species. It is considered the most severe mass extinction event in Earth's history.

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  • 26. 

    A biodiversity hotspot is

    • A. 

      An area with greater species richness than others

    • B. 

      Important in planning conservation efforts

    • C. 

      Often but not always located in the tropics.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. An area with greater species richness than others
    B. Important in planning conservation efforts
    C. Often but not always located in the tropics.
    Explanation
    A biodiversity hotspot refers to an area that has a higher number of species compared to other regions. These hotspots are significant in terms of planning conservation efforts as they contain a large number of unique and endangered species. While biodiversity hotspots are commonly found in tropical regions, they can also exist in other areas around the world.

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  • 27. 

    The first attempt to document all species in one area is at:

    • A. 

      Madagascar

    • B. 

      Great Smokey Mountains National Park in North Carolina and Tennessee

    • C. 

      The North Slope of Alaska

    • D. 

      The Serengeti Plains in Africa

    Correct Answer
    B. Great Smokey Mountains National Park in North Carolina and Tennessee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Great Smokey Mountains National Park in North Carolina and Tennessee. This park was the first attempt to document all species in one area. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to a wide variety of plant and animal species. The park's diverse ecosystems provide a unique opportunity for scientists to study and document the different species that inhabit the area.

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  • 28. 

    Tropical soils are poor in nutrients because

    • A. 

      the nutrients are bound up in the plants and spend very little time in the soil

    • B. 

      . the soils are of poor quality and cannot contain any nutrients.

    • C. 

      the rains do not contain any nutrients so the soils cannot contain any nutrients.

    • D. 

      There is no nutrient cycling in tropical ecosystems

    Correct Answer
    A. the nutrients are bound up in the plants and spend very little time in the soil
    Explanation
    Tropical soils are poor in nutrients because the nutrients are bound up in the plants and spend very little time in the soil. In tropical ecosystems, there is a high rate of decomposition and nutrient uptake by plants. The warm and humid conditions promote rapid decomposition of organic matter, causing nutrients to be quickly taken up by plants and returned to the atmosphere. This leaves the soil with a low nutrient content, making it less fertile. Therefore, the majority of the nutrients are tied up in the plants and do not remain in the soil for an extended period, resulting in poor nutrient availability.

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  • 29. 

    When we decrease biodiversity we decrease

    • A. 

      Processes that increase the quality of the abiotic environment

    • B. 

      Ecosystem stability

    • C. 

      The ability to asses potentially useful organisms.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Processes that increase the quality of the abiotic environment
    B. Ecosystem stability
    C. The ability to asses potentially useful organisms.
    Explanation
    When we decrease biodiversity, we are reducing the variety of species and genetic diversity in an ecosystem. This leads to a decrease in processes that increase the quality of the abiotic environment, such as nutrient cycling and soil formation. It also results in a decrease in ecosystem stability, as there are fewer species to perform important ecological roles and provide resilience to disturbances. Additionally, a reduction in biodiversity limits our ability to assess potentially useful organisms, such as those with medicinal or agricultural value.

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  • 30. 

    Sexual reproduction involves

    • A. 

      Meiosis only

    • B. 

      mitosis only.

    • C. 

      Mitosis and meiosis

    • D. 

      Neither mitosis nor meiosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitosis and meiosis
    Explanation
    Sexual reproduction involves both mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the body cells, resulting in two identical daughter cells. Meiosis, on the other hand, is a specialized form of cell division that occurs in the reproductive cells, resulting in the formation of gametes (sperm and egg cells) with half the number of chromosomes. The combination of these two processes ensures genetic diversity in offspring, as well as the ability to pass on traits from both parents.

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  • 31. 

    What are the two basic organs for the male animal involved in sexual reproduction?

    • A. 

      Ovary and oviducts

    • B. 

      Testis and sperm ducts

    • C. 

      Penis and testis

    • D. 

      Penis and sperm duct

    Correct Answer
    B. Testis and sperm ducts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is testis and sperm ducts. The testis is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for producing sperm cells. The sperm ducts, also known as the vas deferens, are tubes that transport the sperm from the testis to the urethra for ejaculation. These two organs play a crucial role in the process of sexual reproduction in male animals.

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  • 32. 

    If an organism has external fertilization, then this means that

    • A. 

      Sperm are placed into the female tract

    • B. 

      Sperm are not transferred to the female; eggs are transferred to the male

    • C. 

      Sperm are released onto eggs in the environment, outside the body of either parent.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sperm are released onto eggs in the environment, outside the body of either parent.
    Explanation
    If an organism has external fertilization, it means that the sperm are released onto eggs in the environment, outside the body of either parent. This type of fertilization occurs in aquatic environments, where the male releases sperm into the water and the eggs are also released into the water. The sperm then swim towards the eggs and fertilize them externally. This method allows for a large number of eggs to be fertilized at once and increases the chances of successful fertilization. It is commonly seen in fish, amphibians, and some invertebrates.

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  • 33. 

    The egg and sperm fuse to form what structure?

    • A. 

      Embryo

    • B. 

      Blastula

    • C. 

      zygote

    Correct Answer
    C. zygote
    Explanation
    The correct answer is zygote. When the egg and sperm fuse together during fertilization, they form a zygote. The zygote is the initial stage of development and contains all the genetic information necessary for the formation of an individual. It undergoes cell division and differentiation to eventually develop into an embryo. The blastula is a later stage of development characterized by a hollow ball of cells.

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  • 34. 

    What is cleavage?

    • A. 

      The division of an embryo to form two identical embryos

    • B. 

      the first few divisions after fertilization that form the embryo

    • C. 

      The opening of the ball of cells to form the blastula

    • D. 

      The formation of the egg and sperm

    Correct Answer
    B. the first few divisions after fertilization that form the embryo
    Explanation
    Cleavage refers to the first few divisions that occur in an embryo after fertilization, leading to the formation of the embryo. This process involves the rapid division of cells, resulting in the formation of two identical embryos. It is an essential step in embryonic development and plays a crucial role in the formation of various tissues and organs in the developing organism.

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  • 35. 

    What is the stage of development following the morula?

    • A. 

      Blastula

    • B. 

      Zygote

    • C. 

      Gastrula

    • D. 

      invagination

    Correct Answer
    A. Blastula
    Explanation
    The correct answer is blastula. After the morula stage, the embryo develops into a blastula. During this stage, the cells continue to divide and form a hollow ball-like structure called a blastocyst. The blastula is the next stage of development after the morula and precedes the formation of the gastrula.

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  • 36. 

    Muscles develop from the:

    • A. 

      Ectoderm

    • B. 

      Mesoderm

    • C. 

      Endoderm

    Correct Answer
    B. Mesoderm
    Explanation
    Muscles develop from the mesoderm. The mesoderm is one of the three primary germ layers in the early development of an embryo. It gives rise to various tissues and structures in the body, including the musculoskeletal system. Mesodermal cells differentiate into myoblasts, which further develop into muscle fibers. These muscle fibers then form different types of muscles throughout the body, such as skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscles. Therefore, the mesoderm is responsible for the development of muscles in the human body.

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  • 37. 

    What is the stage of development following the blastula?

    • A. 

      Morula

    • B. 

      Zygote

    • C. 

      Gastrula

    • D. 

      invagination

    Correct Answer
    A. Morula
    Explanation
    The stage of development following the blastula is the morula. The morula is a solid ball of cells that forms after the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division. It is the early stage of embryonic development before the cells begin to differentiate and form specialized tissues and organs. The morula eventually develops into the blastocyst, which is the next stage in embryonic development.

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  • 38. 

    What are skin and the brain derived from?

    • A. 

      Ectoderm

    • B. 

      Mesoderm

    • C. 

      Endoderm

    Correct Answer
    A. Ectoderm
    Explanation
    The skin and the brain are derived from the ectoderm. During embryonic development, the ectoderm gives rise to the outermost layer of cells, which later differentiate into various structures including the skin and the nervous system. The ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers formed during early embryogenesis, with the other two being the mesoderm and the endoderm.

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  • 39. 

    What is the function of the epididymis?

    • A. 

      It is the place where sperm are made.

    • B. 

      It is the site where testosterone is made

    • C. 

      It is a place where sperm are stored

    • D. 

      It is the structure where LH and FSH are made.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is a place where sperm are stored
    Explanation
    The epididymis is a structure in the male reproductive system where sperm are stored. It is responsible for providing a suitable environment for the maturation and storage of sperm before they are ejaculated during sexual intercourse. The epididymis also helps in the transportation of sperm from the testes to the vas deferens.

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  • 40. 

    What is included in semen?

    • A. 

      Sperm

    • B. 

      Secretions from the prostate, bulbourethral, and seminal vessicle glands

    • C. 

      Urine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Sperm
    B. Secretions from the prostate, bulbourethral, and seminal vessicle glands
    Explanation
    Semen is a fluid that is ejaculated during sexual intercourse. It contains sperm, which are the reproductive cells that fertilize the egg. Additionally, semen also includes secretions from the prostate, bulbourethral, and seminal vesicle glands. These secretions provide nourishment and protection for the sperm, as well as help with their motility. However, urine is not a component of semen and is expelled separately from the body.

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  • 41. 

    What is a varicocoele

    • A. 

      A cancerous testicle

    • B. 

      A herniated testicle

    • C. 

      Varicose veins of the vessels that supply blood to the testes

    Correct Answer
    B. A herniated testicle
  • 42. 

    What causes the development of primary sex characteristics in 

    • A. 

      Estrogen produced by the mother triggers the formation of male gentalia in the fetus

    • B. 

      HCG triggers production of testosterone int he male fetus, causing formation of male genetalia

    • C. 

      Progesterone produced by the mother triggers the formation of male gentalia in the fetus

    • D. 

      Prolactin and relaxin trigger the formation of male genetalia in the fetus late in the developmental process

    Correct Answer
    B. HCG triggers production of testosterone int he male fetus, causing formation of male genetalia
    Explanation
    HCG triggers the production of testosterone in the male fetus, which leads to the formation of male genitalia. This hormone plays a crucial role in the sexual differentiation of the fetus, specifically in males. Testosterone is responsible for the development of primary sex characteristics, such as the reproductive organs, in males. Therefore, the presence of HCG stimulates the production of testosterone, leading to the formation of male genitalia during fetal development.

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  • 43. 

    What are anabolic steroids?

    • A. 

      Analogs of testosterone that cause muscle mass enlargement

    • B. 

      analogs of testosterone that can cause kidney and other damage

    • C. 

      Analogs of testosterone that must can cause sterility and testicular atrophy

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Analogs of testosterone that cause muscle mass enlargement
    B. analogs of testosterone that can cause kidney and other damage
    C. Analogs of testosterone that must can cause sterility and testicular atrophy
    Explanation
    Anabolic steroids are synthetic substances that are similar to the male hormone testosterone. They are known to cause an increase in muscle mass, which is why they are often used by individuals looking to enhance their athletic performance or appearance. However, the use of anabolic steroids can also have negative effects on the body. They can potentially cause damage to the kidneys and other organs, and in some cases, lead to sterility and testicular atrophy. These potential risks highlight the importance of using anabolic steroids under medical supervision and only for legitimate purposes.

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  • 44. 

    What is the endometrium?

    • A. 

      A muscular sac that is the site of egg production

    • B. 

      The inner lining of the uterus in which the embryo implants

    • C. 

      The oviduct in which fertilization occurs

    • D. 

      The opening from the uterus to the vagina

    Correct Answer
    B. The inner lining of the uterus in which the embryo implants
    Explanation
    The endometrium refers to the inner lining of the uterus. This lining is essential for the implantation of the embryo during pregnancy. It provides a nourishing environment for the developing embryo and helps support its growth. If fertilization occurs, the embryo will implant itself into the endometrium, where it will receive nutrients and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream.

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  • 45. 

    What happens on days 13 - 14 of the menstrual cycle in females?

    • A. 

      estrogen drops to its lowest level

    • B. 

      The endometrium begins to slough off

    • C. 

      LH levels peak and 24 hours later ovulation occurs

    • D. 

      the follicle begins to form

    Correct Answer
    C. LH levels peak and 24 hours later ovulation occurs
    Explanation
    During days 13-14 of the menstrual cycle in females, LH levels reach their highest point, which is known as the LH surge. This surge triggers the release of an egg from the ovary, which is called ovulation. Ovulation typically occurs around 24 hours after the peak in LH levels. Therefore, the correct answer is that LH levels peak and 24 hours later ovulation occurs.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following hormones is correctly matched with one of functions?

    • A. 

      HCG: trigger the onset of the mentrual flow

    • B. 

      Progesterone: cause the endometrium to thicken in preparation for possible implantation of an embryo

    • C. 

      LH: lower the production of testosterone

    • D. 

      FSH: trigger the production of primary sex characteristics in females

    Correct Answer
    B. Progesterone: cause the endometrium to thicken in preparation for possible implantation of an embryo
    Explanation
    Progesterone is correctly matched with the function of causing the endometrium to thicken in preparation for possible implantation of an embryo. This hormone is produced by the ovaries and plays a crucial role in preparing the uterus for pregnancy. It helps to create a suitable environment for the fertilized egg to implant and supports the early stages of pregnancy. If implantation does not occur, progesterone levels decrease, leading to the shedding of the thickened endometrium during menstruation.

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  • 47. 

    Which hormone does a pregnancy test kit test for?

    • A. 

      HCG

    • B. 

      Estrogen

    • C. 

      Progesterone

    • D. 

      FSH

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    A pregnancy test kit tests for the hormone HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). HCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and can be detected in a woman's urine or blood as early as 10 days after conception. The presence of HCG indicates that a woman is pregnant, as this hormone is not typically found in non-pregnant individuals. Therefore, a pregnancy test kit detects the presence of HCG to determine if a woman is pregnant or not.

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  • 48. 

    What are the three stages of birth?

    • A. 

      First, second, and third trimesters

    • B. 

      Contraction, efacment, and dilation

    • C. 

      Contraction, expulsion, afterbirth

    • D. 

      Vaginal, caesarian, and breech

    Correct Answer
    C. Contraction, expulsion, afterbirth
    Explanation
    The three stages of birth are contraction, expulsion, and afterbirth. During the contraction stage, the muscles of the uterus contract to push the baby downward. The expulsion stage is when the baby is pushed out of the mother's body through the birth canal. Afterbirth refers to the delivery of the placenta and other membranes that were attached to the uterus during pregnancy.

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