Biology Practice Test (Part 3)
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Peas were good organism of choice for Mendel Because
- A.
They cannot self-fertilize
- B.
They cannot cross-fertilize
- C.
He could study one trait at a time
- D.
The traits were difficult to visualize
- E.
All of these are correct
Correct Answer
C. He could study one trait at a timeExplanation
Peas were a good organism of choice for Mendel because he could study one trait at a time. This allowed him to isolate and analyze the inheritance patterns of specific traits without the complication of multiple traits interacting simultaneously. By focusing on one trait at a time, Mendel was able to establish the principles of inheritance and develop his laws of segregation and independent assortment.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The region of the chromosome occupied by a gene is called a ______,
- A.
Phenotype
- B.
Locus
- C.
Spindle fibers
- D.
Centrioles
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. LocusExplanation
A locus refers to the specific location or position of a gene on a chromosome. It is used to describe the region of the chromosome that a gene occupies. The term "phenotype" refers to the observable characteristics or traits of an organism, and it is not directly related to the location of a gene. "Spindle fibers" and "centrioles" are structures involved in cell division and are not related to the location of a gene on a chromosome. Therefore, the correct answer is locus.Rate this question:
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- 3.
If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the cross Ii x ii is expected to produce
- A.
All with inflated pods
- B.
All with constricted pods
- C.
Half with inflated and ¼ with constricted pods
- D.
¾ with inflated and ¼ with constricted pods
- E.
¾ with constricted and ¼ with inflated pods
Correct Answer
C. Half with inflated and ¼ with constricted podsExplanation
If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the cross Ii x ii is expected to produce half with inflated and ¼ with constricted pods. This is because when the genotype of one parent is Ii (heterozygous), it will have one dominant allele (I) and one recessive allele (i). When it is crossed with another parent with the genotype ii (homozygous recessive), all of the offspring will inherit one recessive allele from the ii parent. Therefore, half of the offspring will have the genotype Ii (inflated pods) and ¼ of the offspring will have the genotype ii (constricted pods).Rate this question:
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- 4.
According to the Law of Segregation, in an organism with the genotype Aa
- A.
All the gametes will have gene A
- B.
All the gametes will have gene a
- C.
¼ of the gametes will have A and ¾ will have a
- D.
¾ of gametes will have A and ¼ will have a
- E.
Half the gametes will have A and half will have a
Correct Answer
E. Half the gametes will have A and half will have aExplanation
According to the Law of Segregation, in an organism with the genotype Aa, half of the gametes will have gene A and half will have gene a. This is because during the formation of gametes, the two alleles for a gene separate from each other, so each gamete only carries one allele. Therefore, in this case, half of the gametes will carry the dominant allele A and half will carry the recessive allele a.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A recessive gene is
- A.
That is expressed as strongly as a dominant allele
- B.
Whose effect is masked by a dominant allele
- C.
That phenotypically appears only in a heterozygote
- D.
That produces no effect when present in the homozygous condition
- E.
That must be lethal in the homozygous condition
Correct Answer
B. Whose effect is masked by a dominant alleleExplanation
A recessive gene is one that is expressed less strongly than a dominant allele. This means that the effect of the recessive gene is hidden or masked by the presence of a dominant allele. In other words, the dominant allele "overrides" the expression of the recessive gene, making it appear as if the individual only has the dominant trait. This is why individuals with a heterozygous genotype (having both a dominant and recessive allele) may not show the recessive trait, as the dominant allele masks its effect.Rate this question:
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- 6.
If we cross two pea plants each heterozygous for yellow seed color genes, the expected ratio of yellow: green among the offspring will be
- A.
25% yellow : 75% green
- B.
50% yellow : 50% green
- C.
100% yellow
- D.
75% yellow : 25% green
- E.
100% green
Correct Answer
D. 75% yellow : 25% greenExplanation
When two pea plants that are heterozygous for yellow seed color genes are crossed, the expected ratio of yellow to green among the offspring will be 75% yellow and 25% green. This is because the yellow seed color is dominant over the green seed color. The heterozygous plants have one dominant allele for yellow seed color and one recessive allele for green seed color. When these plants are crossed, there is a 25% chance that both parents will contribute the recessive allele, resulting in green offspring. The remaining 75% of the offspring will have at least one dominant allele for yellow seed color, making them yellow.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When alleles move into different gametes, this demonstrates
- A.
Dominance
- B.
Independent assortment
- C.
Fertilization
- D.
Crossing-over
- E.
Segregation
Correct Answer
E. SegregationExplanation
Segregation refers to the separation of alleles during the formation of gametes. When alleles move into different gametes, it indicates that they are segregating and being separated from each other. This process is a fundamental principle of Mendelian genetics and explains how traits are passed on from parents to offspring. During segregation, each gamete receives only one allele for a particular trait, resulting in the inheritance of either the dominant or recessive allele by the offspring.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When Mendel used true-breeding white flowers and true-breeding purple flowers as the parental generation, he obtained which of the following results?
- A.
All the offspring had white flowers
- B.
All the offspring and purple flowers
- C.
¾ of the flowers produced were purple and ¼ were white
- D.
¾ of the flowers produced were white and ¼ were purple
- E.
½ of the flowers produced were white and ½ were purple
Correct Answer
B. All the offspring and purple flowers -
- 9.
In humans there are 22 pairs of autosomal and one pair of sex chromosomes
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In humans, there are indeed 22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes, which are responsible for determining most of our physical traits and characteristics. Additionally, there is one pair of sex chromosomes, which determine the individual's biological sex. This pair consists of two chromosomes, X and Y, with males having one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes. Therefore, the statement "In humans there are 22 pairs of autosomal and one pair of sex chromosomes" is true.Rate this question:
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- 10.
When the expression of a trait is influenced by the action of many genes, the pattern of inheritance is called
- A.
Complete dominance
- B.
Incomplete dominance
- C.
Pleiotrophy
- D.
Discontinuous variation
- E.
Polygenic inheritance
Correct Answer
E. Polygenic inheritanceExplanation
Polygenic inheritance occurs when the expression of a trait is influenced by the action of many genes. In this pattern of inheritance, multiple genes contribute to the phenotype, and each gene has a small additive effect. This results in a continuous variation of the trait, as opposed to the distinct categories seen in complete dominance or discontinuous variation. Incomplete dominance refers to a pattern where neither allele is dominant over the other, while pleiotropy refers to a single gene influencing multiple traits.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In Mendel’s experiments, if the gene for tall (T) plants was incompletely dominant over the genet for short (t) plants, what would be the result of crossing two Tt plants? (similar to the straight, curly, wavy hairs).
- A.
25% tall, 50% intermediate; 25% short
- B.
50% tall, 25% intermediate, 50% short
- C.
25% tall, 25% intermediate, 50% short
- D.
All the offspring would be tall
- E.
All the offspring would be intermediate
Correct Answer
A. 25% tall, 50% intermediate; 25% shortExplanation
When the gene for tall plants is incompletely dominant over the gene for short plants, crossing two Tt plants would result in a phenotypic ratio of 25% tall, 50% intermediate, and 25% short. This is because the T allele is not completely dominant over the t allele, resulting in an intermediate phenotype in heterozygous individuals (Tt).Rate this question:
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- 12.
The genetic makeup of an individual is its
- A.
Phenotype
- B.
Sex cells
- C.
Mutation
- D.
Gene pool
- E.
Genotype
Correct Answer
E. GenotypeExplanation
The genetic makeup of an individual refers to the combination of genes that they inherit from their parents. This combination determines their unique traits and characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is "genotype" as it accurately describes the genetic composition of an individual.Rate this question:
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- 13.
All of the following combinations are possible in the gametes of an organism that is AaBb EXCEPT
- A.
AB
- B.
AB
- C.
Aa
- D.
Ab
- E.
Ab
Correct Answer
C. AaExplanation
The given question is asking for the combination of gametes that is NOT possible in an organism that is AaBb. The genotype AaBb indicates that the organism has two different alleles for each gene, so it can produce four different types of gametes: AB, Ab, aB, and ab. Therefore, the only combination that is NOT possible in this case is aa, as it would require both alleles to be the same.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the genotype of a dominant individual if some of its offspring show the recessive phenotype?
- A.
DD
- B.
Cannot tell without more information
- C.
Dd
- D.
Dd
- E.
Either DD or Dd
Correct Answer
D. DdExplanation
If some of the offspring of a dominant individual show the recessive phenotype, it suggests that the dominant individual is heterozygous (Dd) for the trait. This is because the recessive phenotype can only be expressed if an individual carries two copies of the recessive allele (dd), which can only happen if one parent passes on the recessive allele. Therefore, the genotype of the dominant individual must be Dd.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Pleiotropy is when 1 gene encodes many traits
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Pleiotropy refers to a situation where a single gene influences multiple traits or characteristics. This means that a single gene can have effects on various aspects of an organism's phenotype. For example, a gene may affect both the color of an organism's fur and its susceptibility to a certain disease. Therefore, the statement that pleiotropy occurs when one gene encodes many traits is true.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Plasmids are
- A.
Non-circular DNA segments in bacteria
- B.
Made of RNA
- C.
Small self-replicating DNA molecules in bacteria
- D.
Found only in single copies within bacteria
- E.
Necessary in order for bacteria to reproduce
Correct Answer
C. Small self-replicating DNA molecules in bacteriaExplanation
Plasmids are small self-replicating DNA molecules in bacteria. They are separate from the bacterial chromosome and can replicate independently. Plasmids often carry genes that provide advantages to the bacteria, such as antibiotic resistance or the ability to metabolize certain substances. Due to their self-replicating nature, plasmids can be transferred between bacteria through horizontal gene transfer, allowing the spread of these advantageous genes. Therefore, the correct answer is small self-replicating DNA molecules in bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Phenotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Phenotype refers to the observable traits or characteristics of an organism, which are influenced by both genetic makeup and environmental factors. It is not solely determined by the genetic makeup of an organism. Therefore, the given statement that phenotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In biotechnology research, DNA fragments created by restriction enzyme
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Restriction enzymes are enzymes that cut DNA at specific recognition sites. These enzymes are widely used in biotechnology research to create DNA fragments with precise ends. By cutting DNA at specific sites, restriction enzymes allow researchers to manipulate and analyze DNA sequences. Therefore, the statement that DNA fragments are created by restriction enzymes in biotechnology research is true.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In Owl, digestible food gets separated from non-digestible (i.e, feathers, bones, teeth) in
- A.
Ventriculus
- B.
Proventriculus
- C.
Gut
- D.
Mouth
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. VentriculusExplanation
In Owl, digestible food gets separated from non-digestible (i.e, feathers, bones, teeth) in the ventriculus.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following techniques amplifies a specific region of DNA?
- A.
PCR
- B.
Gel electrophoresis
- C.
Use of DNA probes
- D.
DNA profiles
- E.
None of these
Correct Answer
A. PCRExplanation
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique that amplifies a specific region of DNA. It involves a series of temperature changes to denature the DNA, allow primers to bind, and then extend the DNA using a heat-stable DNA polymerase enzyme. This process is repeated multiple times, resulting in exponential amplification of the target DNA region. Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments based on size, DNA probes are used to detect specific DNA sequences, and DNA profiles are used for genetic identification, but these techniques do not specifically amplify a region of DNA like PCR does.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The polymerase chain reaction includes the following steps EXCEPT
- A.
Denaturation
- B.
Annealing
- C.
Extension
- D.
Retraction
- E.
A & B & C
Correct Answer
D. RetractionExplanation
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to amplify a specific DNA sequence. It involves three steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension. During denaturation, the DNA strands are separated by heating. In the annealing step, primers bind to the target DNA sequence. Extension is the step where DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands using the primers as a template. Retraction is not a step in PCR and is therefore the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Restriction enzymes are useful in recombinant DNA studies because they
- A.
Give plasmids antibiotic properties
- B.
Join the cut ends of small DNA molecules
- C.
Can reproduce in bacteria
- D.
Cut DNA at specific locations
- E.
Can separate pieces of DNA and RNA from each other
Correct Answer
D. Cut DNA at specific locationsExplanation
Restriction enzymes are useful in recombinant DNA studies because they have the ability to cut DNA at specific locations. This allows scientists to precisely manipulate and modify DNA molecules, such as inserting genes into plasmids or cutting out specific segments of DNA. By cutting DNA at specific locations, restriction enzymes facilitate the creation of recombinant DNA molecules, which are essential for genetic engineering and biotechnology applications.Rate this question:
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- 23.
If you wish to develop a procedure for indentifying upregualated & downregulated mRNAs in a disorder what method would be most likely to be useful?
- A.
Carbohydrate analyses
- B.
Single tandem repeats (STRs)
- C.
DNA microarray
- D.
Paper chromatography
- E.
Gene therapy
Correct Answer
C. DNA microarrayExplanation
DNA microarray is the most likely method to be useful for identifying upregulated and downregulated mRNAs in a disorder. DNA microarray technology allows for the simultaneous measurement of the expression levels of thousands of genes in a single experiment. By comparing the gene expression profiles of healthy and diseased tissues, researchers can identify genes that are differentially expressed, indicating potential upregulation or downregulation. This method provides a comprehensive and high-throughput approach to analyze gene expression patterns and can help identify potential biomarkers or therapeutic targets for the disorder.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In DNA microarray, a yellow color spot means
- A.
Equal DNA synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being compared
- B.
Equal carbohydrate synthesis is between the 2 conditions that are being compared
- C.
Equal mRNA synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being compared
- D.
Equal protein synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being compared
- E.
All of these
Correct Answer
C. Equal mRNA synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being comparedExplanation
A yellow color spot in DNA microarray indicates equal mRNA synthesis between the two conditions being compared. This means that the expression levels of the genes in both conditions are the same, suggesting that there is no significant difference in gene expression between the two conditions. This information is valuable in understanding the similarities and differences in gene expression profiles between different samples or experimental conditions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following molecular techniques involves “ DNA replication in a tube”?
- A.
Chromatography
- B.
Protein synthesis
- C.
PCR
- D.
A & C
- E.
All of these
Correct Answer
C. PCRExplanation
PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction, which is a molecular technique that involves replicating DNA in a test tube. It is a widely used method in molecular biology and genetics to amplify a specific DNA sequence. PCR involves a series of temperature changes to denature the DNA, anneal primers, and extend the DNA using a DNA polymerase enzyme. This process allows for the exponential amplification of a specific DNA region, making it useful for various applications such as DNA sequencing, genetic testing, and gene expression analysis.Rate this question:
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- 26.
DNA restriction enzymes are
- A.
Carbohydrates
- B.
Lipids
- C.
Nucleic acids
- D.
Proteins
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. ProteinsExplanation
DNA restriction enzymes are proteins. These enzymes are responsible for cutting DNA molecules at specific sequences, known as restriction sites. They play a vital role in genetic engineering and biotechnology, as they allow scientists to manipulate and study DNA. Proteins are made up of amino acids and are essential for various biological processes in living organisms.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Transgenic animals are those which express DNA derived from another
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Transgenic animals are indeed those that express DNA derived from another source. This means that these animals have had foreign genes inserted into their genome, resulting in the expression of new traits or characteristics. This process is often used in scientific research to study gene function, develop disease models, or produce specific proteins of interest. Therefore, the statement "Transgenic animals are those which express DNA derived from another" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 28.
DNA microarray is a technique which allows comparison of the protein patterns between two treatment conditions
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
DNA microarray is a technique that allows the comparison of gene expression patterns, not protein patterns, between two treatment conditions. It involves the hybridization of labeled DNA fragments to a microarray chip containing thousands of different DNA sequences. This allows researchers to measure the level of gene expression for each gene in the sample and compare it between different conditions. Therefore, the statement that DNA microarray allows the comparison of protein patterns between two treatment conditions is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is an example of recombinant DNA technology?
- A.
Herbicide resistant corn
- B.
Bt-toxin producing soybean
- C.
Banana vaccine against pathogenic E. coli
- D.
Human insulin produced by bacteria
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the options listed are examples of recombinant DNA technology. Herbicide resistant corn, Bt-toxin producing soybean, banana vaccine against pathogenic E. coli, and human insulin produced by bacteria are all products that have been created using recombinant DNA technology. This technology involves combining DNA from different sources to create new genetic combinations with desired traits or functions. In each of the given examples, DNA from different organisms has been manipulated and combined to produce the desired traits or products.Rate this question:
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- 30.
There are potential risks in performing recombinant DNA research on plants
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Recombinant DNA research involves the manipulation of genetic material from different organisms, which can pose risks when performed on plants. These risks include the potential for unintended genetic changes, the creation of genetically modified organisms that may have unforeseen effects on the environment or human health, and the potential for gene flow between genetically modified plants and wild populations. Therefore, it is true that there are potential risks in performing recombinant DNA research on plants.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A population is BEST defined as
- A.
All individuals of the same species, located throughout the world
- B.
All individuals of the same species, located in a given region of the world at the same time
- C.
All individuals of all species, located throughout the world
- D.
All individuals of all species, located in a given region of the world
- E.
Those individuals of the same species that have an identical genetic makeup.
Correct Answer
B. All individuals of the same species, located in a given region of the world at the same timeExplanation
A population is defined as all individuals of the same species that are located in a specific region of the world at the same time. This definition emphasizes the spatial and temporal aspects of a population, indicating that it consists of individuals of the same species that are present in a particular area during a specific period. It excludes individuals of the same species located throughout the entire world or individuals of all species. Additionally, it does not require that the individuals have an identical genetic makeup, as genetic variation can exist within a population.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The gene pool is defined as
- A.
All the alleles that occur in that population
- B.
All the alleles that occur in different populations
- C.
The same of all the heterozygous individuals in the population
- D.
The same of all the homozygous individuals in the population
- E.
All the alleles for a certain trait in a given individual
Correct Answer
A. All the alleles that occur in that populationExplanation
The gene pool is defined as all the alleles that occur in that population. This means that it includes all the different versions of genes present in a particular population. It encompasses both dominant and recessive alleles, as well as any variations or mutations that may exist within the population. The gene pool represents the total genetic diversity within a population and is important for understanding how traits are inherited and how populations evolve over time.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Evolution can be defined as
- A.
A change in the genetic makeup of a population over time
- B.
A change in phenotype of an individual over his or her lifetime
- C.
A change in he genetic makeup of an organism over time
- D.
An individual changing into a beast
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A change in the genetic makeup of a population over timeExplanation
Evolution refers to the process of change in the genetic composition of a population over a period of time. This change occurs through the mechanisms of mutation, genetic recombination, and natural selection. It does not involve an individual transforming into a different species or changing into a beast. Therefore, the correct answer is "a change in the genetic makeup of a population over time."Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following discoveries led to the birth of the recombinant DNA technology
- A.
Discovery of the DNA restriction enzymes
- B.
Discovery of the DNA ligase
- C.
Discovery of the plasmids as vehicle for gene transfer
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The birth of recombinant DNA technology was led by the discovery of DNA restriction enzymes, DNA ligase, and plasmids as a vehicle for gene transfer. DNA restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sequences, allowing for the insertion of foreign DNA. DNA ligase is then used to join the cut DNA fragments together. Plasmids, which are small circular DNA molecules, can be used as a vehicle to transfer genes between different organisms. Therefore, all of the above discoveries played a crucial role in the development of recombinant DNA technology.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is currently used to produce genetic “fingerprints” of people?
- A.
The number of introns in a chromosome
- B.
The genes responsible for producing the unique fingerprints on a person’s fingers
- C.
Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)
- D.
Short tandem repeats (STRs)
- E.
Plasmids
Correct Answer
D. Short tandem repeats (STRs)Explanation
Short tandem repeats (STRs) are currently used to produce genetic "fingerprints" of people. STRs are regions of DNA that contain short sequences of repeating nucleotides. These repeating sequences vary in length and are unique to each individual. By analyzing the number and pattern of STRs in a person's DNA, a genetic fingerprint can be created. This method is commonly used in forensic science and paternity testing to determine the identity or relatedness of individuals.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many STRs are present in the following sequence ACGGACGGACGG
- A.
12
- B.
4
- C.
3
- D.
A & C
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The given sequence "ACGGACGGACGG" contains three Short Tandem Repeats (STRs). STRs are sequences of DNA that consist of a short pattern of nucleotides repeated multiple times in a row. In this sequence, the pattern "ACGG" is repeated three times consecutively, making it an STR. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.Rate this question:
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- 37.
DNA microarray study tells you
- A.
The cause of the disease
- B.
The location of DNA mutations
- C.
Upregulations and downregulations of mRNA molecules
- D.
Whether an evolutionary process occurred
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Upregulations and downregulations of mRNA moleculesExplanation
A DNA microarray study is a technique used to analyze the expression levels of thousands of genes simultaneously. It involves measuring the upregulation (increased expression) or downregulation (decreased expression) of mRNA molecules, which are the intermediates between DNA and proteins. By studying these changes in gene expression, researchers can gain insights into various biological processes, such as identifying potential biomarkers for diseases or understanding the effects of certain treatments. Therefore, the correct answer is upregulations and downregulations of mRNA molecules.Rate this question:
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- 38.
DNA microarray is a
- A.
Large scale screening
- B.
Gene expression profiling
- C.
Gene cloning method
- D.
A & B
- E.
A & B & C
Correct Answer
D. A & BExplanation
The correct answer is A & B. DNA microarray is a large-scale screening method used for gene expression profiling. It allows researchers to simultaneously analyze the expression levels of thousands of genes in a single experiment. This technique is useful in identifying genes that are upregulated or downregulated under specific conditions or in different cell types. Additionally, DNA microarrays can also be used for gene cloning, as they provide a way to isolate and amplify specific genes of interest. Therefore, options A and B accurately describe the applications of DNA microarray.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Experts study evolution using which of the following disciplines
- A.
Comparative anatomy
- B.
Biogeography
- C.
Genetics and biochemical analysis
- D.
A & C only
- E.
A & B & C
Correct Answer
E. A & B & CExplanation
The correct answer is A & B & C. Experts study evolution using comparative anatomy, biogeography, and genetics and biochemical analysis. Comparative anatomy helps in understanding the similarities and differences in the anatomical structures of different species, which can provide insights into their evolutionary relationships. Biogeography examines the distribution of species across different geographical regions and how it has changed over time, contributing to our understanding of how species have evolved and dispersed. Genetics and biochemical analysis involve studying the genetic information and molecular processes in organisms, which can reveal evolutionary patterns and relationships.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In the chromatography lab you isolated
- A.
Lipids
- B.
Nucleic acids
- C.
Pigments
- D.
Carbohydrates
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. PigmentsExplanation
The correct answer is pigments. The question mentions that in the chromatography lab, you isolated lipids, nucleic acids, pigments, and carbohydrates. However, the question is asking for the correct answer, which is only pigments.Rate this question:
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- 41.
In the chromatography lab, you read the _______ using different wavelengths
- A.
Absorbance
- B.
Reflection
- C.
Deflection
- D.
Refraction
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. AbsorbanceExplanation
In the chromatography lab, absorbance is measured using different wavelengths. Absorbance refers to the amount of light absorbed by a substance, and it is commonly used to determine the concentration of a compound in a solution. By measuring absorbance at different wavelengths, scientists can obtain information about the specific compounds present in a sample and their concentrations. Reflection, deflection, and refraction are not directly related to measuring absorbance in chromatography.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Darwin and _______ both developed an proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection
- A.
Buffon
- B.
Malthus
- C.
Lamarck
- D.
Wallace
- E.
Hutton
Correct Answer
D. WallaceExplanation
Both Darwin and Wallace independently developed and proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection. While Darwin is widely known for his work on the theory, Wallace also made significant contributions to its development. Wallace's ideas on natural selection closely paralleled Darwin's, and their joint effort led to the publication of the famous paper on the subject in 1858. Although Darwin's book "On the Origin of Species" became more widely recognized, Wallace's contributions to the theory of evolution are highly regarded by scientists.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Fossils are rocks or sediments that
- A.
Have been shaped by wind or water to resemble lifelike forms
- B.
Have been shaped by people to resemble plants or animals
- C.
Bear the impressions or shapes of preserved organisms
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Bear the impressions or shapes of preserved organismsExplanation
Fossils are the remains or traces of organisms that have been preserved in rocks or sediments over time. These preserved organisms leave behind impressions or shapes that resemble their original forms. This is why the correct answer is "bear the impressions or shapes of preserved organisms."Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of these conditions was NOT included in Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
- A.
Physical appearances of individuals vary in a population
- B.
Reproductive rates of individuals vary in a population
- C.
An individual’s chance of survival and reproduction depends on its characteristics
- D.
Some physical traits are passed from parents to offspring
- E.
Genetic mutations spontaneously arise in the DNA of individuals
Correct Answer
E. Genetic mutations spontaneously arise in the DNA of individuals -
- 45.
Which of the following did you find in the owl pellets?
- A.
Hair
- B.
Muscle
- C.
Bone
- D.
Only A & C
- E.
A & B & C
Correct Answer
D. Only A & CExplanation
In owl pellets, the most common items found are hair and bone. Owls regurgitate pellets containing undigested remains of their prey, such as bones and fur. Muscle is not typically found in owl pellets as it is usually digested by the owl's digestive system. Therefore, the correct answer is "only A & C" which refers to hair and bone.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Thomas Malthus proposed
- A.
Evolution is an immoral concept
- B.
Fossil is a major evidence for evolution has occurred
- C.
Overpopulation is not good
- D.
Inheritance of acquired characters
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Overpopulation is not goodExplanation
The correct answer is "overpopulation is not good." Thomas Malthus, an economist and demographer, proposed that overpopulation can lead to negative consequences such as famine, poverty, and social unrest. He argued that population growth would outpace the availability of resources, leading to a decline in living standards. Malthus' ideas were influential in shaping discussions on population and resource management.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
On the Origin of Species was written
- A.
Poe
- B.
Malthus
- C.
Muller
- D.
Wallace
- E.
Darwin
Correct Answer
E. DarwinExplanation
The correct answer is Darwin because he is the author of the book "On the Origin of Species." Darwin's work revolutionized the field of biology and introduced the theory of evolution by natural selection. His book presented evidence for the idea that species evolve over time through a process of adaptation to their environment. Darwin's theory had a profound impact on the scientific community and continues to be widely accepted today.Rate this question:
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- 48.
DNA microarray studies need not to be hypothesis-driven
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
DNA microarray studies do not necessarily need to be hypothesis-driven. This means that researchers can conduct these studies without having a specific hypothesis or question in mind. Instead, they can use microarray technology to analyze and compare gene expression patterns in different samples, allowing for the discovery of new insights and patterns that may not have been anticipated. This exploratory approach can be particularly useful in identifying novel biomarkers or potential therapeutic targets.Rate this question:
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- 49.
According to the Aristotle ladder of Nature evolution could
- A.
Occur in bacteria only
- B.
Occur in all living things
- C.
Occur in human species only
- D.
Not occur as the position of each living thing is fixed
- E.
All of the above are correct
Correct Answer
D. Not occur as the position of each living thing is fixedExplanation
According to the Aristotle ladder of Nature, evolution could not occur as the position of each living thing is fixed. This means that Aristotle believed that species were fixed and unchanging, and that each species had a specific place in the natural order that could not be altered through evolution. Therefore, the correct answer is that evolution could not occur.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Wallace proposed that natural selection is a mechanism for evolution of species.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because Wallace, along with Charles Darwin, developed the theory of evolution through natural selection. Wallace independently arrived at the same conclusion as Darwin and presented his findings jointly with Darwin in 1858. Their theory proposed that species evolve over time through the process of natural selection, where individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, leading to the gradual change and adaptation of species over generations.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 17, 2010Quiz Created by
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How Well Do You Know Molecular Biology Techniques?
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