Bio 101 Lab Exam Pt 2

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,506
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Chemistry Quizzes & Trivia

When it is time to go to the lab it is important for one to know all the chemical elements and instruments they might come in contact with in an experiment. The Bio 101 lab exam is designed to test out your readiness to go into a lab and carry out an experiment. Try it out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is albumin?

    • A.

      A simple form of protein

    • B.

      Soluble in water and coagulable by heat

    • C.

      found in egg white, milk, and blood serum

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Albumin is a simple form of protein that is soluble in water and coagulable by heat. It is found in various substances such as egg white, milk, and blood serum. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as albumin meets all the mentioned characteristics.

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  • 2. 

    What is Biuret reagent?

    • A.

      Potassium hydroxide

    • B.

      KOH

    • C.

      A chemical test for proteins and polypeptides

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    Biuret reagent is a chemical test used to detect the presence of proteins and polypeptides. It is a solution that contains potassium hydroxide (KOH) and copper sulfate. When mixed with a protein or polypeptide, a color change occurs, indicating the presence of these substances. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of these" because Biuret reagent consists of potassium hydroxide and is used as a chemical test for proteins and polypeptides.

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  • 3. 

    What is lugols?

    • A.

      Iodine and potassium iodide solution. Orange in color. Used to test for starch.

    • B.

      Hydrogen peroxide solution. used to absorb CO2

    • C.

      Neither

    • D.

      Both

    Correct Answer
    A. Iodine and potassium iodide solution. Orange in color. Used to test for starch.
    Explanation
    Lugols is a solution made from iodine and potassium iodide. It is orange in color and is commonly used to test for the presence of starch.

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  • 4. 

    Translucent means: Allowing light, but not detailed images, to pass through; semitransparent.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The correct answer is true because translucent refers to a material or substance that allows light to pass through but does not allow detailed images to be seen. It is semitransparent, meaning that it allows some light to pass through, but not enough for clear or detailed images to be visible.

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  • 5. 

    Benedicts solution is used to test for starch

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False deep-blue alkaline solution used to test for the presence of the aldehyde functional group, -CHO

    Correct Answer
    B. False deep-blue alkaline solution used to test for the presence of the aldehyde functional group, -CHO
    Explanation
    The statement is false. Benedicts solution is not used to test for starch. Instead, it is used to test for the presence of the aldehyde functional group, -CHO. It is a deep-blue alkaline solution that changes color to orange or red when an aldehyde is present.

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  • 6. 

    What do the colors, green, red, yellow and orange mean when testing for sugar?

    • A.

      Orange and red indicate the highest proportion of these sugars

    • B.

      A green precipitate means relatively little sugar;

    • C.

      Brown or red precipitate means progressively more sugar is present

    • D.

      A yellowish brown color indicates that the test is negative.

    • E.

      All

    Correct Answer
    E. All
    Explanation
    The colors green, red, yellow, and orange have specific meanings when testing for sugar. Green indicates a relatively low amount of sugar, while brown or red precipitate suggests a higher concentration of sugar. Orange and red indicate the highest proportion of these sugars. A yellowish brown color, on the other hand, indicates a negative result for sugar. Therefore, all of these colors have different interpretations when testing for sugar.

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  • 7. 

    What does orange juice have in it?

    • A.

      Most contain 10 percent or less of pure fruit juice, and lots of water, sugar and additives

    • B.

      Vitamin C

    • C.

      Vitamin D3

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    D. All
    Explanation
    Orange juice contains all of the mentioned components: pure fruit juice, water, sugar, and additives. Additionally, it is a good source of vitamin C. It does not contain vitamin D3, as this vitamin is not naturally present in orange juice.

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  • 8. 

    The fact that a specimen is in focus under the 10X lens and it also in focus under the 40X after you rotate it into position is known as?

    • A.

      Parcentral

    • B.

      Parfocal

    • C.

      Total magnification

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Parfocal
    Explanation
    Parfocal refers to the property of a microscope where the specimen remains in focus when switching between different objective lenses without needing significant adjustments to the focus. In this case, the fact that the specimen remains in focus under both the 10X and 40X lenses after rotating it into position indicates that the microscope is parfocal.

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  • 9. 

    In order to find the total magnification of a specimen, you must multiply the number on the objective lens with the number on the

    • A.

      Stage

    • B.

      Condenser

    • C.

      Light source

    • D.

      Ocular

    Correct Answer
    D. Ocular
    Explanation
    To find the total magnification of a specimen, you need to multiply the magnification of the objective lens with the magnification of the ocular lens. The objective lens is responsible for the initial magnification of the specimen, while the ocular lens further magnifies the image formed by the objective lens. The stage is where the specimen is placed, the condenser helps focus the light onto the specimen, and the light source provides illumination, but they do not directly contribute to the total magnification. Therefore, the correct answer is the ocular lens.

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  • 10. 

    The rheostat of your microscope should be set at?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    B. 7
    Explanation
    The rheostat of a microscope controls the intensity of the light. Setting it at 7 ensures that the light is at an appropriate brightness level for viewing the specimen. This setting allows for a clear and detailed image without causing any strain on the eyes.

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  • 11. 

    The lens that should be set to store the scope should be the?

    • A.

      Scanning

    • B.

      Low power (10)

    • C.

      HIGH POWER (40)

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanning
    Explanation
    The lens that should be set to store the scope should be the scanning lens. This is because the scanning lens provides a wider field of view and is used for locating and observing objects at low magnification. Storing the scope with the scanning lens ensures that it is ready for general use and allows for easy scanning of the specimen. The low power and high power lenses are used for higher magnification and detailed observation, respectively, and are not suitable for storing the scope.

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  • 12. 

    If the measurement of the high power field of view is .450 mm and a specimen takes up 1/10 of the field the specimen is how big? Oops small?

    • A.

      40 mm

    • B.

      0.4 mm

    • C.

      0.045 mm

    • D.

      .0045 mm

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.045 mm
    Explanation
    The measurement of the high power field of view is 0.450 mm. If a specimen takes up 1/10 of the field, it means that the specimen occupies 1/10 of 0.450 mm. To find the size of the specimen, we can divide 0.450 mm by 10, which gives us 0.045 mm. Therefore, the specimen is 0.045 mm in size.

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  • 13. 

    The specimen above, is how many micrometers (microns) small?

    • A.

      45 um

    • B.

      450 um

    • C.

      400 um

    • D.

      95 um

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 um
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 45 um because the question asks for the size of the specimen in micrometers (microns) and 45 um is the only option given in micrometers.

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  • 14. 

    Cyanobacteria are?

    • A.

      Heterotrophs

    • B.

      Plants

    • C.

      Autotrophs

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. AutotropHs
    Explanation
    Cyanobacteria are autotrophs because they are capable of photosynthesis, using sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. They possess pigments, such as chlorophyll, which enable them to capture light energy and carry out this process. This ability to produce their own food distinguishes them from heterotrophs, which rely on obtaining nutrients from external sources, and from plants, which are a specific group of autotrophs but not the only ones. Therefore, cyanobacteria are classified as autotrophs.

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  • 15. 

    Prokaryotes are mainly?

    • A.

      Plants

    • B.

      Animals

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacteria
    Explanation
    Prokaryotes are mainly bacteria because prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Bacteria are a type of prokaryote, characterized by their simple cellular structure and ability to adapt to various environments. While plants and animals are eukaryotes with more complex cellular structures, prokaryotes, such as bacteria, have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from other organisms. Therefore, the correct answer is bacteria.

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  • 16. 

    Eukaryotes are different from prokaryotes in that they have?

    • A.

      Nuclei

    • B.

      Organelles

    • C.

      Both

    • D.

      Neither

    Correct Answer
    C. Both
    Explanation
    Eukaryotes are different from prokaryotes because they have both nuclei and organelles. Prokaryotes, such as bacteria, do not have a defined nucleus or membrane-bound organelles. On the other hand, eukaryotes, including plants, animals, fungi, and protists, have a distinct nucleus that houses their genetic material and various membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus. These organelles perform specific functions within the cell, contributing to the complexity and efficiency of eukaryotic organisms.

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  • 17. 

    The part of the plant that will not let it pop in a hypotonic solution is it's

    • A.

      Nucleus

    • B.

      Plastid

    • C.

      Wall

    • D.

      Membrane

    Correct Answer
    C. Wall
    Explanation
    The wall of a plant cell is composed of a rigid structure called the cell wall, which provides support and protection to the cell. In a hypotonic solution, where the external environment has a lower solute concentration compared to the cell's cytoplasm, water tends to move into the cell by osmosis. However, the cell wall prevents excessive water uptake and expansion of the cell, thereby preventing it from bursting or "popping".

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  • 18. 

    If a blood cell is put in a hypertonic solution it will?

    • A.

      Pop

    • B.

      Shrink

    • C.

      Remain the same

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Shrink
    Explanation
    When a blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the solution has a higher concentration of solutes compared to the cell. As a result, water from inside the cell will move outwards through osmosis, causing the cell to lose water and shrink in size. Therefore, the correct answer is "shrink".

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  • 19. 

    If an enzyme is warmed it will work on the substrate

    • A.

      Faster

    • B.

      Slower

    • C.

      It wont work on it at all

    • D.

      It wont make a difference in the rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Faster
    Explanation
    When an enzyme is warmed, it increases the kinetic energy of the molecules, including the enzyme and the substrate. This increased energy allows for more frequent collisions between the enzyme and substrate, increasing the rate of reaction. Therefore, the enzyme will work on the substrate faster when warmed.

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  • 20. 

    What happens if you denature the enzyme?

    • A.

      Faster

    • B.

      Slower

    • C.

      It wont work on it at all

    • D.

      It wont make a difference in the rate

    Correct Answer
    C. It wont work on it at all
    Explanation
    If you denature the enzyme, it means that you have altered its structure and destroyed its active site. The active site is the region of the enzyme where the substrate binds and the chemical reaction takes place. Without a functional active site, the enzyme is unable to catalyze the reaction, rendering it completely ineffective. Therefore, denaturing the enzyme will cause it to not work at all.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 26, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    RedWhisker
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