Aud PRAXIS Practice Test

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| By CaitlinRock2013
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CaitlinRock2013
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Aud PRAXIS Practice Test - Quiz

The Praxis Examination in Audiology is designed to give a professional licensure and teacher credentialing. How ready do you feel for the certification exams? The quiz below will test your readiness and help you revise at the same time. Give it a shot and all the best of luck in your studies!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The caloric test is designed to stimulate which of the following structures?

    • A.

      The utricle

    • B.

      The saccule

    • C.

      The superior semicircular canal

    • D.

      The posterior semicircular canal

    • E.

      The lateral semicircular canal

    Correct Answer
    E. The lateral semicircular canal
    Explanation
    The caloric test is designed to stimulate the lateral semicircular canal. This test involves irrigating the ear canal with warm or cold water, which causes a temperature change in the fluid within the semicircular canals. The resulting movement of the fluid stimulates the hair cells within the lateral semicircular canal, leading to a nystagmus response. This test is used to assess the function of the vestibular system and can help diagnose certain vestibular disorders.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the signals required by federal regulations for monitoring audiometry in industry?

    • A.

      500,1000, 2000 and 4000 Hz

    • B.

      500, 1000, 2000 and 6000 Hz

    • C.

      500, 1000, 2000, 3000, and 8000 Hz

    • D.

      250, 500, 1000, 2000, 4000 and 8000 Hz

    • E.

      500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz

    Correct Answer
    E. 500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz. This is a complete and accurate list of the signals required by federal regulations for monitoring audiometry in industry.

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  • 3. 

    In the sound field, an audiologist measures 30 dB SPL at a distance of 10 meters from the source.  Assuming no change in sound source or field conditions, at 20 meters from the source, the dB SPL will be...

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      27

    • E.

      30

    Correct Answer
    C. 24
    Explanation
    Every time you double the distance, the sound pressure level drops 6 dB.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following earmold modifications would NOT enhance the high-frequency response of a hearing aid, as measured in the ear canal?

    • A.

      A 4mm Libby Horn

    • B.

      A 3mm Libby Horn

    • C.

      A bore with a narrow diameter

    • D.

      A shortened canal

    • E.

      A bell bore

    Correct Answer
    C. A bore with a narrow diameter
    Explanation
    A bore with a narrow diameter would NOT enhance the high-frequency response of a hearing aid. A narrow diameter bore restricts the flow of sound into the ear canal, reducing the overall volume and potentially limiting the range of frequencies that can be heard. In contrast, earmold modifications such as using a 4mm or 3mm Libby Horn, a shortened canal, or a bell bore can help improve the high-frequency response by allowing more sound to reach the ear canal and enhancing the amplification of higher-pitched sounds.

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  • 5. 

    In the measurement of real-ear sound-pressure levels with a probe-tube microphone system, insufficient probe-tube depth will tend to...

    • A.

      Increase the high-frequency response

    • B.

      Decrease the high-frequency response

    • C.

      Decrease the response at all frquencies

    • D.

      Decrease the low-frequency response

    • E.

      Increase the low-frequency response

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease the high-frequency response
    Explanation
    Insufficient probe-tube depth in a real-ear sound-pressure measurement with a probe-tube microphone system will tend to decrease the high-frequency response. This is because the probe-tube microphone system is designed to measure sound pressure at the eardrum, and the depth of the probe-tube affects the accuracy of the measurement. If the probe-tube is not inserted deep enough, it may not accurately capture the high-frequency sounds, leading to a decrease in the high-frequency response.

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  • 6. 

    What speech skill allows children to learn to attend to and determine what sounds are important? 

    • A.

      Detection

    • B.

      Discrimination

    • C.

      Recognition

    • D.

      Understanding

    Correct Answer
    B. Discrimination
    Explanation
    (If you think there is a better answer let me know - I had a hard time with this one)

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  • 7. 

    For a fixed setting of the hearing-level dial of a pure-tone audiometer, which of the following is true of the actual sound-pressure level (SPL) output of the audiometer earphone?

    • A.

      It is constant across all frequencies

    • B.

      It is lowest at mid-frquencies

    • C.

      It increases as a function of frequency

    • D.

      It is highest at 4000 Hz

    • E.

      It decreases 6 dB per octave

    Correct Answer
    B. It is lowest at mid-frquencies
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "it is lowest at mid-frequencies." This means that the actual sound-pressure level output of the audiometer earphone is lowest at frequencies in the middle range. This suggests that the earphone is less sensitive to mid-frequencies compared to other frequencies, resulting in lower sound-pressure levels at those frequencies.

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  • 8. 

    Under OSHA regulations adopted in March 1983, a standard threshold shift on an annual audiogram is defined as a change in hearing threshold relative to the baseline audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at which of the following frequencies?

    • A.

      500, 1000, & 2000 Hz

    • B.

      1000, 2000, & 3000 Hz

    • C.

      2000, 3000, & 4000 Hz

    • D.

      500, 1000, 2000, & 3000 Hz

    • E.

      500, 1000, 2000, & 4000 Hz

    Correct Answer
    C. 2000, 3000, & 4000 Hz
    Explanation
    Under OSHA regulations adopted in March 1983, a standard threshold shift on an annual audiogram is defined as a change in hearing threshold relative to the baseline audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at the frequencies of 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hz. This means that if there is a 10 dB or more change in hearing threshold at these specific frequencies compared to the baseline audiogram, it is considered a standard threshold shift according to OSHA regulations.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following always applies to to nystagmus caused by a labyrinthine lesion?

    • A.

      It is right-beating on right gaze and left-beating on left gaze

    • B.

      It is pendular when the eyes are closed

    • C.

      It is enhanced with eyes open

    • D.

      It is up-beating on up gaze and down-beating on down gaze

    • E.

      It is suppressed by visual fixation

    Correct Answer
    E. It is suppressed by visual fixation
    Explanation
    Nystagmus caused by a labyrinthine lesion is suppressed by visual fixation. This means that when the person with this condition focuses their gaze on a stationary object, the nystagmus is reduced or stopped. Visual fixation helps stabilize the eyes and reduces the abnormal eye movements associated with labyrinthine lesions.

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  • 10. 

    A Positive Stenger test indicates...

    • A.

      A patient is faking a unilateral hearing loss

    • B.

      A patient is presenting with an idiopathic unilateral hearing loss

    • C.

      A patient is faking a bilateral hearing loss

    • D.

      A patient is presenting with an idiopathic bilateral hearing loss

    • E.

      The patient has a conductive hearing loss

    Correct Answer
    A. A patient is faking a unilateral hearing loss
    Explanation
    A Positive Stenger test indicates that a patient is faking a unilateral hearing loss. The Stenger test is a method used to determine if a patient is genuinely unable to hear in one ear or if they are pretending to have a hearing loss. In the test, two identical tones are presented simultaneously to both ears. If the patient is truly unable to hear in one ear, they should only perceive the tone in the other ear. However, if they are faking the hearing loss, they may claim to hear the tone in the "deaf" ear as well. A positive Stenger test confirms that the patient is intentionally faking the hearing loss in one ear.

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  • 11. 

    A type of otoacoustic emission that requires the use of tow oscillators and two attenuators is known as...

    • A.

      Spontaneous otoacoustic emission

    • B.

      Transient evoked otoacoustic emission

    • C.

      Distortion-product otoacoustic emission

    • D.

      Stimulus-driven otoacoustic emission

    Correct Answer
    C. Distortion-product otoacoustic emission
    Explanation
    Distortion-product otoacoustic emission is a type of otoacoustic emission that requires the use of two oscillators and two attenuators. This technique involves presenting two pure tones to the ear, and the resulting emissions are measured. The emissions occur at different frequencies, which are mathematically related to the frequencies of the two pure tones. This type of otoacoustic emission is often used in audiology to assess the functioning of the cochlea and can provide valuable information about hearing sensitivity and inner ear health.

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  • 12. 

    Reflexes: With the probe in the right ear, the acoustic reflex is present on both contralateral and ipsilateral stimulation.  With the probe in the left ear, the acoustic reflex is absent on both contra and ipsi stimulation.  The most likely cause of this finding is?

    • A.

      Conductive impairment in the right ear

    • B.

      8th nerve pathology on the right side

    • C.

      8th nerve pathology on the left side

    • D.

      7th nerve pathology on the right side

    • E.

      7th nerve pathology on the left side

    Correct Answer
    C. 8th nerve pathology on the left side
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the described finding, where the acoustic reflex is present on both contralateral and ipsilateral stimulation with the probe in the right ear but absent on both contra and ipsi stimulation with the probe in the left ear, is:
    8th nerve pathology on the left side.
    This pattern suggests an issue with the auditory pathway on the left side, likely involving the eighth cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve) responsible for hearing.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following tests would yield information of greatest importance in the audiologic evaluation of an adult with an average air-conduction threshold of 75 dB HL in one ear and normal sensitivity in the other?

    • A.

      Tympanometry

    • B.

      Reflex-decay test

    • C.

      The Stenger test

    • D.

      The distorted-speech test

    Correct Answer
    C. The Stenger test
    Explanation
    The Stenger test would yield information of greatest importance in the audiologic evaluation of an adult with an average air-conduction threshold of 75 dB HL in one ear and normal sensitivity in the other. The Stenger test is used to determine if a person is intentionally feigning or exaggerating hearing loss in one ear. In this case, the test can help determine if the individual is purposely pretending to have hearing loss in the ear with the 75 dB HL threshold. This information is crucial in accurately assessing the person's hearing abilities and determining appropriate treatment or intervention.

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  • 14. 

    A VNG/ENG test shows a caloric response yielding a left unilateral weakness. Which of the following statements about the results is most accurate?

    • A.

      It suggests a right peripheral vestibular disorder

    • B.

      It is of no real value in the interpretation

    • C.

      It suggests a left peripheral vestibular disorder of either the labyrithine or 8th nerve

    • D.

      It suggests a central vestibular disorder

    Correct Answer
    C. It suggests a left peripheral vestibular disorder of either the labyrithine or 8th nerve
    Explanation
    The VNG/ENG test measures the caloric response, which involves stimulating the vestibular system with warm or cold water. In this case, the test result shows a left unilateral weakness, indicating a decreased response in the left ear compared to the right ear. This suggests a dysfunction in the left peripheral vestibular system, which includes the labyrinthine (inner ear) or the 8th cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve). Therefore, the most accurate statement about the results is that it suggests a left peripheral vestibular disorder involving either the labyrinthine or 8th nerve.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is the tuning-fork test that most directly predicts the presence of a conductive hearing loss?

    • A.

      Rinne

    • B.

      Weber

    • C.

      Schwabach

    • D.

      Stenger

    Correct Answer
    A. Rinne
    Explanation
    The Rinne test is the tuning-fort test that most directly predicts the presence of a conductive hearing loss, because it compares air-conduction to bone-conduction reception in the sound. The Weber test will lateralize either to the better-hearing ear in the cases of sensorineural or to the ear with a conductive hearing loss: it only indirectly detects conductive hearing loss. The Schwaback test is subjective and is therefore not as sensitive as the rinne: it is not widely used. The Stenger is not a tuning-fork test.

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  • 16. 

    An audiologist is asked to establish a hearing conservation program for an industrial firm.  to ensure validity in monitoring the hearing of workers in compliance with OSHA regulations the audiologist should do which of the following?

    • A.

      Test at the end of the work shift in order to record the observed temporary threshold shift (TTS)

    • B.

      Test at all frequecies in octaves between 250 - 8000 Hz and also at 3000 Hz

    • C.

      Include acoustic immittance measures in the hearing test battery

    • D.

      Test only thoes employees who are esposed to time-weighted aberate (TWA) sound levels of 95 dBA or above

    • E.

      Administer threshold tests in areas where ambient noise levels conform to the regulations published in the Federal Register

    Correct Answer
    E. Administer threshold tests in areas where ambient noise levels conform to the regulations published in the Federal Register
    Explanation
    the hearing test will not be valid according to OSHA if the background noise level is too high when/where the hearing is tested

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  • 17. 

    An electronystagmography (ENG) of a patient reveals that the responses to the right warm & right cool caloric irrigations are 12% weaker than the responses to the left warm and left cool caloric irrigations. An Audiologist should report this finding as

    • A.

      Unilateral weakness on the left

    • B.

      Unilateral weakness on the right

    • C.

      Directional preponderance to the right

    • D.

      Directional preponderance to the left

    • E.

      Normal caloric response

    Correct Answer
    E. Normal caloric response
    Explanation
    interaural differences must be at least 15-20% different to be considered significant, so a difference of 12% between the right and left ear responses indicates a caloric response WNL.

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  • 18. 

    A TDH-39 headphone on a 9-A coupler with the audiometer set at 1000 Hz and 25 dB HL should produce a sound-pressure level of approximately how many dB?

    • A.

      17.8

    • B.

      18.5

    • C.

      25.0

    • D.

      32.0

    • E.

      35.5

    Correct Answer
    D. 32.0
    Explanation
    at 1000 Hz, 0 dB SPL = 7 dBSPL, therefore 25 dB HL + 7 = 32.0 dBSPL

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  • 19. 

    A patient reports that her hearing is getting progressively worse and that she often hears better in noisy conditions than in quiet, her hearing loss is likely to be...

    • A.

      Conductive

    • B.

      Sensorineural

    • C.

      Caused by a lesion on the auditory nerve

    • D.

      Due to presbycusis

    Correct Answer
    A. Conductive
    Explanation
    People speak louder in noise and therefor the patient hears better once the conductive component is overcome. People with SNHL don't hear better in background noise - but you knew that ;)

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  • 20. 

    In 2002, the ANSI adopted guidelines for classroom acoustics, intened for use in the design of new classrooms and in the renovation of existing classrooms.  The ANSI-recommended average noise levels and reverberation times for unoccupied classrooms (<10,000 cubic feet) are?

    • A.

      15 dBA or less and .2 sec of reverb or less

    • B.

      25 dBA or less and 2.0 sec of reverb or less

    • C.

      35 dBA or less and .6 sec of reverb or less

    • D.

      45 dBA or less and 2.0 sec of reverb or less

    • E.

      55 dBA or less and .2 sec of reverb or less

    Correct Answer
    C. 35 dBA or less and .6 sec of reverb or less
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 35 dBA or less and .6 sec of reverb or less. The ANSI guidelines recommend these average noise levels and reverberation times for unoccupied classrooms with a volume of less than 10,000 cubic feet. This means that the noise level should be 35 decibels or lower and the reverberation time should be 0.6 seconds or shorter. These guidelines aim to create an optimal acoustic environment for learning, minimizing background noise and echo in the classroom.

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  • 21. 

    Caloric weakness on the side of stimulation correlates to site of lesion on that same side

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement "Caloric weakness on the side of stimulation correlates to site of lesion on that same side" is true. This means that when there is weakness in the response of the caloric reflex, which is a test used to assess the function of the vestibular system, it indicates that there is a lesion or damage on the same side of the brain or ear that was stimulated. This correlation helps in diagnosing the location of the lesion and guiding further medical intervention.

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  • 22. 

    Nystagmus that is vertical in nature, direction changing and failure of fixation are connected to which kind of balance problem?

    • A.

      Peripheral

    • B.

      Central

    Correct Answer
    B. Central
    Explanation
    Nystagmus that is vertical in nature, direction changing, and associated with failure of fixation is connected to a central balance problem. Central balance problems are caused by issues within the central nervous system, particularly in the brainstem or cerebellum. These problems can affect the coordination and control of eye movements, leading to abnormal eye movements like nystagmus. Peripheral balance problems, on the other hand, are caused by issues in the inner ear or vestibular system.

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  • 23. 

    • Trauma to the temporal or parietal region and commonly involve fractures of the temporal squamos or parietal bone
    • A fracture line may extend through the facial nerve canal, cranial nerve (CN) VII
    • Associated injury, such as transection or intraneural hemorrhage
    • May cause facial nerve paralysis – damaged from displaced bone fragments, paralysis commonly is incomplete and may be delayed
    • May disrupt the ossicular chain → conductive hearing loss.

    • A.

      Transverse Fracture

    • B.

      Longitudinal Fracture

    Correct Answer
    B. Longitudinal Fracture
    Explanation
    A longitudinal fracture refers to a fracture line that runs parallel to the long axis of the bone. In the context of the given information, a longitudinal fracture can occur in the temporal or parietal region of the skull. This type of fracture can extend through the facial nerve canal, which houses the cranial nerve VII. The associated injury, such as transection or intraneural hemorrhage, can cause facial nerve paralysis. Additionally, a longitudinal fracture may disrupt the ossicular chain, leading to conductive hearing loss.

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  • 24. 

    • Trauma to the occiput or cranial-cervical junction
    • Runs anterior to posterior
    • A fracture passing through the vestibulocochlear apparatus → SNHL and balance disorders
    • Vertigo when trauma to the temporal bone damages the membranous labyrinth and vestibule & when the fracture results in a perilymphatic fistula or a CSF leak.

    • A.

      Longitudinal Fracture

    • B.

      Transverse Fracture

    Correct Answer
    B. Transverse Fracture
    Explanation
    A transverse fracture refers to a fracture that runs horizontally or perpendicular to the long axis of the bone. In the context of the given information, a transverse fracture passing through the vestibulocochlear apparatus can result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) and balance disorders. Additionally, trauma to the temporal bone can damage the membranous labyrinth and vestibule, leading to vertigo. A transverse fracture may also result in a perilymphatic fistula or a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which can further contribute to vertigo. Therefore, a transverse fracture is a plausible explanation for the symptoms described.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 27, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    CaitlinRock2013

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