AST Practice Test - Part 2 of 2

1. If a needle punctures a sterile tem member's glove,

Discard the needle

Change the glove

Place another glove over the punctured one

A and B

If a needle punctures a sterile team member's glove, it is important to discard the needle to prevent any potential injuries or contamination. Additionally, it is necessary to change the glove to maintain sterility and prevent the spread of any pathogens. Therefore, both options A and B are correct. Placing another glove over the punctured one is not recommended as it may compromise the sterility of the area.

Explanation

If a needle punctures a sterile team member's glove, it is important to discard the needle to prevent any potential injuries or contamination. Additionally, it is necessary to change the glove to maintain sterility and prevent the spread of any pathogens. Therefore, both options A and B are correct. Placing another glove over the punctured one is not recommended as it may compromise the sterility of the area.

2. When applying a sterile sheet on the patient,

Protect the gloved hands by cuffing the end of the sheet over them

Adjust the drape by pulling it toward the sterile area

The gloved hands may touch the painted skin of the patient

Unfold form the patient's foot to the operative site

When applying a sterile sheet on the patient, it is important to protect the gloved hands by cuffing the end of the sheet over them. This helps to create a barrier between the hands and the potentially contaminated environment, reducing the risk of infection. By cuffing the sheet over the hands, any contact with the patient's skin or other non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining the sterility of the procedure.

Explanation

When applying a sterile sheet on the patient, it is important to protect the gloved hands by cuffing the end of the sheet over them. This helps to create a barrier between the hands and the potentially contaminated environment, reducing the risk of infection. By cuffing the sheet over the hands, any contact with the patient's skin or other non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining the sterility of the procedure.

3. Nosocomial infection refers to

Hospital-acquired infection

Infection in the nose

Infection in the wound

Surgery-related infection

Nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. This type of infection is specifically associated with the healthcare environment and can be caused by various factors such as contaminated equipment, improper hygiene practices, or the presence of drug-resistant bacteria. Hospital-acquired infections can occur in different parts of the body, including the respiratory tract, urinary tract, surgical wounds, and bloodstream. It is important to prevent and control nosocomial infections through proper infection control measures to ensure patient safety and reduce the spread of these infections within healthcare facilities.

Explanation

Nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. This type of infection is specifically associated with the healthcare environment and can be caused by various factors such as contaminated equipment, improper hygiene practices, or the presence of drug-resistant bacteria. Hospital-acquired infections can occur in different parts of the body, including the respiratory tract, urinary tract, surgical wounds, and bloodstream. It is important to prevent and control nosocomial infections through proper infection control measures to ensure patient safety and reduce the spread of these infections within healthcare facilities.

4. During a CPR effort in the OR, the scrub nurse

Starts time clock and records arrest time

Remains sterile and keeps tables sterile

Assists with traffic control as ordered

Breaks scrub and mans defibrillator

The scrub nurse's main responsibility during a CPR effort in the OR is to maintain sterility in the operating room and keep the tables sterile. This is crucial to prevent any infections or complications during the procedure. The nurse should not break scrub or leave their sterile field unless necessary. Assisting with traffic control or operating the defibrillator may be important tasks, but the nurse's priority should be to ensure a sterile environment.

Explanation

The scrub nurse's main responsibility during a CPR effort in the OR is to maintain sterility in the operating room and keep the tables sterile. This is crucial to prevent any infections or complications during the procedure. The nurse should not break scrub or leave their sterile field unless necessary. Assisting with traffic control or operating the defibrillator may be important tasks, but the nurse's priority should be to ensure a sterile environment.

5. A common abdominal complication caused by previous abdoominal or pelvic surgery is

Adenomyosis

Endometriosis

Adhesions

Vaginal discharge

Adhesions are a common abdominal complication caused by previous abdominal or pelvic surgery. Adhesions occur when scar tissue forms between organs or tissues in the abdomen, causing them to stick together. This can lead to pain, discomfort, and even bowel obstruction. Adhesions are a well-known complication of surgery, especially surgeries involving the abdomen or pelvis, and can cause significant complications for patients.

Explanation

Adhesions are a common abdominal complication caused by previous abdominal or pelvic surgery. Adhesions occur when scar tissue forms between organs or tissues in the abdomen, causing them to stick together. This can lead to pain, discomfort, and even bowel obstruction. Adhesions are a well-known complication of surgery, especially surgeries involving the abdomen or pelvis, and can cause significant complications for patients.

6. The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered

Sterile

Semisterile

Nonsterile

Surgically clean

The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered nonsterile because they are exposed to the external environment and can easily become contaminated. Even though the contents inside the wrapper are sterile, the edges are not protected and can potentially introduce bacteria or other contaminants. Therefore, it is important to handle the edges of the wrapper with caution and consider them as nonsterile.

Explanation

The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered nonsterile because they are exposed to the external environment and can easily become contaminated. Even though the contents inside the wrapper are sterile, the edges are not protected and can potentially introduce bacteria or other contaminants. Therefore, it is important to handle the edges of the wrapper with caution and consider them as nonsterile.

7. Fingerlike projections at the end of the Fallopian tubes are called

Fimbriae

Infundibulum

Graphian follicle

Corpus luteum

Fingerlike projections at the end of the Fallopian tubes are called fimbriae. These fimbriae help to capture the released egg from the ovary and guide it into the Fallopian tube for fertilization. They create a sweeping motion to move the egg towards the tube. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped opening of the Fallopian tube that contains the fimbriae. Graphian follicle and corpus luteum are structures found in the ovaries and not directly related to the Fallopian tubes.

Explanation

Fingerlike projections at the end of the Fallopian tubes are called fimbriae. These fimbriae help to capture the released egg from the ovary and guide it into the Fallopian tube for fertilization. They create a sweeping motion to move the egg towards the tube. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped opening of the Fallopian tube that contains the fimbriae. Graphian follicle and corpus luteum are structures found in the ovaries and not directly related to the Fallopian tubes.

8. The excision and removal of diseased and necrotic tissue is termed

Desiccation

Decortication

Debridement

Dermabrasion

Debridement is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing damaged, dead, or infected tissue from a wound or injury. This procedure is commonly performed to promote healing and prevent infection. Desiccation refers to the drying out of tissue, decortication is the removal of the outer layer of an organ or bone, and dermabrasion is a cosmetic procedure that involves the removal of the top layer of skin. None of these options accurately describe the removal of diseased and necrotic tissue.

Explanation

Debridement is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing damaged, dead, or infected tissue from a wound or injury. This procedure is commonly performed to promote healing and prevent infection. Desiccation refers to the drying out of tissue, decortication is the removal of the outer layer of an organ or bone, and dermabrasion is a cosmetic procedure that involves the removal of the top layer of skin. None of these options accurately describe the removal of diseased and necrotic tissue.

9. At which artery is the blood pressure taken?

Cephalic

Brachial

Basilar

Axillary

The blood pressure is typically taken at the brachial artery. This artery is located in the upper arm and is commonly used to measure blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope. The brachial artery is easily accessible and provides accurate readings of blood pressure.

Explanation

The blood pressure is typically taken at the brachial artery. This artery is located in the upper arm and is commonly used to measure blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope. The brachial artery is easily accessible and provides accurate readings of blood pressure.

10. The excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids is called

Fasciectomy

Oculoplasty

Rhtyidectomy

Blepharoplasty

Blepharoplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical procedure that involves the removal of excess skin and fat from the eyelids. This procedure is commonly performed to improve the appearance of droopy or sagging eyelids, giving a more youthful and refreshed look to the eyes. The other options, fasciectomy, oculoplasty, and rhytidectomy, do not specifically involve the excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids.

Explanation

Blepharoplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical procedure that involves the removal of excess skin and fat from the eyelids. This procedure is commonly performed to improve the appearance of droopy or sagging eyelids, giving a more youthful and refreshed look to the eyes. The other options, fasciectomy, oculoplasty, and rhytidectomy, do not specifically involve the excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids.

11. An instrument used to incise the eardrum to relieve pressure is called a

Rosen knife

Walsh crurotomy knife

Myringotomy knife

Hough pick

A myringotomy knife is a surgical instrument specifically designed for making an incision in the eardrum, a procedure known as myringotomy. This incision is made to relieve pressure buildup in the middle ear and is often performed to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections or to insert ear ventilation tubes. The other options mentioned, such as the Rosen knife, Walsh crurotomy knife, and Hough pick, are not commonly used instruments for this particular procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is myringotomy knife.

Explanation

A myringotomy knife is a surgical instrument specifically designed for making an incision in the eardrum, a procedure known as myringotomy. This incision is made to relieve pressure buildup in the middle ear and is often performed to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections or to insert ear ventilation tubes. The other options mentioned, such as the Rosen knife, Walsh crurotomy knife, and Hough pick, are not commonly used instruments for this particular procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is myringotomy knife.

12. Protective goggles are worn during CO2 laser surgery to

Deflect glare

Prevent corneal damage

Avoid splashing from irrigation

Absorb light rays

CO2 lasers are powerful devices that emit invisible infrared light beams, which can cause serious eye damage if proper precautions are not taken. The protective goggles are designed to absorb these harmful light rays, thus minimizing the risk of injury to the surgeon, assistants, and the patient. Additionally, these goggles also offer some protection against potential splashing from irrigation fluids or other hazards that might occur during the surgical procedure.

Explanation

CO2 lasers are powerful devices that emit invisible infrared light beams, which can cause serious eye damage if proper precautions are not taken. The protective goggles are designed to absorb these harmful light rays, thus minimizing the risk of injury to the surgeon, assistants, and the patient. Additionally, these goggles also offer some protection against potential splashing from irrigation fluids or other hazards that might occur during the surgical procedure.

13. The surgical procedure performed electively as a permanent method of sterilization is

Epididymectomy

Orchiectomy

Vasectomy

Orchiopexy

A vasectomy is a surgical procedure performed as a permanent method of sterilization. It involves cutting or blocking the vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles, to prevent sperm from reaching the semen that is ejaculated. This procedure is typically performed on men who no longer wish to father children or who have completed their desired family size. Unlike epididymectomy, orchiectomy, and orchiopexy, which involve the removal or repositioning of testicles or epididymis, a vasectomy specifically focuses on preventing sperm from entering the ejaculate.

Explanation

A vasectomy is a surgical procedure performed as a permanent method of sterilization. It involves cutting or blocking the vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles, to prevent sperm from reaching the semen that is ejaculated. This procedure is typically performed on men who no longer wish to father children or who have completed their desired family size. Unlike epididymectomy, orchiectomy, and orchiopexy, which involve the removal or repositioning of testicles or epididymis, a vasectomy specifically focuses on preventing sperm from entering the ejaculate.

14. When doing a skin prep, which includes a draining sinus, the contaminated area is

Done first

Done last or separately

Given no special consideration

Avoided because it is contaminated

When doing a skin prep, it is important to prioritize the contaminated area, such as a draining sinus, by doing it last or separately. This is because the contaminated area can potentially spread bacteria or other pathogens to other clean areas if it is done first. By addressing the contaminated area last or separately, the risk of cross-contamination is minimized, ensuring a more effective and safe skin prep procedure.

Explanation

When doing a skin prep, it is important to prioritize the contaminated area, such as a draining sinus, by doing it last or separately. This is because the contaminated area can potentially spread bacteria or other pathogens to other clean areas if it is done first. By addressing the contaminated area last or separately, the risk of cross-contamination is minimized, ensuring a more effective and safe skin prep procedure.

15. The item that provides internal drainage of an obstructed ureter is a(n)

Lithotrite

Stone basket

Stent

ESWL

A stent is a medical device that is inserted into the ureter to provide internal drainage when it is obstructed. It is a flexible tube-like structure that helps to keep the ureter open and allows urine to flow freely from the kidney to the bladder. Stents are commonly used to treat conditions such as kidney stones or tumors that can cause blockages in the ureter. They are usually temporary and may need to be removed once the obstruction is resolved.

Explanation

A stent is a medical device that is inserted into the ureter to provide internal drainage when it is obstructed. It is a flexible tube-like structure that helps to keep the ureter open and allows urine to flow freely from the kidney to the bladder. Stents are commonly used to treat conditions such as kidney stones or tumors that can cause blockages in the ureter. They are usually temporary and may need to be removed once the obstruction is resolved.

16. If a towel clip must be removed during a procedure

The patient must be redraped

Discard it from the fied and cover the area with another sterile drape

Place it near the skin knife

Use the same towel clip but cover the area with another sterile drape

If a towel clip must be removed during a procedure, it is important to maintain sterility. Discarding the towel clip from the field helps to prevent contamination. To maintain sterility, the area where the towel clip was removed should be covered with another sterile drape. This ensures that the surgical site remains free from any potential sources of infection.

Explanation

If a towel clip must be removed during a procedure, it is important to maintain sterility. Discarding the towel clip from the field helps to prevent contamination. To maintain sterility, the area where the towel clip was removed should be covered with another sterile drape. This ensures that the surgical site remains free from any potential sources of infection.

17. The eardrum is also known as the

External auditory canal

Ear canal

Semicircular canal

Tympanic membrane

The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It is located at the end of the ear canal and is responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they cause the eardrum to vibrate, which in turn sets the chain of ossicles in motion, amplifying the sound and transmitting it to the inner ear.

Explanation

The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It is located at the end of the ear canal and is responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they cause the eardrum to vibrate, which in turn sets the chain of ossicles in motion, amplifying the sound and transmitting it to the inner ear.

18. The function of the endocrine glands is to

Manufacture sugar

Produce hormones

Maintain acid-base balance

Digest fat

The endocrine glands are responsible for producing and releasing hormones into the bloodstream. These hormones act as chemical messengers and regulate various bodily functions, such as growth and development, metabolism, reproduction, and mood. Therefore, the correct answer is "produce hormones."

Explanation

The endocrine glands are responsible for producing and releasing hormones into the bloodstream. These hormones act as chemical messengers and regulate various bodily functions, such as growth and development, metabolism, reproduction, and mood. Therefore, the correct answer is "produce hormones."

19. When inserting a Foley catheter, always

Check theintegrity of the balloon by inflating it with the correct amount of sterile water prior to insertion

Inflate the balloon immediatley after insertion

Connect the catheter to the closed drainage system before the catheter is inserted

Have the scrub nurse hold bag above table level

Before inserting a Foley catheter, it is important to check the integrity of the balloon by inflating it with the correct amount of sterile water. This ensures that the balloon is not damaged and will function properly once inserted. Inflating the balloon immediately after insertion may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. Connecting the catheter to the closed drainage system before insertion helps maintain a sterile environment and prevents contamination. Having the scrub nurse hold the bag above table level helps with proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine.

Explanation

Before inserting a Foley catheter, it is important to check the integrity of the balloon by inflating it with the correct amount of sterile water. This ensures that the balloon is not damaged and will function properly once inserted. Inflating the balloon immediately after insertion may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. Connecting the catheter to the closed drainage system before insertion helps maintain a sterile environment and prevents contamination. Having the scrub nurse hold the bag above table level helps with proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine.

20. Which piece of equipment is used to make a skin graft larger?

Knife dermatome

Brown air dermatome

Mesh dermatome

Reese drum-type dermatome

A mesh dermatome is used to make a skin graft larger. This device cuts the skin into a mesh-like pattern, allowing it to stretch and cover a larger area. Unlike a knife dermatome or a Brown air dermatome, which are used for initial graft harvest, the mesh dermatome specifically helps in expanding the size of the graft. The Reese drum-type dermatome is not used for graft expansion either.

Explanation

A mesh dermatome is used to make a skin graft larger. This device cuts the skin into a mesh-like pattern, allowing it to stretch and cover a larger area. Unlike a knife dermatome or a Brown air dermatome, which are used for initial graft harvest, the mesh dermatome specifically helps in expanding the size of the graft. The Reese drum-type dermatome is not used for graft expansion either.

21. A bacteria with a thick coat that protects it from temperature extremes or strong chemicals is a

Parasite

Host

Saprophyte

Spore

A bacteria with a thick coat that protects it from temperature extremes or strong chemicals is a spore. Spores are specialized structures that some bacteria form to protect themselves from harsh conditions. These coats provide a protective barrier that allows the spore to survive in extreme temperatures or in the presence of strong chemicals. Spores can remain dormant for long periods of time until conditions become favorable for growth and reproduction.

Explanation

A bacteria with a thick coat that protects it from temperature extremes or strong chemicals is a spore. Spores are specialized structures that some bacteria form to protect themselves from harsh conditions. These coats provide a protective barrier that allows the spore to survive in extreme temperatures or in the presence of strong chemicals. Spores can remain dormant for long periods of time until conditions become favorable for growth and reproduction.

22. The word which best describes "staging" is

Reproduction criteria

Categorization

Series

B and C

The word "staging" can be best described as both categorization and series. Categorization refers to the act of organizing or classifying things into different categories, which can be applicable to staging as it involves categorizing or classifying items or elements for a specific purpose, such as in theater or event production. Series refers to a sequence or progression of events or actions, which can also be applicable to staging as it often involves a series of steps or processes to prepare and present something effectively. Therefore, both categorization and series accurately describe the concept of staging.

Explanation

The word "staging" can be best described as both categorization and series. Categorization refers to the act of organizing or classifying things into different categories, which can be applicable to staging as it involves categorizing or classifying items or elements for a specific purpose, such as in theater or event production. Series refers to a sequence or progression of events or actions, which can also be applicable to staging as it often involves a series of steps or processes to prepare and present something effectively. Therefore, both categorization and series accurately describe the concept of staging.

23. Which of the following instruments is not found in a vaginal procedure?

Goodell dilator

Jacobs tenaculum

Auvard speculum

Harrington retractor

A Harrington retractor is not typically used in a vaginal procedure. This instrument is commonly used in orthopedic surgery to retract soft tissues and expose the surgical site. In contrast, a Goodell dilator, Jacobs tenaculum, and Auvard speculum are all instruments commonly used in vaginal procedures.

Explanation

A Harrington retractor is not typically used in a vaginal procedure. This instrument is commonly used in orthopedic surgery to retract soft tissues and expose the surgical site. In contrast, a Goodell dilator, Jacobs tenaculum, and Auvard speculum are all instruments commonly used in vaginal procedures.

24. Mandibular fractures are treated by occlusion of the teeth effected b ythe use of a(n)

Splint

Rigid fixation with plate

LeFort suspension device

Arch bar

Mandibular fractures are commonly treated using arch bars. Arch bars are orthodontic devices that are attached to the teeth using wire to stabilize the fractured jaw. They help to align the teeth properly and provide stability to the jaw during the healing process. This allows for proper occlusion of the teeth and ensures that the jaw heals correctly. Splints, rigid fixation with plates, and LeFort suspension devices are not typically used for treating mandibular fractures.

Explanation

Mandibular fractures are commonly treated using arch bars. Arch bars are orthodontic devices that are attached to the teeth using wire to stabilize the fractured jaw. They help to align the teeth properly and provide stability to the jaw during the healing process. This allows for proper occlusion of the teeth and ensures that the jaw heals correctly. Splints, rigid fixation with plates, and LeFort suspension devices are not typically used for treating mandibular fractures.

25. The action of white blood cells is to

Transport oxygen

Clot blood

Produce enzymes

Destroy bacteria

White blood cells are a crucial part of the immune system and their main function is to defend the body against harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens. They do this by engulfing and destroying these foreign invaders through a process called phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "destroy bacteria".

Explanation

White blood cells are a crucial part of the immune system and their main function is to defend the body against harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens. They do this by engulfing and destroying these foreign invaders through a process called phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "destroy bacteria".

26. During vascular surgery, an arteriotomy is executed with a #11 blade and extended by used of a

Lahey

Metzenbaum

Potts-Smith

Stevens

An arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in an artery. In this case, the arteriotomy is being executed using a #11 blade, which is a type of surgical scalpel. The question asks for the instrument that is used to extend the arteriotomy. The correct answer is Potts-Smith. Potts-Smith is a type of surgical scissors that are commonly used to extend incisions during vascular surgery.

Explanation

An arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in an artery. In this case, the arteriotomy is being executed using a #11 blade, which is a type of surgical scalpel. The question asks for the instrument that is used to extend the arteriotomy. The correct answer is Potts-Smith. Potts-Smith is a type of surgical scissors that are commonly used to extend incisions during vascular surgery.

27. A commonly used diuretic is

Nipride

Lasix

Dobutrex

Adrenalin

Lasix is a commonly used diuretic. It is a medication that helps increase urine production and eliminate excess water and salt from the body. It is often prescribed to treat conditions such as edema (fluid retention) and high blood pressure. Lasix works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This helps reduce fluid buildup in the body and promote diuresis.

Explanation

Lasix is a commonly used diuretic. It is a medication that helps increase urine production and eliminate excess water and salt from the body. It is often prescribed to treat conditions such as edema (fluid retention) and high blood pressure. Lasix works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This helps reduce fluid buildup in the body and promote diuresis.

28. Rectal surgery preparation is done

Top to bottom

Bottom to top

Surrounding area first, anus last

Anus first, surrounding area last

The correct answer is "surrounding area first, anus last." This approach to rectal surgery preparation ensures that the surrounding area is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before focusing on the anus. This sequence helps to prevent contamination of the surgical site and reduces the risk of infection. By prioritizing the surrounding area first, healthcare professionals can maintain a sterile environment and ensure the best possible outcome for the surgery.

Explanation

The correct answer is "surrounding area first, anus last." This approach to rectal surgery preparation ensures that the surrounding area is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before focusing on the anus. This sequence helps to prevent contamination of the surgical site and reduces the risk of infection. By prioritizing the surrounding area first, healthcare professionals can maintain a sterile environment and ensure the best possible outcome for the surgery.

29. All of the following statements are true during deep vaginal procedures EXCEPT

Suction is part of the setup

Sponges are secured on long forceps

Vaginal packing may be inserted at case end

Count is eliminated

During deep vaginal procedures, various measures are taken to ensure patient safety and prevent any complications. Suction is used as part of the setup to remove any fluids or debris from the surgical site. Sponges are secured on long forceps to aid in controlling bleeding and maintaining a clear field. Vaginal packing may be inserted at the end of the case to provide support and prevent postoperative bleeding. However, the count is not eliminated during deep vaginal procedures. Counting and keeping track of all surgical instruments and sponges is crucial to avoid leaving any foreign objects inside the patient's body.

Explanation

During deep vaginal procedures, various measures are taken to ensure patient safety and prevent any complications. Suction is used as part of the setup to remove any fluids or debris from the surgical site. Sponges are secured on long forceps to aid in controlling bleeding and maintaining a clear field. Vaginal packing may be inserted at the end of the case to provide support and prevent postoperative bleeding. However, the count is not eliminated during deep vaginal procedures. Counting and keeping track of all surgical instruments and sponges is crucial to avoid leaving any foreign objects inside the patient's body.

30. The normal body temperature in centigrade measurement is

37 C

56 C

98 C

112 C

The normal body temperature is typically around 37 degrees Celsius. This temperature is considered to be the average healthy body temperature for humans.

Explanation

The normal body temperature is typically around 37 degrees Celsius. This temperature is considered to be the average healthy body temperature for humans.

31. Which disease could be trasmitted via a blood transfusion?

Hepatitis A

Hepatitis B

Infectious hepatitis

Hepatonephritis

Hepatitis B is a disease that can be transmitted through a blood transfusion. It is a viral infection that affects the liver and can lead to chronic liver disease, liver cancer, and even death. The virus can be present in the blood of infected individuals, and if that blood is transfused into another person, they can become infected with hepatitis B. Therefore, it is important to screen blood donations for hepatitis B to prevent transmission of the virus through transfusions.

Explanation

Hepatitis B is a disease that can be transmitted through a blood transfusion. It is a viral infection that affects the liver and can lead to chronic liver disease, liver cancer, and even death. The virus can be present in the blood of infected individuals, and if that blood is transfused into another person, they can become infected with hepatitis B. Therefore, it is important to screen blood donations for hepatitis B to prevent transmission of the virus through transfusions.

32. A condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique is

Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Osteomyelitis

Osteoarthritis

Osteomyelitis is a condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique. It is an infection of the bone, usually caused by bacteria, that can lead to inflammation, pain, and destruction of the bone tissue. This condition can occur when bacteria enters the bone through an open fracture, surgical procedure, or bloodstream. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, swelling, redness, and tenderness in the affected area. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications and damage to the bone.

Explanation

Osteomyelitis is a condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique. It is an infection of the bone, usually caused by bacteria, that can lead to inflammation, pain, and destruction of the bone tissue. This condition can occur when bacteria enters the bone through an open fracture, surgical procedure, or bloodstream. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, swelling, redness, and tenderness in the affected area. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications and damage to the bone.

33. Oxytocics are used to

Relax the uterus

Contract the uterus

Treat bronchospasm

Increase renal flow

Oxytocics are medications that are used to induce or strengthen contractions of the uterus. They are commonly used during labor to help progress the delivery of the baby. Oxytocics work by stimulating the uterine muscles, causing them to contract. This helps to push the baby down the birth canal and eventually leads to the delivery of the baby. Therefore, the correct answer is "contract the uterus".

Explanation

Oxytocics are medications that are used to induce or strengthen contractions of the uterus. They are commonly used during labor to help progress the delivery of the baby. Oxytocics work by stimulating the uterine muscles, causing them to contract. This helps to push the baby down the birth canal and eventually leads to the delivery of the baby. Therefore, the correct answer is "contract the uterus".

34. When gloving a surgeon

Keep the palm of the gove facing the surgeon

Avoid contact by keeping thumbs tucked in

Hold the second glove while doing the first

Glove only over a sterile area

The correct answer is to keep the palm of the glove facing the surgeon. This is important because it ensures that the clean, sterile side of the glove is facing the surgeon, reducing the risk of contamination. By keeping the palm facing the surgeon, any potential contact with non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining a sterile environment during the gloving process.

Explanation

The correct answer is to keep the palm of the glove facing the surgeon. This is important because it ensures that the clean, sterile side of the glove is facing the surgeon, reducing the risk of contamination. By keeping the palm facing the surgeon, any potential contact with non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining a sterile environment during the gloving process.

35. What organisms are likely to be found ina surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy?

Staphylococcus

Streptococcus

Pseudomonas

Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli is a bacterium commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals. It is a normal part of the gut flora and can be easily introduced into a surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy. The presence of Escherichia coli in a surgical wound suggests contamination from the intestines and can potentially lead to infection if not properly treated. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are also common bacteria found in surgical wounds, but the presence of Escherichia coli is more likely in this specific scenario. Pseudomonas is less likely to be found in a surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy.

Explanation

Escherichia coli is a bacterium commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals. It is a normal part of the gut flora and can be easily introduced into a surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy. The presence of Escherichia coli in a surgical wound suggests contamination from the intestines and can potentially lead to infection if not properly treated. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are also common bacteria found in surgical wounds, but the presence of Escherichia coli is more likely in this specific scenario. Pseudomonas is less likely to be found in a surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy.

36. A drug given preoperatively that enables the liver to produce clotting factors in the blood is

Vitamin C

Vitamin B12

Vitamin D

Vitamin K

Vitamin K is the correct answer because it is known to enable the liver to produce clotting factors in the blood. Clotting factors are essential for the formation of blood clots, which help to prevent excessive bleeding during surgery. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of these clotting factors, making it an important preoperative drug. Vitamin C, vitamin B12, and vitamin D do not have the same effect on clotting factors as vitamin K, making them incorrect choices.

Explanation

Vitamin K is the correct answer because it is known to enable the liver to produce clotting factors in the blood. Clotting factors are essential for the formation of blood clots, which help to prevent excessive bleeding during surgery. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of these clotting factors, making it an important preoperative drug. Vitamin C, vitamin B12, and vitamin D do not have the same effect on clotting factors as vitamin K, making them incorrect choices.

37. Bradycardia is

Heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

Irregular heartbeat

Thready, weak heartbeat

Heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute

Bradycardia refers to a condition where the heart rate is slower than normal, specifically less than 60 beats per minute. It is the opposite of tachycardia, which is a fast heart rate. Bradycardia can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and an underactive thyroid gland. It can result in symptoms like fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment for bradycardia depends on the underlying cause and severity, and may involve lifestyle changes, medication, or in severe cases, the use of a pacemaker to regulate the heart rate.

Explanation

Bradycardia refers to a condition where the heart rate is slower than normal, specifically less than 60 beats per minute. It is the opposite of tachycardia, which is a fast heart rate. Bradycardia can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and an underactive thyroid gland. It can result in symptoms like fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment for bradycardia depends on the underlying cause and severity, and may involve lifestyle changes, medication, or in severe cases, the use of a pacemaker to regulate the heart rate.

38. When intraoperative cultures are obtained, each of the following is true EXCEPT

Tip of swab is placed on back table

Cultures should be refrigerated or sent to lab immediatley

Circulator handles tube following appropriate precautions

Cultures are obtained under sterile conditions

The correct answer is "tip of swab is placed on back table". This is because when intraoperative cultures are obtained, the tip of the swab should not be placed on the back table as it can lead to contamination. Instead, the swab should be immediately placed in a sterile container or sent to the lab for analysis.

Explanation

The correct answer is "tip of swab is placed on back table". This is because when intraoperative cultures are obtained, the tip of the swab should not be placed on the back table as it can lead to contamination. Instead, the swab should be immediately placed in a sterile container or sent to the lab for analysis.

39. During a CPR effort, which drug is given to combat metabolic acidosis?

Xylocaine

Sodium bicarbonate

Nipride

Inderal

Sodium bicarbonate is given during CPR to combat metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is a condition where there is an excess of acid in the body, leading to a decrease in pH. Sodium bicarbonate works by acting as a buffer, neutralizing the excess acid and helping to restore the pH balance. It is commonly used in emergency situations, such as during CPR, to correct the acid-base imbalance and improve the effectiveness of resuscitation efforts.

Explanation

Sodium bicarbonate is given during CPR to combat metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is a condition where there is an excess of acid in the body, leading to a decrease in pH. Sodium bicarbonate works by acting as a buffer, neutralizing the excess acid and helping to restore the pH balance. It is commonly used in emergency situations, such as during CPR, to correct the acid-base imbalance and improve the effectiveness of resuscitation efforts.

40. A culture and sensitivity is done to

Deterine nature of organism and the susceptibility of that organism

Diagnose blood infections

Culture a single organism responsible for infection

Determine if furniture and rooms are being cleaned properly

A culture and sensitivity test is performed to determine the nature of the organism causing an infection and to identify its susceptibility to different antibiotics. This helps in choosing the most effective antibiotic treatment for the infection. It is not used to diagnose blood infections, culture a single organism responsible for infection, or determine the cleanliness of furniture and rooms.

Explanation

A culture and sensitivity test is performed to determine the nature of the organism causing an infection and to identify its susceptibility to different antibiotics. This helps in choosing the most effective antibiotic treatment for the infection. It is not used to diagnose blood infections, culture a single organism responsible for infection, or determine the cleanliness of furniture and rooms.

41. The master gland is the

Thyroid

Pituitary

Adrenal

Parathyroid

The pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland because it plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the functions of other endocrine glands in the body. It produces and releases several important hormones that stimulate the activity of other glands, such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is divided into two parts: the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary. It is responsible for maintaining hormonal balance and coordinating various bodily functions.

Explanation

The pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland because it plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the functions of other endocrine glands in the body. It produces and releases several important hormones that stimulate the activity of other glands, such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is divided into two parts: the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary. It is responsible for maintaining hormonal balance and coordinating various bodily functions.

42. Unauthorized discussion of a patient's surgery outside of the OR constitutes a lawsuit for

Defamation

Negligence

Assault and battery

Invasion of privacy

Unauthorized discussion of a patient's surgery outside of the operating room can be considered a violation of the patient's privacy rights. This breach of privacy can lead to a lawsuit for invasion of privacy. By sharing confidential information about the patient's surgery without their consent, the healthcare professional is infringing upon the patient's right to keep their medical information private. This can result in legal action being taken against the healthcare professional or institution responsible for the unauthorized discussion.

Explanation

Unauthorized discussion of a patient's surgery outside of the operating room can be considered a violation of the patient's privacy rights. This breach of privacy can lead to a lawsuit for invasion of privacy. By sharing confidential information about the patient's surgery without their consent, the healthcare professional is infringing upon the patient's right to keep their medical information private. This can result in legal action being taken against the healthcare professional or institution responsible for the unauthorized discussion.

43. Bile is manufactured in the _____ and stored in the _____.

Gallbladder, liver

Liver, pancreas

Gallbladder, duodenum

Liver, gallbladder

Bile is a substance that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. It is produced by the liver and then stored in the gallbladder. When we consume fatty foods, the gallbladder releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the breakdown of fats. Therefore, the correct answer is "liver, gallbladder."

Explanation

Bile is a substance that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. It is produced by the liver and then stored in the gallbladder. When we consume fatty foods, the gallbladder releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the breakdown of fats. Therefore, the correct answer is "liver, gallbladder."

44. An abnormal deposition of collagen that occurs during the healing process is known as

Eschar

Keloid

Contracture

Cicatrix

Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to an abnormal deposition of collagen that occurs during the healing process. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound and can be itchy, painful, and cosmetically undesirable. They are caused by an overproduction of collagen in response to an injury or trauma to the skin.

Explanation

Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to an abnormal deposition of collagen that occurs during the healing process. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound and can be itchy, painful, and cosmetically undesirable. They are caused by an overproduction of collagen in response to an injury or trauma to the skin.

45. What is the purpose of doing ABGs intraoperatively?

To assess arterial gases

To determine blood volume

To monitor pulmonary artery pressure measurement

To aid in determining antibiotics to use

The purpose of doing ABGs (arterial blood gases) intraoperatively is to assess the levels of arterial gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, in the blood. This helps in evaluating the patient's respiratory function and acid-base balance, as well as guiding appropriate interventions and adjustments in ventilation or oxygenation if necessary. It provides valuable information about the patient's oxygenation status and overall respiratory function during surgery.

Explanation

The purpose of doing ABGs (arterial blood gases) intraoperatively is to assess the levels of arterial gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, in the blood. This helps in evaluating the patient's respiratory function and acid-base balance, as well as guiding appropriate interventions and adjustments in ventilation or oxygenation if necessary. It provides valuable information about the patient's oxygenation status and overall respiratory function during surgery.

46. A tissue expander would be used for

Burn debridement

TRAM flap

Breast reconstruction

Gynecomastia

A tissue expander is a device commonly used in breast reconstruction procedures. It is used to stretch the skin and create a pocket for a breast implant. This allows for the gradual expansion of the breast tissue, resulting in a more natural-looking breast shape. Therefore, breast reconstruction is the most appropriate use for a tissue expander.

Explanation

A tissue expander is a device commonly used in breast reconstruction procedures. It is used to stretch the skin and create a pocket for a breast implant. This allows for the gradual expansion of the breast tissue, resulting in a more natural-looking breast shape. Therefore, breast reconstruction is the most appropriate use for a tissue expander.

47. When a three-way Foley catheter is used, the third lumen is for

Drainage

Balloon inflation

Continuous irrigation

Constant suction

The third lumen in a three-way Foley catheter is used for continuous irrigation. This means that a solution can be continuously infused into the bladder through this lumen to flush out any debris or blood, keeping the bladder clean and preventing blockages. This irrigation helps maintain the patency of the catheter and ensures proper drainage of urine.

Explanation

The third lumen in a three-way Foley catheter is used for continuous irrigation. This means that a solution can be continuously infused into the bladder through this lumen to flush out any debris or blood, keeping the bladder clean and preventing blockages. This irrigation helps maintain the patency of the catheter and ensures proper drainage of urine.

48. A complication of orthopedic surgery is

Thromboembolism

Fat embolism

Infection

All of the above

Orthopedic surgery carries the risk of various complications, including thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection. Thromboembolism refers to the formation of blood clots that can travel to other parts of the body, potentially causing blockages. Fat embolism occurs when fat particles enter the bloodstream, usually after a bone fracture, and can lead to respiratory and circulatory problems. Infection is a common complication after any surgical procedure, including orthopedic surgery. Therefore, all of the options listed (thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection) are potential complications of orthopedic surgery.

Explanation

Orthopedic surgery carries the risk of various complications, including thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection. Thromboembolism refers to the formation of blood clots that can travel to other parts of the body, potentially causing blockages. Fat embolism occurs when fat particles enter the bloodstream, usually after a bone fracture, and can lead to respiratory and circulatory problems. Infection is a common complication after any surgical procedure, including orthopedic surgery. Therefore, all of the options listed (thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection) are potential complications of orthopedic surgery.

49. An infants average at rest heart rate is _____ beats per minute

60

80

120

200

An infant's average at rest heart rate is 120 beats per minute. This is because infants have a higher metabolic rate compared to adults, which results in a faster heart rate. Additionally, infants have smaller hearts and blood vessels, which require a higher heart rate to pump blood effectively throughout their bodies.

Explanation

An infant's average at rest heart rate is 120 beats per minute. This is because infants have a higher metabolic rate compared to adults, which results in a faster heart rate. Additionally, infants have smaller hearts and blood vessels, which require a higher heart rate to pump blood effectively throughout their bodies.

50. Dehiscence is

Separation of layers of surgical wound

Extrusion of internal organs through a gaping wound

Failure of wound to heal

Infected operative wound

Dehiscence refers to the separation of the layers of a surgical wound. This can occur due to various reasons such as excessive tension on the wound, infection, poor healing, or inadequate suturing. It is a serious complication that can lead to the exposure of underlying tissues and organs, increasing the risk of infection and delaying the healing process. Prompt medical attention and appropriate wound management are necessary to prevent further complications and promote proper healing.

Explanation

Dehiscence refers to the separation of the layers of a surgical wound. This can occur due to various reasons such as excessive tension on the wound, infection, poor healing, or inadequate suturing. It is a serious complication that can lead to the exposure of underlying tissues and organs, increasing the risk of infection and delaying the healing process. Prompt medical attention and appropriate wound management are necessary to prevent further complications and promote proper healing.

51. Who is responsible for the final count when reliefs have taken place during the case?

Scrub person

Scrub person and circulator who do final count

Circulator

Scrub person and circulator who begin case

The scrub person and circulator who do the final count are responsible for the final count when reliefs have taken place during the case. This means that after any personnel changes or shifts during the case, the scrub person and circulator are the ones who ensure that the final count is accurate and complete. They are responsible for counting all the instruments, sponges, and other items used during the procedure to ensure that nothing is left inside the patient's body.

Explanation

The scrub person and circulator who do the final count are responsible for the final count when reliefs have taken place during the case. This means that after any personnel changes or shifts during the case, the scrub person and circulator are the ones who ensure that the final count is accurate and complete. They are responsible for counting all the instruments, sponges, and other items used during the procedure to ensure that nothing is left inside the patient's body.

52. A way to alleviate a presurgical pateint's anxiety is via

History and physical review

Preoperative visit

Review of charts and records

Visit by hospital social worker

A preoperative visit is a way to alleviate a presurgical patient's anxiety because it allows the patient to meet with their healthcare provider before the surgery. During this visit, the healthcare provider can review the patient's medical history and perform a physical examination, which helps to ensure that the patient is in optimal health for the surgery. Additionally, the preoperative visit provides an opportunity for the patient to ask any questions or express any concerns they may have, which can help to reduce their anxiety and increase their confidence in the upcoming procedure.

Explanation

A preoperative visit is a way to alleviate a presurgical patient's anxiety because it allows the patient to meet with their healthcare provider before the surgery. During this visit, the healthcare provider can review the patient's medical history and perform a physical examination, which helps to ensure that the patient is in optimal health for the surgery. Additionally, the preoperative visit provides an opportunity for the patient to ask any questions or express any concerns they may have, which can help to reduce their anxiety and increase their confidence in the upcoming procedure.

53. The gas introduced into the peritonem during laparoscopy to create a pheumoperitoneum is

Nitrous oxide

Oxygen

Nitrogen

Carbon dioxide

During laparoscopy, a pneumoperitoneum is created by introducing gas into the peritoneum. Carbon dioxide is the gas of choice for this procedure because it is readily absorbed by the body and does not cause significant harm or side effects. Nitrous oxide is not commonly used for this purpose as it has a lower solubility and can lead to gas embolism. Oxygen and nitrogen are also not used because they are less soluble and can cause complications such as gas embolism or pneumothorax.

Explanation

During laparoscopy, a pneumoperitoneum is created by introducing gas into the peritoneum. Carbon dioxide is the gas of choice for this procedure because it is readily absorbed by the body and does not cause significant harm or side effects. Nitrous oxide is not commonly used for this purpose as it has a lower solubility and can lead to gas embolism. Oxygen and nitrogen are also not used because they are less soluble and can cause complications such as gas embolism or pneumothorax.

54. Continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary during cystoscopy to

Keep the area moistened and thus reduce trauma

Distend the bladder walls for visualization

Act as a viewing medium

Reduce heat from the lighted scope

During cystoscopy, continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary to distend the bladder walls for visualization. This is important because when the bladder is distended, it provides a larger working space for the surgeon to maneuver the cystoscope and instruments. It also helps to improve visualization of the bladder walls, allowing the surgeon to identify any abnormalities or lesions more easily. Additionally, distending the bladder can help to minimize the risk of trauma during the procedure by creating a cushioning effect and reducing the chances of accidental injury to the bladder walls.

Explanation

During cystoscopy, continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary to distend the bladder walls for visualization. This is important because when the bladder is distended, it provides a larger working space for the surgeon to maneuver the cystoscope and instruments. It also helps to improve visualization of the bladder walls, allowing the surgeon to identify any abnormalities or lesions more easily. Additionally, distending the bladder can help to minimize the risk of trauma during the procedure by creating a cushioning effect and reducing the chances of accidental injury to the bladder walls.

55. What procedure is accomplished to relieve myasthenia gravis?

Mediastinoscopy

Pulmonary decortication

Adrenalectomy

Thymectomy

A thymectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thymus gland. This procedure is often performed to relieve the symptoms of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that affects the muscles and causes weakness and fatigue. The thymus gland plays a role in the development of the immune system, and it is believed that removing it can help to reduce the abnormal immune response that causes myasthenia gravis. Thymectomy is considered an effective treatment option for many patients with this condition.

Explanation

A thymectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thymus gland. This procedure is often performed to relieve the symptoms of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that affects the muscles and causes weakness and fatigue. The thymus gland plays a role in the development of the immune system, and it is believed that removing it can help to reduce the abnormal immune response that causes myasthenia gravis. Thymectomy is considered an effective treatment option for many patients with this condition.

56. When is bowel technique necessary?

When a case is considered septic

When the patient has not had a bowel prep

When the patient has perforated preoperatively

When a contaminated area of the intestinal tract is entered

Bowel technique is necessary when a contaminated area of the intestinal tract is entered. This is because entering a contaminated area increases the risk of infection and other complications. By following proper bowel technique, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of introducing bacteria or other harmful substances into the patient's body during surgery or other procedures. This includes using sterile instruments, maintaining a sterile field, and taking precautions to prevent contamination.

Explanation

Bowel technique is necessary when a contaminated area of the intestinal tract is entered. This is because entering a contaminated area increases the risk of infection and other complications. By following proper bowel technique, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of introducing bacteria or other harmful substances into the patient's body during surgery or other procedures. This includes using sterile instruments, maintaining a sterile field, and taking precautions to prevent contamination.

57. In which surgical specialty would a perfusionist be necessary?

Neurologic

Cardiac

Transplant

Microsurgery

A perfusionist is a medical professional who operates the heart-lung machine during cardiac surgeries. They are responsible for maintaining the patient's blood circulation and oxygenation while the surgeon performs the procedure. Therefore, a perfusionist would be necessary in the surgical specialty of cardiac surgery.

Explanation

A perfusionist is a medical professional who operates the heart-lung machine during cardiac surgeries. They are responsible for maintaining the patient's blood circulation and oxygenation while the surgeon performs the procedure. Therefore, a perfusionist would be necessary in the surgical specialty of cardiac surgery.

58. After hip joint surgery, immobilization is aided by the use of

Abduction pillow

Thomas splint

Cast

Traction

After hip joint surgery, immobilization is aided by the use of an abduction pillow. This pillow helps to keep the legs apart and prevent adduction, which is the movement of the legs towards the midline of the body. By keeping the legs in an abducted position, the abduction pillow helps to maintain the alignment and stability of the hip joint during the healing process. This can help to prevent complications such as dislocation or improper healing of the surgical site. The abduction pillow also provides support and comfort to the patient while they are immobilized, allowing for a more comfortable recovery.

Explanation

After hip joint surgery, immobilization is aided by the use of an abduction pillow. This pillow helps to keep the legs apart and prevent adduction, which is the movement of the legs towards the midline of the body. By keeping the legs in an abducted position, the abduction pillow helps to maintain the alignment and stability of the hip joint during the healing process. This can help to prevent complications such as dislocation or improper healing of the surgical site. The abduction pillow also provides support and comfort to the patient while they are immobilized, allowing for a more comfortable recovery.

59. The second cranial nerve is the

Vagus

Oculomotor

Optic

Facial

The second cranial nerve is the optic nerve. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in vision and is essential for sight. The other options mentioned (vagus, oculomotor, and facial) are different cranial nerves responsible for various functions, but they are not the second cranial nerve.

Explanation

The second cranial nerve is the optic nerve. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in vision and is essential for sight. The other options mentioned (vagus, oculomotor, and facial) are different cranial nerves responsible for various functions, but they are not the second cranial nerve.

60. The first part of the small intestine is known as the

Jejunum

Pylorus

Duodenum

Ileum

The correct answer is duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located just after the stomach. It plays a crucial role in the digestive process by receiving partially digested food from the stomach and further breaking it down with the help of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

Explanation

The correct answer is duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located just after the stomach. It plays a crucial role in the digestive process by receiving partially digested food from the stomach and further breaking it down with the help of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

61. A ureteral stent catheter is used to

Remove ureteral calculi

Inject dye through during pyelography

Provide long-term drainage in ureteral obstruction

Measure bladder pressure

A ureteral stent catheter is used to provide long-term drainage in cases of ureteral obstruction. The stent is inserted into the ureter to bypass the obstruction and allow urine to flow from the kidney to the bladder. This helps in relieving the pressure caused by the obstruction and prevents complications such as kidney damage or infection. The stent remains in place for a specific period of time, determined by the healthcare provider, until the obstruction is resolved or further treatment is required.

Explanation

A ureteral stent catheter is used to provide long-term drainage in cases of ureteral obstruction. The stent is inserted into the ureter to bypass the obstruction and allow urine to flow from the kidney to the bladder. This helps in relieving the pressure caused by the obstruction and prevents complications such as kidney damage or infection. The stent remains in place for a specific period of time, determined by the healthcare provider, until the obstruction is resolved or further treatment is required.

62. Staphylococcus is usually transmitted by

Sexual contact

Upper respiratory tract

Urine

Feces

Staphylococcus is usually transmitted through the upper respiratory tract. This means that the bacteria can be spread through activities such as coughing, sneezing, or even talking, as respiratory droplets containing the bacteria can be released into the air. Close contact with an infected person, such as sharing utensils or being in close proximity, increases the risk of transmission. It is important to practice good respiratory hygiene, such as covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus.

Explanation

Staphylococcus is usually transmitted through the upper respiratory tract. This means that the bacteria can be spread through activities such as coughing, sneezing, or even talking, as respiratory droplets containing the bacteria can be released into the air. Close contact with an infected person, such as sharing utensils or being in close proximity, increases the risk of transmission. It is important to practice good respiratory hygiene, such as covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus.

63. Which specimen would be placed in formalin?

Bronchial washings

Tonsils

Breast biopsy/frozen

Kidney stones

Tonsils would be placed in formalin because formalin is commonly used as a fixative in histology to preserve tissues and prevent decay. Tonsils are lymphoid tissues located at the back of the throat, and they are often removed surgically for various reasons. Placing the tonsils in formalin would help preserve their structure and cellular components for further examination and analysis.

Explanation

Tonsils would be placed in formalin because formalin is commonly used as a fixative in histology to preserve tissues and prevent decay. Tonsils are lymphoid tissues located at the back of the throat, and they are often removed surgically for various reasons. Placing the tonsils in formalin would help preserve their structure and cellular components for further examination and analysis.

64. When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the OR, an immediate response would be

Monitor intake and output

Give supplementary oxygen

Raise the head 45 degrees

Restore fluid volume quickly

When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the operating room, the immediate response should be to restore fluid volume quickly. Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid, leading to a decrease in circulating volume. Restoring fluid volume quickly is crucial in order to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further complications. Monitoring intake and output, giving supplementary oxygen, and raising the head 45 degrees may also be part of the management plan, but restoring fluid volume quickly takes priority in this situation.

Explanation

When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the operating room, the immediate response should be to restore fluid volume quickly. Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid, leading to a decrease in circulating volume. Restoring fluid volume quickly is crucial in order to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further complications. Monitoring intake and output, giving supplementary oxygen, and raising the head 45 degrees may also be part of the management plan, but restoring fluid volume quickly takes priority in this situation.

65. The portion of the stomach located at the approach to the small intestine is the

Cardia

Fundus

Pylorus

Antrum

The correct answer is pylorus because the pylorus is the portion of the stomach that is located at the approach to the small intestine. It is responsible for regulating the flow of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine. The pylorus contains a muscular ring called the pyloric sphincter, which controls the release of food into the small intestine to ensure proper digestion and absorption.

Explanation

The correct answer is pylorus because the pylorus is the portion of the stomach that is located at the approach to the small intestine. It is responsible for regulating the flow of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine. The pylorus contains a muscular ring called the pyloric sphincter, which controls the release of food into the small intestine to ensure proper digestion and absorption.

66. Which nasal sinus can be approached only through an external eyebrow incision?

Sphenoid

Ethmoid

Frontal

Maxillary

The frontal sinus can only be approached through an external eyebrow incision because it is located in the forehead, just above the eyebrows. This approach allows direct access to the frontal sinus without the need for more invasive procedures. The other nasal sinuses (sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary) can be accessed through different approaches such as endoscopic procedures or through the nostrils.

Explanation

The frontal sinus can only be approached through an external eyebrow incision because it is located in the forehead, just above the eyebrows. This approach allows direct access to the frontal sinus without the need for more invasive procedures. The other nasal sinuses (sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary) can be accessed through different approaches such as endoscopic procedures or through the nostrils.

67. During a basic femoral head fixation, the length and position of the implant is determined by the used of

Guide wire

Compression screw

Tap

Awl

During a basic femoral head fixation, the length and position of the implant is determined by the use of a guide wire. A guide wire is a thin, flexible wire that is inserted into the bone to provide a pathway for the placement of the implant. It helps the surgeon accurately position and measure the length of the implant before it is inserted. The guide wire acts as a guide for the subsequent steps of the procedure, ensuring proper alignment and fixation of the femoral head.

Explanation

During a basic femoral head fixation, the length and position of the implant is determined by the use of a guide wire. A guide wire is a thin, flexible wire that is inserted into the bone to provide a pathway for the placement of the implant. It helps the surgeon accurately position and measure the length of the implant before it is inserted. The guide wire acts as a guide for the subsequent steps of the procedure, ensuring proper alignment and fixation of the femoral head.

68. A legal wrong committed by one person involving injury to another person is called a(n)

Tort

Default

Liability

Impressment

A tort is a legal wrong committed by one person that causes injury to another person. It refers to any act or omission that results in harm or loss to someone else, for which the injured party can seek compensation. This can include actions such as negligence, defamation, or intentional infliction of harm. Unlike crimes, which are prosecuted by the government, torts are typically resolved through civil lawsuits brought by the injured party seeking damages.

Explanation

A tort is a legal wrong committed by one person that causes injury to another person. It refers to any act or omission that results in harm or loss to someone else, for which the injured party can seek compensation. This can include actions such as negligence, defamation, or intentional infliction of harm. Unlike crimes, which are prosecuted by the government, torts are typically resolved through civil lawsuits brought by the injured party seeking damages.

69. The operation to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall is

Colporrhaphy

Shirodkar

Le Fort

Vesicourethral suspension

Colporrhaphy is the surgical procedure performed to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall. This procedure involves repairing and reinforcing the weakened or damaged tissue in the vaginal wall to restore its normal position and function. It is a common and effective treatment option for anterior vaginal wall prolapse, providing support and stability to the pelvic organs. Shirodkar, Le Fort, and vesicourethral suspension are not specifically related to the correction of anterior vaginal wall prolapse, making colporrhaphy the correct answer.

Explanation

Colporrhaphy is the surgical procedure performed to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall. This procedure involves repairing and reinforcing the weakened or damaged tissue in the vaginal wall to restore its normal position and function. It is a common and effective treatment option for anterior vaginal wall prolapse, providing support and stability to the pelvic organs. Shirodkar, Le Fort, and vesicourethral suspension are not specifically related to the correction of anterior vaginal wall prolapse, making colporrhaphy the correct answer.

70. Which procedure would requiere the following instruments: Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, caliper

Orthopedic

Arthroscopic

Nasal

Vascular

The given instruments such as Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, and caliper are commonly used in nasal procedures. These instruments are specifically designed for nasal surgeries, including rhinoplasty, septoplasty, and nasal reconstruction. Therefore, the correct answer is nasal.

Explanation

The given instruments such as Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, and caliper are commonly used in nasal procedures. These instruments are specifically designed for nasal surgeries, including rhinoplasty, septoplasty, and nasal reconstruction. Therefore, the correct answer is nasal.

71. Scoliosis is surgically treated by the implantation of

Steinmann pins

Rush rods

Lottes nails

Harrington rods

Scoliosis is a medical condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine. Harrington rods are commonly used in surgical treatment for scoliosis. These rods are implanted along the length of the spine to help straighten and stabilize it. They are attached to the vertebrae using hooks and screws. The Harrington rod system provides support and helps to correct the curvature of the spine, allowing for improved alignment and function.

Explanation

Scoliosis is a medical condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine. Harrington rods are commonly used in surgical treatment for scoliosis. These rods are implanted along the length of the spine to help straighten and stabilize it. They are attached to the vertebrae using hooks and screws. The Harrington rod system provides support and helps to correct the curvature of the spine, allowing for improved alignment and function.

72. The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the

Middle ear

Outer ear

Inner ear

External ear

The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the middle ear. These three small bones, also known as the ossicles, are essential for the process of hearing. They work together to transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The middle ear is the space between the eardrum and the inner ear, and it contains these three bones, which amplify and transmit the sound waves.

Explanation

The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the middle ear. These three small bones, also known as the ossicles, are essential for the process of hearing. They work together to transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The middle ear is the space between the eardrum and the inner ear, and it contains these three bones, which amplify and transmit the sound waves.

73. All of the following are true of self-adhering plastic incision drapes EXCEPT

Scrubbed area must be moist at application

Alcohol may be used after iodophor to hasten drying of the skin

Drape is smoothed away from incision

Usual skin prep preceds its application

Self-adhering plastic incision drapes are commonly used in surgical procedures to provide a sterile barrier over the surgical site. These drapes adhere to the skin without the need for additional adhesive or tape. The correct answer states that the scrubbed area must be moist at application, which is not true. In fact, the scrubbed area should be completely dry before applying the drape to ensure proper adhesion. Moisture on the skin can interfere with the drape's ability to stick securely, compromising the sterile field. Therefore, the statement is incorrect in relation to the use of self-adhering plastic incision drapes.

Explanation

Self-adhering plastic incision drapes are commonly used in surgical procedures to provide a sterile barrier over the surgical site. These drapes adhere to the skin without the need for additional adhesive or tape. The correct answer states that the scrubbed area must be moist at application, which is not true. In fact, the scrubbed area should be completely dry before applying the drape to ensure proper adhesion. Moisture on the skin can interfere with the drape's ability to stick securely, compromising the sterile field. Therefore, the statement is incorrect in relation to the use of self-adhering plastic incision drapes.

74. If rubber suction tubing is to be reused

The lumen must be flushed with a dtergent-disinfectant before tubing is terminally sterilized

It must be cold-sterilized between uses

It requires no special procedure

The lumen must be flushed with water and sterilized

Rubber suction tubing needs to be flushed with a detergent-disinfectant before it can be terminally sterilized. This is because the lumen, or the inner part of the tubing, can harbor bacteria or contaminants that may not be completely eliminated through sterilization alone. Flushing the lumen with a detergent-disinfectant helps to remove any remaining debris or microorganisms, ensuring a thorough cleaning before sterilization.

Explanation

Rubber suction tubing needs to be flushed with a detergent-disinfectant before it can be terminally sterilized. This is because the lumen, or the inner part of the tubing, can harbor bacteria or contaminants that may not be completely eliminated through sterilization alone. Flushing the lumen with a detergent-disinfectant helps to remove any remaining debris or microorganisms, ensuring a thorough cleaning before sterilization.

75. Lacrimal probes are called

Bowman

Bakes

Serrefines

Swolin

Lacrimal probes are called Bowman.

Explanation

Lacrimal probes are called Bowman.

76. Entrapment of the _____ nerve is relieved by a carpal tunnel release.

Brachial

Radial

Median

Ulnar

The correct answer is median. Entrapment of the median nerve is relieved by a carpal tunnel release. The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway in the wrist that houses the median nerve, along with several tendons. When the median nerve becomes compressed or entrapped, it can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. Carpal tunnel release surgery involves cutting the ligament that forms the roof of the carpal tunnel, which helps to relieve pressure on the median nerve and alleviate symptoms.

Explanation

The correct answer is median. Entrapment of the median nerve is relieved by a carpal tunnel release. The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway in the wrist that houses the median nerve, along with several tendons. When the median nerve becomes compressed or entrapped, it can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. Carpal tunnel release surgery involves cutting the ligament that forms the roof of the carpal tunnel, which helps to relieve pressure on the median nerve and alleviate symptoms.

77. Which sinus is surgically opened in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?

Ethmoid

Frontal

Maxillary

Sphenoid

In a Caldwell-Luc procedure, the maxillary sinus is surgically opened. This procedure is performed to treat conditions such as chronic sinusitis or to remove tumors or cysts in the maxillary sinus. By opening the maxillary sinus, the surgeon can access and drain any infected or blocked sinuses, providing relief to the patient.

Explanation

In a Caldwell-Luc procedure, the maxillary sinus is surgically opened. This procedure is performed to treat conditions such as chronic sinusitis or to remove tumors or cysts in the maxillary sinus. By opening the maxillary sinus, the surgeon can access and drain any infected or blocked sinuses, providing relief to the patient.

78. The needle used for a liver biopsy is

Silverman

Charnley

Chiba

Dorsey

The needle used for a liver biopsy is Silverman.

Explanation

The needle used for a liver biopsy is Silverman.

79. Which of the following pieces of hardware will be used in an intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft?

Kirschner's wire

Steinmann pin

Kuntscher nail

Jewett nail

The Kuntscher nail is a type of hardware that is commonly used in the intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft. It is a long, cylindrical nail that is inserted into the medullary canal of the femur to stabilize the fracture and promote healing. Kirschner's wire and Steinmann pin are also types of hardware used in orthopedic procedures, but they are not specifically designed for fixation of a femoral shaft fracture. Jewett nail is not a type of hardware used in intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures.

Explanation

The Kuntscher nail is a type of hardware that is commonly used in the intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft. It is a long, cylindrical nail that is inserted into the medullary canal of the femur to stabilize the fracture and promote healing. Kirschner's wire and Steinmann pin are also types of hardware used in orthopedic procedures, but they are not specifically designed for fixation of a femoral shaft fracture. Jewett nail is not a type of hardware used in intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures.

80. If the patient has a positive breast biopsy, and the surgeon proceeds to do a radical mastectomy

The same drapes and instruments may be used

The patient is reprepped, and new drapes and instruments are used

The drapes may remain, but new instruments are used

The drapes are replaced, but the same instruments may be used

After a positive breast biopsy, a radical mastectomy is performed. In order to maintain a sterile environment and minimize the risk of infection, it is necessary to reprep the patient and use new drapes and instruments. This ensures that any potential contamination from the biopsy procedure is eliminated and reduces the risk of introducing bacteria or other pathogens during the mastectomy. Using new drapes and instruments helps maintain a sterile field and promotes patient safety.

Explanation

After a positive breast biopsy, a radical mastectomy is performed. In order to maintain a sterile environment and minimize the risk of infection, it is necessary to reprep the patient and use new drapes and instruments. This ensures that any potential contamination from the biopsy procedure is eliminated and reduces the risk of introducing bacteria or other pathogens during the mastectomy. Using new drapes and instruments helps maintain a sterile field and promotes patient safety.

81. The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitor applies to

Invasion of privacy

An employer's liability for an employee's negligence

Damage to personal property

Injuries sustained by the patient in the OR due to negligence

The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitor applies to injuries sustained by the patient in the OR due to negligence. Res ipsa loquitor is a Latin phrase that means "the thing speaks for itself." It is a legal concept that allows a plaintiff to establish a defendant's negligence by showing that the injury would not have occurred without negligence, the defendant had exclusive control over the instrumentality causing the injury, and the injury is not due to any voluntary action or contribution by the plaintiff. In the context of injuries sustained by a patient in the operating room, res ipsa loquitor can be applied to establish negligence on the part of the medical professionals involved.

Explanation

The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitor applies to injuries sustained by the patient in the OR due to negligence. Res ipsa loquitor is a Latin phrase that means "the thing speaks for itself." It is a legal concept that allows a plaintiff to establish a defendant's negligence by showing that the injury would not have occurred without negligence, the defendant had exclusive control over the instrumentality causing the injury, and the injury is not due to any voluntary action or contribution by the plaintiff. In the context of injuries sustained by a patient in the operating room, res ipsa loquitor can be applied to establish negligence on the part of the medical professionals involved.

82. The blue-green wavelength produced by a laser that is capable of treating retinal detachment, diabetic retinopahy, and macular neovascular lesion is

Krypton

Ho-YAG

Argon

Nd-YAG

The correct answer is argon. Argon lasers emit blue-green light with a wavelength of 488-514 nm, which is suitable for treating retinal detachment, diabetic retinopathy, and macular neovascular lesions. The blue-green wavelength is absorbed by certain tissues in the eye, allowing for precise targeting and treatment of these conditions.

Explanation

The correct answer is argon. Argon lasers emit blue-green light with a wavelength of 488-514 nm, which is suitable for treating retinal detachment, diabetic retinopathy, and macular neovascular lesions. The blue-green wavelength is absorbed by certain tissues in the eye, allowing for precise targeting and treatment of these conditions.

83. The preferred method of glovin is _____. In changing during a case, this method _____ be used.

Closed, can

Open, can

Closed, cannot

Open, cannot

The correct answer is "closed, cannot". The word "glovin" is not familiar and does not provide any context. However, based on the information given, it can be inferred that the preferred method of glovin is "closed" because it is mentioned first. Additionally, it is stated that in changing during a case, this method "cannot" be used, indicating that the preferred method is "closed" and not "open".

Explanation

The correct answer is "closed, cannot". The word "glovin" is not familiar and does not provide any context. However, based on the information given, it can be inferred that the preferred method of glovin is "closed" because it is mentioned first. Additionally, it is stated that in changing during a case, this method "cannot" be used, indicating that the preferred method is "closed" and not "open".

84. The kidneys are held in place by the

Renal columns

Detrusor muscle

Renal fascia and fat

Tunica fibrosa

The kidneys are held in place by the renal fascia and fat. The renal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the kidneys and helps to anchor them in position. The fat surrounding the kidneys, known as perirenal fat, also provides support and protection. Together, the renal fascia and fat help to maintain the position and stability of the kidneys within the abdominal cavity.

Explanation

The kidneys are held in place by the renal fascia and fat. The renal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the kidneys and helps to anchor them in position. The fat surrounding the kidneys, known as perirenal fat, also provides support and protection. Together, the renal fascia and fat help to maintain the position and stability of the kidneys within the abdominal cavity.

85. Which of the following is considered the most effective agent for scrubbing?

Povidone-iodine

Glutaraldehyde

Hexachlorophene

Chlorhexidene

Povidone-iodine is considered the most effective agent for scrubbing because it has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. It is commonly used as a surgical scrub and pre-operative skin preparation due to its fast-acting and long-lasting effects. Povidone-iodine also has low toxicity and is well-tolerated by patients, making it a preferred choice for effective scrubbing in medical and healthcare settings.

Explanation

Povidone-iodine is considered the most effective agent for scrubbing because it has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. It is commonly used as a surgical scrub and pre-operative skin preparation due to its fast-acting and long-lasting effects. Povidone-iodine also has low toxicity and is well-tolerated by patients, making it a preferred choice for effective scrubbing in medical and healthcare settings.

86. A slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia is called

Volkmann's contracture

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Dupuytren's contracture

Talipes valgus

Dupuytren's contracture is a slowly progressive condition that causes the palmar fascia, a layer of tissue in the hand, to become thickened and contracted. This results in the fingers being pulled towards the palm and can lead to difficulty in extending them fully. Volkmann's contracture is a condition characterized by ischemic muscle necrosis in the forearm, carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and talipes valgus refers to a deformity of the foot. Therefore, the correct answer is Dupuytren's contracture.

Explanation

Dupuytren's contracture is a slowly progressive condition that causes the palmar fascia, a layer of tissue in the hand, to become thickened and contracted. This results in the fingers being pulled towards the palm and can lead to difficulty in extending them fully. Volkmann's contracture is a condition characterized by ischemic muscle necrosis in the forearm, carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and talipes valgus refers to a deformity of the foot. Therefore, the correct answer is Dupuytren's contracture.

87. Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart from the lungs via the

Pulmonary vein

Pulmonary artery

Carotid artery

Renal vein

Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart from the lungs via the pulmonary vein. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart, specifically to the left atrium. This oxygenated blood is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the aorta and systemic circulation. The pulmonary artery, on the other hand, carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The carotid artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the head and neck, while the renal vein carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys back to the heart.

Explanation

Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart from the lungs via the pulmonary vein. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart, specifically to the left atrium. This oxygenated blood is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the aorta and systemic circulation. The pulmonary artery, on the other hand, carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The carotid artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the head and neck, while the renal vein carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys back to the heart.

88. Crutchfield tongs produce skeletal traction to reduce fractures of the

Phalanges

Femoral shaft

Cervical spine

Humeral shaft

Crutchfield tongs are a type of traction device used to immobilize and reduce fractures in the cervical spine. They are specifically designed to provide skeletal traction, which involves applying force directly to the bone to realign and stabilize fractures. By using crutchfield tongs in the cervical spine, the weight of the patient's head is effectively suspended, allowing for proper alignment of the fractured vertebrae and promoting healing. This method of traction is not typically used for fractures in other areas such as the phalanges, femoral shaft, or humeral shaft.

Explanation

Crutchfield tongs are a type of traction device used to immobilize and reduce fractures in the cervical spine. They are specifically designed to provide skeletal traction, which involves applying force directly to the bone to realign and stabilize fractures. By using crutchfield tongs in the cervical spine, the weight of the patient's head is effectively suspended, allowing for proper alignment of the fractured vertebrae and promoting healing. This method of traction is not typically used for fractures in other areas such as the phalanges, femoral shaft, or humeral shaft.

89. A chronic granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland in the eyelid is a(n)

Entropion

Chalazion

Blepharochalasis

Pterygium

A chalazion is a chronic granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland in the eyelid. Meibomian glands are responsible for producing the oily component of tears. When one of these glands becomes blocked, it can lead to the formation of a chalazion. Symptoms of a chalazion include a painless, firm bump in the eyelid, swelling, and occasionally redness. Treatment options include warm compresses, gentle massage, and in some cases, surgical drainage.

Explanation

A chalazion is a chronic granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland in the eyelid. Meibomian glands are responsible for producing the oily component of tears. When one of these glands becomes blocked, it can lead to the formation of a chalazion. Symptoms of a chalazion include a painless, firm bump in the eyelid, swelling, and occasionally redness. Treatment options include warm compresses, gentle massage, and in some cases, surgical drainage.

90. A spinal fusion is usually effected by autogenous grafts taken from the patient's

Ischium

Ileum

Ilium

Lamina

A spinal fusion is a surgical procedure in which two or more vertebrae are fused together to create a solid bone. During this procedure, autogenous grafts, which are bone grafts taken from the patient's own body, are used to promote bone growth and stability. The ilium, which is the largest and strongest part of the hip bone, is a common source for autogenous grafts used in spinal fusion surgeries. The ilium provides a good supply of bone graft material and is easily accessible for harvesting.

Explanation

A spinal fusion is a surgical procedure in which two or more vertebrae are fused together to create a solid bone. During this procedure, autogenous grafts, which are bone grafts taken from the patient's own body, are used to promote bone growth and stability. The ilium, which is the largest and strongest part of the hip bone, is a common source for autogenous grafts used in spinal fusion surgeries. The ilium provides a good supply of bone graft material and is easily accessible for harvesting.

91. Maintenance of bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy is effected by the use of a

Gelpi

Finochietto

Cloward

Beckman-Adson

The Beckman-Adson instrument is used to maintain bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy. This instrument is specifically designed with a narrow, curved blade that allows for precise retraction of the surrounding soft tissues, while minimizing the risk of damaging the bony structures. By using the Beckman-Adson instrument, surgeons can effectively visualize and access the laminae of the lumbar vertebrae, ensuring a safe and successful laminectomy procedure.

Explanation

The Beckman-Adson instrument is used to maintain bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy. This instrument is specifically designed with a narrow, curved blade that allows for precise retraction of the surrounding soft tissues, while minimizing the risk of damaging the bony structures. By using the Beckman-Adson instrument, surgeons can effectively visualize and access the laminae of the lumbar vertebrae, ensuring a safe and successful laminectomy procedure.

92. Which of the following instruments would be used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy?

Weitlaner

O'Sullivan-O'Connor

Mason-Judd

Dennis-Brown

The instrument used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy is the Mason-Judd. This instrument is specifically designed for this purpose and allows the surgeon to safely and effectively retract the bladder walls, providing better visibility and access to the prostate during the procedure. The other instruments listed (Weitlaner, O'Sullivan-O'Connor, Dennis-Brown) are not typically used for this specific purpose and may not be suitable or effective for retracting the bladder walls in a suprapubic prostatectomy.

Explanation

The instrument used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy is the Mason-Judd. This instrument is specifically designed for this purpose and allows the surgeon to safely and effectively retract the bladder walls, providing better visibility and access to the prostate during the procedure. The other instruments listed (Weitlaner, O'Sullivan-O'Connor, Dennis-Brown) are not typically used for this specific purpose and may not be suitable or effective for retracting the bladder walls in a suprapubic prostatectomy.

93. A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called

Chalazion

Glaucoma

Pterygium

Strabismus

A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called pterygium. This condition occurs when there is abnormal growth of tissue on the conjunctiva, which is the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye. Pterygium is often caused by excessive exposure to UV light, dry eye, and chronic irritation. It can cause symptoms such as redness, irritation, and blurred vision. Treatment options include lubricating eye drops, steroid eye drops, and in severe cases, surgical removal of the growth.

Explanation

A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called pterygium. This condition occurs when there is abnormal growth of tissue on the conjunctiva, which is the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye. Pterygium is often caused by excessive exposure to UV light, dry eye, and chronic irritation. It can cause symptoms such as redness, irritation, and blurred vision. Treatment options include lubricating eye drops, steroid eye drops, and in severe cases, surgical removal of the growth.

94. Which or the following shunts would be used surgically to correct hydrocephalus?

Scribner

Brisman-Nova

Le Veen

Hakim

Hakim shunt is used surgically to correct hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to increased intracranial pressure. A shunt is a medical device that is implanted to divert the excess fluid from the brain to another part of the body where it can be absorbed or eliminated. The Hakim shunt is a commonly used type of shunt for hydrocephalus treatment, as it consists of a valve system that regulates the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hydrocephalus and restore normal fluid balance in the brain.

Explanation

Hakim shunt is used surgically to correct hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to increased intracranial pressure. A shunt is a medical device that is implanted to divert the excess fluid from the brain to another part of the body where it can be absorbed or eliminated. The Hakim shunt is a commonly used type of shunt for hydrocephalus treatment, as it consists of a valve system that regulates the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hydrocephalus and restore normal fluid balance in the brain.

95. Uterotubal insufflation is a

Manchester procedure

Wertheim procedure

Le Fort procedure

Rubin's test

Rubin's test is a diagnostic procedure used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It involves injecting a dye or gas into the uterus and observing whether it flows freely through the fallopian tubes. If the dye or gas does not pass through the tubes, it suggests a blockage or obstruction. This test is commonly performed in cases of infertility to determine if there are any issues with the fallopian tubes that may be preventing pregnancy.

Explanation

Rubin's test is a diagnostic procedure used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It involves injecting a dye or gas into the uterus and observing whether it flows freely through the fallopian tubes. If the dye or gas does not pass through the tubes, it suggests a blockage or obstruction. This test is commonly performed in cases of infertility to determine if there are any issues with the fallopian tubes that may be preventing pregnancy.

96. Which tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression?

Penrose

Poole

Ferguson

Levin

The Levin tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression. It is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the nose or mouth into the stomach to remove gas, fluids, and other contents from the gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used in medical settings to relieve symptoms such as bloating, nausea, and vomiting. The other options mentioned (Penrose, Poole, and Ferguson) are not typically used for gastrointestinal decompression.

Explanation

The Levin tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression. It is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the nose or mouth into the stomach to remove gas, fluids, and other contents from the gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used in medical settings to relieve symptoms such as bloating, nausea, and vomiting. The other options mentioned (Penrose, Poole, and Ferguson) are not typically used for gastrointestinal decompression.

97. Crushing a urinary calculus in the bladder through the urethra is called

Cystolithotomy

Litholapaxy

Urethrotomy

Urethroplasty

Litholapaxy is the correct answer because it refers to the procedure of crushing a urinary calculus (also known as a bladder stone) in the bladder through the urethra. This procedure is commonly performed using a device called a lithotripter, which breaks down the stone into smaller fragments that can be easily passed out of the body through urine. Cystolithotomy, urethrotomy, and urethroplasty are all different procedures that involve surgical intervention in the bladder or urethra, but they do not specifically involve crushing a urinary calculus.

Explanation

Litholapaxy is the correct answer because it refers to the procedure of crushing a urinary calculus (also known as a bladder stone) in the bladder through the urethra. This procedure is commonly performed using a device called a lithotripter, which breaks down the stone into smaller fragments that can be easily passed out of the body through urine. Cystolithotomy, urethrotomy, and urethroplasty are all different procedures that involve surgical intervention in the bladder or urethra, but they do not specifically involve crushing a urinary calculus.

98. The normal bladder capacity is

100-200 mL

200-300 mL

700-800 mL

800-1000 mL

The normal bladder capacity is typically between 700-800 mL. This means that the bladder can comfortably hold this amount of urine before the person feels the need to urinate. Bladder capacity can vary depending on factors such as age, gender, and individual differences. It is important to note that exceeding the bladder capacity can lead to discomfort and potential bladder dysfunction.

Explanation

The normal bladder capacity is typically between 700-800 mL. This means that the bladder can comfortably hold this amount of urine before the person feels the need to urinate. Bladder capacity can vary depending on factors such as age, gender, and individual differences. It is important to note that exceeding the bladder capacity can lead to discomfort and potential bladder dysfunction.

99. In which surgical would classification would an appendectomy for ruptured appendix fall?

Clean

Clean contaminated

Contaminated

Dirty or infected

An appendectomy for a ruptured appendix would fall under the "dirty or infected" surgical wound classification. This is because a ruptured appendix involves contamination of the abdominal cavity with bacteria from the infected appendix. The surgical procedure to remove the appendix would involve dealing with the contaminated area, making it a dirty or infected wound.

Explanation

An appendectomy for a ruptured appendix would fall under the "dirty or infected" surgical wound classification. This is because a ruptured appendix involves contamination of the abdominal cavity with bacteria from the infected appendix. The surgical procedure to remove the appendix would involve dealing with the contaminated area, making it a dirty or infected wound.

100. Which of the following grafts is not a syntehtic vascular graft?

Filamentous velours

Polytetrafluorethylene

Biologic vascular

Exoskeleton prosthesis

A biologic vascular graft is not a synthetic vascular graft because it is made from natural tissues or organs, such as veins or arteries, that are harvested from human or animal donors. In contrast, filamentous velours and polytetrafluorethylene are synthetic materials commonly used for vascular grafts. An exoskeleton prosthesis is not a type of graft at all, as it is a device used to support and enhance the movement of limbs.

Explanation

A biologic vascular graft is not a synthetic vascular graft because it is made from natural tissues or organs, such as veins or arteries, that are harvested from human or animal donors. In contrast, filamentous velours and polytetrafluorethylene are synthetic materials commonly used for vascular grafts. An exoskeleton prosthesis is not a type of graft at all, as it is a device used to support and enhance the movement of limbs.

101. When changing a gown during a case, the _____ is (are) removed first, the _____ second, and a rescrub is _____.

Gown, gloves, not necessary

Gloves, gown, not necessary

Gown, gloves, necessary

Gloes, gown, necessary

During a surgical procedure, when changing a gown, it is important to remove the gown first to maintain sterility. After the gown is removed, the gloves are then taken off. In this case, a rescrub is not necessary, as the gloves provide a barrier between the surgical team member and the patient, and removing them does not compromise the sterility of the procedure.

Explanation

During a surgical procedure, when changing a gown, it is important to remove the gown first to maintain sterility. After the gown is removed, the gloves are then taken off. In this case, a rescrub is not necessary, as the gloves provide a barrier between the surgical team member and the patient, and removing them does not compromise the sterility of the procedure.

102. A Tenckhoff catheter is placed into

Cephalic vein

Peritoneal cavity

Hepatic vessel

Subclavian artery

A Tenckhoff catheter is a type of catheter that is specifically designed for peritoneal dialysis. It is inserted into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space within the abdomen that surrounds the organs. This allows for the infusion and drainage of dialysis fluid into and out of the peritoneal cavity, which helps to filter waste and excess fluid from the body. Placing the Tenckhoff catheter in the peritoneal cavity allows for effective and efficient peritoneal dialysis treatment.

Explanation

A Tenckhoff catheter is a type of catheter that is specifically designed for peritoneal dialysis. It is inserted into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space within the abdomen that surrounds the organs. This allows for the infusion and drainage of dialysis fluid into and out of the peritoneal cavity, which helps to filter waste and excess fluid from the body. Placing the Tenckhoff catheter in the peritoneal cavity allows for effective and efficient peritoneal dialysis treatment.

103. After a case is completed, the sterile team members

Discard gown and gloves before leaving the OR suite

Discard gown and keep gloves on to transport soiled equipment

Discard gown, gloves, caps, masks, and shoe covers before leaving the OR suite

Discard gown, gloves, and masks before the room is dismantled

After a case is completed, the sterile team members discard gown, gloves, caps, masks, and shoe covers before leaving the OR suite. This is done to ensure that any potential contaminants or pathogens are properly disposed of and do not leave the sterile environment of the operating room. By discarding all of these items, the team members minimize the risk of spreading any infections or contaminants to other areas of the hospital or to themselves.

Explanation

After a case is completed, the sterile team members discard gown, gloves, caps, masks, and shoe covers before leaving the OR suite. This is done to ensure that any potential contaminants or pathogens are properly disposed of and do not leave the sterile environment of the operating room. By discarding all of these items, the team members minimize the risk of spreading any infections or contaminants to other areas of the hospital or to themselves.

104. Nonunion of bone can be treated with

Artificially applied electric current

Medication

Traction

Casting

Artificially applied electric current can be used to treat nonunion of bone. This method, known as electrical stimulation, involves the application of a low-level electrical current to the affected area. This current helps to stimulate bone growth and accelerate the healing process. By promoting the formation of new bone tissue, electrical stimulation can help to encourage the union of fractured bones that have failed to heal naturally. This technique is often used in conjunction with other treatments, such as medication, traction, or casting, to provide a comprehensive approach to nonunion treatment.

Explanation

Artificially applied electric current can be used to treat nonunion of bone. This method, known as electrical stimulation, involves the application of a low-level electrical current to the affected area. This current helps to stimulate bone growth and accelerate the healing process. By promoting the formation of new bone tissue, electrical stimulation can help to encourage the union of fractured bones that have failed to heal naturally. This technique is often used in conjunction with other treatments, such as medication, traction, or casting, to provide a comprehensive approach to nonunion treatment.

105. The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to the tigh is about

100 mm Hg

250 mm Hg

350 mm Hg

400 mm Hg

When applying a tourniquet, it is crucial to maintain a balance between effectively stopping blood flow and preventing potential tissue damage. While the ideal pressure may vary depending on the individual and their specific circumstances, a pressure of around 250 mm Hg is generally considered appropriate for a tourniquet applied to the thigh. This pressure should be sufficient to control hemorrhage in most cases while minimizing the risk of tissue damage. However, it is essential to monitor the situation and adjust the pressure as needed.

Explanation

When applying a tourniquet, it is crucial to maintain a balance between effectively stopping blood flow and preventing potential tissue damage. While the ideal pressure may vary depending on the individual and their specific circumstances, a pressure of around 250 mm Hg is generally considered appropriate for a tourniquet applied to the thigh. This pressure should be sufficient to control hemorrhage in most cases while minimizing the risk of tissue damage. However, it is essential to monitor the situation and adjust the pressure as needed.

106. A prosthetic implant that requires nonadherence to tissue for the sake of creating normal flexion and extension is

Biofixation

Methyl-methacrylate fixation

Constrained

Nonconstrained

A prosthetic implant that requires nonadherence to tissue for the sake of creating normal flexion and extension is referred to as "nonconstrained." This means that the implant is designed to allow natural movement and not restrict or limit the range of motion. Unlike constrained implants, which restrict movement to prevent dislocation, nonconstrained implants are intended to replicate normal joint function and provide more natural mobility to the patient.

Explanation

A prosthetic implant that requires nonadherence to tissue for the sake of creating normal flexion and extension is referred to as "nonconstrained." This means that the implant is designed to allow natural movement and not restrict or limit the range of motion. Unlike constrained implants, which restrict movement to prevent dislocation, nonconstrained implants are intended to replicate normal joint function and provide more natural mobility to the patient.

107. All of the following would be on the setup for an open thoracotomy EXCEPT

Alexander's periosteotome

Duval forceps

Joseph's saw

Lebsche knife

An open thoracotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the chest wall to access the thoracic cavity. During this procedure, various instruments are used to perform different tasks. Alexander's periosteotome is a tool used to separate the periosteum from the bone. Duval forceps are used for grasping and holding tissues. Lebsche knife is a specialized knife used for cutting bone. However, Joseph's saw is not typically used in an open thoracotomy procedure. Joseph's saw is primarily used in orthopedic surgeries for cutting bones. Therefore, Joseph's saw would not be included in the setup for an open thoracotomy.

Explanation

An open thoracotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the chest wall to access the thoracic cavity. During this procedure, various instruments are used to perform different tasks. Alexander's periosteotome is a tool used to separate the periosteum from the bone. Duval forceps are used for grasping and holding tissues. Lebsche knife is a specialized knife used for cutting bone. However, Joseph's saw is not typically used in an open thoracotomy procedure. Joseph's saw is primarily used in orthopedic surgeries for cutting bones. Therefore, Joseph's saw would not be included in the setup for an open thoracotomy.

108. Constant monitoring of cardiac function, a requirement for vascular surgery is effected by the use of a

Doppler

Swan-Ganz

Greenfield

Fogarty

The Swan-Ganz catheter is commonly used in vascular surgery to continuously monitor cardiac function. It is a specialized catheter that is inserted into the pulmonary artery, allowing for accurate measurements of cardiac output, pulmonary artery pressure, and other hemodynamic parameters. This information is crucial during surgery as it helps the medical team assess the patient's cardiovascular status and make necessary interventions if needed. The Doppler, Greenfield, and Fogarty options are not specifically designed for continuous cardiac monitoring in vascular surgery.

Explanation

The Swan-Ganz catheter is commonly used in vascular surgery to continuously monitor cardiac function. It is a specialized catheter that is inserted into the pulmonary artery, allowing for accurate measurements of cardiac output, pulmonary artery pressure, and other hemodynamic parameters. This information is crucial during surgery as it helps the medical team assess the patient's cardiovascular status and make necessary interventions if needed. The Doppler, Greenfield, and Fogarty options are not specifically designed for continuous cardiac monitoring in vascular surgery.

109. Neo-Synephrine is

Miotic

Retrobulbar blocker

Phacoemulsifier

Mydriatic

Neo-Synephrine is a medication that is classified as a mydriatic. Mydriatics are drugs that cause dilation of the pupil. Neo-Synephrine is commonly used in ophthalmology to dilate the pupil for various diagnostic and surgical procedures. It works by stimulating the dilator muscle of the iris, causing the pupil to enlarge. This allows for better visualization of the structures within the eye during examinations or surgeries.

Explanation

Neo-Synephrine is a medication that is classified as a mydriatic. Mydriatics are drugs that cause dilation of the pupil. Neo-Synephrine is commonly used in ophthalmology to dilate the pupil for various diagnostic and surgical procedures. It works by stimulating the dilator muscle of the iris, causing the pupil to enlarge. This allows for better visualization of the structures within the eye during examinations or surgeries.

110. Each of the following treats glaucoma EXCEPT

Trephining

Laser trabeculoplasty

Keratoplasty

Iridectomy

Keratoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves replacing the cornea with a healthy cornea from a donor. Glaucoma is a condition that affects the optic nerve and is usually caused by increased pressure within the eye. Treatments for glaucoma aim to reduce this pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Trephining, laser trabeculoplasty, and iridectomy are all treatments that can help lower intraocular pressure and manage glaucoma. However, keratoplasty is not directly related to treating glaucoma as it focuses on replacing the cornea rather than addressing the underlying pressure issue.

Explanation

Keratoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves replacing the cornea with a healthy cornea from a donor. Glaucoma is a condition that affects the optic nerve and is usually caused by increased pressure within the eye. Treatments for glaucoma aim to reduce this pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Trephining, laser trabeculoplasty, and iridectomy are all treatments that can help lower intraocular pressure and manage glaucoma. However, keratoplasty is not directly related to treating glaucoma as it focuses on replacing the cornea rather than addressing the underlying pressure issue.

111. An intravenous agent used for anesthesia induction is

Lidocaine

Fluothane

Sodium pentothal

Demerol

Sodium pentothal is commonly used as an intravenous agent for anesthesia induction. It is a short-acting barbiturate that produces rapid unconsciousness and is often preferred for its quick onset and smooth induction. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and not typically used for anesthesia induction. Fluothane is a volatile inhalation anesthetic, not an intravenous agent. Demerol is an opioid analgesic, not an anesthesia induction agent. Therefore, sodium pentothal is the correct answer.

Explanation

Sodium pentothal is commonly used as an intravenous agent for anesthesia induction. It is a short-acting barbiturate that produces rapid unconsciousness and is often preferred for its quick onset and smooth induction. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and not typically used for anesthesia induction. Fluothane is a volatile inhalation anesthetic, not an intravenous agent. Demerol is an opioid analgesic, not an anesthesia induction agent. Therefore, sodium pentothal is the correct answer.

112. Which of the following statements is a contraindication to intraocular lens (IOL) implant?

Elderly patient with bilaterla cataracts

Children with traumatic cataracts

Patients with occupational vision requirements

Children with congenital cataracts

Children with congenital cataracts are a contraindication to intraocular lens (IOL) implant because their eyes are still developing and growing. Implanting an IOL in a child with congenital cataracts can interfere with the natural development of the eye and may cause complications. It is generally recommended to wait until the child's eyes have fully developed before considering an IOL implant.

Explanation

Children with congenital cataracts are a contraindication to intraocular lens (IOL) implant because their eyes are still developing and growing. Implanting an IOL in a child with congenital cataracts can interfere with the natural development of the eye and may cause complications. It is generally recommended to wait until the child's eyes have fully developed before considering an IOL implant.

113. Pilocarpine is used to

Dilate the pupil

Constrict the pupil

Keep the eye moist

Reduce inflammation

Pilocarpine is a medication that is used to constrict the pupil. Constriction of the pupil is known as miosis, and it is achieved by stimulating the muscles in the iris to contract. Pilocarpine acts on the muscarinic receptors in the eye, causing the circular muscles of the iris to contract, resulting in a smaller pupil size. This can be beneficial in certain eye conditions, such as glaucoma, where reducing the size of the pupil can help to improve the outflow of fluid from the eye and lower intraocular pressure.

Explanation

Pilocarpine is a medication that is used to constrict the pupil. Constriction of the pupil is known as miosis, and it is achieved by stimulating the muscles in the iris to contract. Pilocarpine acts on the muscarinic receptors in the eye, causing the circular muscles of the iris to contract, resulting in a smaller pupil size. This can be beneficial in certain eye conditions, such as glaucoma, where reducing the size of the pupil can help to improve the outflow of fluid from the eye and lower intraocular pressure.

114. Transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation (TENS) would be utilized for

Urinary calculi

Soft tissue allograft

Dressing for burns

Antiembolitic effort

TENS, or transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation, would be utilized for urinary calculi. This is because TENS therapy involves the use of low-voltage electrical currents to provide pain relief. Urinary calculi, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain, and TENS therapy can help to alleviate this pain by stimulating the nerves and blocking pain signals. Therefore, TENS would be an appropriate treatment option for urinary calculi.

Explanation

TENS, or transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation, would be utilized for urinary calculi. This is because TENS therapy involves the use of low-voltage electrical currents to provide pain relief. Urinary calculi, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain, and TENS therapy can help to alleviate this pain by stimulating the nerves and blocking pain signals. Therefore, TENS would be an appropriate treatment option for urinary calculi.