AST Practice Test - Part 2 Of 2

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  • 1/115 Questions

    The master gland is the

    • Thyroid
    • Pituitary
    • Adrenal
    • Parathyroid
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About This Quiz

250 question practice exam for AST certification. Topics covered are basic sciences, preoperative patient care, preoperative case management, intraoperative case management, postoperative case management, surgical specialties/procedures, and ancillary functions.
Part 2: questions 136-250

AST Practice Test - Part 2 Of 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique is

    • Osteoporosis

    • Osteomalacia

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteomyelitis
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is a condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique. It is an infection of the bone, usually caused by bacteria, that can lead to inflammation, pain, and destruction of the bone tissue. This condition can occur when bacteria enters the bone through an open fracture, surgical procedure, or bloodstream. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, swelling, redness, and tenderness in the affected area. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications and damage to the bone.

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  • 3. 

    Oxytocics are used to

    • Relax the uterus

    • Contract the uterus

    • Treat bronchospasm

    • Increase renal flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract the uterus
    Explanation
    Oxytocics are medications that are used to induce or strengthen contractions of the uterus. They are commonly used during labor to help progress the delivery of the baby. Oxytocics work by stimulating the uterine muscles, causing them to contract. This helps to push the baby down the birth canal and eventually leads to the delivery of the baby. Therefore, the correct answer is "contract the uterus".

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following instruments would be used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy?

    • Weitlaner

    • O'Sullivan-O'Connor

    • Mason-Judd

    • Dennis-Brown

    Correct Answer
    A. Mason-Judd
    Explanation
    The instrument used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy is the Mason-Judd. This instrument is specifically designed for this purpose and allows the surgeon to safely and effectively retract the bladder walls, providing better visibility and access to the prostate during the procedure. The other instruments listed (Weitlaner, O'Sullivan-O'Connor, Dennis-Brown) are not typically used for this specific purpose and may not be suitable or effective for retracting the bladder walls in a suprapubic prostatectomy.

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  • 5. 

    Maintenance of bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy is effected by the use of a

    • Gelpi

    • Finochietto

    • Cloward

    • Beckman-Adson

    Correct Answer
    A. Beckman-Adson
    Explanation
    The Beckman-Adson instrument is used to maintain bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy. This instrument is specifically designed with a narrow, curved blade that allows for precise retraction of the surrounding soft tissues, while minimizing the risk of damaging the bony structures. By using the Beckman-Adson instrument, surgeons can effectively visualize and access the laminae of the lumbar vertebrae, ensuring a safe and successful laminectomy procedure.

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  • 6. 

    A common abdominal complication caused by previous abdoominal or pelvic surgery is

    • Adenomyosis

    • Endometriosis

    • Adhesions

    • Vaginal discharge

    Correct Answer
    A. Adhesions
    Explanation
    Adhesions are a common abdominal complication caused by previous abdominal or pelvic surgery. Adhesions occur when scar tissue forms between organs or tissues in the abdomen, causing them to stick together. This can lead to pain, discomfort, and even bowel obstruction. Adhesions are a well-known complication of surgery, especially surgeries involving the abdomen or pelvis, and can cause significant complications for patients.

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  • 7. 

    Which or the following shunts would be used surgically to correct hydrocephalus?

    • Scribner

    • Brisman-Nova

    • Le Veen

    • Hakim

    Correct Answer
    A. Hakim
    Explanation
    Hakim shunt is used surgically to correct hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to increased intracranial pressure. A shunt is a medical device that is implanted to divert the excess fluid from the brain to another part of the body where it can be absorbed or eliminated. The Hakim shunt is a commonly used type of shunt for hydrocephalus treatment, as it consists of a valve system that regulates the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hydrocephalus and restore normal fluid balance in the brain.

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  • 8. 

    A spinal fusion is usually effected by autogenous grafts taken from the patient's

    • Ischium

    • Ileum

    • Ilium

    • Lamina

    Correct Answer
    A. Ilium
    Explanation
    A spinal fusion is a surgical procedure in which two or more vertebrae are fused together to create a solid bone. During this procedure, autogenous grafts, which are bone grafts taken from the patient's own body, are used to promote bone growth and stability. The ilium, which is the largest and strongest part of the hip bone, is a common source for autogenous grafts used in spinal fusion surgeries. The ilium provides a good supply of bone graft material and is easily accessible for harvesting.

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  • 9. 

    A complication of orthopedic surgery is

    • Thromboembolism

    • Fat embolism

    • Infection

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Orthopedic surgery carries the risk of various complications, including thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection. Thromboembolism refers to the formation of blood clots that can travel to other parts of the body, potentially causing blockages. Fat embolism occurs when fat particles enter the bloodstream, usually after a bone fracture, and can lead to respiratory and circulatory problems. Infection is a common complication after any surgical procedure, including orthopedic surgery. Therefore, all of the options listed (thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection) are potential complications of orthopedic surgery.

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  • 10. 

    Nonunion of bone can be treated with

    • Artificially applied electric current

    • Medication

    • Traction

    • Casting

    Correct Answer
    A. Artificially applied electric current
    Explanation
    Artificially applied electric current can be used to treat nonunion of bone. This method, known as electrical stimulation, involves the application of a low-level electrical current to the affected area. This current helps to stimulate bone growth and accelerate the healing process. By promoting the formation of new bone tissue, electrical stimulation can help to encourage the union of fractured bones that have failed to heal naturally. This technique is often used in conjunction with other treatments, such as medication, traction, or casting, to provide a comprehensive approach to nonunion treatment.

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  • 11. 

    The word which best describes "staging" is

    • Reproduction criteria

    • Categorization

    • Series

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. B and C
    Explanation
    The word "staging" can be best described as both categorization and series. Categorization refers to the act of organizing or classifying things into different categories, which can be applicable to staging as it involves categorizing or classifying items or elements for a specific purpose, such as in theater or event production. Series refers to a sequence or progression of events or actions, which can also be applicable to staging as it often involves a series of steps or processes to prepare and present something effectively. Therefore, both categorization and series accurately describe the concept of staging.

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  • 12. 

    Nosocomial infection refers to

    • Hospital-acquired infection

    • Infection in the nose

    • Infection in the wound

    • Surgery-related infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Hospital-acquired infection
    Explanation
    Nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. This type of infection is specifically associated with the healthcare environment and can be caused by various factors such as contaminated equipment, improper hygiene practices, or the presence of drug-resistant bacteria. Hospital-acquired infections can occur in different parts of the body, including the respiratory tract, urinary tract, surgical wounds, and bloodstream. It is important to prevent and control nosocomial infections through proper infection control measures to ensure patient safety and reduce the spread of these infections within healthcare facilities.

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  • 13. 

    During a CPR effort in the OR, the scrub nurse

    • Starts time clock and records arrest time

    • Remains sterile and keeps tables sterile

    • Assists with traffic control as ordered

    • Breaks scrub and mans defibrillator

    Correct Answer
    A. Remains sterile and keeps tables sterile
    Explanation
    The scrub nurse's main responsibility during a CPR effort in the OR is to maintain sterility in the operating room and keep the tables sterile. This is crucial to prevent any infections or complications during the procedure. The nurse should not break scrub or leave their sterile field unless necessary. Assisting with traffic control or operating the defibrillator may be important tasks, but the nurse's priority should be to ensure a sterile environment.

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  • 14. 

    The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered

    • Sterile

    • Semisterile

    • Nonsterile

    • Surgically clean

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonsterile
    Explanation
    The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered nonsterile because they are exposed to the external environment and can easily become contaminated. Even though the contents inside the wrapper are sterile, the edges are not protected and can potentially introduce bacteria or other contaminants. Therefore, it is important to handle the edges of the wrapper with caution and consider them as nonsterile.

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  • 15. 

    A ureteral stent catheter is used to

    • Remove ureteral calculi

    • Inject dye through during pyelography

    • Provide long-term drainage in ureteral obstruction

    • Measure bladder pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide long-term drainage in ureteral obstruction
    Explanation
    A ureteral stent catheter is used to provide long-term drainage in cases of ureteral obstruction. The stent is inserted into the ureter to bypass the obstruction and allow urine to flow from the kidney to the bladder. This helps in relieving the pressure caused by the obstruction and prevents complications such as kidney damage or infection. The stent remains in place for a specific period of time, determined by the healthcare provider, until the obstruction is resolved or further treatment is required.

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  • 16. 

    Uterotubal insufflation is a

    • Manchester procedure

    • Wertheim procedure

    • Le Fort procedure

    • Rubin's test

    Correct Answer
    A. Rubin's test
    Explanation
    Rubin's test is a diagnostic procedure used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It involves injecting a dye or gas into the uterus and observing whether it flows freely through the fallopian tubes. If the dye or gas does not pass through the tubes, it suggests a blockage or obstruction. This test is commonly performed in cases of infertility to determine if there are any issues with the fallopian tubes that may be preventing pregnancy.

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  • 17. 

    An infants average at rest heart rate is _____ beats per minute

    • 60

    • 80

    • 120

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 120
    Explanation
    An infant's average at rest heart rate is 120 beats per minute. This is because infants have a higher metabolic rate compared to adults, which results in a faster heart rate. Additionally, infants have smaller hearts and blood vessels, which require a higher heart rate to pump blood effectively throughout their bodies.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following instruments is not found in a vaginal procedure?

    • Goodell dilator

    • Jacobs tenaculum

    • Auvard speculum

    • Harrington retractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Harrington retractor
    Explanation
    A Harrington retractor is not typically used in a vaginal procedure. This instrument is commonly used in orthopedic surgery to retract soft tissues and expose the surgical site. In contrast, a Goodell dilator, Jacobs tenaculum, and Auvard speculum are all instruments commonly used in vaginal procedures.

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  • 19. 

    The operation to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall is

    • Colporrhaphy

    • Shirodkar

    • Le Fort

    • Vesicourethral suspension

    Correct Answer
    A. Colporrhaphy
    Explanation
    Colporrhaphy is the surgical procedure performed to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall. This procedure involves repairing and reinforcing the weakened or damaged tissue in the vaginal wall to restore its normal position and function. It is a common and effective treatment option for anterior vaginal wall prolapse, providing support and stability to the pelvic organs. Shirodkar, Le Fort, and vesicourethral suspension are not specifically related to the correction of anterior vaginal wall prolapse, making colporrhaphy the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    Which nasal sinus can be approached only through an external eyebrow incision?

    • Sphenoid

    • Ethmoid

    • Frontal

    • Maxillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal
    Explanation
    The frontal sinus can only be approached through an external eyebrow incision because it is located in the forehead, just above the eyebrows. This approach allows direct access to the frontal sinus without the need for more invasive procedures. The other nasal sinuses (sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary) can be accessed through different approaches such as endoscopic procedures or through the nostrils.

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  • 21. 

    Which sinus is surgically opened in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?

    • Ethmoid

    • Frontal

    • Maxillary

    • Sphenoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Maxillary
    Explanation
    In a Caldwell-Luc procedure, the maxillary sinus is surgically opened. This procedure is performed to treat conditions such as chronic sinusitis or to remove tumors or cysts in the maxillary sinus. By opening the maxillary sinus, the surgeon can access and drain any infected or blocked sinuses, providing relief to the patient.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following pieces of hardware will be used in an intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft?

    • Kirschner's wire

    • Steinmann pin

    • Kuntscher nail

    • Jewett nail

    Correct Answer
    A. Kuntscher nail
    Explanation
    The Kuntscher nail is a type of hardware that is commonly used in the intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft. It is a long, cylindrical nail that is inserted into the medullary canal of the femur to stabilize the fracture and promote healing. Kirschner's wire and Steinmann pin are also types of hardware used in orthopedic procedures, but they are not specifically designed for fixation of a femoral shaft fracture. Jewett nail is not a type of hardware used in intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures.

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  • 23. 

    The second cranial nerve is the

    • Vagus

    • Oculomotor

    • Optic

    • Facial

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic
    Explanation
    The second cranial nerve is the optic nerve. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in vision and is essential for sight. The other options mentioned (vagus, oculomotor, and facial) are different cranial nerves responsible for various functions, but they are not the second cranial nerve.

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  • 24. 

    The normal body temperature in centigrade measurement is

    • 37 C

    • 56 C

    • 98 C

    • 112 C

    Correct Answer
    A. 37 C
    Explanation
    The normal body temperature is typically around 37 degrees Celsius. This temperature is considered to be the average healthy body temperature for humans.

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  • 25. 

    What is the purpose of doing ABGs intraoperatively?

    • To assess arterial gases

    • To determine blood volume

    • To monitor pulmonary artery pressure measurement

    • To aid in determining antibiotics to use

    Correct Answer
    A. To assess arterial gases
    Explanation
    The purpose of doing ABGs (arterial blood gases) intraoperatively is to assess the levels of arterial gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, in the blood. This helps in evaluating the patient's respiratory function and acid-base balance, as well as guiding appropriate interventions and adjustments in ventilation or oxygenation if necessary. It provides valuable information about the patient's oxygenation status and overall respiratory function during surgery.

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  • 26. 

    Which tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression?

    • Penrose

    • Poole

    • Ferguson

    • Levin

    Correct Answer
    A. Levin
    Explanation
    The Levin tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression. It is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the nose or mouth into the stomach to remove gas, fluids, and other contents from the gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used in medical settings to relieve symptoms such as bloating, nausea, and vomiting. The other options mentioned (Penrose, Poole, and Ferguson) are not typically used for gastrointestinal decompression.

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  • 27. 

    A tissue expander would be used for

    • Burn debridement

    • TRAM flap

    • Breast reconstruction

    • Gynecomastia

    Correct Answer
    A. Breast reconstruction
    Explanation
    A tissue expander is a device commonly used in breast reconstruction procedures. It is used to stretch the skin and create a pocket for a breast implant. This allows for the gradual expansion of the breast tissue, resulting in a more natural-looking breast shape. Therefore, breast reconstruction is the most appropriate use for a tissue expander.

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  • 28. 

    Continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary during cystoscopy to

    • Keep the area moistened and thus reduce trauma

    • Distend the bladder walls for visualization

    • Act as a viewing medium

    • Reduce heat from the lighted scope

    Correct Answer
    A. Distend the bladder walls for visualization
    Explanation
    During cystoscopy, continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary to distend the bladder walls for visualization. This is important because when the bladder is distended, it provides a larger working space for the surgeon to maneuver the cystoscope and instruments. It also helps to improve visualization of the bladder walls, allowing the surgeon to identify any abnormalities or lesions more easily. Additionally, distending the bladder can help to minimize the risk of trauma during the procedure by creating a cushioning effect and reducing the chances of accidental injury to the bladder walls.

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  • 29. 

    The excision and removal of diseased and necrotic tissue is termed

    • Desiccation

    • Decortication

    • Debridement

    • Dermabrasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Debridement
    Explanation
    Debridement is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing damaged, dead, or infected tissue from a wound or injury. This procedure is commonly performed to promote healing and prevent infection. Desiccation refers to the drying out of tissue, decortication is the removal of the outer layer of an organ or bone, and dermabrasion is a cosmetic procedure that involves the removal of the top layer of skin. None of these options accurately describe the removal of diseased and necrotic tissue.

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  • 30. 

    The excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids is called

    • Fasciectomy

    • Oculoplasty

    • Rhtyidectomy

    • Blepharoplasty

    Correct Answer
    A. Blepharoplasty
    Explanation
    Blepharoplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical procedure that involves the removal of excess skin and fat from the eyelids. This procedure is commonly performed to improve the appearance of droopy or sagging eyelids, giving a more youthful and refreshed look to the eyes. The other options, fasciectomy, oculoplasty, and rhytidectomy, do not specifically involve the excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids.

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  • 31. 

    A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called

    • Chalazion

    • Glaucoma

    • Pterygium

    • Strabismus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pterygium
    Explanation
    A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called pterygium. This condition occurs when there is abnormal growth of tissue on the conjunctiva, which is the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye. Pterygium is often caused by excessive exposure to UV light, dry eye, and chronic irritation. It can cause symptoms such as redness, irritation, and blurred vision. Treatment options include lubricating eye drops, steroid eye drops, and in severe cases, surgical removal of the growth.

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  • 32. 

    Mandibular fractures are treated by occlusion of the teeth effected b ythe use of a(n)

    • Splint

    • Rigid fixation with plate

    • LeFort suspension device

    • Arch bar

    Correct Answer
    A. Arch bar
    Explanation
    Mandibular fractures are commonly treated using arch bars. Arch bars are orthodontic devices that are attached to the teeth using wire to stabilize the fractured jaw. They help to align the teeth properly and provide stability to the jaw during the healing process. This allows for proper occlusion of the teeth and ensures that the jaw heals correctly. Splints, rigid fixation with plates, and LeFort suspension devices are not typically used for treating mandibular fractures.

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  • 33. 

    Which procedure would requiere the following instruments:  Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, caliper

    • Orthopedic

    • Arthroscopic

    • Nasal

    • Vascular

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal
    Explanation
    The given instruments such as Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, and caliper are commonly used in nasal procedures. These instruments are specifically designed for nasal surgeries, including rhinoplasty, septoplasty, and nasal reconstruction. Therefore, the correct answer is nasal.

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  • 34. 

    Lacrimal probes are called

    • Bowman

    • Bakes

    • Serrefines

    • Swolin

    Correct Answer
    A. Bowman
    Explanation
    Lacrimal probes are called Bowman.

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  • 35. 

    The eardrum is also known as the

    • External auditory canal

    • Ear canal

    • Semicircular canal

    • Tympanic membrane

    Correct Answer
    A. Tympanic membrane
    Explanation
    The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It is located at the end of the ear canal and is responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they cause the eardrum to vibrate, which in turn sets the chain of ossicles in motion, amplifying the sound and transmitting it to the inner ear.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following appliances can be used for intramedullary fixation of a femur?

    • Smith-Peterson

    • Neufield

    • Jewett

    • Sampson

    Correct Answer
    A. Sampson
    Explanation
    The Sampson appliance can be used for intramedullary fixation of a femur.

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  • 37. 

    Bradycardia is

    • Heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

    • Irregular heartbeat

    • Thready, weak heartbeat

    • Heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute
    Explanation
    Bradycardia refers to a condition where the heart rate is slower than normal, specifically less than 60 beats per minute. It is the opposite of tachycardia, which is a fast heart rate. Bradycardia can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and an underactive thyroid gland. It can result in symptoms like fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment for bradycardia depends on the underlying cause and severity, and may involve lifestyle changes, medication, or in severe cases, the use of a pacemaker to regulate the heart rate.

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  • 38. 

    If a needle punctures a sterile tem member's glove,

    • Discard the needle

    • Change the glove

    • Place another glove over the punctured one

    • A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    If a needle punctures a sterile team member's glove, it is important to discard the needle to prevent any potential injuries or contamination. Additionally, it is necessary to change the glove to maintain sterility and prevent the spread of any pathogens. Therefore, both options A and B are correct. Placing another glove over the punctured one is not recommended as it may compromise the sterility of the area.

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  • 39. 

    A Tenckhoff catheter is placed into

    • Cephalic vein

    • Peritoneal cavity

    • Hepatic vessel

    • Subclavian artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Peritoneal cavity
    Explanation
    A Tenckhoff catheter is a type of catheter that is specifically designed for peritoneal dialysis. It is inserted into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space within the abdomen that surrounds the organs. This allows for the infusion and drainage of dialysis fluid into and out of the peritoneal cavity, which helps to filter waste and excess fluid from the body. Placing the Tenckhoff catheter in the peritoneal cavity allows for effective and efficient peritoneal dialysis treatment.

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  • 40. 

    The needle used for a liver biopsy is

    • Silverman

    • Charnley

    • Chiba

    • Dorsey

    Correct Answer
    A. Silverman
    Explanation
    The needle used for a liver biopsy is Silverman.

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  • 41. 

    Each of the following treats glaucoma EXCEPT

    • Trephining

    • Laser trabeculoplasty

    • Keratoplasty

    • Iridectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Keratoplasty
    Explanation
    Keratoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves replacing the cornea with a healthy cornea from a donor. Glaucoma is a condition that affects the optic nerve and is usually caused by increased pressure within the eye. Treatments for glaucoma aim to reduce this pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Trephining, laser trabeculoplasty, and iridectomy are all treatments that can help lower intraocular pressure and manage glaucoma. However, keratoplasty is not directly related to treating glaucoma as it focuses on replacing the cornea rather than addressing the underlying pressure issue.

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  • 42. 

    An instrument used to incise the eardrum to relieve pressure is called a

    • Rosen knife

    • Walsh crurotomy knife

    • Myringotomy knife

    • Hough pick

    Correct Answer
    A. Myringotomy knife
    Explanation
    A myringotomy knife is a surgical instrument specifically designed for making an incision in the eardrum, a procedure known as myringotomy. This incision is made to relieve pressure buildup in the middle ear and is often performed to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections or to insert ear ventilation tubes. The other options mentioned, such as the Rosen knife, Walsh crurotomy knife, and Hough pick, are not commonly used instruments for this particular procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is myringotomy knife.

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  • 43. 

    In which surgical specialty would a perfusionist be necessary?

    • Neurologic

    • Cardiac

    • Transplant

    • Microsurgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac
    Explanation
    A perfusionist is a medical professional who operates the heart-lung machine during cardiac surgeries. They are responsible for maintaining the patient's blood circulation and oxygenation while the surgeon performs the procedure. Therefore, a perfusionist would be necessary in the surgical specialty of cardiac surgery.

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  • 44. 

    The preferred method of glovin is _____.  In changing during a case, this method _____ be used.

    • Closed, can

    • Open, can

    • Closed, cannot

    • Open, cannot

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed, cannot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "closed, cannot". The word "glovin" is not familiar and does not provide any context. However, based on the information given, it can be inferred that the preferred method of glovin is "closed" because it is mentioned first. Additionally, it is stated that in changing during a case, this method "cannot" be used, indicating that the preferred method is "closed" and not "open".

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  • 45. 

    When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the OR, an immediate response would be

    • Monitor intake and output

    • Give supplementary oxygen

    • Raise the head 45 degrees

    • Restore fluid volume quickly

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore fluid volume quickly
    Explanation
    When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the operating room, the immediate response should be to restore fluid volume quickly. Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid, leading to a decrease in circulating volume. Restoring fluid volume quickly is crucial in order to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further complications. Monitoring intake and output, giving supplementary oxygen, and raising the head 45 degrees may also be part of the management plan, but restoring fluid volume quickly takes priority in this situation.

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  • 46. 

    In which surgical would classification would an appendectomy for ruptured appendix fall?

    • Clean

    • Clean contaminated

    • Contaminated

    • Dirty or infected

    Correct Answer
    A. Dirty or infected
    Explanation
    An appendectomy for a ruptured appendix would fall under the "dirty or infected" surgical wound classification. This is because a ruptured appendix involves contamination of the abdominal cavity with bacteria from the infected appendix. The surgical procedure to remove the appendix would involve dealing with the contaminated area, making it a dirty or infected wound.

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  • 47. 

    The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the

    • Middle ear

    • Outer ear

    • Inner ear

    • External ear

    Correct Answer
    A. Middle ear
    Explanation
    The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the middle ear. These three small bones, also known as the ossicles, are essential for the process of hearing. They work together to transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The middle ear is the space between the eardrum and the inner ear, and it contains these three bones, which amplify and transmit the sound waves.

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  • 48. 

    Protective goggles are worn during CO2 laser surgery to

    • Deflect glare

    • Prevent corneal damage

    • Avoid splashing from irrigation

    • Absorb light rays

    Correct Answer
    A. Absorb light rays
    Explanation
    CO2 lasers are powerful devices that emit invisible infrared light beams, which can cause serious eye damage if proper precautions are not taken. The protective goggles are designed to absorb these harmful light rays, thus minimizing the risk of injury to the surgeon, assistants, and the patient. Additionally, these goggles also offer some protection against potential splashing from irrigation fluids or other hazards that might occur during the surgical procedure.

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  • 49. 

    When gloving a surgeon

    • Keep the palm of the gove facing the surgeon

    • Avoid contact by keeping thumbs tucked in

    • Hold the second glove while doing the first

    • Glove only over a sterile area

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep the palm of the gove facing the surgeon
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to keep the palm of the glove facing the surgeon. This is important because it ensures that the clean, sterile side of the glove is facing the surgeon, reducing the risk of contamination. By keeping the palm facing the surgeon, any potential contact with non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining a sterile environment during the gloving process.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 24, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 24, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 18, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Heather Balthrop

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