AST Practice Test - Part 2 Of 2

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1. If a needle punctures a sterile tem member's glove,

Explanation

If a needle punctures a sterile team member's glove, it is important to discard the needle to prevent any potential injuries or contamination. Additionally, it is necessary to change the glove to maintain sterility and prevent the spread of any pathogens. Therefore, both options A and B are correct. Placing another glove over the punctured one is not recommended as it may compromise the sterility of the area.

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About This Quiz
AST Practice Test - Part 2 Of 2 - Quiz

250 question practice exam for AST certification. Topics covered are basic sciences, preoperative patient care, preoperative case management, intraoperative case management, postoperative case management, surgical specialties/procedures, and ancillary functions.
Part 2: questions 136-250

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2. When applying a sterile sheet on the patient,

Explanation

When applying a sterile sheet on the patient, it is important to protect the gloved hands by cuffing the end of the sheet over them. This helps to create a barrier between the hands and the potentially contaminated environment, reducing the risk of infection. By cuffing the sheet over the hands, any contact with the patient's skin or other non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining the sterility of the procedure.

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3. During a CPR effort in the OR, the scrub nurse

Explanation

The scrub nurse's main responsibility during a CPR effort in the OR is to maintain sterility in the operating room and keep the tables sterile. This is crucial to prevent any infections or complications during the procedure. The nurse should not break scrub or leave their sterile field unless necessary. Assisting with traffic control or operating the defibrillator may be important tasks, but the nurse's priority should be to ensure a sterile environment.

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4. Nosocomial infection refers to

Explanation

Nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. This type of infection is specifically associated with the healthcare environment and can be caused by various factors such as contaminated equipment, improper hygiene practices, or the presence of drug-resistant bacteria. Hospital-acquired infections can occur in different parts of the body, including the respiratory tract, urinary tract, surgical wounds, and bloodstream. It is important to prevent and control nosocomial infections through proper infection control measures to ensure patient safety and reduce the spread of these infections within healthcare facilities.

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5. A common abdominal complication caused by previous abdoominal or pelvic surgery is

Explanation

Adhesions are a common abdominal complication caused by previous abdominal or pelvic surgery. Adhesions occur when scar tissue forms between organs or tissues in the abdomen, causing them to stick together. This can lead to pain, discomfort, and even bowel obstruction. Adhesions are a well-known complication of surgery, especially surgeries involving the abdomen or pelvis, and can cause significant complications for patients.

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6. The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered

Explanation

The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered nonsterile because they are exposed to the external environment and can easily become contaminated. Even though the contents inside the wrapper are sterile, the edges are not protected and can potentially introduce bacteria or other contaminants. Therefore, it is important to handle the edges of the wrapper with caution and consider them as nonsterile.

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7. Fingerlike projections at the end of the Fallopian tubes are called

Explanation

Fingerlike projections at the end of the Fallopian tubes are called fimbriae. These fimbriae help to capture the released egg from the ovary and guide it into the Fallopian tube for fertilization. They create a sweeping motion to move the egg towards the tube. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped opening of the Fallopian tube that contains the fimbriae. Graphian follicle and corpus luteum are structures found in the ovaries and not directly related to the Fallopian tubes.

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8. The excision and removal of diseased and necrotic tissue is termed

Explanation

Debridement is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing damaged, dead, or infected tissue from a wound or injury. This procedure is commonly performed to promote healing and prevent infection. Desiccation refers to the drying out of tissue, decortication is the removal of the outer layer of an organ or bone, and dermabrasion is a cosmetic procedure that involves the removal of the top layer of skin. None of these options accurately describe the removal of diseased and necrotic tissue.

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9. At which artery is the blood pressure taken?

Explanation

The blood pressure is typically taken at the brachial artery. This artery is located in the upper arm and is commonly used to measure blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope. The brachial artery is easily accessible and provides accurate readings of blood pressure.

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10. The excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids is called

Explanation

Blepharoplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical procedure that involves the removal of excess skin and fat from the eyelids. This procedure is commonly performed to improve the appearance of droopy or sagging eyelids, giving a more youthful and refreshed look to the eyes. The other options, fasciectomy, oculoplasty, and rhytidectomy, do not specifically involve the excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids.

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11. An instrument used to incise the eardrum to relieve pressure is called a

Explanation

A myringotomy knife is a surgical instrument specifically designed for making an incision in the eardrum, a procedure known as myringotomy. This incision is made to relieve pressure buildup in the middle ear and is often performed to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections or to insert ear ventilation tubes. The other options mentioned, such as the Rosen knife, Walsh crurotomy knife, and Hough pick, are not commonly used instruments for this particular procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is myringotomy knife.

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12. Protective goggles are worn during CO2 laser surgery to

Explanation

CO2 lasers are powerful devices that emit invisible infrared light beams, which can cause serious eye damage if proper precautions are not taken. The protective goggles are designed to absorb these harmful light rays, thus minimizing the risk of injury to the surgeon, assistants, and the patient. Additionally, these goggles also offer some protection against potential splashing from irrigation fluids or other hazards that might occur during the surgical procedure.

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13. The surgical procedure performed electively as a permanent method of sterilization is

Explanation

A vasectomy is a surgical procedure performed as a permanent method of sterilization. It involves cutting or blocking the vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles, to prevent sperm from reaching the semen that is ejaculated. This procedure is typically performed on men who no longer wish to father children or who have completed their desired family size. Unlike epididymectomy, orchiectomy, and orchiopexy, which involve the removal or repositioning of testicles or epididymis, a vasectomy specifically focuses on preventing sperm from entering the ejaculate.

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14. When doing a skin prep, which includes a draining sinus, the contaminated area is

Explanation

When doing a skin prep, it is important to prioritize the contaminated area, such as a draining sinus, by doing it last or separately. This is because the contaminated area can potentially spread bacteria or other pathogens to other clean areas if it is done first. By addressing the contaminated area last or separately, the risk of cross-contamination is minimized, ensuring a more effective and safe skin prep procedure.

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15. Which piece of equipment is used to make a skin graft larger?

Explanation

A mesh dermatome is used to make a skin graft larger. This device cuts the skin into a mesh-like pattern, allowing it to stretch and cover a larger area. Unlike a knife dermatome or a Brown air dermatome, which are used for initial graft harvest, the mesh dermatome specifically helps in expanding the size of the graft. The Reese drum-type dermatome is not used for graft expansion either.

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16. The item that provides internal drainage of an obstructed ureter is a(n)

Explanation

A stent is a medical device that is inserted into the ureter to provide internal drainage when it is obstructed. It is a flexible tube-like structure that helps to keep the ureter open and allows urine to flow freely from the kidney to the bladder. Stents are commonly used to treat conditions such as kidney stones or tumors that can cause blockages in the ureter. They are usually temporary and may need to be removed once the obstruction is resolved.

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17. If a towel clip must be removed during a procedure

Explanation

If a towel clip must be removed during a procedure, it is important to maintain sterility. Discarding the towel clip from the field helps to prevent contamination. To maintain sterility, the area where the towel clip was removed should be covered with another sterile drape. This ensures that the surgical site remains free from any potential sources of infection.

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18. The eardrum is also known as the

Explanation

The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. It is located at the end of the ear canal and is responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they cause the eardrum to vibrate, which in turn sets the chain of ossicles in motion, amplifying the sound and transmitting it to the inner ear.

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19. The function of the endocrine glands is to

Explanation

The endocrine glands are responsible for producing and releasing hormones into the bloodstream. These hormones act as chemical messengers and regulate various bodily functions, such as growth and development, metabolism, reproduction, and mood. Therefore, the correct answer is "produce hormones."

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20. When inserting a Foley catheter, always

Explanation

Before inserting a Foley catheter, it is important to check the integrity of the balloon by inflating it with the correct amount of sterile water. This ensures that the balloon is not damaged and will function properly once inserted. Inflating the balloon immediately after insertion may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. Connecting the catheter to the closed drainage system before insertion helps maintain a sterile environment and prevents contamination. Having the scrub nurse hold the bag above table level helps with proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine.

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21. A bacteria with a thick coat that protects it from temperature extremes or strong chemicals is a

Explanation

A bacteria with a thick coat that protects it from temperature extremes or strong chemicals is a spore. Spores are specialized structures that some bacteria form to protect themselves from harsh conditions. These coats provide a protective barrier that allows the spore to survive in extreme temperatures or in the presence of strong chemicals. Spores can remain dormant for long periods of time until conditions become favorable for growth and reproduction.

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22. The word which best describes "staging" is

Explanation

The word "staging" can be best described as both categorization and series. Categorization refers to the act of organizing or classifying things into different categories, which can be applicable to staging as it involves categorizing or classifying items or elements for a specific purpose, such as in theater or event production. Series refers to a sequence or progression of events or actions, which can also be applicable to staging as it often involves a series of steps or processes to prepare and present something effectively. Therefore, both categorization and series accurately describe the concept of staging.

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23. Which of the following instruments is not found in a vaginal procedure?

Explanation

A Harrington retractor is not typically used in a vaginal procedure. This instrument is commonly used in orthopedic surgery to retract soft tissues and expose the surgical site. In contrast, a Goodell dilator, Jacobs tenaculum, and Auvard speculum are all instruments commonly used in vaginal procedures.

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24. Mandibular fractures are treated by occlusion of the teeth effected b ythe use of a(n)

Explanation

Mandibular fractures are commonly treated using arch bars. Arch bars are orthodontic devices that are attached to the teeth using wire to stabilize the fractured jaw. They help to align the teeth properly and provide stability to the jaw during the healing process. This allows for proper occlusion of the teeth and ensures that the jaw heals correctly. Splints, rigid fixation with plates, and LeFort suspension devices are not typically used for treating mandibular fractures.

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25. The action of white blood cells is to

Explanation

White blood cells are a crucial part of the immune system and their main function is to defend the body against harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens. They do this by engulfing and destroying these foreign invaders through a process called phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "destroy bacteria".

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26. During vascular surgery, an arteriotomy is executed with a #11 blade and extended by used of a

Explanation

An arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in an artery. In this case, the arteriotomy is being executed using a #11 blade, which is a type of surgical scalpel. The question asks for the instrument that is used to extend the arteriotomy. The correct answer is Potts-Smith. Potts-Smith is a type of surgical scissors that are commonly used to extend incisions during vascular surgery.

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27. A commonly used diuretic is

Explanation

Lasix is a commonly used diuretic. It is a medication that helps increase urine production and eliminate excess water and salt from the body. It is often prescribed to treat conditions such as edema (fluid retention) and high blood pressure. Lasix works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This helps reduce fluid buildup in the body and promote diuresis.

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28. Rectal surgery preparation is done

Explanation

The correct answer is "surrounding area first, anus last." This approach to rectal surgery preparation ensures that the surrounding area is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before focusing on the anus. This sequence helps to prevent contamination of the surgical site and reduces the risk of infection. By prioritizing the surrounding area first, healthcare professionals can maintain a sterile environment and ensure the best possible outcome for the surgery.

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29. All of the following statements are true during deep vaginal procedures EXCEPT

Explanation

During deep vaginal procedures, various measures are taken to ensure patient safety and prevent any complications. Suction is used as part of the setup to remove any fluids or debris from the surgical site. Sponges are secured on long forceps to aid in controlling bleeding and maintaining a clear field. Vaginal packing may be inserted at the end of the case to provide support and prevent postoperative bleeding. However, the count is not eliminated during deep vaginal procedures. Counting and keeping track of all surgical instruments and sponges is crucial to avoid leaving any foreign objects inside the patient's body.

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30. The normal body temperature in centigrade measurement is

Explanation

The normal body temperature is typically around 37 degrees Celsius. This temperature is considered to be the average healthy body temperature for humans.

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31. Which disease could be trasmitted via a blood transfusion?

Explanation

Hepatitis B is a disease that can be transmitted through a blood transfusion. It is a viral infection that affects the liver and can lead to chronic liver disease, liver cancer, and even death. The virus can be present in the blood of infected individuals, and if that blood is transfused into another person, they can become infected with hepatitis B. Therefore, it is important to screen blood donations for hepatitis B to prevent transmission of the virus through transfusions.

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32. A condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique is

Explanation

Osteomyelitis is a condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or improper surgical technique. It is an infection of the bone, usually caused by bacteria, that can lead to inflammation, pain, and destruction of the bone tissue. This condition can occur when bacteria enters the bone through an open fracture, surgical procedure, or bloodstream. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, swelling, redness, and tenderness in the affected area. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications and damage to the bone.

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33. Oxytocics are used to

Explanation

Oxytocics are medications that are used to induce or strengthen contractions of the uterus. They are commonly used during labor to help progress the delivery of the baby. Oxytocics work by stimulating the uterine muscles, causing them to contract. This helps to push the baby down the birth canal and eventually leads to the delivery of the baby. Therefore, the correct answer is "contract the uterus".

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34. When gloving a surgeon

Explanation

The correct answer is to keep the palm of the glove facing the surgeon. This is important because it ensures that the clean, sterile side of the glove is facing the surgeon, reducing the risk of contamination. By keeping the palm facing the surgeon, any potential contact with non-sterile surfaces is minimized, maintaining a sterile environment during the gloving process.

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35. What organisms are likely to be found ina surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy?

Explanation

Escherichia coli is a bacterium commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals. It is a normal part of the gut flora and can be easily introduced into a surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy. The presence of Escherichia coli in a surgical wound suggests contamination from the intestines and can potentially lead to infection if not properly treated. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are also common bacteria found in surgical wounds, but the presence of Escherichia coli is more likely in this specific scenario. Pseudomonas is less likely to be found in a surgical wound adjacent to a colostomy.

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36. A drug given preoperatively that enables the liver to produce clotting factors in the blood is

Explanation

Vitamin K is the correct answer because it is known to enable the liver to produce clotting factors in the blood. Clotting factors are essential for the formation of blood clots, which help to prevent excessive bleeding during surgery. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of these clotting factors, making it an important preoperative drug. Vitamin C, vitamin B12, and vitamin D do not have the same effect on clotting factors as vitamin K, making them incorrect choices.

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37. Bradycardia is

Explanation

Bradycardia refers to a condition where the heart rate is slower than normal, specifically less than 60 beats per minute. It is the opposite of tachycardia, which is a fast heart rate. Bradycardia can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and an underactive thyroid gland. It can result in symptoms like fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment for bradycardia depends on the underlying cause and severity, and may involve lifestyle changes, medication, or in severe cases, the use of a pacemaker to regulate the heart rate.

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38. When intraoperative cultures are obtained, each of the following is true EXCEPT

Explanation

The correct answer is "tip of swab is placed on back table". This is because when intraoperative cultures are obtained, the tip of the swab should not be placed on the back table as it can lead to contamination. Instead, the swab should be immediately placed in a sterile container or sent to the lab for analysis.

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39. During a CPR effort, which drug is given to combat metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

Sodium bicarbonate is given during CPR to combat metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is a condition where there is an excess of acid in the body, leading to a decrease in pH. Sodium bicarbonate works by acting as a buffer, neutralizing the excess acid and helping to restore the pH balance. It is commonly used in emergency situations, such as during CPR, to correct the acid-base imbalance and improve the effectiveness of resuscitation efforts.

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40. The master gland is the

Explanation

The pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland because it plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the functions of other endocrine glands in the body. It produces and releases several important hormones that stimulate the activity of other glands, such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is divided into two parts: the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary. It is responsible for maintaining hormonal balance and coordinating various bodily functions.

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41. A culture and sensitivity is done to

Explanation

A culture and sensitivity test is performed to determine the nature of the organism causing an infection and to identify its susceptibility to different antibiotics. This helps in choosing the most effective antibiotic treatment for the infection. It is not used to diagnose blood infections, culture a single organism responsible for infection, or determine the cleanliness of furniture and rooms.

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42. Unauthorized discussion of a patient's surgery outside of the OR constitutes a lawsuit for

Explanation

Unauthorized discussion of a patient's surgery outside of the operating room can be considered a violation of the patient's privacy rights. This breach of privacy can lead to a lawsuit for invasion of privacy. By sharing confidential information about the patient's surgery without their consent, the healthcare professional is infringing upon the patient's right to keep their medical information private. This can result in legal action being taken against the healthcare professional or institution responsible for the unauthorized discussion.

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43. Bile is manufactured in the _____ and stored in the _____.

Explanation

Bile is a substance that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. It is produced by the liver and then stored in the gallbladder. When we consume fatty foods, the gallbladder releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the breakdown of fats. Therefore, the correct answer is "liver, gallbladder."

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44. An abnormal deposition of collagen that occurs during the healing process is known as

Explanation

Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to an abnormal deposition of collagen that occurs during the healing process. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound and can be itchy, painful, and cosmetically undesirable. They are caused by an overproduction of collagen in response to an injury or trauma to the skin.

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45. What is the purpose of doing ABGs intraoperatively?

Explanation

The purpose of doing ABGs (arterial blood gases) intraoperatively is to assess the levels of arterial gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, in the blood. This helps in evaluating the patient's respiratory function and acid-base balance, as well as guiding appropriate interventions and adjustments in ventilation or oxygenation if necessary. It provides valuable information about the patient's oxygenation status and overall respiratory function during surgery.

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46. A tissue expander would be used for

Explanation

A tissue expander is a device commonly used in breast reconstruction procedures. It is used to stretch the skin and create a pocket for a breast implant. This allows for the gradual expansion of the breast tissue, resulting in a more natural-looking breast shape. Therefore, breast reconstruction is the most appropriate use for a tissue expander.

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47. When a three-way Foley catheter is used, the third lumen is for

Explanation

The third lumen in a three-way Foley catheter is used for continuous irrigation. This means that a solution can be continuously infused into the bladder through this lumen to flush out any debris or blood, keeping the bladder clean and preventing blockages. This irrigation helps maintain the patency of the catheter and ensures proper drainage of urine.

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48. A complication of orthopedic surgery is

Explanation

Orthopedic surgery carries the risk of various complications, including thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection. Thromboembolism refers to the formation of blood clots that can travel to other parts of the body, potentially causing blockages. Fat embolism occurs when fat particles enter the bloodstream, usually after a bone fracture, and can lead to respiratory and circulatory problems. Infection is a common complication after any surgical procedure, including orthopedic surgery. Therefore, all of the options listed (thromboembolism, fat embolism, and infection) are potential complications of orthopedic surgery.

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49. An infants average at rest heart rate is _____ beats per minute

Explanation

An infant's average at rest heart rate is 120 beats per minute. This is because infants have a higher metabolic rate compared to adults, which results in a faster heart rate. Additionally, infants have smaller hearts and blood vessels, which require a higher heart rate to pump blood effectively throughout their bodies.

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50. Dehiscence is

Explanation

Dehiscence refers to the separation of the layers of a surgical wound. This can occur due to various reasons such as excessive tension on the wound, infection, poor healing, or inadequate suturing. It is a serious complication that can lead to the exposure of underlying tissues and organs, increasing the risk of infection and delaying the healing process. Prompt medical attention and appropriate wound management are necessary to prevent further complications and promote proper healing.

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51. Who is responsible for the final count when reliefs have taken place during the case?

Explanation

The scrub person and circulator who do the final count are responsible for the final count when reliefs have taken place during the case. This means that after any personnel changes or shifts during the case, the scrub person and circulator are the ones who ensure that the final count is accurate and complete. They are responsible for counting all the instruments, sponges, and other items used during the procedure to ensure that nothing is left inside the patient's body.

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52. A way to alleviate a presurgical pateint's anxiety is via

Explanation

A preoperative visit is a way to alleviate a presurgical patient's anxiety because it allows the patient to meet with their healthcare provider before the surgery. During this visit, the healthcare provider can review the patient's medical history and perform a physical examination, which helps to ensure that the patient is in optimal health for the surgery. Additionally, the preoperative visit provides an opportunity for the patient to ask any questions or express any concerns they may have, which can help to reduce their anxiety and increase their confidence in the upcoming procedure.

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53. The gas introduced into the peritonem during laparoscopy to create a pheumoperitoneum is

Explanation

During laparoscopy, a pneumoperitoneum is created by introducing gas into the peritoneum. Carbon dioxide is the gas of choice for this procedure because it is readily absorbed by the body and does not cause significant harm or side effects. Nitrous oxide is not commonly used for this purpose as it has a lower solubility and can lead to gas embolism. Oxygen and nitrogen are also not used because they are less soluble and can cause complications such as gas embolism or pneumothorax.

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54. Continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary during cystoscopy to

Explanation

During cystoscopy, continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary to distend the bladder walls for visualization. This is important because when the bladder is distended, it provides a larger working space for the surgeon to maneuver the cystoscope and instruments. It also helps to improve visualization of the bladder walls, allowing the surgeon to identify any abnormalities or lesions more easily. Additionally, distending the bladder can help to minimize the risk of trauma during the procedure by creating a cushioning effect and reducing the chances of accidental injury to the bladder walls.

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55. What procedure is accomplished to relieve myasthenia gravis?

Explanation

A thymectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thymus gland. This procedure is often performed to relieve the symptoms of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that affects the muscles and causes weakness and fatigue. The thymus gland plays a role in the development of the immune system, and it is believed that removing it can help to reduce the abnormal immune response that causes myasthenia gravis. Thymectomy is considered an effective treatment option for many patients with this condition.

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56. When is bowel technique necessary?

Explanation

Bowel technique is necessary when a contaminated area of the intestinal tract is entered. This is because entering a contaminated area increases the risk of infection and other complications. By following proper bowel technique, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of introducing bacteria or other harmful substances into the patient's body during surgery or other procedures. This includes using sterile instruments, maintaining a sterile field, and taking precautions to prevent contamination.

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57. In which surgical specialty would a perfusionist be necessary?

Explanation

A perfusionist is a medical professional who operates the heart-lung machine during cardiac surgeries. They are responsible for maintaining the patient's blood circulation and oxygenation while the surgeon performs the procedure. Therefore, a perfusionist would be necessary in the surgical specialty of cardiac surgery.

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58. The second cranial nerve is the

Explanation

The second cranial nerve is the optic nerve. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in vision and is essential for sight. The other options mentioned (vagus, oculomotor, and facial) are different cranial nerves responsible for various functions, but they are not the second cranial nerve.

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59. After hip joint surgery, immobilization is aided by the use of

Explanation

After hip joint surgery, immobilization is aided by the use of an abduction pillow. This pillow helps to keep the legs apart and prevent adduction, which is the movement of the legs towards the midline of the body. By keeping the legs in an abducted position, the abduction pillow helps to maintain the alignment and stability of the hip joint during the healing process. This can help to prevent complications such as dislocation or improper healing of the surgical site. The abduction pillow also provides support and comfort to the patient while they are immobilized, allowing for a more comfortable recovery.

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60. The first part of the small intestine is known as the

Explanation

The correct answer is duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located just after the stomach. It plays a crucial role in the digestive process by receiving partially digested food from the stomach and further breaking it down with the help of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

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61. A ureteral stent catheter is used to

Explanation

A ureteral stent catheter is used to provide long-term drainage in cases of ureteral obstruction. The stent is inserted into the ureter to bypass the obstruction and allow urine to flow from the kidney to the bladder. This helps in relieving the pressure caused by the obstruction and prevents complications such as kidney damage or infection. The stent remains in place for a specific period of time, determined by the healthcare provider, until the obstruction is resolved or further treatment is required.

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62. Staphylococcus is usually transmitted by

Explanation

Staphylococcus is usually transmitted through the upper respiratory tract. This means that the bacteria can be spread through activities such as coughing, sneezing, or even talking, as respiratory droplets containing the bacteria can be released into the air. Close contact with an infected person, such as sharing utensils or being in close proximity, increases the risk of transmission. It is important to practice good respiratory hygiene, such as covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus.

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63. Which specimen would be placed in formalin?

Explanation

Tonsils would be placed in formalin because formalin is commonly used as a fixative in histology to preserve tissues and prevent decay. Tonsils are lymphoid tissues located at the back of the throat, and they are often removed surgically for various reasons. Placing the tonsils in formalin would help preserve their structure and cellular components for further examination and analysis.

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64. When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the OR, an immediate response would be

Explanation

When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the operating room, the immediate response should be to restore fluid volume quickly. Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid, leading to a decrease in circulating volume. Restoring fluid volume quickly is crucial in order to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further complications. Monitoring intake and output, giving supplementary oxygen, and raising the head 45 degrees may also be part of the management plan, but restoring fluid volume quickly takes priority in this situation.

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65. The portion of the stomach located at the approach to the small intestine is the

Explanation

The correct answer is pylorus because the pylorus is the portion of the stomach that is located at the approach to the small intestine. It is responsible for regulating the flow of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine. The pylorus contains a muscular ring called the pyloric sphincter, which controls the release of food into the small intestine to ensure proper digestion and absorption.

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66. Which nasal sinus can be approached only through an external eyebrow incision?

Explanation

The frontal sinus can only be approached through an external eyebrow incision because it is located in the forehead, just above the eyebrows. This approach allows direct access to the frontal sinus without the need for more invasive procedures. The other nasal sinuses (sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary) can be accessed through different approaches such as endoscopic procedures or through the nostrils.

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67. During a basic femoral head fixation, the length and position of the implant is determined by the used of

Explanation

During a basic femoral head fixation, the length and position of the implant is determined by the use of a guide wire. A guide wire is a thin, flexible wire that is inserted into the bone to provide a pathway for the placement of the implant. It helps the surgeon accurately position and measure the length of the implant before it is inserted. The guide wire acts as a guide for the subsequent steps of the procedure, ensuring proper alignment and fixation of the femoral head.

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68. A legal wrong committed by one person involving injury to another person is called a(n)

Explanation

A tort is a legal wrong committed by one person that causes injury to another person. It refers to any act or omission that results in harm or loss to someone else, for which the injured party can seek compensation. This can include actions such as negligence, defamation, or intentional infliction of harm. Unlike crimes, which are prosecuted by the government, torts are typically resolved through civil lawsuits brought by the injured party seeking damages.

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69. The operation to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall is

Explanation

Colporrhaphy is the surgical procedure performed to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall. This procedure involves repairing and reinforcing the weakened or damaged tissue in the vaginal wall to restore its normal position and function. It is a common and effective treatment option for anterior vaginal wall prolapse, providing support and stability to the pelvic organs. Shirodkar, Le Fort, and vesicourethral suspension are not specifically related to the correction of anterior vaginal wall prolapse, making colporrhaphy the correct answer.

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70. Which procedure would requiere the following instruments:  Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, caliper

Explanation

The given instruments such as Freer elevator, osteotome, Aschf forcep, Ballinger swivel knife, and caliper are commonly used in nasal procedures. These instruments are specifically designed for nasal surgeries, including rhinoplasty, septoplasty, and nasal reconstruction. Therefore, the correct answer is nasal.

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71. Scoliosis is surgically treated by the implantation of

Explanation

Scoliosis is a medical condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine. Harrington rods are commonly used in surgical treatment for scoliosis. These rods are implanted along the length of the spine to help straighten and stabilize it. They are attached to the vertebrae using hooks and screws. The Harrington rod system provides support and helps to correct the curvature of the spine, allowing for improved alignment and function.

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72. The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the

Explanation

The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the middle ear. These three small bones, also known as the ossicles, are essential for the process of hearing. They work together to transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The middle ear is the space between the eardrum and the inner ear, and it contains these three bones, which amplify and transmit the sound waves.

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73. All of the following are true of self-adhering plastic incision drapes EXCEPT

Explanation

Self-adhering plastic incision drapes are commonly used in surgical procedures to provide a sterile barrier over the surgical site. These drapes adhere to the skin without the need for additional adhesive or tape. The correct answer states that the scrubbed area must be moist at application, which is not true. In fact, the scrubbed area should be completely dry before applying the drape to ensure proper adhesion. Moisture on the skin can interfere with the drape's ability to stick securely, compromising the sterile field. Therefore, the statement is incorrect in relation to the use of self-adhering plastic incision drapes.

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74. If rubber suction tubing is to be reused

Explanation

Rubber suction tubing needs to be flushed with a detergent-disinfectant before it can be terminally sterilized. This is because the lumen, or the inner part of the tubing, can harbor bacteria or contaminants that may not be completely eliminated through sterilization alone. Flushing the lumen with a detergent-disinfectant helps to remove any remaining debris or microorganisms, ensuring a thorough cleaning before sterilization.

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75. Lacrimal probes are called

Explanation

Lacrimal probes are called Bowman.

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76. Entrapment of the _____ nerve is relieved by a carpal tunnel release.

Explanation

The correct answer is median. Entrapment of the median nerve is relieved by a carpal tunnel release. The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway in the wrist that houses the median nerve, along with several tendons. When the median nerve becomes compressed or entrapped, it can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. Carpal tunnel release surgery involves cutting the ligament that forms the roof of the carpal tunnel, which helps to relieve pressure on the median nerve and alleviate symptoms.

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77. Which sinus is surgically opened in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?

Explanation

In a Caldwell-Luc procedure, the maxillary sinus is surgically opened. This procedure is performed to treat conditions such as chronic sinusitis or to remove tumors or cysts in the maxillary sinus. By opening the maxillary sinus, the surgeon can access and drain any infected or blocked sinuses, providing relief to the patient.

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78. The needle used for a liver biopsy is

Explanation

The needle used for a liver biopsy is Silverman.

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79. Which of the following pieces of hardware will be used in an intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft?

Explanation

The Kuntscher nail is a type of hardware that is commonly used in the intramedullary fixation of a fracture of an adult femoral shaft. It is a long, cylindrical nail that is inserted into the medullary canal of the femur to stabilize the fracture and promote healing. Kirschner's wire and Steinmann pin are also types of hardware used in orthopedic procedures, but they are not specifically designed for fixation of a femoral shaft fracture. Jewett nail is not a type of hardware used in intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures.

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80. If the patient has a positive breast biopsy, and the surgeon proceeds to do a radical mastectomy

Explanation

After a positive breast biopsy, a radical mastectomy is performed. In order to maintain a sterile environment and minimize the risk of infection, it is necessary to reprep the patient and use new drapes and instruments. This ensures that any potential contamination from the biopsy procedure is eliminated and reduces the risk of introducing bacteria or other pathogens during the mastectomy. Using new drapes and instruments helps maintain a sterile field and promotes patient safety.

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81. The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitor applies to

Explanation

The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitor applies to injuries sustained by the patient in the OR due to negligence. Res ipsa loquitor is a Latin phrase that means "the thing speaks for itself." It is a legal concept that allows a plaintiff to establish a defendant's negligence by showing that the injury would not have occurred without negligence, the defendant had exclusive control over the instrumentality causing the injury, and the injury is not due to any voluntary action or contribution by the plaintiff. In the context of injuries sustained by a patient in the operating room, res ipsa loquitor can be applied to establish negligence on the part of the medical professionals involved.

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82. The blue-green wavelength produced by a laser that is capable of treating retinal detachment, diabetic retinopahy, and macular neovascular lesion is

Explanation

The correct answer is argon. Argon lasers emit blue-green light with a wavelength of 488-514 nm, which is suitable for treating retinal detachment, diabetic retinopathy, and macular neovascular lesions. The blue-green wavelength is absorbed by certain tissues in the eye, allowing for precise targeting and treatment of these conditions.

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83. The preferred method of glovin is _____.  In changing during a case, this method _____ be used.

Explanation

The correct answer is "closed, cannot". The word "glovin" is not familiar and does not provide any context. However, based on the information given, it can be inferred that the preferred method of glovin is "closed" because it is mentioned first. Additionally, it is stated that in changing during a case, this method "cannot" be used, indicating that the preferred method is "closed" and not "open".

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84. The kidneys are held in place by the

Explanation

The kidneys are held in place by the renal fascia and fat. The renal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the kidneys and helps to anchor them in position. The fat surrounding the kidneys, known as perirenal fat, also provides support and protection. Together, the renal fascia and fat help to maintain the position and stability of the kidneys within the abdominal cavity.

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85. Which of the following is considered the most effective agent for scrubbing?

Explanation

Povidone-iodine is considered the most effective agent for scrubbing because it has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. It is commonly used as a surgical scrub and pre-operative skin preparation due to its fast-acting and long-lasting effects. Povidone-iodine also has low toxicity and is well-tolerated by patients, making it a preferred choice for effective scrubbing in medical and healthcare settings.

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86. A slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia is called

Explanation

Dupuytren's contracture is a slowly progressive condition that causes the palmar fascia, a layer of tissue in the hand, to become thickened and contracted. This results in the fingers being pulled towards the palm and can lead to difficulty in extending them fully. Volkmann's contracture is a condition characterized by ischemic muscle necrosis in the forearm, carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and talipes valgus refers to a deformity of the foot. Therefore, the correct answer is Dupuytren's contracture.

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87. Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart from the lungs via the

Explanation

Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart from the lungs via the pulmonary vein. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart, specifically to the left atrium. This oxygenated blood is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the aorta and systemic circulation. The pulmonary artery, on the other hand, carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The carotid artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the head and neck, while the renal vein carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys back to the heart.

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88. Crutchfield tongs produce skeletal traction to reduce fractures of the

Explanation

Crutchfield tongs are a type of traction device used to immobilize and reduce fractures in the cervical spine. They are specifically designed to provide skeletal traction, which involves applying force directly to the bone to realign and stabilize fractures. By using crutchfield tongs in the cervical spine, the weight of the patient's head is effectively suspended, allowing for proper alignment of the fractured vertebrae and promoting healing. This method of traction is not typically used for fractures in other areas such as the phalanges, femoral shaft, or humeral shaft.

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89. A chronic granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland in the eyelid is a(n)

Explanation

A chalazion is a chronic granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland in the eyelid. Meibomian glands are responsible for producing the oily component of tears. When one of these glands becomes blocked, it can lead to the formation of a chalazion. Symptoms of a chalazion include a painless, firm bump in the eyelid, swelling, and occasionally redness. Treatment options include warm compresses, gentle massage, and in some cases, surgical drainage.

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90. A spinal fusion is usually effected by autogenous grafts taken from the patient's

Explanation

A spinal fusion is a surgical procedure in which two or more vertebrae are fused together to create a solid bone. During this procedure, autogenous grafts, which are bone grafts taken from the patient's own body, are used to promote bone growth and stability. The ilium, which is the largest and strongest part of the hip bone, is a common source for autogenous grafts used in spinal fusion surgeries. The ilium provides a good supply of bone graft material and is easily accessible for harvesting.

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91. Maintenance of bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy is effected by the use of a

Explanation

The Beckman-Adson instrument is used to maintain bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy. This instrument is specifically designed with a narrow, curved blade that allows for precise retraction of the surrounding soft tissues, while minimizing the risk of damaging the bony structures. By using the Beckman-Adson instrument, surgeons can effectively visualize and access the laminae of the lumbar vertebrae, ensuring a safe and successful laminectomy procedure.

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92. Which of the following instruments would be used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy?

Explanation

The instrument used to retract the bladder walls during a suprapubic prostatectomy is the Mason-Judd. This instrument is specifically designed for this purpose and allows the surgeon to safely and effectively retract the bladder walls, providing better visibility and access to the prostate during the procedure. The other instruments listed (Weitlaner, O'Sullivan-O'Connor, Dennis-Brown) are not typically used for this specific purpose and may not be suitable or effective for retracting the bladder walls in a suprapubic prostatectomy.

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93. A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called

Explanation

A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called pterygium. This condition occurs when there is abnormal growth of tissue on the conjunctiva, which is the clear membrane that covers the white part of the eye. Pterygium is often caused by excessive exposure to UV light, dry eye, and chronic irritation. It can cause symptoms such as redness, irritation, and blurred vision. Treatment options include lubricating eye drops, steroid eye drops, and in severe cases, surgical removal of the growth.

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94. Which or the following shunts would be used surgically to correct hydrocephalus?

Explanation

Hakim shunt is used surgically to correct hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, leading to increased intracranial pressure. A shunt is a medical device that is implanted to divert the excess fluid from the brain to another part of the body where it can be absorbed or eliminated. The Hakim shunt is a commonly used type of shunt for hydrocephalus treatment, as it consists of a valve system that regulates the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hydrocephalus and restore normal fluid balance in the brain.

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95. Uterotubal insufflation is a

Explanation

Rubin's test is a diagnostic procedure used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It involves injecting a dye or gas into the uterus and observing whether it flows freely through the fallopian tubes. If the dye or gas does not pass through the tubes, it suggests a blockage or obstruction. This test is commonly performed in cases of infertility to determine if there are any issues with the fallopian tubes that may be preventing pregnancy.

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96. Which tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression?

Explanation

The Levin tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression. It is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the nose or mouth into the stomach to remove gas, fluids, and other contents from the gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used in medical settings to relieve symptoms such as bloating, nausea, and vomiting. The other options mentioned (Penrose, Poole, and Ferguson) are not typically used for gastrointestinal decompression.

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97. Crushing a urinary calculus in the bladder through the urethra is called

Explanation

Litholapaxy is the correct answer because it refers to the procedure of crushing a urinary calculus (also known as a bladder stone) in the bladder through the urethra. This procedure is commonly performed using a device called a lithotripter, which breaks down the stone into smaller fragments that can be easily passed out of the body through urine. Cystolithotomy, urethrotomy, and urethroplasty are all different procedures that involve surgical intervention in the bladder or urethra, but they do not specifically involve crushing a urinary calculus.

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98. The normal bladder capacity is

Explanation

The normal bladder capacity is typically between 700-800 mL. This means that the bladder can comfortably hold this amount of urine before the person feels the need to urinate. Bladder capacity can vary depending on factors such as age, gender, and individual differences. It is important to note that exceeding the bladder capacity can lead to discomfort and potential bladder dysfunction.

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99. In which surgical would classification would an appendectomy for ruptured appendix fall?

Explanation

An appendectomy for a ruptured appendix would fall under the "dirty or infected" surgical wound classification. This is because a ruptured appendix involves contamination of the abdominal cavity with bacteria from the infected appendix. The surgical procedure to remove the appendix would involve dealing with the contaminated area, making it a dirty or infected wound.

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100. Which of the following grafts is not a syntehtic vascular graft?

Explanation

A biologic vascular graft is not a synthetic vascular graft because it is made from natural tissues or organs, such as veins or arteries, that are harvested from human or animal donors. In contrast, filamentous velours and polytetrafluorethylene are synthetic materials commonly used for vascular grafts. An exoskeleton prosthesis is not a type of graft at all, as it is a device used to support and enhance the movement of limbs.

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101. When changing a gown during a case, the _____ is (are) removed first, the _____ second, and a rescrub is _____.

Explanation

During a surgical procedure, when changing a gown, it is important to remove the gown first to maintain sterility. After the gown is removed, the gloves are then taken off. In this case, a rescrub is not necessary, as the gloves provide a barrier between the surgical team member and the patient, and removing them does not compromise the sterility of the procedure.

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102. A Tenckhoff catheter is placed into

Explanation

A Tenckhoff catheter is a type of catheter that is specifically designed for peritoneal dialysis. It is inserted into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space within the abdomen that surrounds the organs. This allows for the infusion and drainage of dialysis fluid into and out of the peritoneal cavity, which helps to filter waste and excess fluid from the body. Placing the Tenckhoff catheter in the peritoneal cavity allows for effective and efficient peritoneal dialysis treatment.

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103. After a case is completed, the sterile team members

Explanation

After a case is completed, the sterile team members discard gown, gloves, caps, masks, and shoe covers before leaving the OR suite. This is done to ensure that any potential contaminants or pathogens are properly disposed of and do not leave the sterile environment of the operating room. By discarding all of these items, the team members minimize the risk of spreading any infections or contaminants to other areas of the hospital or to themselves.

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104. Nonunion of bone can be treated with

Explanation

Artificially applied electric current can be used to treat nonunion of bone. This method, known as electrical stimulation, involves the application of a low-level electrical current to the affected area. This current helps to stimulate bone growth and accelerate the healing process. By promoting the formation of new bone tissue, electrical stimulation can help to encourage the union of fractured bones that have failed to heal naturally. This technique is often used in conjunction with other treatments, such as medication, traction, or casting, to provide a comprehensive approach to nonunion treatment.

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105. The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to the tigh is about

Explanation

When applying a tourniquet, it is crucial to maintain a balance between effectively stopping blood flow and preventing potential tissue damage. While the ideal pressure may vary depending on the individual and their specific circumstances, a pressure of around 250 mm Hg is generally considered appropriate for a tourniquet applied to the thigh. This pressure should be sufficient to control hemorrhage in most cases while minimizing the risk of tissue damage. However, it is essential to monitor the situation and adjust the pressure as needed.

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106. A prosthetic implant that requires nonadherence to tissue for the sake of creating normal flexion and extension is

Explanation

A prosthetic implant that requires nonadherence to tissue for the sake of creating normal flexion and extension is referred to as "nonconstrained." This means that the implant is designed to allow natural movement and not restrict or limit the range of motion. Unlike constrained implants, which restrict movement to prevent dislocation, nonconstrained implants are intended to replicate normal joint function and provide more natural mobility to the patient.

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107. All of the following would be on the setup for an open thoracotomy EXCEPT

Explanation

An open thoracotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the chest wall to access the thoracic cavity. During this procedure, various instruments are used to perform different tasks. Alexander's periosteotome is a tool used to separate the periosteum from the bone. Duval forceps are used for grasping and holding tissues. Lebsche knife is a specialized knife used for cutting bone. However, Joseph's saw is not typically used in an open thoracotomy procedure. Joseph's saw is primarily used in orthopedic surgeries for cutting bones. Therefore, Joseph's saw would not be included in the setup for an open thoracotomy.

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108. Constant monitoring of cardiac function, a requirement for vascular surgery is effected by the use of a

Explanation

The Swan-Ganz catheter is commonly used in vascular surgery to continuously monitor cardiac function. It is a specialized catheter that is inserted into the pulmonary artery, allowing for accurate measurements of cardiac output, pulmonary artery pressure, and other hemodynamic parameters. This information is crucial during surgery as it helps the medical team assess the patient's cardiovascular status and make necessary interventions if needed. The Doppler, Greenfield, and Fogarty options are not specifically designed for continuous cardiac monitoring in vascular surgery.

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109. Neo-Synephrine is

Explanation

Neo-Synephrine is a medication that is classified as a mydriatic. Mydriatics are drugs that cause dilation of the pupil. Neo-Synephrine is commonly used in ophthalmology to dilate the pupil for various diagnostic and surgical procedures. It works by stimulating the dilator muscle of the iris, causing the pupil to enlarge. This allows for better visualization of the structures within the eye during examinations or surgeries.

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110. Each of the following treats glaucoma EXCEPT

Explanation

Keratoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves replacing the cornea with a healthy cornea from a donor. Glaucoma is a condition that affects the optic nerve and is usually caused by increased pressure within the eye. Treatments for glaucoma aim to reduce this pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Trephining, laser trabeculoplasty, and iridectomy are all treatments that can help lower intraocular pressure and manage glaucoma. However, keratoplasty is not directly related to treating glaucoma as it focuses on replacing the cornea rather than addressing the underlying pressure issue.

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111. An intravenous agent used for anesthesia induction is

Explanation

Sodium pentothal is commonly used as an intravenous agent for anesthesia induction. It is a short-acting barbiturate that produces rapid unconsciousness and is often preferred for its quick onset and smooth induction. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and not typically used for anesthesia induction. Fluothane is a volatile inhalation anesthetic, not an intravenous agent. Demerol is an opioid analgesic, not an anesthesia induction agent. Therefore, sodium pentothal is the correct answer.

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112. Which of the following statements is a contraindication to intraocular lens (IOL) implant?

Explanation

Children with congenital cataracts are a contraindication to intraocular lens (IOL) implant because their eyes are still developing and growing. Implanting an IOL in a child with congenital cataracts can interfere with the natural development of the eye and may cause complications. It is generally recommended to wait until the child's eyes have fully developed before considering an IOL implant.

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113. Pilocarpine is used to

Explanation

Pilocarpine is a medication that is used to constrict the pupil. Constriction of the pupil is known as miosis, and it is achieved by stimulating the muscles in the iris to contract. Pilocarpine acts on the muscarinic receptors in the eye, causing the circular muscles of the iris to contract, resulting in a smaller pupil size. This can be beneficial in certain eye conditions, such as glaucoma, where reducing the size of the pupil can help to improve the outflow of fluid from the eye and lower intraocular pressure.

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114. Transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation (TENS) would be utilized for

Explanation

TENS, or transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation, would be utilized for urinary calculi. This is because TENS therapy involves the use of low-voltage electrical currents to provide pain relief. Urinary calculi, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain, and TENS therapy can help to alleviate this pain by stimulating the nerves and blocking pain signals. Therefore, TENS would be an appropriate treatment option for urinary calculi.

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115. Which of the following appliances can be used for intramedullary fixation of a femur?

Explanation

The Sampson appliance can be used for intramedullary fixation of a femur.

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If a needle punctures a sterile tem member's glove,
When applying a sterile sheet on the patient,
During a CPR effort in the OR, the scrub nurse
Nosocomial infection refers to
A common abdominal complication caused by previous abdoominal or...
The edges of a wrapper that enclose sterile contents are considered
Fingerlike projections at the end of the Fallopian tubes are called
The excision and removal of diseased and necrotic tissue is termed
At which artery is the blood pressure taken?
The excision of loose skin and periorbital fat of the eyelids is...
An instrument used to incise the eardrum to relieve pressure is called...
Protective goggles are worn during CO2 laser surgery to
The surgical procedure performed electively as a permanent method of...
When doing a skin prep, which includes a draining sinus, the...
Which piece of equipment is used to make a skin graft larger?
The item that provides internal drainage of an obstructed ureter is...
If a towel clip must be removed during a procedure
The eardrum is also known as the
The function of the endocrine glands is to
When inserting a Foley catheter, always
A bacteria with a thick coat that protects it from temperature...
The word which best describes "staging" is
Which of the following instruments is not found in a vaginal...
Mandibular fractures are treated by occlusion of the teeth effected b...
The action of white blood cells is to
During vascular surgery, an arteriotomy is executed with a #11 blade...
A commonly used diuretic is
Rectal surgery preparation is done
All of the following statements are true during deep vaginal...
The normal body temperature in centigrade measurement is
Which disease could be trasmitted via a blood transfusion?
A condition that can occur as a result of gross bone contamination or...
Oxytocics are used to
When gloving a surgeon
What organisms are likely to be found ina surgical wound adjacent to a...
A drug given preoperatively that enables the liver to produce clotting...
Bradycardia is
When intraoperative cultures are obtained, each of the following is...
During a CPR effort, which drug is given to combat metabolic acidosis?
The master gland is the
A culture and sensitivity is done to
Unauthorized discussion of a patient's surgery outside of the OR...
Bile is manufactured in the _____ and stored in the _____.
An abnormal deposition of collagen that occurs during the healing...
What is the purpose of doing ABGs intraoperatively?
A tissue expander would be used for
When a three-way Foley catheter is used, the third lumen is for
A complication of orthopedic surgery is
An infants average at rest heart rate is _____ beats per minute
Dehiscence is
Who is responsible for the final count when reliefs have taken place...
A way to alleviate a presurgical pateint's anxiety is via
The gas introduced into the peritonem during laparoscopy to create a...
Continuous irrigation of the bladder is necessary during cystoscopy to
What procedure is accomplished to relieve myasthenia gravis?
When is bowel technique necessary?
In which surgical specialty would a perfusionist be necessary?
The second cranial nerve is the
After hip joint surgery, immobilization is aided by the use of
The first part of the small intestine is known as the
A ureteral stent catheter is used to
Staphylococcus is usually transmitted by
Which specimen would be placed in formalin?
When a patient goes into hypovolemic shock in the OR, an immediate...
The portion of the stomach located at the approach to the small...
Which nasal sinus can be approached only through an external eyebrow...
During a basic femoral head fixation, the length and position of the...
A legal wrong committed by one person involving injury to another...
The operation to correct prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall is
Which procedure would requiere the following instruments:  Freer...
Scoliosis is surgically treated by the implantation of
The malleus, incus, and stapes are located in the
All of the following are true of self-adhering plastic incision drapes...
If rubber suction tubing is to be reused
Lacrimal probes are called
Entrapment of the _____ nerve is relieved by a carpal tunnel release.
Which sinus is surgically opened in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?
The needle used for a liver biopsy is
Which of the following pieces of hardware will be used in an...
If the patient has a positive breast biopsy, and the surgeon proceeds...
The legal doctrine res ipsa loquitor applies to
The blue-green wavelength produced by a laser that is capable of...
The preferred method of glovin is _____.  In changing during a...
The kidneys are held in place by the
Which of the following is considered the most effective agent for...
A slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia is called
Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart from the...
Crutchfield tongs produce skeletal traction to reduce fractures of the
A chronic granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland in the...
A spinal fusion is usually effected by autogenous grafts taken from...
Maintenance of bony exposure during a lumbar laminectomy is effected...
Which of the following instruments would be used to retract the...
A fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is called
Which or the following shunts would be used surgically to correct...
Uterotubal insufflation is a
Which tube is used for gastrointestinal decompression?
Crushing a urinary calculus in the bladder through the urethra is...
The normal bladder capacity is
In which surgical would classification would an appendectomy for...
Which of the following grafts is not a syntehtic vascular graft?
When changing a gown during a case, the _____ is (are) removed first,...
A Tenckhoff catheter is placed into
After a case is completed, the sterile team members
Nonunion of bone can be treated with
The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to the tigh is about
A prosthetic implant that requires nonadherence to tissue for the sake...
All of the following would be on the setup for an open thoracotomy...
Constant monitoring of cardiac function, a requirement for vascular...
Neo-Synephrine is
Each of the following treats glaucoma EXCEPT
An intravenous agent used for anesthesia induction is
Which of the following statements is a contraindication to intraocular...
Pilocarpine is used to
Transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation (TENS) would be utilized for
Which of the following appliances can be used for intramedullary...
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