Opthalmic Drugs And Properties Quiz
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Each part of the body comes with its fair share of potential ailments and shortcomings, and today we’ll be looking at one of the most important organs we possess – eyes! In this ophthalmic drugs and properties quiz we’ll see how much you really know about your eyes and the diseases and treatments that go along with them.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What are the 6 major therapeutic drug groups?
Explanation
The 6 major therapeutic drug groups are cardiovascular, CNS (central nervous system), respiratory, gastrointestinal, infection, and endocrine. These groups represent different areas of the body or specific conditions that drugs are used to treat. Cardiovascular drugs are used to treat conditions related to the heart and blood vessels. CNS drugs target the brain and nervous system. Respiratory drugs are used to treat conditions affecting the lungs and airways. Gastrointestinal drugs are used to treat digestive system disorders. Infection drugs are used to treat bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. Endocrine drugs are used to regulate hormone levels and treat endocrine disorders.Rate this question:
- 2.
What 6 information sources can be used to discover previously reported OARs specific to a particular drug or drug group?
Explanation
The correct answer includes six information sources that can be used to discover previously reported OARs (adverse reactions) specific to a particular drug or drug group. These sources are BNF (British National Formulary), eMC (electronic Medicines Compendium), emedINFO, MHRA (Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency), MIMS (Monthly Index of Medical Specialities), and texts. These sources are commonly used in healthcare settings to access comprehensive and up-to-date information about medications, including their potential adverse effects.Rate this question:
- 3.
What are 7 reasons why systemic and Ocular AR's peak around the age of 70-75?
Explanation
As individuals age, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body. The decreased glomerular filtration rate refers to the decline in kidney function, which can affect the elimination of drugs from the body. Impaired liver or kidney function can also impact the metabolism and clearance of medications. Multiple drug therapy is common in older adults, which can increase the risk of drug interactions and adverse effects. Reduction in brain mass, neurone density, and cerebral blood flow can lead to cognitive decline and increased vulnerability to certain diseases. Slower metabolism is a natural part of aging and can affect the absorption and elimination of drugs. Together, these factors contribute to the peak of systemic and ocular adverse reactions in individuals around the age of 70-75.Rate this question:
- 4.
What are four components of the inflammatory response that need to be taken into account for pharmaceutical anti-inflammatory agents?
Explanation
The correct answer includes fibroblast, histamine, leukocytes, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes. These components are all involved in the inflammatory response. Fibroblasts are cells that produce connective tissue and play a role in wound healing. Histamine is released during an inflammatory response and causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable. Leukocytes, or white blood cells, are responsible for immune response and fighting off infections. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are lipid compounds that are involved in the inflammatory process and can cause pain and swelling. Therefore, all of these components are important to consider when developing pharmaceutical anti-inflammatory agents.Rate this question:
- 5.
It's used to treat angina pectoris and cardiac arrhythmias
Explanation
Propranolol is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina pectoris and cardiac arrhythmias. Angina pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and propranolol helps by reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow. Cardiac arrhythmias refer to irregular heart rhythms, and propranolol can help regulate these rhythms by blocking certain receptors in the heart. Therefore, propranolol is an appropriate choice for treating both angina pectoris and cardiac arrhythmias.Rate this question:
- 6.
Powerful antihypertensive drug
Explanation
Guanethidine is a powerful antihypertensive drug. It works by blocking the release of certain chemicals in the body that can increase blood pressure. By inhibiting the release of these chemicals, guanethidine helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of complications associated with hypertension. Therefore, guanethidine is considered a powerful antihypertensive drug.Rate this question:
- 7.
Used for raynaud's but produces a burning sensation when instilled in the eye (minims 0.5%-no longer produced)
Explanation
Thymoxamine is a medication that was previously used for the treatment of Raynaud's phenomenon. However, when it is instilled in the eye, it can cause a burning sensation. This side effect is likely the reason why the medication is no longer produced in the form of minims with a concentration of 0.5%.Rate this question:
- 8.
It's used as a miotic in the united states and may come to the UK
Explanation
Dapiprazole is used as a miotic in the United States and may come to the UK. A miotic is a substance that causes constriction of the pupil of the eye. Dapiprazole is commonly used in ophthalmology to reverse the dilation of the pupil caused by mydriatic drugs, which are used to dilate the pupil for various eye examinations and procedures. It helps to restore normal pupil size and improve visual clarity. The statement suggests that dapiprazole is currently not available in the UK but there is a possibility that it may be introduced in the future.Rate this question:
- 9.
List the irreversible anticholinesterases
Explanation
DFP, demacarium, and ecothiophate are listed as irreversible anticholinesterases. Anticholinesterases are a class of drugs that inhibit the action of acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine in the body. By inhibiting this enzyme, these drugs increase the levels of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in various bodily functions. DFP, demacarium, and ecothiophate are considered irreversible anticholinesterases because they form a covalent bond with the enzyme, permanently inactivating it. This leads to prolonged elevation of acetylcholine levels, which can have therapeutic effects in conditions such as myasthenia gravis or glaucoma.Rate this question:
- 10.
Used for treatment of accomodative squints with convergence excess although procedure carries risk of iris cysts.
Explanation
Ecothiophate iodide is a medication that is used for the treatment of accommodative squints with convergence excess. However, it is important to note that this procedure carries the risk of iris cysts.Rate this question:
- 11.
Used to treat myasthenia gravis
Explanation
Neostigmine is a medication that is commonly used to treat myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. Neostigmine works by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which increases the levels of acetylcholine in the body. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for transmitting signals between nerve cells and muscles. By increasing acetylcholine levels, neostigmine helps to improve muscle strength and function in individuals with myasthenia gravis. Therefore, neostigmine is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
- 12.
Pharmacokinetics concerns what 5 processes (in order)?
Explanation
Pharmacokinetics is the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. The correct answer lists the five processes in the correct order: absorption, distribution, localization in tissues, biotransformation, and excretion. Absorption refers to the process by which a drug enters the bloodstream. Distribution involves the transport of the drug throughout the body. Localization in tissues refers to the drug's accumulation in specific tissues or organs. Biotransformation is the metabolism of the drug by enzymes in the body. Excretion is the elimination of the drug from the body, typically through urine or feces.Rate this question:
- 13.
What are the six factors affecting the pharmacokinetics of an ocular drug?
Explanation
The six factors that affect the pharmacokinetics of an ocular drug are administration, surface drainage and retention, vascular absorption, tear layer, corneal penetration, and excretion. Administration refers to the method of delivering the drug to the eye, while surface drainage and retention relate to the movement of the drug on the ocular surface. Vascular absorption refers to the drug's absorption into the blood vessels of the eye, while tear layer refers to the tears present on the ocular surface. Corneal penetration refers to the drug's ability to penetrate the cornea, and excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the eye.Rate this question:
- 14.
What are 8 additional factors that may effect drug absorption?
Explanation
The absorption of a drug can be influenced by various factors. Age plays a role as the metabolic rate and organ function may change with age. Body weight can affect drug distribution as some drugs may be stored in fat tissues. Gender differences in physiology can also impact drug absorption. The time of administration can influence absorption rates due to circadian rhythms. Tolerance to a drug can develop over time, affecting absorption. Drug interactions with other medications can alter absorption rates. Genetic factors can affect drug metabolism and absorption. Lastly, underlying pathologies or diseases can impact drug absorption due to changes in organ function or blood flow.Rate this question:
- 15.
Drugs in the systemic circulation are transformed how?
- A.
Hydrolysis
- B.
Phagocytosis
- C.
Complex formation
- D.
Oxidation
- E.
Reduction
Correct Answer(s)
A. Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation
E. ReductionExplanation
Drugs in the systemic circulation can undergo various transformations. Hydrolysis is a process in which the drug molecule is broken down into smaller components by the addition of water. Oxidation involves the drug molecule gaining oxygen or losing hydrogen, resulting in the formation of metabolites. Reduction, on the other hand, involves the drug molecule gaining hydrogen or losing oxygen. These transformations can occur in the liver or other tissues, and they play a crucial role in the metabolism and elimination of drugs from the body.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How can the efficacy of administration of drug be maximized (4)
Correct Answer(s)
instillation technique, pH (reflex tearing), viscosity, dosageExplanation
To maximize the efficacy of drug administration, several factors need to be considered. The instillation technique is crucial as it ensures that the drug is properly delivered to the intended site. The pH of the drug can affect reflex tearing, which can further enhance drug absorption. Viscosity plays a role in the drug's ability to spread and penetrate the target area effectively. Lastly, the dosage needs to be carefully determined to ensure that it is neither too low to be ineffective nor too high to cause adverse effects. By considering these factors, the administration of the drug can be optimized for maximum efficacy.Rate this question:
- 17.
What affects the surface drainage and retention of a drug? (4)
Correct Answer(s)
small capacity of palpebral aperture, tear secretion rate, blink rate, nasal punctal occlusionExplanation
The surface drainage and retention of a drug can be affected by several factors. One of these factors is the small capacity of the palpebral aperture, which refers to the size of the opening between the eyelids. A smaller aperture may limit the amount of drug that can be drained from the surface of the eye. Tear secretion rate is another important factor, as tears help to flush out foreign substances from the eye. A higher tear secretion rate may result in faster drainage of the drug. Blink rate also plays a role, as blinking helps to distribute tears and promote drainage. Finally, nasal punctal occlusion, which refers to the blockage of the tear drainage system, can affect the retention of the drug on the eye's surface.Rate this question:
- 18.
What 6 components are incorporated into a multipurpose CL's?
Correct Answer(s)
biocides, surfactants, chelating agents, demulcents, propylene glycol, buffering agents. - 19.
CLP's (contact lens products) are designed to aid in what?
Correct Answer(s)
antibacterial, insertion and removal of lens, maintenance of optical properties of lensExplanation
CLP's (contact lens products) are designed to aid in maintaining the cleanliness and hygiene of contact lenses by providing antibacterial properties. They also assist in the proper insertion and removal of lenses, ensuring ease and comfort for the wearer. Additionally, CLP's help in maintaining the optical properties of the lens, ensuring clear vision and optimal performance.Rate this question:
- 20.
What are some tonicity and buffering agents?
Correct Answer(s)
borates, citrates, phosphatesExplanation
Borates, citrates, and phosphates are commonly used as tonicity and buffering agents. Tonicity agents help maintain the osmotic pressure and stability of a solution, while buffering agents help maintain the pH level of a solution. Borates, citrates, and phosphates are effective in controlling the pH and tonicity of various solutions, making them suitable for a wide range of applications such as pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and food products.Rate this question:
- 21.
List the 5 types of designer "biocides"
Correct Answer(s)
alexidine, amidoamine, hydrogen peroxide, PHMB, polyquternium-1Explanation
The given answer correctly lists the 5 types of designer "biocides" as alexidine, amidoamine, hydrogen peroxide, PHMB, and polyquternium-1.Rate this question:
- 22.
What drugs are commonly used in an emergencies?
Correct Answer(s)
fluorecein, saline, anaesthetic, artificial tears, AS agentsExplanation
These drugs are commonly used in emergencies for different purposes. Fluorescein is a dye used to diagnose corneal injuries or foreign bodies. Saline is a sterile solution used for various purposes like wound cleansing or rehydrating patients. Anesthetics are used to numb an area or provide pain relief during procedures. Artificial tears are used to lubricate the eyes and relieve dryness or irritation. AS agents refer to antiseptic agents used for disinfection purposes. Overall, these drugs are essential in emergency situations to diagnose, treat, and provide relief to patients.Rate this question:
- 23.
What must be included on a record for a patient in an emergency?
Correct Answer(s)
name, address, date, corrected and uncorrected vision, procedure carried out, advice given to patient, refer if serious and inform GPExplanation
In an emergency, it is important to have a comprehensive record for a patient. This includes their name, address, and the date of the emergency. Additionally, the record should include information about the patient's corrected and uncorrected vision, as this can be crucial for medical professionals to understand the patient's condition. The procedure carried out during the emergency should also be documented, along with any advice given to the patient. If the situation is serious, it is necessary to refer the patient to appropriate specialists and inform their general practitioner (GP) for further follow-up.Rate this question:
- 24.
Some evidence shows Ocuvite (PreserVision AREDS formula) may be beneficial for some patients who are at high risk of developing AMD (it may slow rate of progression). what are some contraindications for these supplements?
Correct Answer(s)
diabetes, smoking, vascular diseaseExplanation
The given answer states that contraindications for taking Ocuvite (PreserVision AREDS formula) supplements include diabetes, smoking, and vascular disease. This means that individuals with these conditions should avoid or be cautious when taking these supplements. This is because the evidence suggests that these supplements may not be beneficial or may even have negative effects on individuals with diabetes, smoking habits, or vascular disease. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid these supplements if one has any of these conditions.Rate this question:
- 25.
Atropine can be described as:
- A.
Acts on sclera to stop myopia progression
- B.
Alpha adrenergic antagonist
- C.
Causes pupil dilation
- D.
Causes cycloplegia
- E.
Causes change in AC/A ratio
- F.
Blocks only M3 receptors
Correct Answer(s)
A. Acts on sclera to stop myopia progression
C. Causes pupil dilation
D. Causes cycloplegia
E. Causes change in AC/A ratio -
- 26.
What are the emergency situations?
Correct Answer(s)
acute ocular pathology, adverse response to drug instillation, harmful chemical agents, superficial foreign bodiesExplanation
The correct answer includes a list of emergency situations related to eye health. These situations include acute ocular pathology, which refers to sudden and severe eye conditions such as infections or injuries. Adverse response to drug instillation refers to unexpected reactions or complications that can occur after applying medication to the eye. Harmful chemical agents can cause eye injuries or burns, and superficial foreign bodies are objects that get stuck on the surface of the eye. These emergency situations require immediate medical attention to prevent further damage or complications.Rate this question:
- 27.
What are some types of syncope?
Correct Answer(s)
neurally mediated (reflex), orthostatic hypotension, cardiacExplanation
The correct answer lists three types of syncope: neurally mediated (reflex), orthostatic hypotension, and cardiac. Neurally mediated syncope refers to fainting caused by an abnormal reflex response in the nervous system. Orthostatic hypotension occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up. Cardiac syncope is caused by a heart condition that disrupts the normal blood flow to the brain. These three types represent different underlying causes of syncope, highlighting the importance of identifying the specific type in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.Rate this question:
- 28.
What is fluorescein used for?
Correct Answer(s)
assessing corneal integrtiy, TBUT, applanation tonometry, CL fitting, nasal duct patency.Explanation
Fluorescein is used for assessing corneal integrity, tear break-up time (TBUT), applanation tonometry, contact lens fitting, and nasal duct patency. It is commonly used in ophthalmology to detect corneal abrasions or ulcers, evaluate tear film stability, measure intraocular pressure, fit contact lenses, and assess the patency of the nasal lacrimal duct.Rate this question:
- 29.
Dry eye can be caused by what ocular abnormalities? and what other factors?
Correct Answer(s)
aqueous, mucin, lipid deficiences, epitheliopathy, impaired lid function, adverse reaction to systemic medication, secondary to systemic or dermatological diseaseExplanation
Dry eye can be caused by various ocular abnormalities such as aqueous, mucin, and lipid deficiencies, as well as epitheliopathy and impaired lid function. Additionally, an adverse reaction to systemic medication or secondary to systemic or dermatological disease can also contribute to dry eye symptoms. These factors can all disrupt the normal tear film and lead to dryness and discomfort in the eyes.Rate this question:
- 30.
What methods can be used to assess quality and quantity of tears?
Correct Answer(s)
see second year lecture notes - 31.
What are some alternatives to artificial tears?
Correct Answer(s)
horomone therapy, corticosteroids, NSAID's, dietExplanation
The question asks for alternatives to artificial tears. The correct answer includes hormone therapy, corticosteroids, NSAIDs, and diet. These alternatives suggest different approaches to address dry eyes. Hormone therapy can help balance hormonal levels that may be causing dryness. Corticosteroids can reduce inflammation in the eyes, relieving dryness. NSAIDs can also help reduce inflammation and provide relief. Finally, diet changes, such as increasing omega-3 fatty acids, can improve tear production and reduce dryness. These alternatives offer different options for managing dry eyes beyond artificial tears.Rate this question:
- 32.
What are most common causes of dry eye?
Correct Answer(s)
environment, age, allergyExplanation
Dry eye is a condition characterized by insufficient tear production or poor tear quality, leading to discomfort and irritation. The most common causes of dry eye are environmental factors such as dry climate, wind, and exposure to smoke or dust. Age is another significant factor, as tear production tends to decrease with age. Allergies can also contribute to dry eye symptoms, as the body's immune response can trigger inflammation in the eyes, leading to reduced tear production.Rate this question:
- 33.
What precautions must be taken prior to dilation?
Correct Answer(s)
advise px, check: angle, iop, iol, sx, va, miotic on handExplanation
Prior to dilation, it is important to advise the patient about the procedure and its potential effects. Additionally, the healthcare provider should check the angle of the patient's eye, intraocular pressure (IOP), intraocular lens (IOL), any previous eye surgeries (sx), visual acuity (VA), and have a miotic agent on hand. These precautions are necessary to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the dilation procedure.Rate this question:
- 34.
What are some types of medications that cannot be used with phenylephrine? (also, have a think about contraindications for mydriasis in general).
Correct Answer(s)
cardiovascular medication, depression medication, pilocarpine (pupil block)Explanation
Phenylephrine is a medication commonly used as a decongestant and to dilate the pupils. It works by constricting blood vessels and can potentially interact with other medications. Cardiovascular medications, such as beta-blockers or alpha-blockers, may have conflicting effects with phenylephrine and can lead to increased blood pressure or heart rate. Depression medications, such as monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) or tricyclic antidepressants, can also interact with phenylephrine and cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure. Pilocarpine, a medication used to constrict the pupils, can block the effects of phenylephrine and reduce its effectiveness in dilating the pupils.Rate this question:
- 35.
Dapiprazole and thymoxamine can be used to reverse mydriasis caused by phenylephrine (have a think about why that is).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Dapiprazole and thymoxamine can be used to reverse mydriasis caused by phenylephrine because they are alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist that causes pupillary dilation (mydriasis) by stimulating the dilator muscle of the iris. Dapiprazole and thymoxamine, being alpha-adrenergic antagonists, block the effects of phenylephrine on the dilator muscle, leading to the reversal of mydriasis.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Name the different pharmacological groups that miotics are drawn from (plural).
Correct Answer
adrenergic blockers, anticholinesterases, parasympathomimeticsExplanation
The different pharmacological groups that miotics are drawn from are adrenergic blockers, anticholinesterases, and parasympathomimetics. Miotics are a class of drugs that cause constriction of the pupil and increase the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye. Adrenergic blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline, anticholinesterases inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine, and parasympathomimetics mimic the action of the parasympathetic nervous system. All three of these pharmacological groups have different mechanisms of action but ultimately result in pupil constriction and increased outflow of aqueous humor.Rate this question:
- 37.
Tick the drugs that need to be refridgerated
- A.
Thymoxamine
- B.
Tropicamide
- C.
Chloramphenicol minims
- D.
Fusidic acid
- E.
Polymyxin
- F.
Lidocaine
- G.
Proxymetacaine
Correct Answer(s)
A. Thymoxamine
C. Chloramphenicol minims
G. ProxymetacaineExplanation
Thymoxamine, chloramphenicol minims, and proxymetacaine need to be refrigerated because they are all sensitive to temperature and require cold storage to maintain their stability and effectiveness. Refrigeration helps to prevent degradation and maintain the potency of these drugs.Rate this question:
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- 38.
When can topical anaesthetics be used (9)?
Correct Answer(s)
CL's, contact tonometry, contact ultrasound, cycloplegic refraction, gonioscopy, punctal plug fitting, SFB's, sustained fixation, tear assessmentExplanation
Topical anaesthetics can be used in various procedures and assessments such as contact lens fitting (CL's), contact tonometry, contact ultrasound, cycloplegic refraction, gonioscopy, punctal plug fitting, sustained fixation, and tear assessment. These procedures often involve direct contact with the eye or its surrounding structures, which can cause discomfort or pain. Topical anaesthetics are applied to numb the surface of the eye, providing temporary relief and ensuring a more comfortable experience for the patient during these procedures.Rate this question:
- 39.
What are some alternatives to cycloplegia?
Correct Answer(s)
autorefractors, fogging, mohindra techniqueExplanation
Autorefractors, fogging, and the Mohindra technique are all alternative methods to cycloplegia. Autorefractors are instruments used to measure the refractive error of the eye without the need for cycloplegia. Fogging involves temporarily blurring the vision in order to relax the eye's focusing mechanism and obtain a more accurate refraction. The Mohindra technique is a method of subjective refraction that uses a trial frame and lenses to determine the best prescription for the patient. These alternatives can be used when cycloplegia is not desired or contraindicated.Rate this question:
- 40.
Other than cycloplegic refraction, what can cycloplegics be used for?
Correct Answer(s)
amblyopia, corneal abrasion, postoperative use, uveitisExplanation
Cycloplegics can be used for various purposes other than cycloplegic refraction. They can be used in the treatment of amblyopia, which is a condition where one eye has significantly reduced vision. Cycloplegics can also be used for corneal abrasion, which is a scratch or injury to the cornea. Additionally, they can be used postoperatively to prevent or reduce inflammation and pain. Uveitis, which is inflammation of the uvea (middle layer of the eye), can also be treated using cycloplegics.Rate this question:
- 41.
When are the adverse reactions to topical anaesthetics (10)?
Correct Answer(s)
corneal vulnerability, inhibited epithelial cell growth, increased corneal thickness, hypersensitivity, lightheadedness, reduced: IOP, tear flow, oxygen uptake, syncope, tinnitus, - 42.
What drug is on the GSL, P, and POM lists? (think about what its used for)
Correct Answer(s)
sodium cromoglicateExplanation
Sodium cromoglicate is listed on the GSL (General Sales List), P (Pharmacy) and POM (Prescription Only Medicines) lists. This suggests that it is available for purchase over the counter without a prescription, as well as being prescribed by a healthcare professional. Sodium cromoglicate is commonly used as a medication for treating allergic conditions such as hay fever and allergic conjunctivitis.Rate this question:
- 43.
What information is needed for a signed order (SO's needed for all EL and AS drugs). Hint: optom, patient, drug.
Correct Answer(s)
optom: name, address, GOC number signature, patient: date, name, address, Drug: name, quantity, concentration, labelling directionsExplanation
A signed order (SO) for EL and AS drugs requires the following information: optometrist's name, address, GOC number, and signature; patient's date, name, and address; and drug information including name, quantity, concentration, and labeling directions.Rate this question:
- 44.
In what ways do antibacterials work?
Correct Answer(s)
cell wall (penicillins) , bacterial genome (quinolones), nucleotide metabolism (sulphonamides), plasma membrane (polymyxins), protein synthesis (aminoglycosides)Explanation
Antibacterials work in various ways to combat bacterial infections. Penicillins target the cell wall of bacteria, preventing its synthesis and leading to cell lysis. Quinolones act on the bacterial genome by inhibiting DNA replication and repair enzymes, thereby preventing bacterial growth. Sulphonamides interfere with nucleotide metabolism, inhibiting the synthesis of essential components like DNA and RNA. Polymyxins target the plasma membrane of bacteria, disrupting its integrity and causing leakage of cellular contents. Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosomes, leading to the production of non-functional proteins and ultimately bacterial death.Rate this question:
- 45.
1st when should propamidine isetionate be used 2nd when should it NOT be used?
Correct Answer(s)
indications: acanthamoeba, contraindications: cl problems, hypersensitivity, viral infectionsExplanation
Propamidine isetionate should be used when treating acanthamoeba infections. It should not be used in cases where there are contact lens problems, hypersensitivity to the medication, or viral infections present.Rate this question:
- 46.
Azoles inhibit what enzyme?
Correct Answer(s)
fungal p450Explanation
Azoles are a class of antifungal medications that work by inhibiting the fungal P450 enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of ergosterol, an essential component of the fungal cell membrane. By inhibiting this enzyme, azoles disrupt the production of ergosterol, leading to the weakening and death of the fungal cells. Therefore, the correct answer is fungal P450.Rate this question:
- 47.
Aciclovir and ganciclovir inhibit what?
Correct Answer(s)
viral DNA polymeraseExplanation
Aciclovir and ganciclovir are antiviral drugs that work by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase. DNA polymerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the replication and synthesis of viral DNA. By inhibiting this enzyme, aciclovir and ganciclovir prevent the virus from replicating and spreading within the body. This ultimately helps to control and treat viral infections caused by DNA viruses such as herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 24, 2012Quiz Created by
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