Antidepressants Quiz Questions

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Antidepressants Quiz Questions - Quiz

Take this quiz and learn more about how to use antidepressants, and what's the side effect of this. Let's learn more about it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What drugs are concidered SRIs?

    • A.

      Citalopram

    • B.

      Escitalopram

    • C.

      Fluoxetine

    • D.

      Fluvoxamine

    • E.

      Paroxetine

    • F.

      Sertraline

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Citalopram
    B. Escitalopram
    C. Fluoxetine
    D. Fluvoxamine
    E. Paroxetine
    F. Sertraline
    Explanation
    The drugs citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, and sertraline are considered selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SRIs). SRIs are a class of antidepressant medications that work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain. They are commonly prescribed to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mental health conditions. These drugs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, allowing more serotonin to be available in the brain, which can improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression and anxiety.

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  • 2. 

    What drugs are concidered SNRIs?

    • A.

      Citalopram

    • B.

      Duloxetine

    • C.

      Venlafaxine

    • D.

      Fluvoxamine

    • E.

      Paroxetine

    • F.

      Sertraline

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Duloxetine
    C. Venlafaxine
    Explanation
    SNRIs, or serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, are a class of drugs commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. The drugs duloxetine and venlafaxine are both considered SNRIs as they work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. The other drugs listed, citalopram, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, and sertraline, are all selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which means they primarily target serotonin levels in the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is duloxetine and venlafaxine.

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  • 3. 

    What drugs are concidered aminoketones?

    • A.

      Citalopram

    • B.

      Duloxetine

    • C.

      Venlafaxine

    • D.

      Fluvoxamine

    • E.

      Bupropion

    • F.

      Sertraline

    Correct Answer
    E. Bupropion
    Explanation
    Bupropion is considered an aminoketone drug. It is a medication that is used primarily as an antidepressant and smoking cessation aid. It works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help elevate mood and reduce cravings. Bupropion is commonly prescribed for depression, seasonal affective disorder, and as an aid to quit smoking. It is not related to the other drugs listed, which belong to different classes of antidepressants.

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  • 4. 

    What drugs are concidered Triazolopyradines?

    • A.

      Nefazodone

    • B.

      Duloxetine

    • C.

      Venlafaxine

    • D.

      Fluvoxamine

    • E.

      Paroxetine

    • F.

      Trazodone

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Nefazodone
    F. Trazodone
    Explanation
    The drugs nefazodone and trazodone are considered Triazolopyradines.

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  • 5. 

    What drugs are concidered tetracyclics?

    • A.

      Citalopram

    • B.

      Mirtazapine

    • C.

      Venlafaxine

    • D.

      Fluvoxamine

    • E.

      Paroxetine

    • F.

      Sertraline

    Correct Answer
    B. Mirtazapine
    Explanation
    Mirtazapine is considered a tetracyclic antidepressant. It works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help improve mood and relieve depression. Tetracyclic antidepressants are a class of medications that have a four-ring structure and are used to treat various mental health conditions, including depression. Mirtazapine is commonly prescribed for depression, especially when other antidepressant medications have not been effective.

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  • 6. 

    What drugs are concidered TCAs?

    • A.

      Amitriptyline

    • B.

      Clomipramine

    • C.

      Doxepin

    • D.

      Imipramine

    • E.

      Desipramine

    • F.

      Nortriptyline

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Amitriptyline
    B. Clomipramine
    C. Doxepin
    D. Imipramine
    E. Desipramine
    F. Nortriptyline
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the drugs amitriptyline, clomipramine, doxepin, imipramine, desipramine, and nortriptyline. These drugs are considered TCAs, which stands for tricyclic antidepressants. TCAs are a class of medications commonly used to treat depression, anxiety, and other mood disorders. They work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help regulate mood.

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  • 7. 

    What drugs are concidered MAOIs?

    • A.

      Mirtazipine

    • B.

      Phenelezine

    • C.

      Doxepin

    • D.

      Selegiline

    • E.

      Duloxetine

    • F.

      Tranylcypromine

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Phenelezine
    D. Selegiline
    F. Tranylcypromine
    Explanation
    The drugs phenelezine, selegiline, and tranylcypromine are considered MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors). MAOIs are a type of medication that work by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters like serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. By inhibiting this enzyme, MAOIs increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, which can help alleviate symptoms of depression and other mood disorders. Mirtazapine, doxepin, and duloxetine are not MAOIs, but belong to other classes of antidepressant medications.

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  • 8. 

    Receptor antagonism of the Cholinergic receptor causeing anti-cholinergic effect which of the following classes of antidepressants have this antagonist effect?

    • A.

      TCAs

    • B.

      Trazodone

    • C.

      MAOIs

    • D.

      Mirtazapine

    Correct Answer
    A. TCAs
    Explanation
    TCAs (Tricyclic Antidepressants) have receptor antagonism of the Cholinergic receptor, leading to an anti-cholinergic effect. This means that TCAs block the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in various functions including mood regulation. By blocking the cholinergic receptor, TCAs can cause side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Therefore, TCAs have this antagonist effect on the cholinergic receptor. Trazodone, MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors), and mirtazapine do not have the same mechanism of action and do not exhibit significant anti-cholinergic effects.

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  • 9. 

    Receptor antagonism of the Alpha-1 antagonism causing orthostatic hypotension which of the following classes of antidepressants have this antagonist effect?

    • A.

      TCAs

    • B.

      Trazodone

    • C.

      MAOIs

    • D.

      Mirtazapine

    Correct Answer
    B. Trazodone
    Explanation
    Trazodone is an antidepressant that belongs to the class of medications known as serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitors (SARIs). It has alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist properties, which means it blocks the alpha-1 receptors. This antagonism can lead to orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure upon standing up. The other options, TCAs, MAOIs, and mirtazapine, do not have this specific alpha-1 antagonist effect.

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  • 10. 

    What antidepressant has no relavant severe side effects?

    Correct Answer
    Escitalopram
    Explanation
    Escitalopram is a type of antidepressant medication that belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class. It is commonly prescribed for the treatment of depression and anxiety disorders. One of the reasons why escitalopram is considered to have no relevant severe side effects is because it has a favorable safety profile compared to other antidepressants. While it may still have some potential side effects like any medication, the severity and frequency of these side effects are generally low. This makes escitalopram a preferred choice for many individuals seeking antidepressant treatment.

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  • 11. 

    What does the mnemonic Dry as a bone, Red as a beet, Hot as a hare, Blind as a bat, Mad as a hatter, Full as a flask in regards to?

    • A.

      Anticholinergic effects

    • B.

      Serotonin effects

    • C.

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • D.

      Epilepsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Anticholinergic effects
    Explanation
    The mnemonic "Dry as a bone, Red as a beet, Hot as a hare, Blind as a bat, Mad as a hatter, Full as a flask" is commonly used to remember the symptoms of anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic drugs block the action of acetylcholine in the body, leading to dry mouth (dry as a bone), flushed skin (red as a beet), increased body temperature (hot as a hare), blurred vision (blind as a bat), confusion or delirium (mad as a hatter), and urinary retention (full as a flask). Therefore, the correct answer is anticholinergic effects.

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  • 12. 

    What antidepressant class has the greatest number of side effects?

    • A.

      MAOIs

    • B.

      SRIs

    • C.

      TCAs

    • D.

      SNRIs

    Correct Answer
    C. TCAs
    Explanation
    Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have the greatest number of side effects compared to other antidepressant classes. TCAs are known to cause a wide range of side effects, including drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. These side effects are due to the non-specific binding of TCAs to various receptors in the body, leading to their wide-ranging effects on different organ systems. Other antidepressant classes, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), also have side effects but generally have a more favorable side effect profile compared to TCAs.

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  • 13. 

    Fluoxetine has a half-life of _________

    Correct Answer
    4-6 days
    Explanation
    Fluoxetine has a half-life of 4-6 days. The half-life of a drug refers to the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the body to decrease by half. In the case of fluoxetine, it takes approximately 4-6 days for the concentration of the drug to reduce by half. This means that it can take several days for fluoxetine to be completely eliminated from the body. The half-life of a drug is an important factor to consider when determining the dosing frequency and duration of treatment.

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  • 14. 

    What SSRIs cause inhibition of Cyp 2D6?

    Correct Answer
    fluoxetine and paroxetine
    fluoxetine, paroxetine
    Explanation
    Fluoxetine and paroxetine are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) that are known to inhibit the enzyme CYP2D6. This inhibition can lead to drug interactions, as CYP2D6 is responsible for metabolizing many medications. Therefore, when fluoxetine or paroxetine are taken alongside other drugs that are metabolized by CYP2D6, it can result in increased levels of those drugs in the body, potentially leading to adverse effects or reduced efficacy.

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  • 15. 

    What SSRIs cause inhibition of Cyp 1A2?

    Correct Answer
    fluvoxamine
    Explanation
    Fluvoxamine is an SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor) that is known to inhibit the enzyme Cyp 1A2. Cyp 1A2 is responsible for metabolizing various drugs and chemicals in the body. When fluvoxamine inhibits this enzyme, it can lead to increased levels of other medications that are metabolized by Cyp 1A2, potentially causing drug interactions and adverse effects. Therefore, fluvoxamine is the correct answer as it is an SSRI that specifically inhibits Cyp 1A2.

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  • 16. 

    What SSRIs cause inhibition of Cyp 3A4?

    Correct Answer
    fluvoxamine
    Explanation
    Fluvoxamine is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) that has been shown to inhibit the enzyme Cyp 3A4. Cyp 3A4 is responsible for metabolizing many medications, so when fluvoxamine inhibits this enzyme, it can lead to increased levels of other drugs in the body. This can result in potential drug interactions and an increased risk of adverse effects. Therefore, fluvoxamine is known to cause inhibition of Cyp 3A4.

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  • 17. 

    What are the side effects of SSRIs

    • A.

      Headache

    • B.

      Nervousness

    • C.

      Insomnia

    • D.

      Nausea

    • E.

      Sexual dysfunction

    • F.

      Dry mouth

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Nervousness
    C. Insomnia
    D. Nausea
    E. Sexual dysfunction
    Explanation
    The side effects of SSRIs include nervousness, insomnia, nausea, and sexual dysfunction. SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are a type of medication commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. Nervousness and insomnia are common side effects that can occur when starting or adjusting the dosage of SSRIs. Nausea is another potential side effect that may occur, especially in the initial weeks of treatment. Sexual dysfunction, such as a decrease in libido or difficulty achieving orgasm, is also a well-known side effect of SSRIs. These side effects should be discussed with a healthcare provider, as they can vary in severity and may require adjustments to the medication regimen.

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  • 18. 

    What are the side effects of venlafaxine?

    • A.

      Headache

    • B.

      Nervousness

    • C.

      Insomnia

    • D.

      Nausea

    • E.

      Sexual dysfunction

    • F.

      Dry mouth

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Insomnia
    D. Nausea
    E. Sexual dysfunction
    Explanation
    The side effects of venlafaxine include insomnia, nausea, and sexual dysfunction. Insomnia refers to difficulty in sleeping or staying asleep, which can lead to daytime drowsiness and fatigue. Nausea is a feeling of discomfort in the stomach that may lead to vomiting. Sexual dysfunction refers to problems with sexual desire, arousal, or satisfaction. These side effects are commonly reported by individuals taking venlafaxine and should be discussed with a healthcare provider if they persist or worsen.

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  • 19. 

    What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

    • A.

      Tremor

    • B.

      Diaphoresis

    • C.

      Clonus

    • D.

      Agitations

    • E.

      Muscular rigidity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Tremor
    B. Diaphoresis
    C. Clonus
    D. Agitations
    E. Muscular rigidity
    Explanation
    Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. The symptoms include tremor, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), clonus (involuntary muscle contractions), agitations, and muscular rigidity. These symptoms can range from mild to severe and can be caused by certain medications, drug interactions, or underlying medical conditions. It is important to recognize and treat serotonin syndrome promptly to avoid complications and ensure patient safety.

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  • 20. 

    Venlafaxine is metabolized through what CYP pathway(s)

    • A.

      CYP1A2, CYP2D6

    • B.

      CYP2D6

    • C.

      CYP2B6

    • D.

      CYP1A2, CYP2B6

    Correct Answer
    B. CYP2D6
    Explanation
    Venlafaxine is metabolized primarily through the CYP2D6 pathway. This means that the enzyme CYP2D6 is responsible for breaking down venlafaxine in the body. The other CYP pathways listed (CYP1A2 and CYP2B6) are not the primary pathways for metabolizing venlafaxine.

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  • 21. 

    What is the half-life for the venlafaxine parent and metabolite compound?

    Correct Answer
    5, 11 hours
    5 and 11 hours
    Explanation
    The half-life for the venlafaxine parent and metabolite compound is 5 and 11 hours. This means that it takes approximately 5 hours for half of the parent compound to be eliminated from the body, and 11 hours for half of the metabolite compound to be eliminated.

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  • 22. 

    Duloxetine is metabolized through what CYP pathway(s)

    • A.

      CYP1A2, CYP2D6

    • B.

      CYP2D6

    • C.

      CYP2B6

    • D.

      CYP1A2, CYP2B6

    Correct Answer
    A. CYP1A2, CYP2D6
    Explanation
    Duloxetine is metabolized through the CYP1A2 and CYP2D6 pathways. These two pathways are responsible for the breakdown of duloxetine in the body. CYP1A2 is involved in the metabolism of many drugs, including duloxetine, while CYP2D6 is specifically responsible for the metabolism of duloxetine. Understanding the specific pathways that metabolize duloxetine is important for determining potential drug interactions and individual variations in drug response.

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  • 23. 

    What are the side effects of duloxetine?

    • A.

      Headache

    • B.

      Nervousness

    • C.

      Insomnia

    • D.

      Nausea

    • E.

      Sexual dysfunction

    • F.

      Dry mouth

    • G.

      Decreased appetite

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Headache
    C. Insomnia
    D. Nausea
    F. Dry mouth
    G. Decreased appetite
    Explanation
    Duloxetine is a medication used to treat depression, anxiety, and certain types of pain. It is known to have several side effects, including headache, insomnia, nausea, dry mouth, and decreased appetite. These side effects are commonly reported by individuals taking duloxetine and should be monitored closely. If any of these side effects become severe or persistent, it is important to consult a healthcare professional for further guidance.

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  • 24. 

    Bupropion is a _________ inhibitor

    Correct Answer(s)
    CYP2D6
    Explanation
    Bupropion is a CYP2D6 inhibitor. This means that it inhibits the activity of the CYP2D6 enzyme, which is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. By inhibiting this enzyme, bupropion can affect the metabolism and clearance of other drugs that are metabolized by CYP2D6. This can result in drug-drug interactions and potentially alter the effectiveness and safety of these drugs.

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  • 25. 

    Common side effects of bupropion?

    • A.

      Constipation

    • B.

      Dry mouth

    • C.

      Agitation

    • D.

      Insomnia

    • E.

      Increase appetite

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Constipation
    B. Dry mouth
    C. Agitation
    D. Insomnia
    Explanation
    Bupropion is a medication commonly used to treat depression and aid in smoking cessation. Some common side effects of bupropion include constipation, dry mouth, agitation, insomnia, and increased appetite. Constipation refers to difficulty in passing stools, dry mouth is characterized by a lack of saliva production, agitation refers to a state of restlessness or irritability, and insomnia refers to difficulty in falling or staying asleep. These side effects are known to occur with the use of bupropion and should be monitored and reported to a healthcare professional if they persist or worsen.

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  • 26. 

    What is the half-life of Nefazodone

    Correct Answer(s)
    2-4 hours
    Explanation
    The half-life of Nefazodone is 2-4 hours. The half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for the concentration of a drug in the body to decrease by half. In the case of Nefazodone, it means that after 2-4 hours, half of the drug will have been eliminated from the body. This information is important for determining the dosing frequency and duration of the medication.

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  • 27. 

    Nefazodone inhibits _____

    Correct Answer(s)
    CYP3A4
    Explanation
    Nefazodone inhibits the enzyme CYP3A4. CYP3A4 is a crucial enzyme in the liver responsible for metabolizing many drugs and toxins. Inhibition of this enzyme can lead to increased levels of certain medications in the body, potentially causing drug interactions and adverse effects. Nefazodone's ability to inhibit CYP3A4 is important to consider when prescribing or taking other medications concurrently, as it may affect their metabolism and efficacy.

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  • 28. 

    What are the side effects of Trazodone?

    • A.

      Priapism

    • B.

      Weight gain

    • C.

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • D.

      Sexual dysfunction

    • E.

      Sedation

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Priapism
    C. Orthostatic hypotension
    E. Sedation
    Explanation
    Trazodone is an antidepressant medication that may cause certain side effects. Priapism is a potential side effect, which is a prolonged and painful erection. Orthostatic hypotension, another side effect, refers to a drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness or fainting. Sedation is also a possible side effect of Trazodone, causing drowsiness or sleepiness. However, weight gain and sexual dysfunction were not listed as side effects in the given options.

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  • 29. 

    Nefazodone causes serotonin syndrome and there is a black box warning for it

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Black box warning – Clinical use of nefazodone has decreased substantially due to reported cases of liver failure.

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  • 30. 

    Which antidepressant does not induce or inhibit CYP450

    Correct Answer
    Mirtazapine
    Explanation
    Mirtazapine is the correct answer because it is an antidepressant that does not induce or inhibit CYP450 enzymes. CYP450 enzymes are responsible for metabolizing many medications, including antidepressants. When a medication induces or inhibits these enzymes, it can affect the metabolism of other medications, leading to potential drug interactions. However, mirtazapine does not have this effect, making it a safer option in terms of drug interactions.

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  • 31. 

    What is the half life of Mirtazapine?

    • A.

      5 hours

    • B.

      12 hours

    • C.

      24 hours

    • D.

      3 to 4 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 hours
    Explanation
    The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In the case of Mirtazapine, the half-life is 24 hours. This means that after 24 hours, half of the drug will have been eliminated from the body. The longer the half-life, the longer the drug stays in the body and continues to have an effect.

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  • 32. 

    What antidepressants do not cause significant side effects?

    • A.

      Trazodone

    • B.

      Bupropion

    • C.

      Imipramine

    • D.

      Nefazodone

    • E.

      Mirtazapine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Trazodone
    D. Nefazodone
    E. Mirtazapine
    Explanation
    Trazodone, Nefazodone, and Mirtazapine are antidepressants that are known to have fewer significant side effects compared to other antidepressants. These medications are generally well-tolerated and have a lower risk of causing common side effects such as sexual dysfunction, weight gain, and sleep disturbances. However, it is important to note that individual responses to medications can vary, and some individuals may still experience side effects with these medications. It is always recommended to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most suitable antidepressant for an individual's specific needs.

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  • 33. 

    What antidepressant causes a high incidence of weight gain and sedation?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Mirtazapine
    Explanation
    Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that is known to cause weight gain and sedation in patients. It works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help regulate mood and emotions. However, one of the side effects of mirtazapine is an increase in appetite and a decrease in metabolism, leading to weight gain. Additionally, mirtazapine can cause drowsiness and sedation, which can make patients feel tired and sleepy. Therefore, mirtazapine is associated with a high incidence of weight gain and sedation.

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  • 34. 

    What time of day should TCAs be taken?

    Correct Answer(s)
    HS
    bedtime
    Explanation
    TCAs, or tricyclic antidepressants, should be taken at bedtime, which is indicated by the abbreviation "HS" in medical terminology. Taking TCAs at bedtime helps to minimize the side effects associated with these medications, such as drowsiness and sedation. Additionally, taking TCAs at night can also help improve sleep quality for individuals who may experience insomnia or disrupted sleep patterns due to their depressive symptoms. Therefore, the recommended time of day for taking TCAs is at bedtime.

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  • 35. 

    What is the rate limiting step in TCA metabolism?

    • A.

      Hydroxybupropion via CYP2B6

    • B.

      Hydroxylation CYP2B6

    • C.

      Hydroxybupropion via CYP2D6

    • D.

      Hydroxylation CYP2D6

    Correct Answer
    D. Hydroxylation CYP2D6
    Explanation
    The rate limiting step in TCA metabolism is hydroxylation by the enzyme CYP2D6. This step is crucial as it determines the rate at which the drug is metabolized and cleared from the body. CYP2D6 is responsible for converting the parent drug into its active metabolite, hydroxybupropion, which is then further metabolized. This step is important in determining the efficacy and safety of the drug, as variations in the activity of CYP2D6 can lead to differences in drug response and potential drug interactions.

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  • 36. 

    What are the potentially fatal side effects of TCAs?

    • A.

      Prolongation of His-Purkinje conduction system

    • B.

      Lower seizure threshold

    • C.

      Anticholinergic delirium

    • D.

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • E.

      Weight gain

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Prolongation of His-Purkinje conduction system
    B. Lower seizure threshold
    C. Anticholinergic delirium
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes three potentially fatal side effects of TCAs: prolongation of the His-Purkinje conduction system, lower seizure threshold, and anticholinergic delirium. Prolongation of the His-Purkinje conduction system can lead to arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Lower seizure threshold can increase the risk of seizures, especially in patients with a history of seizures or predisposing factors. Anticholinergic delirium is a serious condition characterized by confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and can progress to coma and death if not treated promptly. These side effects highlight the importance of monitoring patients closely when prescribing TCAs and considering alternative treatment options in patients at high risk. Weight gain and orthostatic hypotension are potential side effects of TCAs but are not considered potentially fatal.

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  • 37. 

    What are the two pharmacodynamic reactions that can happen with MAOIs if taken with certain other drugs?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Hypertensive crisis, Serotonin (5-HT) Syndrome
    Hypertensive crisis, 5-HT Syndrome
    Explanation
    MAOIs (Monoamine oxidase inhibitors) are a class of medications used to treat depression. When taken with certain other drugs, they can cause two pharmacodynamic reactions: hypertensive crisis and serotonin (5-HT) syndrome. Hypertensive crisis is characterized by a sudden and dangerous increase in blood pressure, which can lead to severe complications. Serotonin syndrome, on the other hand, is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the brain. Both of these reactions can occur when MAOIs are taken with drugs that increase serotonin levels, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or certain pain medications.

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  • 38. 

    What drug interations with MAOIs cause dangerous increase in blood pressure; could be associated with stroke, throbbing H/A, N/V, diaphoresis?

    • A.

      Sympathomimetic amines and Tyramine

    • B.

      TCAs

    • C.

      Venlafaxine

    • D.

      Dextromethorphan

    • E.

      SSRIs

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathomimetic amines and Tyramine
    Explanation
    Sympathomimetic amines and tyramine can cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure when taken with MAOIs. This can lead to symptoms such as stroke, throbbing headache, nausea/vomiting, and excessive sweating. MAOIs inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is responsible for breaking down certain substances in the body, including sympathomimetic amines and tyramine. When these substances are not broken down properly, they can accumulate and cause a sudden increase in blood pressure. Therefore, it is important to avoid consuming foods or medications that contain sympathomimetic amines or tyramine while taking MAOIs to prevent these potentially dangerous interactions.

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  • 39. 

    What drug interations with MAOIs do not cause hyperpyrexia, rigidity, myoclonus, delirium, ataxia, coma, possibly death?

    • A.

      Sympathomimetic amines and Tyramine

    • B.

      TCAs

    • C.

      Venlafaxine

    • D.

      Dextromethorphan

    • E.

      SSRIs

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathomimetic amines and Tyramine
  • 40. 

    Less than 25% decrease in baseline symptoms

    • A.

      Response

    • B.

      Remission

    • C.

      Non-response

    • D.

      Partial response

    Correct Answer
    C. Non-response
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, "Non-response," suggests that there was less than a 25% decrease in baseline symptoms. This means that the treatment or intervention did not have a significant impact on reducing the symptoms or improving the condition. Non-response indicates that the individual did not experience any noticeable improvement or relief from their symptoms.

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  • 41. 

    26%–49% decrease in baseline symptoms

    • A.

      Response

    • B.

      Remission

    • C.

      Non-response

    • D.

      Partial response

    Correct Answer
    D. Partial response
    Explanation
    A partial response refers to a decrease in symptoms that falls between 26% and 49% compared to the baseline symptoms. This means that while there has been some improvement, the symptoms are still present and have not fully resolved. Remission would indicate a complete absence of symptoms, non-response would mean no improvement at all, and partial response falls in between these two categories.

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  • 42. 

    Greater than 50% decrease in baseline symptoms

    • A.

      Response

    • B.

      Remission

    • C.

      Non-response

    • D.

      Partial response

    Correct Answer
    A. Response
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, "Response," suggests that there has been a significant improvement in the symptoms compared to the baseline. It indicates that there has been a decrease in symptoms by more than 50%, indicating a positive response to the treatment. This term is often used in medical contexts to describe the effectiveness of a particular intervention or medication.

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  • 43. 

    Return to baseline functioning with no symptoms present

    • A.

      Response

    • B.

      Remission

    • C.

      Non-response

    • D.

      Partial response

    Correct Answer
    B. Remission
    Explanation
    Remission refers to the return to baseline functioning with no symptoms present. It indicates a complete resolution of symptoms and a return to a state of normal functioning. This term is commonly used in the context of medical conditions, particularly mental health disorders, to describe a period of time where symptoms are significantly reduced or completely absent. Remission signifies a positive outcome and is often the goal of treatment for many conditions.

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  • 44. 

    What are possible augmentation strategies to consider with a partial response to antidepressant?

    • A.

      Non-SSRI

    • B.

      SSRI

    • C.

      Li+

    • D.

      Thyroid medication

    • E.

      Atypical anti-psychotic

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Non-SSRI
    C. Li+
    D. Thyroid medication
    E. Atypical anti-psychotic
    Explanation
    Possible augmentation strategies to consider with a partial response to antidepressant include non-SSRI medication, Li+ (lithium) treatment, thyroid medication, and atypical anti-psychotic medication. These strategies can be used in combination with the antidepressant to enhance its effectiveness and improve the overall treatment outcome.

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  • 45. 

    Receptor antagonism of the Histamine receptor causes sedation which of the following classes of antidepressants have this antagonist effect?

    • A.

      TCAs

    • B.

      Trazodone

    • C.

      MAOIs

    • D.

      Mirtazapine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. TCAs
    D. Mirtazapine
    Explanation
    Receptor antagonism of the Histamine receptor causes sedation. TCAs (Tricyclic Antidepressants) and mirtazapine are known to have this antagonist effect on the Histamine receptor, leading to sedation. Therefore, both TCAs and mirtazapine can be classified as antidepressants with this sedative effect.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 02, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 05, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Mgartz
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