Anatomy Test 3 - Quiz Questions

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  • 1/75 Questions

    In the following radiograph of the wrist, the arrow points to the:

    • Lunate.
    • Scaphoid.
    • Pisiform.
    • Articular disc.
    • Capitate.
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About This Quiz

Anatomy Test 3 explores clinical conditions related to urology and human anatomy, assessing knowledge on benign prostatic hypertrophy, urethral sphincter mechanisms, circumcision, hemorrhoids, and complications of urethral injuries.

Anatomy Test 3 - Quiz Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the patella?

    • Because of the way it ossifies, the patella always fractures in at least four pieces.

    • Its apex indicates the level of the knee joint when the leg is extended.

    • Pain felt deep to it may be associated with a condition known as chondromalacia patella.

    • It increases the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps femoris for extending the knee.

    • Testing of its associated tendon reflex is down with the patient sitting and legs "dangling."

    Correct Answer
    A. Because of the way it ossifies, the patella always fractures in at least four pieces.
    Explanation
    The given statement is incorrect because the patella does not always fracture in at least four pieces. Fractures of the patella can vary in severity and can range from a simple crack to multiple pieces. The number of fragments in a patella fracture depends on the force and mechanism of injury.

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  • 3. 

    In the emergency room, you see a 65-year-old woman who fell on her outstretched right hand while walking on ice. Upon examination of the right limb, you feel and see a dorsal protrusion just proximal to the wrist. You suspect a:

    • Dislocated first carpometacarpal joint.

    • Dislocated midcarpal joint.

    • Fracture distal radius (Colles fracture).

    • Mid-radial fracture

    • Fracture lunate

    Correct Answer
    A. Fracture distal radius (Colles fracture).
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient fell on her outstretched right hand and there is a dorsal protrusion just proximal to the wrist. This is consistent with a Colles fracture, which is a type of fracture of the distal radius. The other options, such as dislocated joints or fractures of other bones, do not fit the clinical presentation described. Therefore, the correct answer is fracture distal radius (Colles fracture).

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  • 4. 

    You are assisting in the emergency room when the attending physician examines a patient after an elbow injury. The physician holds the proximal interphalangeal joint of the little finger and asks the patient to flex the distal phalanx. This procedure tests the functionality of what nerve?

    • Median

    • Radial

    • Ulnar

    • Posterior interosseous

    • Anterior interosseous

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulnar
    Explanation
    The physician is testing the functionality of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that control the flexion of the distal phalanx of the little finger. By holding the proximal interphalangeal joint and asking the patient to flex the distal phalanx, the physician can assess if the ulnar nerve is functioning properly.

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  • 5. 

    Circumcision involves:

    • Removal of the prepuce of the penis.

    • Removal of the glans of the penis.

    • Removal of the corona of the glans of the penis.

    • Enlarging the external urethral orifice.

    • Surgically constructing a new external urethral orifice.

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of the prepuce of the penis.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is removal of the prepuce of the penis. Circumcision is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the foreskin, which is the prepuce, from the penis. This is a common practice in many cultures and religions for various reasons, including religious, cultural, and medical purposes. The removal of the glans, corona, or enlarging the external urethral orifice are not part of the circumcision procedure.

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  • 6. 
    In the following angiogram of the wrist and hand, the arrow points to the: - ProProfs

    In the following angiogram of the wrist and hand, the arrow points to the:

    • Superficial branch of the radial artery.

    • Deep branch of the ulnar artery.

    • Ulnar artery.

    • Radial artery.

    • Princeps pollicis artery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep branch of the ulnar artery.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the deep branch of the ulnar artery. In the angiogram, the arrow is pointing to a branch of an artery that is located deep within the wrist and hand. This branch is specifically identified as a branch of the ulnar artery, which is one of the major arteries in the forearm. The other options, superficial branch of the radial artery, ulnar artery, radial artery, and princeps pollicis artery, are not consistent with the location and identification of the artery indicated by the arrow in the angiogram.

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  • 7. 

    In which of the following activities would the latissimus dorsi be least important?

    • Paddling a canoe

    • Using the crawl stroke while swimming

    • Performing a chin-up

    • Using the breaststroke while swimming

    • Using the backstroke while swimming

    Correct Answer
    A. Using the backstroke while swimming
    Explanation
    The latissimus dorsi is a large muscle in the back that is responsible for various movements of the shoulder joint, such as adduction, extension, and internal rotation. When using the backstroke while swimming, the latissimus dorsi is least important because this stroke primarily involves the muscles of the arms and shoulders, rather than the back. The primary muscles used in the backstroke are the triceps, deltoids, and pectoralis major. Therefore, the latissimus dorsi is least important in using the backstroke while swimming.

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  • 8. 

    The hip joint:

    • Is supported posteriorly by the pubofemoral ligament, which prevents over-abduction.

    • Can be rotated more strongly medially than laterally.

    • Is strongly supported by the ligament of the head of the femur.

    • Is supported anteriorly and superiorly by the iliofemoral ligament, which prevents hyperextension.

    • Exhibits complete contact between the head of the femur and acetabulum during normal standing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is supported anteriorly and superiorly by the iliofemoral ligament, which prevents hyperextension.
    Explanation
    The hip joint is supported anteriorly and superiorly by the iliofemoral ligament, which prevents hyperextension. This ligament helps to stabilize the joint by limiting excessive backward movement of the femur in relation to the pelvis. It is the strongest ligament in the body and plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of the hip joint. Without the support of the iliofemoral ligament, hyperextension of the hip joint could occur, leading to potential injury and instability.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to human locomotion?

    • The push-off phase of walking is associated with contraction of the plantar flexors.

    • The stance phase of walking is longer than the swing phase.

    • The stance phase of walking begins with "foot-flat" as the entire plantar surface of the foot contracts the ground.

    • During walking there is a period when boot feet are in contact with the ground.

    • The knee extensors contract during the first part of the stance phase.

    Correct Answer
    A. The stance phase of walking begins with "foot-flat" as the entire plantar surface of the foot contracts the ground.
    Explanation
    During the stance phase of walking, the foot initially makes contact with the ground in a heel strike position, not in a "foot-flat" position. The foot then transitions to a flat position as the entire plantar surface of the foot comes into contact with the ground. This allows for better weight distribution and stability during the stance phase.

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  • 10. 

    You examine a patient after an automobile accident that resulted in a posterior dislocation of the hip joint.  Which nerve are you most concerned might have been injured by such an accident?

    • Femoral

    • Lumbosacral trunk

    • Pelvic splanchnic

    • Sciatic

    • Obturator

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic
    Explanation
    In a posterior dislocation of the hip joint, the sciatic nerve is the nerve most likely to be injured. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body and runs down the back of the thigh, so it is vulnerable to injury in cases of hip dislocation. Injury to the sciatic nerve can result in symptoms such as pain, weakness, and numbness in the leg and foot.

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  • 11. 

    Hemorrhoids are:

    • Enlarged anal lymph nodes

    • Infected anal sinuses

    • Varicosities in rectal/anal veins.

    • Infected and enlarged anal mucus glands.

    • Arteriovenous malformations in the anal mucosa.

    Correct Answer
    A. Varicosities in rectal/anal veins.
    Explanation
    Hemorrhoids are varicosities in the rectal/anal veins. Varicosities refer to the condition of being enlarged or swollen, and in the case of hemorrhoids, this occurs in the veins of the rectum and anus. These swollen veins can cause pain, itching, and bleeding. Treatment options for hemorrhoids include lifestyle changes, medications, and in severe cases, surgical procedures.

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  • 12. 

    Following a left radical mastectomy, a woman is unable to abduct her arm more than 90 degrees.  Which of the following structures do you suspect was injured during the surgical procedure?

    • Suprascapular nerve

    • Rotator cuff component of the shoulder joint capsule

    • Dorsal scapular nerve

    • Serratus posterior superior muscle

    • Long thoracic nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Long thoracic nerve
    Explanation
    Following a left radical mastectomy, the woman's inability to abduct her arm more than 90 degrees suggests that the long thoracic nerve was injured during the surgical procedure. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for the abduction of the arm. Damage to this nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, resulting in limited abduction of the arm.

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  • 13. 

    In the emergency room you examine a patient who was thrown from a motorcycle in such a way that, upon landing, his neck and shoulder were widely separated.  Which of the following would not be consistent with your suspicion that he is suffering from Erb-Duchenne palsy?

    • Weak elbow flexion

    • Weak shoulder abduction

    • Weak digital flexion

    • Sensory loss on lateral aspect of arm

    • Medially rotated arm at rest

    Correct Answer
    A. Weak digital flexion
    Explanation
    Weak digital flexion would not be consistent with Erb-Duchenne palsy. Erb-Duchenne palsy, also known as Erb's palsy, is a condition caused by damage to the brachial plexus nerves in the upper arm. It typically results in weakness or paralysis of the muscles in the shoulder and upper arm, including weak elbow flexion and weak shoulder abduction. Medial rotation of the arm at rest and sensory loss on the lateral aspect of the arm are also commonly associated with this condition. However, weakness in digital flexion, which refers to the ability to bend the fingers, is not typically seen in Erb-Duchenne palsy.

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  • 14. 
    The arrow in the following radiograph points to the: - ProProfs

    The arrow in the following radiograph points to the:

    • Superior angle of scapula.

    • Superior part of glenoid fossa.

    • Coracoid process

    • Acromion process.

    • Clavicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Acromion process.
    Explanation
    The arrow in the radiograph is pointing to the acromion process, which is a bony projection on the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. It can be easily identified on the radiograph as it is a distinct anatomical structure. The other options, such as the superior angle of scapula, superior part of glenoid fossa, coracoid process, and clavicle, are not indicated by the arrow and are not relevant to the given radiograph.

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  • 15. 

    The nerve most likely to be injured in a glenohumeral joint dislocation is the:

    • Supraclavicular.

    • Axillary.

    • Radial.

    • Medial

    • Ulnar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Axillary.
    Explanation
    In a glenohumeral joint dislocation, the axillary nerve is most likely to be injured. The axillary nerve runs through the shoulder joint and is vulnerable to injury when the joint is dislocated. This can result in weakness or loss of sensation in the shoulder and upper arm. The other options, supraclavicular, radial, medial, and ulnar nerves, are not commonly injured in glenohumeral joint dislocations.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the carpal tunnel syndrome?

    • It may involve paresthesia in the lateral 3½ digits.

    • It may involve weakness in the thenar muscles.

    • It may be caused by inflammation of the synovial sheaths of the flexor tendons.

    • It may involve anesthesia of the central palm.

    • Surgical transection of the flexor retinaculum typically relieves its associated symptoms.

    Correct Answer
    A. It may involve anesthesia of the central palm.
    Explanation
    Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the median nerve in the wrist. Symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome typically include paresthesia (tingling or numbness) in the lateral 3½ digits, weakness in the thenar muscles (the muscles at the base of the thumb), and can be caused by inflammation of the synovial sheaths of the flexor tendons. However, anesthesia (loss of sensation) of the central palm is not a typical symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome. Surgical transection of the flexor retinaculum, which is a ligament in the wrist, is a common treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome and often relieves associated symptoms.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following relationships at the wrist is incorrect?

    • The radial artery can be compressed against the radius.

    • The median nerve lies deep to the tendon of the palmaris longus.

    • The radial artery lies medial to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis.

    • The scaphoid can be palpated in the floor of the anatomical snuffbox.

    • The ulnar artery and nerve lie lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris.

    Correct Answer
    A. The radial artery lies medial to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the radial artery lies lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis. This means that the radial artery is positioned on the same side as the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis, rather than being on the opposite side. This relationship is important to understand for medical professionals who may need to locate and access the radial artery for procedures such as taking a pulse or administering medications.

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  • 18. 

    A middle aged male patient complains of a weak "stream" and nocturia.  You believe the most likely cause to be:

    • A bladder infection

    • A spinal cord lesion affecting his pelvic splanchic nerves

    • A ureteric calculi

    • Benign prostatic hypertrophy

    • An obstruction of his intramural (preprostatic) urethra

    Correct Answer
    A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
    Explanation
    Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. BPH is a condition where the prostate gland, which surrounds the urethra, becomes enlarged and obstructs the flow of urine. This can lead to a weak stream and increased frequency of urination, which are the symptoms described by the patient. The other options, such as bladder infection, spinal cord lesion, ureteric calculi, and obstruction of the intramural urethra, are less likely to cause these specific symptoms in a middle-aged male patient.

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  • 19. 
    In the following axial MRI, the blue arrow points to the: - ProProfs

    In the following axial MRI, the blue arrow points to the:

    • Sartorius

    • Rectus femoris

    • Iliopsoas

    • Iliotibial tract

    • Gracilis

    Correct Answer
    A. Sartorius
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sartorius. The sartorius muscle is a long, thin muscle that runs down the length of the thigh. It is the longest muscle in the body. In the axial MRI, the blue arrow is pointing to a structure that is consistent with the location of the sartorius muscle.

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  • 20. 

    The part of the femur that is most susceptible to fracture in conjuction with osteoporosis is:

    • Along the intertrochanteric line.

    • Intercondylar area.

    • Mid-shaft.

    • Medial condyle.

    • Neck.

    Correct Answer
    A. Neck.
    Explanation
    The neck of the femur is the part that connects the head of the femur to the shaft. It is a common site for fractures, especially in individuals with osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, making them more susceptible to fractures. The neck of the femur is particularly vulnerable due to its shape and location, as it experiences a lot of stress and pressure during weight-bearing activities. Fractures in this area can significantly impact mobility and quality of life.

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  • 21. 

    In male urethral catheterization:

    • The diameter of the urethra at the external urethral orifice is narrower than at any other point.

    • The urethra is least protected (most likely to rupture) at the bulb.

    • The intermediate (membranous) segment is the most distensible part of the urethra.

    • The location of the ducts of the bulbourethral glands must be identified in order to avoid injuring the glands.

    • The patient is likely to feel the most discomfort (sharpest pain) when the catheter penetrates the prostatic urethra.

    Correct Answer
    A. The diameter of the urethra at the external urethral orifice is narrower than at any other point.
    Explanation
    The diameter of the urethra at the external urethral orifice is narrower than at any other point because the external urethral orifice is the opening of the urethra that leads to the outside of the body. It is the point of exit for urine and semen in males. The urethra gradually widens as it extends further into the body, allowing for the passage of fluids. Therefore, the narrowest point is at the external urethral orifice.

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  • 22. 

    A laceration of the thenar eminence that results in complete section of the recurrent branck of the median nerve would result in:

    • Claw hand.

    • Loss of all ability to adduct the thumb.

    • Loss of all ability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb.

    • Ape hand.

    • Loss of all ability to abduct the thumb.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ape hand.
    Explanation
    A laceration of the thenar eminence that results in complete section of the recurrent branch of the median nerve would result in ape hand. The thenar eminence is the fleshy area at the base of the thumb, and the recurrent branch of the median nerve innervates the muscles in this region. A complete section of this nerve would lead to weakness or paralysis of the muscles in the thenar eminence, causing a loss of opposition and flexion of the thumb. This results in a hand posture resembling that of an ape, with the thumb held in a fixed position away from the other fingers.

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  • 23. 

    Elbow tendonitis (tennis elbow) is associated with:

    • Inflammation of the periosteum of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

    • Transient subluxation of the humero-radial-ulnar joint.

    • Rupture of the tendon of the extensor digitorum.

    • Inflammation of the annular ligament.

    • Inflammation of the medial collateral ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the periosteum of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
    Explanation
    Elbow tendonitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by inflammation of the periosteum of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. This inflammation occurs due to repetitive overuse of the extensor tendons in the forearm, leading to microtears and strain on the periosteum. The lateral epicondyle is the bony prominence on the outer side of the elbow, and the periosteum is the thin layer of connective tissue that covers the bone. The inflammation in this area causes pain, tenderness, and difficulty with gripping and lifting objects.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following associations pertaining to the brachial plexus is incorrect?

    • Inferior brachial plexus injuries--clawhand

    • Hyperabduction syndrome--paresthesia

    • Pre-fixed brachial plexus--compression of inferior trunk by 1st rib

    • Acute brachial plexus neuritis--severe onset of shoulder pain

    • Wounds in the posterior triangle of the neck--brachial plexus injuries

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-fixed brachial plexus--compression of inferior trunk by 1st rib
    Explanation
    The association between a pre-fixed brachial plexus and compression of the inferior trunk by the 1st rib is incorrect. A pre-fixed brachial plexus refers to a variation in which the brachial plexus roots originate higher up in the neck than usual, whereas compression of the inferior trunk by the 1st rib is typically associated with a condition known as thoracic outlet syndrome. These two conditions are not directly related to each other.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the scaphoid?

    • It articulates with the radius.

    • It attaches to the flexor retinaculum.

    • It is the most frequently fractured carpal bone.

    • A complication associated with fracture is avascular necrosis.

    • Fracture is accompanied by pain along the lateral side of the wrist.

    Correct Answer
    A. It attaches to the flexor retinaculum.
    Explanation
    The scaphoid does not attach to the flexor retinaculum. The correct answer is supported by the fact that the scaphoid is not directly connected to the flexor retinaculum, which is a thick band of connective tissue that holds the flexor tendons in place at the wrist. The scaphoid is instead connected to other carpal bones and ligaments in the wrist.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following would not be associated with a complete section of the median nerve at the elbow? 

    • Inability to flex both the proximal and the distal interphalangeal joints of digits 2 and 3

    • Loss of ability to adduct the thumb

    • Atrophy of thenar eminence muscles

    • Loss of sensation on the lateral aspect of the palmar surface of the hand

    • Greatly weakened pronation

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of ability to adduct the thumb
    Explanation
    Loss of ability to adduct the thumb would not be associated with a complete section of the median nerve at the elbow. The median nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the forearm and the hand, and controls functions such as flexion of the interphalangeal joints of digits 2 and 3, pronation of the forearm, and sensation on the lateral aspect of the palmar surface of the hand. However, the ability to adduct the thumb is primarily controlled by the ulnar nerve, not the median nerve. Therefore, a complete section of the median nerve at the elbow would not result in the loss of ability to adduct the thumb.

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  • 27. 
    In the following MRI of a woman with an anteverted and anteflexed uterus, the arrow indicates the: - ProProfs

    In the following MRI of a woman with an anteverted and anteflexed uterus, the arrow indicates the:

    • Body of the uterus

    • Opening of the vagina

    • External os (opening of the cervix)

    • Bladder

    • Rectum

    Correct Answer
    A. External os (opening of the cervix)
    Explanation
    The arrow indicates the external os (opening of the cervix) because an MRI is a medical imaging technique that can provide detailed images of the internal structures of the body. In this case, the MRI is showing the anatomy of a woman's uterus, which is anteverted and anteflexed. The external os is the opening of the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. The arrow is pointing to this specific structure, indicating that it is the correct answer.

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  • 28. 
    In the following coronal MRI of the penis and scrotum from a normal male, the arrow indicates the: - ProProfs

    In the following coronal MRI of the penis and scrotum from a normal male, the arrow indicates the:

    • Corpus spongiosum

    • Corpus cavernosum

    • Pampiniform venous plexus

    • Vas deferens

    • Testis

    Correct Answer
    A. Corpus cavernosum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Corpus cavernosum. The corpus cavernosum is a pair of sponge-like erectile tissues that run along the length of the penis. They are responsible for the majority of penile rigidity during an erection. In the given MRI image, the arrow is indicating the corpus cavernosum, which appears as a dark area due to its low signal intensity on the image.

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  • 29. 

    The hypogastric plexuses:

    • Convey vagal fibers to the pelvic viscera

    • Convey pelvic splanchnic fibers to pelvic viscera.

    • Convey sympathetic fibers to pelvic viscera.

    • Receive white communicating rami from the sacral spinal nerves.

    • Comprise the pelvic part of the sympathetic trunk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Convey sympathetic fibers to pelvic viscera.
    Explanation
    The hypogastric plexuses are a network of nerves located in the pelvis. They are responsible for conveying sympathetic fibers to the pelvic viscera, which includes organs such as the bladder, uterus, and rectum. These sympathetic fibers help regulate various functions in the pelvic region, such as blood flow, muscle contractions, and glandular secretions. The other options mentioned, such as conveying vagal fibers or pelvic splanchnic fibers, are not correct as they do not accurately describe the function of the hypogastric plexuses.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following structures is least important for supporting the uterus and/or maintaining its position?

    • Broad ligament

    • Round ligament of the uterus

    • Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments

    • Uterosacral ligament

    • Pelvic diaphragm

    Correct Answer
    A. Round ligament of the uterus
    Explanation
    The round ligament of the uterus is the least important structure for supporting the uterus and maintaining its position. While the other structures listed, such as the broad ligament, transverse cervical ligaments, uterosacral ligament, and pelvic diaphragm, play important roles in supporting and stabilizing the uterus, the round ligament has a relatively minor role. It primarily helps to anchor the uterus to the anterior pelvic wall and provides some support during pregnancy. However, its absence or dysfunction does not significantly impact the overall support and position of the uterus.

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  • 31. 

    Following an argument with his wife in which a man backed through a glass storm door resulting in deep laceration of his buttocks, he is having great difficulty walking.  To better understand the nature of his disability, you ask him to stand on one foot.  By doing so, you are doing all of the following except:

    • Evaluating the function of the gluteus medius and minimus.

    • Evaluating the function of the abductors of the thigh.

    • Evaluating the function of the gluteus maximus.

    • Using a Trendelenburg test.

    • Evaluating the function of the superior gluteal nerve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluating the function of the gluteus maximus.
    Explanation
    Standing on one foot primarily tests the function of the abductors of the thigh, specifically the gluteus medius and minimus, as well as the superior gluteal nerve. The gluteus maximus is not directly involved in maintaining balance while standing on one foot. Therefore, evaluating the function of the gluteus maximus is not the purpose of this test.

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  • 32. 
    In the following photograph of a foot, the arrow points to a skin elevation caused by the tendon of the: - ProProfs

    In the following photograph of a foot, the arrow points to a skin elevation caused by the tendon of the:

    • Fibularis brevis.

    • Tibialis posterior.

    • Tibialis anterior.

    • Abductor digiti minimi.

    • Extensor hallucis brevis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibularis brevis.
    Explanation
    The arrow in the photograph is pointing to a skin elevation caused by the tendon of the fibularis brevis muscle. This muscle is located on the lateral side of the foot and is responsible for plantar flexion and eversion of the foot. The elevation in the skin indicates the presence of the tendon, which is characteristic of the fibularis brevis muscle.

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  • 33. 
    In the following radiograph of the foot, the arrow points to the: - ProProfs

    In the following radiograph of the foot, the arrow points to the:

    • First metatarsal.

    • Cuboid.

    • Medial cuneiform.

    • Navicular.

    • Talus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Navicular.
    Explanation
    The arrow in the radiograph is pointing to the navicular bone. The navicular bone is located on the medial side of the foot, between the talus and the cuneiform bones. It is an important bone in the arch of the foot and plays a role in maintaining stability and supporting the body's weight during walking and other weight-bearing activities.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not true of the fibularis longus, brevis, or tertius?

    • Innervated by deep fibular nerve

    • Attaches to the first metatarsal

    • Plantarflexes ankle

    • Resists inversion of the foot

    • Attaches to the calcaneus

    Correct Answer
    A. Attaches to the calcaneus
    Explanation
    The fibularis longus, brevis, and tertius are all muscles that are innervated by the deep fibular nerve. They also attach to the first metatarsal and are responsible for plantarflexing the ankle. However, the fibularis muscles do not attach to the calcaneus. The calcaneus is primarily associated with the Achilles tendon, which is formed by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles. Therefore, the statement that the fibularis muscles attach to the calcaneus is not true.

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  • 35. 

    You examine a female patient with enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes.  Upon further examination you cannot find any cutaneous or subcutaneous signs that would suggest an infection.  Perplexed, you ask your colleague what else might cause this condition.  She reminds you that these nodes also receive some lymph from the:

    • Vertebral column via posterior cluneal vessels.

    • Bladder via vessels that accompany the urethra.

    • Ovary via the suspensory ligament of the ovary.

    • Uterus via the round ligament of the uterus.

    • Liver via the falciform ligament.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterus via the round ligament of the uterus.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "uterus via the round ligament of the uterus." Enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes in a female patient can be caused by lymph drainage from the uterus through the round ligament of the uterus. The round ligament of the uterus connects the uterus to the labia majora and passes through the inguinal canal, allowing lymphatic drainage from the uterus to the inguinal lymph nodes. This can be a normal physiological response or may indicate an underlying pathology in the uterus.

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  • 36. 
    In the following coronal MRI of the hand, the arrow points to the: - ProProfs

    In the following coronal MRI of the hand, the arrow points to the:

    • Lumbrical.

    • Palmaris brevis.

    • Tendon of flexor digitorum profundus.

    • Tendon of extensor digitorum.

    • Interossei.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interossei.
    Explanation
    The arrow in the coronal MRI of the hand is pointing to the interossei. The interossei muscles are located between the metacarpal bones of the hand and are responsible for the movement and control of the fingers. They play an important role in gripping and grasping objects.

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  • 37. 

    Scapulohumeral rhythm refers to:

    • The association between the movements at the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints.

    • The changing articular configuration of the humeral head in the glenoid cavity with movement.

    • The relationship between movements at the glenohumeral and scapulothoracic "joints" during humeral abduction.

    • The protractive and retractive movements of the scapula that occur with humeral flexion and extension.

    • The protective contractions of the rotator cuff muscles with humeral abduction.

    Correct Answer
    A. The relationship between movements at the glenohumeral and scapulothoracic "joints" during humeral abduction.
    Explanation
    Scapulohumeral rhythm refers to the relationship between movements at the glenohumeral and scapulothoracic joints during humeral abduction. This means that as the arm is raised, both the glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint) and the scapulothoracic joint (shoulder blade and ribcage) work together to achieve the movement. The scapula rotates and moves along the ribcage to allow for the full range of motion of the arm. This coordination between the two joints is important for proper shoulder function and stability during overhead movements.

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  • 38. 

    The trigone of the bladder:

    • Forms the boundaries of the internal urethral orifice.

    • Is the internal area demarcated by the internal urethral and ureteric orifices.

    • Is a slight elevation of the internal posterior wall produced by the prostate.

    • Is the extraperitoneal part of the external surface.

    • Is synonymous with the apex.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the internal area demarcated by the internal urethral and ureteric orifices.
    Explanation
    The trigone of the bladder refers to the internal area demarcated by the internal urethral and ureteric orifices. It is a triangular region on the posterior wall of the bladder that is smooth and devoid of rugae. This region is important in maintaining urinary continence and preventing reflux of urine into the ureters. The trigone serves as a landmark for various clinical procedures such as cystoscopy and catheterization.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the uterine tubes?

    • They lie in the mesosalpinx part of the broad ligament.

    • Their distal part, the ampulla, surrounds the ovary.

    • They allow the development of peritonitis from genitourinary tract infections.

    • They may be ligated to prevent pregnancy.

    • They may become the site of an ectopic pregnancy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Their distal part, the ampulla, surrounds the ovary.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Their distal part, the ampulla, surrounds the ovary." This statement is incorrect because the ampulla is not located around the ovary. The ampulla is the widest and longest part of the uterine tube, and it is situated closer to the ovary but does not surround it.

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  • 40. 
    In the following axial MRI at the level of the hip joint, the red arrow points to the: - ProProfs

    In the following axial MRI at the level of the hip joint, the red arrow points to the:

    • Piriformis.

    • Levator ani.

    • Gluteus medius.

    • Quadratus femoris.

    • Obturator internus

    Correct Answer
    A. Obturator internus
    Explanation
    In the given axial MRI at the level of the hip joint, the red arrow is pointing to the obturator internus muscle. The obturator internus is a muscle located in the pelvic region that helps in the rotation of the hip joint. It is one of the deep muscles in the hip and is responsible for the outward rotation of the thigh.

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  • 41. 
    In the following illustration of the plantar surface of a foot, the area of skin referred to by number 1 (light green area) is innervated by the: - ProProfs

    In the following illustration of the plantar surface of a foot, the area of skin referred to by number 1 (light green area) is innervated by the:

    • Sural nerve.

    • Deep fibular nerve.

    • Medial plantar nerve.

    • Superficial fibular nerve.

    • Saphenous nerve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Saphenous nerve.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the saphenous nerve. The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve and provides sensory innervation to the skin on the medial side of the lower leg and foot. In the given illustration, the light green area labeled as number 1 corresponds to the region innervated by the saphenous nerve.

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  • 42. 

    The talus articulates with all of the following bones except:

    • Navicular.

    • Fibula.

    • Calcaneus.

    • Cuboid.

    • Tibia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cuboid.
    Explanation
    The talus is a bone in the foot that articulates with several other bones to form the ankle joint. It connects with the navicular, fibula, calcaneus, and tibia. However, it does not articulate with the cuboid.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon?

    • It continues into the foot as the long plantar ligament.

    • It is separated from the superior part of the posterior surface of the calcaneus by a bursa.

    • It spirals while passing inferiorly to its attachment on the calcaneus.

    • It is used to test S1 and S2 nerve function.

    • It is the common distal attachment of the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris muscles.

    Correct Answer
    A. It continues into the foot as the long plantar ligament.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the statement "It continues into the foot as the long plantar ligament" is incorrect. The calcaneal (Achilles) tendon does not continue into the foot as the long plantar ligament. The long plantar ligament is a separate structure that runs along the bottom of the foot and helps to support the arch. The calcaneal tendon, on the other hand, is a strong tendon that attaches the calf muscles (gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris) to the heel bone (calcaneus), allowing for plantarflexion of the foot.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the femoral canal?

    • Its abdominal opening is termed the femoral ring

    • It is the passageway by which the external iliac vessels enter the thigh.

    • It usually transmits a femoral hernia.

    • It contains lymph vessels.

    • It is bounded anteriorly by the inguinal ligament.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is the passageway by which the external iliac vessels enter the thigh.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It is the passageway by which the external iliac vessels enter the thigh." This statement is incorrect because the femoral canal is not the passageway for the external iliac vessels to enter the thigh. The femoral canal is a small tunnel-like structure in the groin region that contains lymph vessels and is a potential site for femoral hernias. The abdominal opening of the femoral canal is called the femoral ring, and it is bounded anteriorly by the inguinal ligament.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the hamstrings?

    • They all attach to the tibia.

    • One of them is partially innervated by the common fibular division of the sciatic nerve.

    • They all can produce both hip extension and knee flexion.

    • One of them is part of the "pes anserinus."

    • They all attach to the ischial tuberosity.

    Correct Answer
    A. They all attach to the tibia.
    Explanation
    The given statement is incorrect because not all of the hamstrings attach to the tibia. The hamstrings are a group of muscles located at the back of the thigh, consisting of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus. While the biceps femoris does attach to the head of the fibula (not the tibia), the other two muscles attach to the ischial tuberosity (not the tibia). Therefore, it is incorrect to say that all of the hamstrings attach to the tibia.

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  • 46. 

    In the emergency room you examine a young boy whose was injured while trying to climb a fence. He says he hit his "bottom" hard while straddling the horizontal bar at the top of the fence. Your examination reveals that his penis and scrotum are edematous as is the lower part of his anterior abdominal wall. Only the most superior aspects of his thighs are also edematous. You suspect the boy:

    • Ruptured his corpus cavernosa and the swelling is due to blood.

    • Bruised his penis and scrotum and the swelling is due to lymph.

    • Ruptured his internal pudendal vein and the swelling is due to blood.

    • Ruptured his deep perineal pouch and the swelling is due to an inflammatory reaction resulting from the release of fluid from the bulbourethral glands

    • Ruptured his spongy urethra and the swelling is due to urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ruptured his spongy urethra and the swelling is due to urine
    Explanation
    The boy's symptoms, including edema in the penis, scrotum, lower abdomen, and superior aspects of the thighs, suggest that there is a rupture in his spongy urethra. This rupture would allow urine to leak into the surrounding tissues, causing the swelling. This explanation is supported by the fact that the swelling is not due to blood, lymph, or an inflammatory reaction from the bulbourethral glands, as these would present differently.

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  • 47. 

    Prostate cancer:

    • Is characterized by a softening of the prostate that can be felt during a digital rectal exam.

    • Often metastasizes to the testes.

    • Is conclusively identified by a positive test of the external iliac lymph nodes.

    • Is best identified rectally when the patient has a full bladder.

    • Is associated with bladder cancer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is best identified rectally when the patient has a full bladder.
    Explanation
    Prostate cancer is best identified rectally when the patient has a full bladder because the full bladder helps to push the prostate gland forward, making it easier to palpate during a digital rectal exam. This technique allows the healthcare provider to feel for any abnormalities or changes in the size, shape, or texture of the prostate gland, which can be indicative of prostate cancer. The full bladder also helps to provide better visualization of the prostate gland during imaging tests such as ultrasound.

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  • 48. 

    The blood that results in penile erection is primarily derived from the:

    • Posterior scrotal arteries.

    • Deep arteries of the penis.

    • Deep branches of the external pudendal arteries.

    • Deep dorsal vein

    • Superficial dorsal veins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep arteries of the penis.
    Explanation
    The blood that results in penile erection is primarily derived from the deep arteries of the penis. These arteries supply the corpora cavernosa, which are the main erectile tissues in the penis. During sexual arousal, these arteries dilate and allow more blood to flow into the penis, leading to an erection. The other options mentioned, such as the posterior scrotal arteries, deep branches of the external pudendal arteries, deep dorsal vein, and superficial dorsal veins, are not primarily responsible for the blood flow that causes penile erection.

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  • 49. 

    The levator ani:

    • Is innervated by pelvic splanchnic nerves.

    • Causes increased urination when spastic.

    • Is part of the urogenital diaphragm.

    • Actively contracts during coughing

    • Actively contracts during inspiration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Actively contracts during coughing
    Explanation
    The levator ani is a group of muscles located in the pelvis that supports the pelvic organs. When a person coughs, the levator ani muscles contract to help stabilize the pelvic floor and prevent any leakage of urine or feces. This contraction is important for maintaining continence during coughing. Therefore, the statement "The levator ani actively contracts during coughing" is correct.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 31, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 31, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 07, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Sksondoy

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