Training Quiz On AMOC Block Test

1. (502e) What color is the stripe of a real warhead?

Blue

Brown

Yellow

Red

2. (502a) Who is responsible the accountability of munitions and overseas the effective and efficient management of the munitions stockpile?

Flight CC/OIC

Weapons Expeditor

MASO

Flight Chief

3. (501a) When 1.4 HD is involved in a fire it should be fought. What is the general withdraw distance?

300 ft

600 ft

2,500 ft

4,000 ft

4. (501a) Which Hazard Class is #1?

Explosives

Gases

Flammable liquids

Flammable solids

5. (502e)

GBU-31 (V)1 "version 1"

GBU-31 (V)3 "version 3"

Submit

6. (501c) What provides an electrically continuous path to ground (enables safe static discharge)?

Grounding

Bonding

De-carting

Electrical Safing

7. (502a) What is used to account for and manage munitions items and MUST have the internet?

MSA

BLU

CAS

GAU

8. (501a) Identify sites which contain pyrotechnic and chemical munitions/agent

Set 1 (red)

Set 2 (yellow)

Set 3 (white)

Submit

9. (502a) What AFSC performs and manages mx, inspections, storage, handling, modification, and accountability of nuclear weapons?

2W1

21A

2W0

2W2

10. (501a) When a 1.1 or 1.5 HD is involved in a fire, only rescue is attempted (Do not fight the fire). What is the normal minimum withdraw distance?

300 ft

600 ft

2,500 ft

4,000 ft

11. (501b) The total weight of all explosive, propellant, and pyrotechnic in one item is called....

New explosive weight (NEW)

Net explosive weight (NEW)

Total explosive weight (TEW)

Complete explosive weight (CEW)

12. (501a) When a 1.2 or 1.6 HD is involved in a fire, attempt to fight the fire in the early stages only. What is the general withdraw distance?

300 ft

600 ft

2,500 ft

4,000 ft

13. (502e) What guidance system of tracking is it when a missile cannot be jammed?

Unstoppable

Gyroscopic

Global Positioning System

Inertial Navigation System

14. (501b) The minimum distance required to protect facilities and personnel not directly related to explosives storage and operations is called...

Inhabited Building Distance (IBD)

Intraline distance (ILD)

Intermagazine distance (IMD)

Inhabited Battle Distance (IBD)

15. (501b) An area containing large amounts of explosives, and used to manage the risks associated with explosives activities to ensure the minimum risk to personnel, equipment, and assets, while meeting mission requirements is called...(MSA, portions of the flight line, Holding Area Munitions (HAM) and hot cargo pad)

Sited Location

Licensed Location

Explosive Location

Licensed Site

16. (501b) What must be done to Identification of explosives-loaded aircraft?

Entries made in aircraft forms--781A (info note)

Entries made in aircraft forms--781K (info note)

Park in the hot cargo pad

Surrounded by cones

17. (501a) What provides a general warning to all personnel and furnish specific guidance for fire-fighting forces and other personnel responding to an emergency, such as disaster control

Placards

Fire Symbols

Hazard Division

Fire Signs

18. (505b) How must munitions/explosives storage areas be secured

With high security padlocks and hasps or internal locking devices (ILDS)

Annual inventory

Active patrols

Remote sensing systems

19. (501c) What equalizes positive or negative electrical charges between two items such as aircraft and munitions trailers?

Grounding

Bonding

De-carting

Electrical Safing

20. (501b) The "Min-Min-Min" rule means expose the minimum number of _, minimum amount of , and minimum amount of _.

Airmen; Explosives; Time

People; Hazard Classes; Time

People; Explosives; Time

People; Expense's; Time

21. (502a) What section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions activities and includes processing of accountable transactions in CAS when relayed from munitions activities?

Material Section

Line Delivery

Systems Section

Production Section

22. (503b)What projectile type has a fuse?

Tracer (light red)

Armor Piercing (black)

High Explosive Incendiary (yellow)

Target Practice (blue)

23. (501a) When 1.3 HD is involved in a fire the fire may be fought if explosives are not directly involved. What is the general withdraw distance?

300 ft

600 ft

2,500 ft

4,000 ft

24. (502e) What powers guided munition while connected to the launcher?

Thermal battery

Thermal grain umbilical

Umbilical

Gas grain generator

25. (502e) Which is a redesigned seeker with unique air frame enhancements, and thrust vectored jet vane controlled nozzle?

AIM-9M

AIM- 9X

AIM- 120

AIM- 129X

26. (503c) Which of the following provides nuclear surety for the MAU-12 by preventing the bell crank from moving and electrically safes breech assembly?

Orifice

Side plates

Ground safety pin

In-flight Safety Lock (IFS)

27. (502a) What identifies minimum number of certified load crew requirements?

UMD

UCML

MTL

UMPR

28. (502e) What guidance system of tracking is it when a missile determines location of target by measuring timing and direction of radio waves?

Radar

Sonar

Frequency Tracking

Active Radar

29. (502b) What component of the Munition Assembly Conveyor II (MAC II) allows lifting of bulk munitions from incoming pallets? (6,000lb capacity pneumatic hoist)

Gantries

Roller Conveyors

Rail Conveyors

Dollies

30. (502a) What AFSC loads and unloads A/C munitions to include Nuclear and Conventional?

2W1

21A

2W0

2W2

31. (502b) What component of the Munition Assembly Conveyor II (MAC II) prevents bomb body from turning while torque is applied?

Banding Cart

Clip

Crimper

Restraint strap

32. (501a) When explosives not involved in fire are dropped or partially armed, non-essential personnel are required to evacuate at least _____ ft?

300

600

2,500

4,000

33. (502b) What are tasks and disseminates to components, subordinate units, and command and control agencies projected sorties/capabilities/forces to targets and specific missions called?

Fragmentary orders (FRAG)

Agile Munition Support Tool (AMST)

Combat Ammunition System (CAS)

Air Tasking Orders (ATO)

34. (501b) An area containing small amounts of explosives, normally outside the MSA (Security Forces, Egress, Aircrew Flight Equipment, etc) is considered.... (Can only have 0 lbs of HD 1.1 and mission essentail quantities of HD 1.4)

Sited Location

Licensed Location

Explosive Location

Licensed Site

35. (502e) Which air to ground missile has both a B model designed for nuclear war and a C model designed to have a conventional 3,000 lb blast frag?

AGM- 65

AGM- 86

AGM- 114

AGM- 56

36. (501b) If a visitor shows up to a sited location all operations must _____.

Pause

Continue under QA supervision

Stop

Include extra safety precations

37. (505a) Which priority level (PL) area includes non-nuclear alert forces and expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems (B-2/JSTARS)

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

38. (505a) Which of the following loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage US war-fighting capability

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

39. (503a) The entire weapons system receives its power from what switch?

Main Armament Control Panel

Aircraft Power Panel

Central Computer Panel

System Override Panel

40. (505a) Which of the following would result in great loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the US. (i.e. Nuclear weapons, Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems, and POTOS)

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

41. (501b) In what instance would you position the aircraft to present minimum hazard to personnel and resources in the event of a mishap?

Forward firing munitions

Non-Explosive loaded aircraft

Chaff and decoys installed

Gun is properly safe (unloaded)

42. (501b) What T.O. governs Handling and Maintenance of Explosives-Loaded Aircraft Explosives-loaded aircraft?

AFMAN 91-201

AFMAN 91-202

TO 1A-1-33

TO 11A-1-33

43. (502a) What section receives, stores, warehouse, break out, inspect, ship, inventory, transport, dispense, locally, and account for munitions and training items?

Material Section

Line Delivery

Systems Section

Production Section

44. (505a) What type of area security is a temporary federalization of non-federal property and is used for aircraft crashes and other unplanned emergencies

Restricted Area

Controlled Area

National Defense Area

Secured Area

45. (502e) Which air to ground missile is designed for close air support, interdiction, and defense suppression missions? (uses EO (B,H,&K) and IIR (D/G) guidance)

AGM- 65

AGM- 86

AGM- 114

AGM- 56

46. (503b) Which gun system has 7 barrels? (A-10)

M61A2

GAU -2

GAU -7

GAU-8

47. (503d) Which of the following is defined as a recurring schedule for the loading of munitions for which a person is certified?

ATO cycle

Academic training

Unit Committed Munitions List

Minimum Proficiency Requirement Loading

48. (502a) What is the best AFSC?

2W1

21A

2W0

2W2

49. (501b) All munitions will be downloaded if any of the following occur, EXCEPT?

Confined space work is required

Placed in fuel barn

Hot work (welding)

Location of outside repair area limits fire response

Bringing visitors around the aircraft

50. (502a) What element works closely with munitions control and weapons expeditors for all flight line support activity?

Support

Line Delivery

Mx Section

Material

51. (502e) Which guided munition is all weather, goes beyond visual range, and uses four identical thermal batteries power servo-actuators to steer the missile?

AIM-9M

AIM- 9X

AIM- 120

AIM- 129X

52. (503d) Which of the following is not normally a reason for decertification of load crews?

Failing an eval

Negative attitude

Lack of technical proficiency

Committing a safety or reliability error

53. (502b) Each MAC is equipped with how many dollies?

15

25

35

45

54. (501c) A _____ is a explosive or pyrotechnic component that initiates an explosive train and is activated by application of electrical energy.

Electro-Explosive Fuse (EEF)

Electro-Explosive Device (EED)

Electro-Activated Device (EAD)

Static-Explosive Device (SED)

55. (502a) What AFSC Stores, maintains, assembles, issues, and delivers nonnuclear munitions?

2W1

21A

2W0

2W2

56. (502a) What is the single point of contact for developing, coordinating, publishing, and distributing mx schedules?

Combat plans/mobility/training standardization

System Standards

Munitions plans and scheduling

Production Section

57. (502b) What type of air regulator is used to route and regulate pneumatic power to the MAC?

MC-5

MC-7

MJ-1

MJ-7

58. (505a) Which priority level (PL) area includes conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

59. (505a) What type of incident reporting is for unusual incidents, probably or actually hostile, affecting priority level (PL) 1, 2, and/or 3 resources at an installation or dispersed site

Covered Wagon

Eagle Eyes

Active Shooter

Green Dot

60. (501c) ___ will have an electromagnetic radiation survey on file for review, which gives safe transmit distances.

Munitions Safety Officer

Wing Weapons Manager

Wing Safety

Public Safety

61. (503b) A UALS attaches to what component?

Gun Loading Unit (GLU)

Gun Access Unit (GAU)

Entrance Unit

Access Unit

62. (502a) What is used to assign all precision guided missiles and tack serviceability, time change, and mx history?

Unit Committed Munitions List

Tactical Munitions Reporting System

Air Force Specialty Codes

Munitions Employment Plan

63. (503b) All components of an Aircraft Round attach to or are contained inside what?

Projectile

Propellent

Cartridge Case

64. (502e) When tracking energy origin, the energy origin can be described as active when the target is..

Illuminates itself

Illuminated by the weapon itself (fire and forget)

Illuminated by an outside source

Illuminated by activity

65. (505b) What form is used to control keys

DD Form 2213

DD Form 2412

AF Form 4011

AF Form 2432

66. Placards are not distinctively shaped

True

False

67. (502e) What compensates for launch transients, winds aloft, surface winds, and adverse weather?

Wind Corrected Munitions Diameter (WCMD)

Wind Corrected Munitions Perpetrator (WCMP)

Wind Adjusted Munitions Dispenser (WAMD)

Wind Corrected Munitions Dispenser (WCMD)

68. (503d) The wing weapons manager is appointed by _______.

Wing/CC

MXG/CC

AMU OIC

Munitions Supervision

69. (503a) What Stores Management System works closely with and is dependent upon the aircrafts avionics system?

Avionical SMS

Hybrid SMS

Analog SMS

Digital SMS

70. (505b) How many keys must a high and medium security lock be received with

2

3

4

7

71. (503b) What stops the gun system from spinning when all rounds have been fired?

Clearing Cam

Last Round Switch

Rounds Fired Switch

Drum Helix

72. (503c) Which gas operated launcher carries 6 practice bombs and is used for air to ground training on the F-15E and F-16?

SUU-20

BRU-46

BRU-47

GAU-8

73. (505b) How often must locks and hasps be inspected and lubricated

Weekly

Monthly

Every 6 Months

Annually

74. (505a) Which of the following would cause significant harm to the strategic capability of the US (i.e. non-nuclear alert forces, Selected critical command, control, and communications (C3), and (B-2/JSTARS))

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

75. (505b) Who appoints the Key and lock custodian

Group/CC

Wing/CC

Munitions Supervision

Team Leader

76. (502b) What component of the Munition Assembly Conveyor II (MAC II) makes a 48-foot conveyor that fits between and under each gantry for dolly travel?

Gantries

Roller Conveyors

Rail Conveyors

Interface Control Board (ICB)

77. (501b) A ____ is any permanent structure, utility, POL, at risk from either blast or fire effects of a PES. (may or may not contain explosives)

Explosive Location (EL)

Exposed Location (EL)

Explosive Site (ES)

Exposed Site (ES)

78. (502a) What section maintains and delivers guided/unguided munitions?

Support Section

Line Delivery Section

Mx Section

Production Section

79. (502b) What makes a 48-foot conveyor that fits between and under each gantry for dolly travel?

Dollies

Rail Conveyors

Bomb bars

Roller conveyors

80. (502a) Who is responsible for overall management of wing munitions support?

Sq CC

Wing CC

Flight CC/OIC

MASO

81. (502e) Which component of a guided bomb guides the weapon?

Computer control group

Airfoil group

Fins

Remote

82. (505b) How often must the primary, spare and control keys be inventoried by using the serial number

Monthly

Annually

Daily or at the end of the week, if the keys were not issued

At the end of each shift or weekly, if the keys were not issued

83. (505a) What type of area security is a used for priority level (PL) 4 assets

Restricted Area

Controlled Area

National Defense Area

Secured Area

84. (502e) What guidance system of tracking is it when a missile homes in on infrared energy generated by the target?

Infrared

Imaging Infrared

Radar

Laser

85. (503c) Which air intercept missile uses both striker points and an umbilical interface in its launcher system?

AIM-9

AGM-65

AIM-120

AGM-114

86. (502c) What is capable of carrying 8 ALCMs and used on the B-1, B-2, and B-52?

LAU-142

Pylon Launcher

Revolving launcher

Rotary launcher

87. (505a) What type of area security uses protective measures such as red lines, chain link fences, and line badges

Restricted Area

Controlled Area

National Defense Area

Secured Area

88. (505b) What risk category requires two levels of IDS (cant find full spelling of IDS L)

Very high risk (Category I)

High risk (Category II)

Medium risk (Category III)

Very high risk (Category I) and high risk (Category II)

89. (503a) What indicates everything from the selected stations to what type of munition is selected for release?

Armament Advisory light Panel

Aircraft Power Panel

JHMCS

Heads Up Display

90. (505a) Which priority level (PL) is a munitions storage area (MSA)?

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

91. (502b) Which TO is used for Rapid Assembly Procedures Inspection of Non-Nuclear Munition?

TO 11A-1-33

TO 11B-1-33

TO 11A-1-63

TO 11B-1-63

92. (503c) Which single rail launcher supports all models of AGM-65?

MAU-12

LAU-117

LAU-128

LAU-142

93. (503d) _____ are munitions related tasks that do not require certification.

Task Qualification Items

Job Qualification Standards

Job Performance Requirements

Minimum Proficiency Requirement Loading

94. (501a)

Division 1

Division 2

Division 3

Division 4

Submit

95. (502a) What element Develops munitions employment plans?

Combat plans/mobility/training standardization

System Standards

Munitions plans and scheduling

Production

96. (503d)

Preload

All up round (AUR)

Submit

97. (503d) Which of the following types of munitions is used by the unit to execute test/training or their DOC war plan?

Inert

Limited

Primary

Support

98. (505a) Which of the following would adversely affect the operational capability of the air force

PL 1 resources

PL 2 resources

PL 3 resources

PL 4 resources

99. (503a) Chaff and Flare dispensing controls are normally found where on Fighters?

Chaff and Flare Panel

Main Armament Control Panel

Engine Throttle grips

Electronic warfare officers station

100. (502e) Which guided bomb unit has two versions, one utilizing a Mk- 84 warhead and another a BLU- 109 warhead?

GBU- 32

GBU- 38

GBU- 39

GBU- 31

101. (503c) The ______ is a large wing pylon for the B-52 and includes heavy stores adapter beams, which can carry up to six MAU-12s each.

Rotary launcher

28-carry Conventional Bomb Module

MIL-STD-1760 Enhanced Conventional Bomb Module

Integrated Conventional Stores Management System

102. (503b) What causes a 20mm gun system to feed, chamber, lock, fire, extract, and eject spent cartridges?

Breech Bolts

Rotor

Main Cam Path

Transfer Unit

103. (503a) What panel controls the the central computer power and may also monitor the entire aircraft?

Main Armament Control Panel

Aircraft Power Panel

Central Computer Panel

System Override Panel

Training Quiz On AMOC Block Test

1. (502e) What color is the stripe of a real warhead?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. (502a) Who is responsible the accountability of munitions and overseas the effective and efficient management of the munitions stockpile?

3. (501a) When 1.4 HD is involved in a fire it should be fought. What is the general withdraw distance?

4. (501a) Which Hazard Class is #1?

5. (502e)

6. (501c) What provides an electrically continuous path to ground (enables safe static discharge)?

7. (502a) What is used to account for and manage munitions items and MUST have the internet?

8. (501a) Identify sites which contain pyrotechnic and chemical munitions/agent

9. (502a) What AFSC performs and manages mx, inspections, storage, handling, modification, and accountability of nuclear weapons?

10. (501a) When a 1.1 or 1.5 HD is involved in a fire, only rescue is attempted (Do not fight the fire). What is the normal minimum withdraw distance?

11. (501b) The total weight of all explosive, propellant, and pyrotechnic in one item is called....

12. (501a) When a 1.2 or 1.6 HD is involved in a fire, attempt to fight the fire in the early stages only. What is the general withdraw distance?

13. (502e) What guidance system of tracking is it when a missile cannot be jammed?

14. (501b) The minimum distance required to protect facilities and personnel not directly related to explosives storage and operations is called...

16. (501b) What must be done to Identification of explosives-loaded aircraft?

17. (501a) What provides a general warning to all personnel and furnish specific guidance for fire-fighting forces and other personnel responding to an emergency, such as disaster control

18. (505b) How must munitions/explosives storage areas be secured

19. (501c) What equalizes positive or negative electrical charges between two items such as aircraft and munitions trailers?

20. (501b) The "Min-Min-Min" rule means expose the minimum number of _____, minimum amount of ____, and minimum amount of _____.

21. (502a) What section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions activities and includes processing of accountable transactions in CAS when relayed from munitions activities?

22. (503b)What projectile type has a fuse?

23. (501a) When 1.3 HD is involved in a fire the fire may be fought if explosives are not directly involved. What is the general withdraw distance?

24. (502e) What powers guided munition while connected to the launcher?

25. (502e) Which is a redesigned seeker with unique air frame enhancements, and thrust vectored jet vane controlled nozzle?

26. (503c) Which of the following provides nuclear surety for the MAU-12 by preventing the bell crank from moving and electrically safes breech assembly?

27. (502a) What identifies minimum number of certified load crew requirements?

28. (502e) What guidance system of tracking is it when a missile determines location of target by measuring timing and direction of radio waves?

29. (502b) What component of the Munition Assembly Conveyor II (MAC II) allows lifting of bulk munitions from incoming pallets? (6,000lb capacity pneumatic hoist)

30. (502a) What AFSC loads and unloads A/C munitions to include Nuclear and Conventional?

31. (502b) What component of the Munition Assembly Conveyor II (MAC II) prevents bomb body from turning while torque is applied?

32. (501a) When explosives not involved in fire are dropped or partially armed, non-essential personnel are required to evacuate at least _____ ft?

33. (502b) What are tasks and disseminates to components, subordinate units, and command and control agencies projected sorties/capabilities/forces to targets and specific missions called?

34. (501b) An area containing small amounts of explosives, normally outside the MSA (Security Forces, Egress, Aircrew Flight Equipment, etc) is considered.... (Can only have 0 lbs of HD 1.1 and mission essentail quantities of HD 1.4)

35. (502e) Which air to ground missile has both a B model designed for nuclear war and a C model designed to have a conventional 3,000 lb blast frag?

36. (501b) If a visitor shows up to a sited location all operations must _____.

37. (505a) Which priority level (PL) area includes non-nuclear alert forces and expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems (B-2/JSTARS)

38. (505a) Which of the following loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage US war-fighting capability

39. (503a) The entire weapons system receives its power from what switch?

40. (505a) Which of the following would result in great loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the US. (i.e. Nuclear weapons, Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems, and POTOS)

41. (501b) In what instance would you position the aircraft to present minimum hazard to personnel and resources in the event of a mishap?

42. (501b) What T.O. governs Handling and Maintenance of Explosives-Loaded Aircraft Explosives-loaded aircraft?

43. (502a) What section receives, stores, warehouse, break out, inspect, ship, inventory, transport, dispense, locally, and account for munitions and training items?

44. (505a) What type of area security is a temporary federalization of non-federal property and is used for aircraft crashes and other unplanned emergencies

45. (502e) Which air to ground missile is designed for close air support, interdiction, and defense suppression missions? (uses EO (B,H,&K) and IIR (D/G) guidance)

46. (503b) Which gun system has 7 barrels? (A-10)

47. (503d) Which of the following is defined as a recurring schedule for the loading of munitions for which a person is certified?

48. (502a) What is the best AFSC?

49. (501b) All munitions will be downloaded if any of the following occur, EXCEPT?

50. (502a) What element works closely with munitions control and weapons expeditors for all flight line support activity?

51. (502e) Which guided munition is all weather, goes beyond visual range, and uses four identical thermal batteries power servo-actuators to steer the missile?

52. (503d) Which of the following is not normally a reason for decertification of load crews?

53. (502b) Each MAC is equipped with how many dollies?

54. (501c) A _____ is a explosive or pyrotechnic component that initiates an explosive train and is activated by application of electrical energy.

55. (502a) What AFSC Stores, maintains, assembles, issues, and delivers nonnuclear munitions?

56. (502a) What is the single point of contact for developing, coordinating, publishing, and distributing mx schedules?

57. (502b) What type of air regulator is used to route and regulate pneumatic power to the MAC?

58. (505a) Which priority level (PL) area includes conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives

59. (505a) What type of incident reporting is for unusual incidents, probably or actually hostile, affecting priority level (PL) 1, 2, and/or 3 resources at an installation or dispersed site

60. (501c) ___ will have an electromagnetic radiation survey on file for review, which gives safe transmit distances.

61. (503b) A UALS attaches to what component?

62. (502a) What is used to assign all precision guided missiles and tack serviceability, time change, and mx history?

63. (503b) All components of an Aircraft Round attach to or are contained inside what?

64. (502e) When tracking energy origin, the energy origin can be described as active when the target is..

65. (505b) What form is used to control keys

66. Placards are not distinctively shaped

67. (502e) What compensates for launch transients, winds aloft, surface winds, and adverse weather?

68. (503d) The wing weapons manager is appointed by _______.

69. (503a) What Stores Management System works closely with and is dependent upon the aircrafts avionics system?

70. (505b) How many keys must a high and medium security lock be received with

71. (503b) What stops the gun system from spinning when all rounds have been fired?

72. (503c) Which gas operated launcher carries 6 practice bombs and is used for air to ground training on the F-15E and F-16?

73. (505b) How often must locks and hasps be inspected and lubricated

74. (505a) Which of the following would cause significant harm to the strategic capability of the US (i.e. non-nuclear alert forces, Selected critical command, control, and communications (C3), and (B-2/JSTARS))

75. (505b) Who appoints the Key and lock custodian

76. (502b) What component of the Munition Assembly Conveyor II (MAC II) makes a 48-foot conveyor that fits between and under each gantry for dolly travel?

77. (501b) A ____ is any permanent structure, utility, POL, at risk from either blast or fire effects of a PES. (may or may not contain explosives)

78. (502a) What section maintains and delivers guided/unguided munitions?

20. (501b) The "Min-Min-Min" rule means expose the minimum number of _, minimum amount of , and minimum amount of _.