AMOC Block 3 Test Aircraft Surface

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (301a) What are the four forces acting on an aircraft in flight?

    • Lift, thrust, drag, weight
    • Lift, thrust, drag, mass
    • Lift, power, drag, weight
    • Lift, thrust, friction, weight
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About This Quiz


Welcome to this Amoc Block 3 Test on Aircraft Surface! In this one, we’ll be seeing how much you know about the four different forces at play during a flight, the main three types of drag, how to decrease induced drag and much more! What can you tell us?

AMOC Block 3 Test Aircraft Surface - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (301a) What are the three main types of drag?

    • Skin friction, interference, form

    • Induced, parasitic, wave

    • Induced, skin friction, wave

    • Induced, interference, wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Induced, parasitic, wave
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "induced, parasitic, wave." Induced drag is caused by the generation of lift, with an increase in lift resulting in an increase in induced drag. Parasitic drag is caused by factors such as skin friction and interference, which increase as the speed of the object increases. Wave drag is caused by the formation of shock waves as an object approaches or exceeds the speed of sound.

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  • 3. 

    (301a) How do you decrease induced drag?

    • Wax the aircraft

    • Spoilers

    • Winglets

    • Wing fence

    Correct Answer
    A. Winglets
    Explanation
    Winglets are used to decrease induced drag. Induced drag is caused by the generation of lift and is inversely proportional to the aspect ratio of the wing. Winglets, which are small vertical extensions at the tips of the wings, help to increase the effective aspect ratio of the wing, reducing the vortices formed at the wingtips and subsequently decreasing induced drag. This improves the overall efficiency of the aircraft and reduces fuel consumption.

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  • 4. 

    (301a) What are the four characteristics of air?

    • P:Pressure, V:Viscosity, d:Density, T:Temperature

    • P:Pressure, R:Gas Content (humidity), d:mass, T:Temperature

    • P:Pressure, R:Gas Content (humidity), d:Density, V:Volume

    • P:Pressure, R:Gas Content (humidity), d:Density, T:Temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. P:Pressure, R:Gas Content (humidity), d:Density, T:Temperature
    Explanation
    The correct answer is P:Pressure, R:Gas Content (humidity), d:Density, T:Temperature. These four characteristics accurately describe air. Pressure refers to the force exerted by air molecules on a surface. Gas content or humidity refers to the amount of water vapor present in the air. Density is the mass of air molecules per unit volume, and temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of air molecules.

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  • 5. 

    (301a) What wing configuration increases roll stability?

    • Dihedral

    • Anhedral

    • Mid Wing

    • High AOA

    Correct Answer
    A. Dihedral
    Explanation
    Dihedral is a wing configuration that increases roll stability. Dihedral refers to the upward angle of the wings when viewed from the front or top of the aircraft. This design causes the aircraft to naturally roll back to its original position when disturbed, making it more stable in flight. Anhedral, on the other hand, refers to a downward angle of the wings and reduces roll stability. Mid wing and high AOA (Angle of Attack) are not directly related to roll stability.

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  • 6. 

    (301a) What are three types of boundary layer control devices?

    • Slats, stabs, vortex generator

    • Stakes, fuselage, wing fence

    • Slats, wing fence, winglets

    • Slats, wing fence, vortex generator

    Correct Answer
    A. Slats, wing fence, vortex generator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is slats, wing fence, and vortex generator. These three types of boundary layer control devices are used in aviation to improve the aerodynamic performance of an aircraft. Slats are movable surfaces on the leading edge of the wing that increase lift at low speeds. Wing fences are vertical or horizontal surfaces attached to the wing to control airflow and reduce drag. Vortex generators are small devices that create vortices in the airflow, improving the stability and control of the aircraft.

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  • 7. 

    (301b) What are the three axis of movement for aircraft

    • X, Y, Z

    • Roll, Pitch, Yaw

    • Roll, Yaw, Tilt

    • Roll, Pitch, Camber

    Correct Answer
    A. Roll, Pitch, Yaw
    Explanation
    The three axis of movement for an aircraft are roll, pitch, and yaw. Roll refers to the rotation of the aircraft along its longitudinal axis, causing one wing to rise and the other to lower. Pitch refers to the rotation of the aircraft along its lateral axis, causing the nose to move up or down. Yaw refers to the rotation of the aircraft along its vertical axis, causing the nose to move left or right. These movements are essential for controlling the direction and stability of the aircraft during flight.

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  • 8. 

    (301b) Which combine flight control surface controls pitch and yaw?

    • Flaperons

    • Ruddervator

    • Stabalator

    • Elevon

    Correct Answer
    A. Ruddervator
    Explanation
    A ruddervator is a combination of a rudder and an elevator, which means it can control both pitch and yaw. The ruddervator is typically found on aircraft with a V-tail configuration, where the traditional vertical stabilizer and horizontal stabilizer are combined into a single unit. By moving the ruddervator, the pilot can control the aircraft's pitch (up and down movement) as well as its yaw (side to side movement). Therefore, the ruddervator is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 9. 

    (301b) What flight control surface is always lowered during take off and landing? (they increase left and drag)

    • Elevator

    • Spoiler

    • Flaps

    • Speed brakes

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaps
    Explanation
    Flaps are always lowered during take off and landing. Flaps are a type of flight control surface located on the wings of an aircraft. When the flaps are lowered, they increase the lift and drag of the aircraft, allowing it to maintain a slower speed and a steeper descent angle during landing. This increased lift helps the aircraft to generate more lift at lower speeds, enabling safer takeoffs and landings. Therefore, flaps are an essential component for the aircraft's control and stability during these critical phases of flight.

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  • 10. 

    (301b) What helicopter flight control(s) direct pitch and roll movement?

    • Tail rotor(s)

    • Swash Plate and Main Rotor

    • Collective

    • Horizontal Stabalizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Swash Plate and Main Rotor
    Explanation
    The swash plate and main rotor are responsible for directing the pitch and roll movement of a helicopter. The swash plate is a mechanical device that allows the pilot to control the pitch of the rotor blades, which in turn controls the vertical movement of the helicopter. The main rotor, on the other hand, generates lift and provides the necessary force for the helicopter to roll or tilt from side to side. Together, these two components play a crucial role in maneuvering the helicopter in the desired direction.

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  • 11. 

    (301b) Why is it necessary to hanger an aircraft for flight control rigging?

    • Constant temperature and light

    • Constant supervision and protection from the wind

    • Constant temperature and protection from the wind

    • Constant power and protection from the wind

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant temperature and protection from the wind
    Explanation
    It is necessary to hang an aircraft for flight control rigging because it provides a controlled environment with constant temperature and protection from the wind. Hanging the aircraft allows for accurate measurements and adjustments to be made to the flight controls, ensuring that they are properly aligned and functioning correctly. The constant temperature helps maintain the integrity of the materials and prevents any expansion or contraction that could affect the rigging. Additionally, protection from the wind eliminates any external factors that could interfere with the rigging process.

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  • 12. 

    (301e) The electrochemical deterioration of a substance because of a reaction to the environment defines what?

    • Pitting

    • Corrosion

    • Heat reaction

    • Natural state of metals

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrosion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is corrosion because the electrochemical deterioration of a substance due to a reaction with the environment is commonly referred to as corrosion. Corrosion occurs when a metal is exposed to moisture, oxygen, or other chemicals, leading to the formation of rust or other forms of degradation. Pitting, heat reaction, and natural state of metals do not accurately describe the process of electrochemical deterioration caused by environmental reactions.

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  • 13. 

    (301e) Which of the following are conditions that must exist for corrosion to occur? 

    • Anode

    • Heat

    • Low temp

    • Electrode

    Correct Answer
    A. Anode
    Explanation
    Corrosion occurs when there is an anode present. An anode is the electrode where oxidation takes place during a redox reaction. In the context of corrosion, the anode is the metal or material that is being corroded. Without an anode, there would be no corrosion. The other options, such as heat and low temperature, are not directly related to the conditions necessary for corrosion to occur.

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  • 14. 

    (301e) What type of corrosion occurs at a contact point of dissimilar metals when an electrolyte is present?

    • Pitting

    • Uniform

    • Galvanic

    • Exfoliation

    Correct Answer
    A. Galvanic
    Explanation
    Galvanic corrosion occurs at a contact point of dissimilar metals when an electrolyte is present. This type of corrosion happens when two different metals are in contact with each other and an electrolyte, such as water or saltwater, is present. The electrolyte acts as a conductor, allowing a flow of electrons between the metals. This creates an electrochemical reaction, causing the metal with a higher electrochemical potential to corrode while the metal with a lower electrochemical potential remains protected. Galvanic corrosion can result in localized damage, known as pitting, on the metal surface.

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  • 15. 

    (301e) Corrective maintenance depends on all of the following except what? 

    • Type of surface

    • Damaged surface area

    • Degree of corrosion

    • Visual extent of damage

    Correct Answer
    A. Visual extent of damage
    Explanation
    Corrective maintenance depends on the type of surface, damaged surface area, and degree of corrosion. The visual extent of damage is not a factor that affects corrective maintenance.

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  • 16. 

    (301e) Which of the following is the most common method for surface treating in the AF? 

    • Painting

    • Coating

    • Plating

    • Washing

    Correct Answer
    A. Painting
    Explanation
    Painting is the most common method for surface treating in the AF because it is a cost-effective and versatile way to protect and enhance the appearance of surfaces. Painting involves applying a layer of paint to the surface, which creates a barrier against corrosion, weathering, and other forms of damage. It also allows for customization and color coding, making it suitable for various applications in the AF, such as aircraft, vehicles, and equipment. Additionally, painting can be easily applied and maintained, making it a practical choice for surface treatment.

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  • 17. 

    (302a) Which system develops, limits, and direct pressure to actuate various mechanisms on the aircraft?

    • Fuel System

    • Aircraft Structural

    • Hydraulic System

    • Engine

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydraulic System
    Explanation
    The hydraulic system develops, limits, and directs pressure to actuate various mechanisms on the aircraft. It uses fluid power to transmit force and motion, allowing for the operation of components such as landing gear, brakes, flight controls, and cargo doors. The hydraulic system is essential for the safe and efficient operation of an aircraft, providing the necessary power to perform critical functions during flight.

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  • 18. 

    (302a) Which of the following components do the hydraulic system operate with engine driven pump?

    • Wings

    • Canopy

    • Landing Gear light

    • Landing gear

    Correct Answer
    A. Landing gear
    Explanation
    The hydraulic system operates with an engine-driven pump to control and operate the landing gear. The landing gear is an essential component of an aircraft that allows it to take off, land, and taxi safely. The hydraulic system provides the necessary power to extend and retract the landing gear, ensuring proper functionality and safety during flight operations.

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  • 19. 

    (302a) Which type of hydraulic fluid is mainly used on USAF Aircraft?

    • MIL-H-5606

    • MIL-H-83282

    • MIL-H-8446

    • MIL-H-9321

    Correct Answer
    A. MIL-H-83282
    Explanation
    MIL-H-83282 is the correct answer because it is the type of hydraulic fluid mainly used on USAF Aircraft.

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  • 20. 

    (302a) What is the color of the MIL-H-83282 hydraulic fluid?

    • Blue

    • Clear

    • Pink

    • Red

    Correct Answer
    A. Red
    Explanation
    The color of the MIL-H-83282 hydraulic fluid is red.

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  • 21. 

    (302a) Identify the characteristics of MIL-H-83282 hydraulic fluid

    • Synthetic based, Fire Resistant

    • Petroleum based, Flammable

    • Ester fluid, Fire resistant

    • Synthetic based, Flammable

    Correct Answer
    A. Synthetic based, Fire Resistant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is synthetic based, fire resistant. MIL-H-83282 hydraulic fluid is a type of hydraulic fluid that is made from synthetic materials and is designed to be fire resistant. This is an important characteristic for hydraulic fluid as it helps to prevent fires and ensure the safety of the equipment and personnel.

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  • 22. 

    (302a) What are the characteristics of hydraulic hoses?

    • Aluminum, low pressure

    • Rubber/Teflon, flexible

    • Titanium

    • Stainless steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Rubber/Teflon, flexible
    Explanation
    Hydraulic hoses are typically made of rubber or Teflon material because they need to be flexible in order to handle the high pressures and movements involved in hydraulic systems. Aluminum, titanium, and stainless steel are not suitable materials for hydraulic hoses as they are not flexible enough to withstand the constant pressure and movement. Therefore, the correct answer is rubber/Teflon, flexible.

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  • 23. 

    (302a)  What aircraft component contains stainless steel tubing in exposed areas?

    • Landing gear

    • Flap actuator

    • Aileron Actuator

    • Canopy actuator

    Correct Answer
    A. Landing gear
    Explanation
    The landing gear is the correct answer because it contains stainless steel tubing in exposed areas. Stainless steel is often used in aircraft components for its corrosion resistance and strength, making it suitable for the demanding conditions of the landing gear. The exposed areas of the landing gear require durable materials to withstand the elements and potential damage during landing and takeoff.

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  • 24. 

    (302a) What is the purpose of the hydraulic pump?

    • Supply unpressured fluid to system components

    • Store pressurized fluid

    • Supply fluid under pressure to components

    • Cool-down overheated hydraulic fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply fluid under pressure to components
    Explanation
    The purpose of the hydraulic pump is to supply fluid under pressure to components. This is necessary in hydraulic systems to generate the force required for various operations. The pump pressurizes the fluid and ensures that it is delivered to the different components, allowing them to perform their intended functions effectively.

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  • 25. 

    (302a)  What is the primary source of pressurized hydraulic fluid

    • Accumulator

    • Actuators

    • Suction boost pump

    • Engine Driven Pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine Driven Pump
    Explanation
    The primary source of pressurized hydraulic fluid is the engine driven pump. This pump is directly connected to the engine and is responsible for generating the necessary pressure to operate the hydraulic system. It draws fluid from the reservoir and pressurizes it before distributing it to the various actuators and components of the system. The engine driven pump is essential for the proper functioning of the hydraulic system and ensures that there is a constant and reliable supply of pressurized fluid.

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  • 26. 

    (302a) What is the purpose of filters in the hydraulic system?

    • Remove contaminants

    • Store fluid

    • Distribute fluid

    • Maintain pressurized fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove contaminants
    Explanation
    Filters in a hydraulic system serve the purpose of removing contaminants. Contaminants such as dirt, debris, and particles can enter the hydraulic system and cause damage to the components, leading to reduced efficiency and potential failure. By using filters, these contaminants are trapped and prevented from circulating within the system, ensuring clean fluid flows through the system and minimizing the risk of damage. Removing contaminants also helps to maintain the overall performance and longevity of the hydraulic system.

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  • 27. 

    (302a) What is the purpose of the pressure transmitter?

    • Transmit electric signal to gauge in cockpit

    • Transmit mechanical energy to hydraulic power

    • Close electrical circuit

    • Illuminate master warning light

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmit electric signal to gauge in cockpit
    Explanation
    The purpose of the pressure transmitter is to transmit an electric signal to a gauge in the cockpit. This allows the pilot or operator to monitor and display the pressure readings in real-time, providing crucial information about the system's performance and ensuring safe operation.

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  • 28. 

    (302a) What are the four functions of the accumulator?

    • A. Stop fluid flow, relieve excess pressure, store fluid, Assist pump

    • B. Allow fluid flow, allow excess pressure, dump fluid, Assist pump

    • C. Reserve un-pressurized fluid, dampen surge pressure, assist pump under peak load, supply normal system only

    • D. Reserve fluid under pressure, dampen surge pressure, assist pump under peak load, supply emergency pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Reserve fluid under pressure, dampen surge pressure, assist pump under peak load, supply emergency pressure
    Explanation
    The accumulator serves four functions: to reserve fluid under pressure, dampen surge pressure, assist the pump under peak load, and supply emergency pressure. This means that the accumulator stores fluid under pressure, which can be used in emergencies or to assist the pump during periods of high demand. It also helps to stabilize the pressure in the system by dampening any surges or fluctuations. Overall, the accumulator plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning and stability of the hydraulic system.

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  • 29. 

    (302a) Which valve allow fluid flow in 1 direction?

    • Shutoff valve

    • Check valve

    • Selector valve

    • Sequencing valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Check valve
    Explanation
    A check valve is designed to allow fluid flow in only one direction, preventing backflow or reverse flow. It contains a one-way valve that opens when the fluid flows in the desired direction and closes to prevent flow in the opposite direction. This ensures that the fluid can only move in a single direction, making it an appropriate choice for applications where backflow needs to be prevented.

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  • 30. 

    (302a) Which valve directs fluid flow to or from actuator

    • Shutoff valve

    • Selector valve

    • Sequencing valve

    • Relief valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Selector valve
    Explanation
    A selector valve is a type of valve that directs fluid flow to or from an actuator. It allows the operator to choose which actuator or system to activate by selecting the desired flow path. This valve is commonly used in hydraulic and pneumatic systems where multiple actuators need to be controlled independently.

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  • 31. 

    (302a) What is the purpose of the sequencing valve?

    • Directs fluid flow to or from actuator

    • Allow fluid flow in 1 direction

    • Provide pressure in timed increments

    • Relieve excess pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide pressure in timed increments
    Explanation
    The purpose of the sequencing valve is to provide pressure in timed increments. This means that it controls the timing and amount of pressure that is delivered to the actuator. It ensures that the actuator receives the necessary pressure at specific intervals, allowing for precise and controlled movement.

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  • 32. 

    (302a) Which components changes hydraulic pressure to mechanical force?

    • Pump

    • Valves

    • Accumulators

    • Actuators

    Correct Answer
    A. Actuators
    Explanation
    Actuators are the components that convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical force. They are responsible for converting the energy from the hydraulic system into physical movement or force. Actuators are commonly used in various applications, such as in industrial machinery, robotics, and automotive systems, where they play a crucial role in translating the hydraulic pressure into the desired mechanical output.

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  • 33. 

    (302b) What is the purpose of the quick disconnect?

    • Stop flow of fluid to normal system

    • Stop flow of fluid to emergency system

    • Connection for hydraulic test stand

    • Connection for Dash 60

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection for hydraulic test stand
    Explanation
    The purpose of the quick disconnect is to provide a connection for a hydraulic test stand. This allows for easy and efficient testing of hydraulic systems without the need for complex and time-consuming connections.

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  • 34. 

    (302b) Which of the following is a safety precaution in hydraulic maintenance?

    • Do not wear PPE

    • Allow higher ranked airman to do the work

    • Wear reflective belt

    • Require visual confirmation that surface is clear prior to movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Require visual confirmation that surface is clear prior to movement
    Explanation
    Requiring visual confirmation that the surface is clear prior to movement is a safety precaution in hydraulic maintenance. This ensures that there are no obstructions or hazards in the path of the hydraulic equipment before it is operated or moved, reducing the risk of accidents or damage. It is important to visually inspect the area to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment.

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  • 35. 

    (304b) Which engine component accelerates and direct gases to turbine rotors?

    • Nozzle guide vanes

    • Turbine rotor assembly

    • Labyrinth seals

    • Clamshells

    Correct Answer
    A. Nozzle guide vanes
    Explanation
    Nozzle guide vanes are responsible for accelerating and directing gases to the turbine rotors. They are designed to guide the flow of hot gases from the combustion chamber towards the turbine blades. By controlling the direction and velocity of the gases, the nozzle guide vanes ensure efficient energy transfer to the turbine rotors, which in turn drives the engine.

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  • 36. 

    (304b) What slows down air on supersonic aircraft and provides subsonic air to the engine?

    • Axial Flow compressor

    • Stator Vanes

    • Convergent Divergent inlet

    • Reduction Gear box

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergent Divergent inlet
    Explanation
    The convergent-divergent inlet is responsible for slowing down the supersonic air and providing subsonic air to the engine. This type of inlet has a converging section that compresses the incoming air and a diverging section that expands the air to subsonic speeds before it enters the engine. This design allows for efficient air compression and prevents the engine from receiving supersonic air, which could cause damage and reduce performance.

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  • 37. 

    (304b) What is the purpose of the inlet guide vains (IGVs)?

    • Supports radially

    • Connects the turbine to the compressor

    • Makes it possible to use a smaller starter.

    • Direct air into compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct air into compressor
    Explanation
    The purpose of the inlet guide vanes (IGVs) is to direct air into the compressor. The IGVs are designed to control the flow of air entering the compressor, ensuring that it is directed efficiently and effectively. By directing the air into the compressor, the IGVs help to optimize the performance of the compressor, leading to improved overall system efficiency.

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  • 38. 

    (304b) What are the two types of axial flow compressors?

    • Single spool and Double spool

    • Spool and Dual spool

    • Single spool and Dual spool

    • Dual spool and Triple spool

    Correct Answer
    A. Single spool and Dual spool
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Single spool and Dual spool. Axial flow compressors can be categorized into two types based on the number of spools they have. A single spool compressor consists of only one rotor and one stator, while a dual spool compressor has two rotors and two stators. These spools are responsible for compressing the incoming air in different stages, allowing for better efficiency and control of the compression process.

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  • 39. 

    (304b) What connects high pressure compressor (HPC) drive shaft and accessory drive gearbox?

    • Compressor intermediate case

    • Tower shaft

    • The drive transmission

    • Dual spool

    Correct Answer
    A. Tower shaft
    Explanation
    The high pressure compressor (HPC) drive shaft and accessory drive gearbox are connected by the tower shaft.

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  • 40. 

    (304b) Which combustion section has a single concentric burner can and used on newer aircraft

    • Annular combustion chamber

    • Can-annular combustion chamber

    • Can combustion chamber

    • Transition liner

    Correct Answer
    A. Annular combustion chamber
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the annular combustion chamber. This type of combustion section has a single concentric burner can and is used on newer aircraft. The annular combustion chamber allows for better fuel-air mixing and combustion efficiency compared to other types of combustion chambers. It also provides a more compact design, which is beneficial for modern aircraft with limited space.

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  • 41. 

    (304b)What engine component reduces rotation speed for propeller?

    • Powerplant Section

    • Turbo prop

    • Torquemeter assembly

    • Reduction gear box

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduction gear box
    Explanation
    The reduction gear box is the engine component that reduces the rotation speed for the propeller. This is necessary in turbo prop engines, where the propeller is driven by a turbine. The reduction gear box allows the turbine to rotate at high speeds while reducing the output speed to a suitable level for the propeller. This ensures that the propeller operates efficiently and effectively, providing the necessary thrust for the aircraft.

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  • 42. 

    (301d) What type of steel (carbon content) is used for landing gear and flight control components?  

    • Low carbon

    • Medium carbon

    • High carbon

    • Extreme carbon

    Correct Answer
    A. Medium carbon
    Explanation
    Medium carbon steel is used for landing gear and flight control components because it offers a good balance of strength and ductility. It has a higher carbon content compared to low carbon steel, which provides increased strength and hardness, making it suitable for applications that require higher load-bearing capacity. However, it is not as brittle as high carbon steel, which makes it less prone to cracking and failure under stress. Extreme carbon steel does not exist, so it is not a viable option for this application.

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  • 43. 

    (301d) What type of metal is the lightest, porous, brittle and corrodes easily?  

    • Stainless steel

    • Aluminum

    • Aluminum Titanium

    • Magnesium

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnesium
    Explanation
    Magnesium is the correct answer because it is the lightest metal, has a porous structure, is brittle, and easily corrodes.

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  • 44. 

    (301d) What type of non-metal is used in canopies and sight glasses?  

    • Acrylics

    • Phenolic

    • Composite Materials

    • Fiberglass

    Correct Answer
    A. Acrylics
    Explanation
    Acrylics are a type of non-metal that is commonly used in canopies and sight glasses. Acrylics are lightweight, transparent, and have high impact resistance, making them suitable for these applications. They also have good weathering properties, which allows them to withstand exposure to sunlight and other environmental factors. Additionally, acrylics can be easily molded into different shapes, making them versatile for use in canopies and sight glasses.

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  • 45. 

    (301d) What type of composite has superior tensile strength and good impact resistance?  

    • Graphite/epoxy

    • Boron/epoxy

    • Aramid/epoxy

    • Honeycomb

    Correct Answer
    A. Aramid/epoxy
    Explanation
    Aramid/epoxy composites have superior tensile strength and good impact resistance. Aramid fibers, such as Kevlar, are known for their high strength-to-weight ratio and resistance to impact and abrasion. When combined with epoxy resin, which provides excellent adhesion and toughness, aramid/epoxy composites become a strong and durable material. This makes them suitable for applications where high tensile strength and impact resistance are required, such as in aerospace and automotive industries.

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  • 46. 

    (301d) What are the permanent repair requirements? 

    • Maintain weight, flexibility, and aerodynamics

    • Maintain structural integrity, weight, and balance.

    • Maintain weight, strength, and aerodynamics

    • Maintain structural integrity, safety, and aerodynamics

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain weight, strength, and aerodynamics
    Explanation
    The permanent repair requirements for an aircraft are to maintain weight, strength, and aerodynamics. This means that any repairs made to the aircraft should not add excessive weight, should restore the structural integrity and strength of the aircraft, and should not negatively impact its aerodynamic performance. These requirements are essential to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the aircraft.

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  • 47. 

    (304c) What system dumps air pressure into secondary airflow to reduce  the torque during engine start?

    • Engine start system

    • Airflow control system

    • Engine control system

    • Compressor bleed system

    Correct Answer
    A. Compressor bleed system
    Explanation
    The compressor bleed system is responsible for dumping air pressure into the secondary airflow during engine start to reduce the torque. This helps in ensuring a smooth and controlled start of the engine.

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  • 48. 

    (304c) Which engine control system has 4 modes of operation?

    • Digital Electronic Engine Control (DEEC)

    • Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)

    • Fuel Control Unit (FCU)

    • Variable Stator Vane (VSV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)
    Explanation
    Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC) is the engine control system that has 4 modes of operation. FADEC is a fully automated system that controls all aspects of engine operation, including fuel flow, ignition timing, and variable stator vane positioning. The 4 modes of operation in FADEC are usually referred to as idle, approach, climb, and cruise. In each mode, the FADEC system adjusts the engine parameters to optimize performance and fuel efficiency based on the aircraft's current operating conditions.

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  • 49. 

    (304c) What engine component is used during engine start and closes after engine operates?

    • Compressor Bleed Valve

    • Variable Stator Valve

    • Variable Integrated Guide Vane

    • Air Turbine Valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Compressor Bleed Valve
    Explanation
    The compressor bleed valve is used during engine start to release excess air pressure from the compressor stage. It closes after the engine operates to maintain optimal pressure levels within the compressor. This valve helps regulate airflow and prevent damage to the engine components.

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 08, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mark Creel

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