A 320 Sys Fuel // Fight Controls

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A 320 Sys Fuel // Fight Controls - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the total fuel capacity of the A320n?

    • A.

      27500 lbs.

    • B.

      41,285 lbs.

    • C.

      52,000 lbs.

    Correct Answer
    B. 41,285 lbs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 41,285 lbs. This is the total fuel capacity of the A320n.

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  • 2. 

    With fuel in the center tank the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to AUTO and CTR TK PUMP push button ON (lights out ) which of the following conditions cause the center tank fuel pumps to stop ?

    • A.

      Extension of the slats (after completion of the test cycle )

    • B.

      Anytime the slats are extended or an overfill condition is detected in either wing inner cell ,

    • C.

      Both are correct.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both are correct.
    Explanation
    Both conditions mentioned in the answer can cause the center tank fuel pumps to stop. When the slats are extended or when an overfill condition is detected in either wing inner cell, the center tank fuel pumps will stop to prevent any potential fuel transfer issues or safety hazards.

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  • 3. 

    Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank ?

    • A.

      Only on the ground.

    • B.

      In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN .

    • C.

      In flight if the fuel XFEED push button is selected OPEN  and center tank MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only on the ground.
    Explanation
    Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank only on the ground. This means that during flight, fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another. However, if the fuel XFEED push button is selected OPEN and the center tank MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN, fuel can be transferred from the center tank to the main tanks during flight.

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  • 4. 

    From which tanks will fuel gravity feed ?

    • A.

      Outer cell of the wing tanks , inner cell of the wing tanks , and / or center tank.

    • B.

      Inner cell of the wing tanks , and center tank.

    • C.

      Outer cell of the wing tanks , and inner cell of the wing tanks .

    Correct Answer
    C. Outer cell of the wing tanks , and inner cell of the wing tanks .
    Explanation
    Fuel gravity feed occurs from the outer cell of the wing tanks and the inner cell of the wing tanks. This means that fuel can flow naturally from these tanks without the need for a pump or additional assistance. The center tank is not mentioned as being part of the fuel gravity feed system, so it does not contribute to the flow of fuel in this manner.

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  • 5. 

    What precaution should you observe when gravity feeding fuel ?

    • A.

      Operate the aircraft bellow 15,000 feet.

    • B.

      Use center tank first.

    • C.

      Open the crossfeed when above FL250.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operate the aircraft bellow 15,000 feet.
    Explanation
    When gravity feeding fuel, it is important to operate the aircraft below 15,000 feet. This precaution is necessary because gravity feeding relies on the force of gravity to transfer fuel from the tank to the engine. At higher altitudes, the reduced atmospheric pressure can affect the fuel flow and potentially disrupt the gravity feeding process. Therefore, operating the aircraft below 15,000 feet ensures a consistent and reliable fuel transfer.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE SEL push button ?

    • A.

      Fuel is being burned out of sequence.

    • B.

      Crossfeed push button is ON.

    • C.

      Center tank pumps do not stop after slat extension.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel is being burned out of sequence.
    Explanation
    If fuel is being burned out of sequence, it means that the fuel is not being burned in the correct order or sequence. This can lead to issues with the engine performance and can potentially cause damage to the engine. The fault light on the MODE SEL push button would illuminate to indicate that there is a problem with the fuel burning process.

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  • 7. 

    During normal operation when should the fuel transfer valves open ?

    • A.

      When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell .

    • B.

      When a low level is sensed in either outer wing cell.

    • C.

      When a low level is sensed in the center tank.

    Correct Answer
    A. When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell .
    Explanation
    The fuel transfer valves should open during normal operation when a low level is sensed in either inner wing cell. This means that when the fuel level in either of the inner wing cells becomes low, the valves will open to allow fuel transfer from other tanks to maintain a sufficient fuel supply. This ensures that the aircraft has a balanced and continuous fuel flow for optimal performance and safety.

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  • 8. 

    The wing fuel transfer valves are :

    • A.

      Are electrically held closed.

    • B.

      Manually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.

    • C.

      Open automatically at the start of the refueling .

    Correct Answer
    A. Are electrically held closed.
    Explanation
    The wing fuel transfer valves are electrically held closed, meaning that they are kept closed by an electrical mechanism. This implies that they will remain closed unless an electrical signal is received to open them. The other options mentioned, manual control and automatic opening during refueling, are not applicable to the wing fuel transfer valves in this case.

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  • 9. 

    The APU fuel system :

    • A.

      Obtains fuel from either center tank pump.

    • B.

      Uses it´s own dedicated DC powered fuel pump.

    • C.

      Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed the APU fuel pump.

    Correct Answer
    C. Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed the APU fuel pump.
    Explanation
    The APU fuel system obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or, if necessary, from the APU fuel pump. This means that the APU can draw fuel from the left fuel manifold, which is connected to the left side fuel pumps. However, if additional fuel is required or if there is a problem with the left side fuel pumps, the APU can also use its own dedicated DC powered fuel pump to obtain fuel.

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  • 10. 

    Can the position of the wing fuel transfer valves be checked ?

    • A.

      Tes , only on the refueling panel .

    • B.

      It is not possible to determine their position.

    • C.

      Only on the ECAM fuel page.

    Correct Answer
    C. Only on the ECAM fuel page.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only on the ECAM fuel page." This means that the position of the wing fuel transfer valves can only be checked on the ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor) fuel page. This page provides information and controls related to the fuel system of the aircraft.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELAC´S)

    • A.

      Three computers which achieve normal elevator ,stabilizer and aileron control.

    • B.

      Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators ailerons ,and trimmabe horizontal stabilizer.

    • C.

      Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators ,ailerons and THS.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators ailerons ,and trimmabe horizontal stabilizer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer. This means that there are two computers responsible for controlling the movement of the elevators and ailerons, as well as adjusting the trim of the horizontal stabilizer. These computers are capable of both normal operation and standby operation, providing redundancy in case one of them fails.

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  • 12. 

    What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure ?

    • A.

      ELAC functions are transferred to FAC´s.

    • B.

      SEC functions are transferred the ELAC´s.

    • C.

      The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

    Correct Answer
    C. The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.
    Explanation
    In the event of a single ELAC failure, the functions of the failed ELAC will be taken over by the remaining ELAC. This means that the remaining ELAC will perform the tasks and operations that were originally assigned to the failed ELAC. This ensures that the aircraft's control system continues to function properly and maintains the necessary stability and control during flight.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers (SEC´S) ?

    • A.

      Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.

    • B.

      Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control.

    • C.

      Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.

    Correct Answer
    C. Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that there are three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control. This means that there are three separate computers responsible for controlling the spoilers, the standby elevator, and the THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) on the aircraft. These computers work together to ensure proper control and operation of these systems during flight.

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  • 14. 

    The FAC´S primary control which control surface ?

    • A.

      Elevator.

    • B.

      Rudder.

    • C.

      Aileron .

    Correct Answer
    B. Rudder.
    Explanation
    The primary control surface controlled by the FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer) is the rudder. The rudder is an aircraft control surface located on the vertical tail fin and is responsible for controlling the yaw motion of the aircraft. The FAC, which is a computer system, provides inputs to the rudder to ensure proper aircraft stability and control during flight.

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  • 15. 

    If both FAC´S fail ,what happens to the rudder limiter ?

    • A.

      It immediately assumes the low speed position .

    • B.

      It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.

    • C.

      Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.

    Correct Answer
    B. It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.
    Explanation
    When both FACs (Flight Augmentation Computers) fail, the rudder limiter freezes at its current position. This means that it will remain in its current position and will assume the low-speed position when flaps 1 are selected. The rudder limiter is a safety feature that limits the maximum deflection of the rudder based on the aircraft's speed and configuration. In the event of a FAC failure, the rudder limiter will not be able to adjust its position dynamically and will remain in its current position until flaps 1 are selected, at which point it will assume the low-speed position.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following control surfaces can be mechanically controlled ?

    • A.

      Speed brakes and flaps.

    • B.

      THS and flaps. 

    • C.

      THS and rudder .

    Correct Answer
    C. THS and rudder .
    Explanation
    The THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) and rudder are control surfaces that can be mechanically controlled. The THS is used to adjust the pitch trim of the aircraft, while the rudder is used to control the yaw of the aircraft. Both of these control surfaces can be manipulated by mechanical means, such as cables or rods, to provide the necessary control inputs to the aircraft.

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  • 17. 

    Mechanically backed up control surfaces :

    • A.

      Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls.

    • B.

      Required hydraulic power for actuation .

    • C.

      Both A and B .

    Correct Answer
    B. Required hydraulic power for actuation .
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Required hydraulic power for actuation." Mechanically backed up control surfaces are control surfaces that can be operated manually in case of hydraulic system failure. This means that they are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls and do not rely solely on hydraulic power for actuation. Therefore, option A, "Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls," is incorrect. Option B, "Required hydraulic power for actuation," is the correct answer as it accurately describes the function of mechanically backed up control surfaces.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following will automatically reset after landing ?

    • A.

      Rudder trim.

    • B.

      THS.

    • C.

      Both A and B.

    Correct Answer
    B. THS.
    Explanation
    The THS (Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer) is a control surface on an aircraft that can be adjusted to change the pitch trim. It is designed to automatically reset to a neutral position after landing. On the other hand, the rudder trim is used to adjust the yaw trim and it does not automatically reset after landing. Therefore, the correct answer is THS.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick takeover push button ?

    • A.

      If the takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds , the onside system will retain priority after the push button is realeased.

    • B.

      The last pilot to depress the push button has priority.

    • C.

      Both A and B 

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A and B 
    Explanation
    If the takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside system will retain priority after the push button is released. This means that even after releasing the push button, the system that was initially in control will continue to have priority. The second statement states that the last pilot to depress the push button has priority. This means that whichever pilot was the last to press the button will have control over the system. Both statements A and B are correct.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following control surfaces can be mechanically controlled ?

    • A.

      Speed brakes and flaps.

    • B.

      THS and flaps

    • C.

      THS and rudder.

    Correct Answer
    C. THS and rudder.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is THS and rudder. The THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) and rudder are control surfaces that can be mechanically controlled. The THS is used to control the pitch of the aircraft, while the rudder is used to control the yaw. Speed brakes and flaps, on the other hand, are not mechanically controlled surfaces but are instead operated hydraulically or electrically.

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  • 21. 

    Mechanically backed up control surfaces ?

    • A.

      Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls .

    • B.

      Require hydraulic power for action.

    • C.

      Both A and B .

    Correct Answer
    B. Require hydraulic power for action.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Require hydraulic power for action." This means that the control surfaces, which are mechanically backed up, need hydraulic power in order to move or function properly. This suggests that the control surfaces are not solely reliant on mechanical connections to the cockpit controls, but also require hydraulic power for their operation.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick takeover push button?

    • A.

      If the takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds . the onside system will retain priority after the push is released.

    • B.

      The last pilot to depress the push button has priority.

    • C.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A and B
    Explanation
    If the takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside system will retain priority after the push is released. This means that if the button is held down for more than 40 seconds, the system will continue to prioritize the onside pilot even after the button is released. Additionally, the statement that the last pilot to depress the push button has priority is also correct. This means that whichever pilot presses the button last will have control over the aircraft. Therefore, both statements A and B are correct.

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  • 23. 

    When ground spoilers deploy automatically :

    • A.

      All ten spoilers panels fully deploy .

    • B.

      Four spoiler panel on each wing deploy.

    • C.

      All ten spoiler panels deploy half way.

    Correct Answer
    A. All ten spoilers panels fully deploy .
    Explanation
    When ground spoilers deploy automatically, all ten spoiler panels fully deploy. This means that all of the spoiler panels on the aircraft, including the four panels on each wing, extend fully to their deployed position. There is no mention of the spoiler panels deploying halfway or only four panels deploying, indicating that the correct answer is that all ten spoiler panels fully deploy.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats ?

    • A.

      Wing tip brakes.

    • B.

      One slat flap control computer (SFCC)

    • C.

      Two slat flap control computers (SFCC´s )

    Correct Answer
    C. Two slat flap control computers (SFCC´s )
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Two slat flap control computers (SFCC's)". These computers are responsible for controlling and monitoring the flaps and slats on an aircraft. Flaps and slats are movable surfaces on the wings that help to increase lift and improve the aircraft's performance during takeoff and landing. The SFCC's receive inputs from various sensors and adjust the position of the flaps and slats accordingly to optimize the aircraft's aerodynamic characteristics. Having two SFCC's provides redundancy and ensures that the flaps and slats can still be controlled even if one of the computers fails.

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  • 25. 

    The wing tip brakes active :

    • A.

      For slat and for flap overspeed ,asymmetry or symmetrical runaway. I

    • B.

      For asymmetry or symmetrical runaway.

    • C.

      For high altitude protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. For slat and for flap overspeed ,asymmetry or symmetrical runaway. I
    Explanation
    The wing tip brakes are active for slat and flap overspeed, as well as for asymmetry or symmetrical runaway. This means that the brakes are engaged in these situations to prevent any further issues or damage. Additionally, the wing tip brakes may also be active for high altitude protection, although this is not explicitly mentioned in the given options.

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  • 26. 

    The wing tip brake are :

    • A.

      Pneumatically actuated.

    • B.

      Electric brakes.

    • C.

      Hydraulic actuated.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hydraulic actuated.
    Explanation
    The wing tip brakes are hydraulic actuated, meaning they are operated by hydraulic pressure. Hydraulic actuation is a common method used in aircraft braking systems as it provides a reliable and efficient way to control the brakes. The hydraulic pressure is generated by hydraulic pumps and transmitted through the hydraulic lines to actuate the brakes. This allows for precise control and modulation of the braking force, ensuring the aircraft can safely slow down or come to a stop during landing or taxiing.

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  • 27. 

    The wing tip brakes ,once activated :

    • A.

      Can only be reset on the ground by ground personnel .

    • B.

      May be reset in flight.

    • C.

      Lock the flap selector handle in its current position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can only be reset on the ground by ground personnel .
    Explanation
    Once the wing tip brakes are activated, they can only be reset on the ground by ground personnel. This means that the brakes cannot be reset while the aircraft is in flight. Additionally, activating the wing tip brakes will lock the flap selector handle in its current position.

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  • 28. 

    The wing tip brakes, once activated :

    • A.

      Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position.

    • B.

      Lock only the slats in their current position.

    • C.

      Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces inter current position.

    Correct Answer
    C. Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces inter current position.
    Explanation
    When the wing tip brakes are activated, they only lock the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position. This means that the slats and flaps are not affected and can still move freely. The purpose of locking the high lift system surfaces is to ensure that they remain in the position they were in when the brakes were activated, providing stability and control to the aircraft during maneuvers or landing.

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  • 29. 

    Which altitud limitation is associated with high light lift devices ?

    • A.

      Max altitud for extensión is FL 200

    • B.

      Max altitude limitation is FL 220.

    • C.

      Max altitud limitation is FL 250.

    Correct Answer
    A. Max altitud for extensión is FL 200
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Max altitude for extension is FL 200." This means that the high lift devices on the aircraft can only be extended up to a maximum altitude of FL 200.

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  • 30. 

    Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configuration ?

    • A.

      Slats 1 and flaps 1 ( 1 mas F )

    • B.

      Slats 0 and flaps 1 (o mas F )

    • C.

      Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1)

    Correct Answer
    C. Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1)
  • 31. 

    Select of flaps on prior to takeoff will select which of the following ?

    • A.

      Slats 1 and flaps 1 ( 1 + F )

    • B.

      Slatas 0 and flaps 1 ( 0 + F )

    • C.

      Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1 )

    Correct Answer
    A. Slats 1 and flaps 1 ( 1 + F )
    Explanation
    Selecting flaps 1 prior to takeoff will activate both slats and flaps, resulting in a configuration where both are deployed. This configuration provides the maximum lift and allows for a lower takeoff speed, which is beneficial for a safe and efficient takeoff.

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  • 32. 

    The alpha speed lock function :

    • A.

      Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.

    • B.

      Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.

    • C.

      Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplish by 210 Kts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
    Explanation
    The alpha speed lock function will prevent the slats from retracting if there is an accidental movement of the flap selector at high angle of attack (AOA) or low speeds. This feature ensures that the slats remain extended in these critical flight conditions, providing the necessary lift and maintaining the aircraft's stability and control.

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  • 33. 

    Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will :

    • A.

      Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 Kts.

    • B.

      Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 Kts .

    • C.

      Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 Kts .

    Correct Answer
    C. Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 Kts .
    Explanation
    Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will result in automatic flap retraction at 210 Kts. This means that if the flaps are not manually retracted after takeoff, the aircraft's system will automatically retract the flaps when the aircraft reaches a speed of 210 knots. This is an important safety feature to prevent damage to the flaps and maintain optimal aerodynamic performance during the flight.

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  • 34. 

    FAC generated slat and flap extension , retraction and limiting speeds are visually displayed on which of the following ?

    • A.

      The MCDU perf page .

    • B.

      The lower ECAM / F/CTL page.

    • C.

      Both pilots PFD airspeed displays.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both pilots PFD airspeed displays.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is both pilots PFD airspeed displays. The slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed on both pilots' primary flight display (PFD) airspeed displays. This allows the pilots to easily monitor and ensure that the correct speeds are being maintained during the operation of the slats and flaps.

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  • 35. 

    Aileron drop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following ?

    • A.

      The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection .

    • B.

      The lower ECAM / F/CTL page.

    • C.

      The position of the flap handle.

    Correct Answer
    B. The lower ECAM / F/CTL page.
    Explanation
    To confirm aileron drop, the best method is to check the lower ECAM/F/CTL page. This page provides detailed information about the control surfaces, including the ailerons. By referring to this page, one can easily identify any abnormalities or discrepancies in the aileron position, which would indicate aileron drop. Checking the position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection or the position of the flap handle may not provide direct information about aileron drop.

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  • 36. 

    What is the maximum flap setting for inflight use the spoilers ?

    • A.

      Flaps full.

    • B.

      Flaps 3.

    • C.

      Spoilers are not approved for inflight use .

    Correct Answer
    B. Flaps 3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Flaps 3." This is because the maximum flap setting for inflight use is typically limited to Flaps 3. Using full flaps during flight can increase drag and reduce the aircraft's performance, while spoilers are not designed for inflight use and are primarily used for reducing lift during landing and deceleration.

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  • 37. 

    Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA  and air data information from ?

    • A.

      SEC

    • B.

      ADIRU

    • C.

      ELAC

    Correct Answer
    B. ADIRU
    Explanation
    The SFCCs obtain AOA (Angle of Attack) and air data information from ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit).

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  • 38. 

    What are the rudder trim rates ?

    • A.

      A/P on  --5 deg/sec , A/P off -1 deg/sec.

    • B.

      A/P on --2 1/5 deg/sec , A/P off --5 deg/ sec.

    • C.

      A/P on --3 deg/sec , A/P off  --6 deg /sec.

    Correct Answer
    A. A/P on  --5 deg/sec , A/P off -1 deg/sec.
    Explanation
    The rudder trim rates are -5 deg/sec when the autopilot is on and -1 deg/sec when the autopilot is off.

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  • 39. 

    In normal law , pitch and roll altitude limits are depicted on the PFDs as :

    • A.

      Green circles.

    • B.

      Green =´s

    • C.

      Green  X´s

    Correct Answer
    B. Green =´s
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Green = s". In normal law, pitch and roll altitude limits are depicted on the Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) as green symbols in the shape of a circle. This indicates that the aircraft is within the safe operating limits for pitch and roll.

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  • 40. 

    In normal law , Mmo and Vmo limits are depicted on each PFD as :

    • A.

      Alpha prot and Alpha max .

    • B.

      Green X´s.

    • C.

      Green =´s

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha prot and Alpha max .
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Alpha prot and Alpha max." In normal law, Mmo and Vmo limits are depicted on each Primary Flight Display (PFD) as Alpha prot and Alpha max. These limits represent the maximum angle of attack and maximum speed, respectively, that the aircraft can safely operate at. By displaying these limits on the PFD, pilots can easily monitor and adhere to the aircraft's operational limitations, ensuring safe and efficient flight operations.

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