Volume 6 2A851

1. 24. (A04) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast is best described as

A. emissions control.

B. electromagnetic hardening.

C. electromagnetic compatibility.

D. early warning frequency deconfliction.

2. 10. (A02) Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of

A. denial.

B. disruption.

C. physical attack.

D. support systems.

3. 54. (A12) An effective infrared countermeasures (IRCM) tactic by using the natural environment is

A. ejection of flares.

B. maneuvering into the sun.

C. reducing the engine power setting.

D. introducing smoke into engine exhaust.

4. 5. (A01) What component of electronic warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment?

A. Electronic attack (EA).

B. Electronic support (ES).

C. Electronic protection (EP).

D. Electronic counter countermeasures (ECCM).

5. 1. (A01) What is the first step in electronic warfare (EW) that is essential when developing an accurate electronic order of battle (EOB)?

A. Denial.

B. Detection.

C. Deception.

D. Destruction.

6. 35. (A07) How long does it take radio frequency (RF) energy to travel a radar mile?

A. 24.72μ.

B. 18.54μ.

C. 12.36μ.

D. 6.18μ.

7. 27. (A05) What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?

A. Crows.

B. Ferrets.

C. Sparks.

D. Ravens.

8. 11. (A02) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

A. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS).

B. Joint Warning, Command and Control System (JWCCS).

C. Joint Surveillance, Target Attack Radar System (JSTARS).

D. Airborne Battlefield Command and Control Center (ABCCC).

9. 64. (A14) What region of the frequency spectrum is Air Force (AF) aircraft laser sensors used?

A. Radio.

B. Infrared.

C. Ultraviolet.

D. Visible light.

10. 97. (A23) What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?

A. Spectrum analyzer.

B. Radar simulator set.

C. Countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT).

D. Radiofrequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS).

11. 43. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) selects the mode of operation?

A. Scope.

B. Signal processor.

C. Receiver/amplifier.

D. Interface control unit.

12. 55. (A12) What infrared countermeasures (IRCM) tactic is used to reduce an engine infrared (IR) signature?

A. Ejection of flares.

B. Maneuvering into the sun.

C. Jamming by an IRCM system.

D. Introducing smoke into engine exhaust.

13. 56. (A12) Using a modulated high intensity infrared (IR) energy to break an IR missile's lock, is an example of

A. use of the natural environment.

B. active infrared countermeasures.

C. passive infrared countermeasures.

D. introduction of smoke into engine exhaust.

14. 17. (A03) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

A. EA–6B.

B. EF–111.

C. F/A–18.

D. F–16CJ.

15. 20. (A03) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy's command and control (C2) network?

A. E–6B.

B. EF–111.

C. F–16CJ.

D. EC–130H.

16. 80. (A18) What type of threat are flares used to counter?

A. Infrared missiles.

B. Radar guided missiles.

C. Ground tracking radars.

D. Terminal defense radars.

17. 33. (A07) Which military frequency band designator denotes a frequency range higher than the others?

A. Echo.

B. Golf.

C. Charlie.

D. Foxtrot.

18. 25. (A04) Any disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, degrades, or limits the effective performance of electronics or equipment is best described as

A. electromagnetic pulse.

B. electromagnetic hardening.

C. electronic counter-countermeasures.

D. electromagnetic interference.

19. 40. (A09) What range of coverage does the radar warning receiver's (RWR) antennas provide?

A. 45°.

B. 90°.

C. 180°.

D. 360°.

20. 109. (A26) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses what type of computer?

A. Ruggedized laptop.

B. Solid-state personal computer.

C. Ruggedized personal data assistant.

D. Portable unit with programmable cartridge.

21. 111. (A26) Which is a DOD-owned network approved for classified data transfer?

A. SIPRNET.

B. NIPRNET.

C. INTERNET.

D. INTRANET.

22. 81. (A18) What important tactic must be performed with flare deployment to effectively defeat infrared threats?

A. Deception jamming.

B. Evasive maneuver.

C. Noise jamming.

D. Chaff.

23. 50. (A11) What area of the aircraft will have the least infrared (IR) signature?

A. Plume.

B. Engine.

C. Skin.

D. Engine afterburner.

24. 86. (A19) A spectrum analyzer is a receiver, with the output of a

A. paper chart printer.

B. signal indicating board.

C. audio monitoring speaker.

D. cathode-ray tube display instead of a speaker.

25. 15. (A03) What division of electronic warfare (EW) involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

A. Electronic attack.

B. Electronic support.

C. Electronic detection.

D. Electronic protection.

26. 34. (A07) The angle of incidence required to get a reflection back to the source is

A. 30°.

B. 45°.

C. 90°.

D. 120°.

27. 85. (A18) What type of flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame?

A. Covert.

B. Kinematic.

C. Pyrotechnic.

D. Conventional.

28. 57. (A13) In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?

A. Radio.

B. Gamma.

C. Infrared.

D. Visible light.

29. 8. (A02) To control an adversary's command and control (C2) capabilities, command and control warfare (C2W) integrates destruction,

A. electronic warfare, and military deception only.

B. electronic warfare, military deception, and operational security.

C. military deception, operational security, and psychological operations only.

D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.

30. 98. (A23) The specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by

A. fastening pins.

B. a safety interlock.

C. a breechplate adapter.

D. coding plunger pins.

31. 53. (A12) The primary countermeasure to defeat infrared (IR) missiles is

A. maneuvering into the sun.

B. deploying a self-protection flare.

C. releasing smoke into the engine exhaust.

D. jamming by an active infrared countermeasures system.

32. 68. (A15) The laser danger zone for direct beam viewing extends over an extremely

A. long distance because the beam spreads so little.

B. short distance because the beam spreads so little.

C. long distance because the beam spreads so wide.

D. short distance because the beam spreads so wide.

33. 37. (A08) What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

A. A scope.

B. B scope.

C. Range height.

D. Plan position.

34. 32. (A06) What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?

A. Pulse analyzer.

B. Direction finder.

C. Spectrum analyzer.

D. Panoramic receiver.

35. 4. (A01) What is the most effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

A. Denial.

B. Deception.

C. Disruption.

D. Destruction.

36. 12. (A02) Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for

A. acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.

B. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.

C. acquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.

D. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

37. 18. (A03) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform electronic attack (EA)?

A. AGM–65.

B. AGM–88.

C. BDU–65.

D. BDU–88.

38. 62. (A14) When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called

A. stimulated emission.

B. population inversion.

C. spontaneous emission.

D. population conversion.

39. 72. (A16) What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?

A. Laser.

B. Acoustic.

C. Microwave.

D. Millimeter wave.

40. 23. (A04) The steps taken to limit the incidental or accidental emissions from electronic equipment is best described as

A. electronic attack.

B. emissions control.

C. electromagnetic hardening.

D. electronic counter countermeasures.

41. 100. (A23) What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

A. Fire.

B. Misfire.

C. Jettison.

D. Stray voltage.

42. 76. (A17) What chaff dispensing tactic confuses radar operators with multiple false targets?

A. Area saturation.

B. Self-protection.

C. Preplanned burst.

D. Corridor operation.

43. 107. (A25) Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?

A. BRAVE BYTE.

B. PROUD BYTE.

C. SERENE BYTE.

D. NEPTUNE BYTE.

44. 46. (A10) What is the emissivity factor of a theoretical black body?

A. 0.5.

B. 0.8.

C. 1.0.

D. 1.2.

45. 48. (A10) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects

A. have sharp contrasts.

B. exchange infrared energy.

C. with the same temperature.

D. with different temperatures.

46. 7. (A01) Electronic support data is not used to produce

A. signal intelligence.

B. ballistic intelligence.

C. electronic intelligence.

D. communications intelligence.

47. 16. (A03) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

A. AGM–65.

B. AGM–88.

C. BDU–65.

D. BDU–88.

48. 59. (A13) What feature of a missile approach warning systems (MAWS) relates to reliability?

A. Low false alarm rate.

B. Automatic dispensing of flares.

C. Rapid identification of infrared (IR) missile threat.

D. Continuous radiation to ward off threats.

49. 30. (A06) What Air Force aircraft is used extensively to collect electronic intelligence (ELINT) and communications intelligence (COMINT) data?

A. E–6B.

B. EC–130H.

C. KC–135R.

D. RC–135V/W.

50. 44. (A10) What three properties are common to both visible and infrared (IR) light?

A. Frequency, reflection, refraction.

B. Absorption, reflection, refraction.

C. Frequency, absorption, refraction.

D. Absorption, frequency, reflection.

51. 65. (A14) The relationship between a laser's coherency and bandwidth is

A. none.

B. proportional.

C. inversely proportional.

D. logarithmically proportional.

52. 39. (A08) When determining a radar's azimuth, the

A. wider the horizontal beamwidth (HBW), the poorer the resolution.

B. wider the vertical beamwidth (VBW), the greater the resolution.

C. narrower the HBW, the poorer the resolution.

D. narrower the VBW, the greater the resolution.

53. 31. (A06) What major subdivision of signal intelligence (SIGINT) collects and processes data on radar?

A. Photo intelligence (PHOTINT).

B. Electronic intelligence (ELINT).

C. Human intelligence (HUMINT).

D. Communications intelligence (COMINT).

54. 60. (A13) What is one disadvantage of active missile approach warning system (MAWS)?

A. It operates only in the ultraviolet frequency spectrum.

B. It is unable to pull targets out of clutter.

C. Can be tracked by passive detection.

D. It uses Pulse Doppler radar.

55. 66. (A14) When white light is compared to laser light,

A. laser light has a wider bandwidth than white light.

B. white light has a wider bandwidth than laser light.

C. laser light has the same bandwidth as white light.

D. white light has a narrower bandwidth than laser light.

56. 36. (A08) What unit of a pulse radar provides the pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) of the radar?

A. Modulator.

B. Master timer.

C. Power amplifier.

D. Waveform generator.

57. 38. (A08) The radar's ability to separate targets into individual returns that are close together is called

A. azimuth.

B. elevation.

C. definition.

D. resolution.

58. 13. (A02) What surface-to-air missile (SAM) system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?

A. SA–1.

B. SA–2.

C. SA–4.

D. SA–6.

59. 19. (A03) What type of jamming masks the presence and/or location of the strike force?

A. Standoff.

B. Directional.

C. Destruction.

D. Communications.

60. 45. (A10) The amount of infrared (IR) energy emitted by an object is

A. double the object’s absolute Kelvin temperature.

B. equal to the object’s absolute Kelvin temperature.

C. directly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.

D. indirectly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.

61. 9. (A02) Degrading or interfering with the enemy's command and control (C2) capabilities is best described by

A. denial.

B. disruption.

C. physical attack.

D. support systems.

62. 88. (A19) The span of the display, on a spectrum analyzer, is the size of the band of frequencies that are displayed and adjusted with the

A. FREQUENCY control.

B. MIN/RF ATTEN control.

C. FREQUENCY SPAN control.

D. REFERENCE LEVEL control.

63. 94. (A21) While the Multipurpose Electro-Optical end-to-end tester (MEON) laser is or may be operating, approved eyewear must be worn within the nominal hazard zone of

A. 75 feet.

B. 123 feet.

C. 187 feet.

D. 207 feet.

64. 96. (A22) What does the radar signal simulator require for frequency stability?

A. A/C power.

B. D/C power.

C. System warm up.

D. Internal Batteries.

65. 82. (A18) A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at

A. 1000 to 1200 °K.

B. 2000 to 2200 °K.

C. 3000 to 3200 °K.

D. 4000 to 4200 °K.

66. 49. (A11) Most infrared (IR) missiles operate in the region of

A. 1 to 5 microns.

B. 6 to 10 microns.

C. 7 to 12 microns.

D. 10 to 15 microns.

67. 67. (A15) What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?

A. Target ranging and designation.

B. Contrail detection.

C. Guided weapon.

D. Acquisition.

68. 92. (A20) The four control modes allow you to vary the output

A. time only.

B. period only.

C. frequency only.

D. pulse characteristics.

69. 99. (A23) The countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) performs all of the following test functions except

A. FIRE.

B. JETTISON.

C. RESET ALE−45.

D. STRAY VOLTAGE.

70. 101. (A24) Which message describes the impact of threat changes on an electronic warfare (EW) system?

A. System impact message.

B. Reprogramming impact message.

C. Time compliance technical order.

D. Maintenance instruction message.

71. 110. (A26) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) is powered by a(n)

A. alkaline battery only.

B. lithium-Ion battery only.

C. AC adapter and alkaline battery.

D. AC adapter and lithium-Ion battery.

72. 14. (A02) What weapon is designed to home in on enemy emitters and disrupt or destroy an integrated air defense system?

A. Wild Weasel.

B. Cruise missile.

C. Anti-radiation missile.

D. Joint Surveillance, Target Attack Radar System.

73. 69. (A15) Specular laser reflections from flat objects like mirrors, window glass, and reflectors on vehicle tail lights have

A. no minimum safe range.

B. a decreased minimum safe range.

C. an increased minimum safe range.

D. the same minimum safe range as direct viewing.

74. 73. (A16) In which mode of operation does Pilot Alert System (PAS) search for contrails?

A. Initialize.

B. Standby.

C. Tuning.

D. Detect.

75. 90. (A20) On the pulse generator, selection of NORM mode produces

A. a gated trigger output.

B. a single trigger output.

C. a continuous pulse output.

D. an intermittent pulse output.

76. 74. (A17) Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector that is cut to

A. one-quarter the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.

B. one-half the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.

C. equal the wavelength of radar’s frequency.

D. double the wavelength of radar’s frequency.

77. 2. (A01) Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of

A. denial.

B. deception.

C. disruption.

D. destruction.

78. 102. (A24) What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an Electronic Warfare (EW) system?

A. System impact message.

B. Reprogramming impact message.

C. Time compliance technical order.

D. Maintenance instruction message.

79. 3. (A01) Deliberate radiation, reradiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of electromagnetic energy to mislead the enemy is called

A. detection.

B. deception.

C. disruption.

D. destruction.

80. 84. (A18) What flare characteristic determines how far the infrared (IR) seeker will be pulled off the target?

A. Rise time.

B. Burn time.

C. Peak intensity.

D. Wavelength match.

81. 91. (A20) What mode generates a preselected number of pulses from 1 to 1999?

A. E.BUR.

B. E.WID.

C. GATE.

D. TRIG.

82. 70. (A16) In what altitude range are contrails most likely to form?

A. 10,000 to 25,000 ft.

B. 15,000 to 35,000 ft.

C. 20,000 to 35,000 ft.

D. 25,000 to 40,000 ft.

83. 22. (A03) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

A. imitative deception.

B. imitative reception.

C. simulative deception.

D. manipulative deception.

84. 41. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) identifies radar signals?

A. Antenna.

B. Signal processor.

C. Control indicator.

D. Receiver/amplifier.

85. 58. (A13) What feature of a missile approach warning systems (MAWS) relates to timeliness?

A. Low false alarm rate.

B. Accurate threat positioning reporting.

C. Multiple false targets due to maneuvers.

D. Rapid identification of infrared missile threats.

86. 93. (A21) The Multipurpose Electro-Optical end-to-end tester (MEON) sources are harmful to eyes and skin at ranges less than

A. 3 feet.

B. 5 feet.

C. 10 feet.

D. 15 feet.

87. 29. (A05) What electronic support (ES) equipment provides antenna scan-type, scan rate, pulse recurrence frequency, pulse width, and pulse shape?

A. Oscilloscope.

B. Pulse analyzer.

C. Spectrum analyzer.

D. Panoramic receiver.

88. 108. (A25) What two primary reprogramming exercises will you probably be involved in?

A. BRAVE BYTE and PROUD BYTE.

B. PROUD BYTE and SERENE BYTE.

C. SERENE BYTE and PACER WARE.

D. NEPTUNE BYTE and PACER WARE.

89. 79. (A17) Against what type of radar is self-protection chaff tactics the least effective?

A. Doppler.

B. Monopulse.

C. Conical scan.

D. Track-while-scan.

90. 95. (A22) What is the frequency range of the PLM−4 Radar simulator?

A. 0.5 to 18.0 GHz.

B. 5.0 to 18.0 GHz.

C. 0.5 to 28.0 GHz.

D. 5.0 to 28.0 GHz.

91. 103. (A24) The software that contains algorithms, that receive, identify, process, and do jamming tasks is the

A. mission data file.

B. code form message.

C. operational flight program.

D. emitter identification data.

92. 71. (A16) How many major components make up the Pilot Alert System (PAS)?

A. 1.

B. 2

C. 5.

D. 7.

93. 106. (A25) What category of exercise evaluates the entire Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) process?

A. Locally directed.

B. Air Force directed.

C. MAJCOM directed.

D. Maintenance directed.

94. 52. (A11) What infrared (IR) seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?

A. Staring.

B. Scanning.

C. Chopping.

D. Spinning.

95. 77. (A17) The chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon is called

A. area saturation.

B. self-protection.

C. preplanned burst.

D. corridor operation.

96. 42. (A09) The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal

A. relative location.

B. identification.

C. frequency.

D. amplitude.

97. 28. (A05) Which piece of equipment is considered the heart of the electronic support system?

A. Pulse analyzer.

B. Cathode-ray tube.

C. Spectrum analyzer.

D. Panoramic receiver.

98. 51. (A11) What infrared (IR) seeker generates a frequency-modulated signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan?

A. Spin.

B. Image.

C. Staring.

D. Conical.

99. 6. (A01) Frequency agility and changing pulse recurring frequency (PRF) are examples of

A. electronic attack (EA).

B. electronic support (ES).

C. electronic protection (EP).

D. electronic countermeasures (ECCM).

100. 47. (A10) What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?

A. Photovoltaic.

B. Photographic.

C. Photoemissive.

D. Photoconductive.

101. 75. (A17) What chaff characteristic is the length of time that chaff is at an effective altitude?

A. Bloom rate.

B. Persistence.

C. Radar cross section.

D. Frequency coverage.

102. 83. (A18) What affect does rise time have on a flare decoying an infrared missile?

A. Flare burns shorter at high altitude, but takes much shorter to reach peak intensity.

B. Flare burns shorter at high altitude, but takes much longer to reach peak intensity.

C. Flare burns longer at high altitude, but takes much shorter to reach peak intensity.

D. Flare burns longer at high altitude, but takes much longer to reach peak intensity.

103. 63. (A14) Monochromatic, in relationship to laser theory, means single

A. emitter.

B. frequency.

C. impact point.

D. chronological mirror.

104. 87. (A19) What indicates the relative signal strength of the received radio frequency (RF) signal?

A. Horizontal deflection of the trace.

B. Vertical deflection of the trace.

C. Span per division.

D. Center frequency.

105. 89. (A20) How many operating modes does the pulse generator have?

A. 3.

B. 4.

C. 5.

D. 6.

106. 26. (A05) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is best described as

A. electronic attack.

B. electronic support.

C. electronic protection.

D. electronic management.

107. 21. (A03) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of

A. imitative deception.

B. imitative reception.

C. simulative deception.

D. manipulative deception.

108. 104. (A24) What notifies units to upload a specific Electronic Warfare (EW) software change?

A. Unit loading message.

B. Implementation message.

C. Time compliance technical order.

D. Maintenance instruction message.

109. 78. (A17) What type of radar is self-protection chaff tactic used that causes errors in the azimuth, elevation, and range tracking circuits?

A. Doppler.

B. Monopulse.

C. Conical scan.

D. Track-while-scan.

110. 61. (A13) The advantage of a passive missile approach warning system (MAWS) is

A. it uses Pulse Doppler radar.

B. the ability to pull targets out of clutter.

C. continuous radiation to ward off threats.

D. the system is tuned to look for infrared (IR) signature of missile’s exhaust plume.

111. 105. (A25) What is not a part of the Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) exercise?

A. Smooth flow of information during crisis.

B. Evaluation of routine operational change request.

C. Readiness in response to threat parameter changes.

D. Training of operations, intelligence, communications, and maintenance personnel.

Volume 6 2A851

1. 24. (A04) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast is best described as

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. 10. (A02) Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of

3. 54. (A12) An effective infrared countermeasures (IRCM) tactic by using the natural environment is

4. 5. (A01) What component of electronic warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment?

5. 1. (A01) What is the first step in electronic warfare (EW) that is essential when developing an accurate electronic order of battle (EOB)?

6. 35. (A07) How long does it take radio frequency (RF) energy to travel a radar mile?

7. 27. (A05) What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?

8. 11. (A02) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

9. 64. (A14) What region of the frequency spectrum is Air Force (AF) aircraft laser sensors used?

10. 97. (A23) What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?

11. 43. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) selects the mode of operation?

12. 55. (A12) What infrared countermeasures (IRCM) tactic is used to reduce an engine infrared (IR) signature?

13. 56. (A12) Using a modulated high intensity infrared (IR) energy to break an IR missile's lock, is an example of

14. 17. (A03) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

15. 20. (A03) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy's command and control (C2) network?

16. 80. (A18) What type of threat are flares used to counter?

17. 33. (A07) Which military frequency band designator denotes a frequency range higher than the others?

18. 25. (A04) Any disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, degrades, or limits the effective performance of electronics or equipment is best described as

19. 40. (A09) What range of coverage does the radar warning receiver's (RWR) antennas provide?

20. 109. (A26) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses what type of computer?

21. 111. (A26) Which is a DOD-owned network approved for classified data transfer?

22. 81. (A18) What important tactic must be performed with flare deployment to effectively defeat infrared threats?

23. 50. (A11) What area of the aircraft will have the least infrared (IR) signature?

24. 86. (A19) A spectrum analyzer is a receiver, with the output of a

25. 15. (A03) What division of electronic warfare (EW) involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

26. 34. (A07) The angle of incidence required to get a reflection back to the source is

27. 85. (A18) What type of flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame?

28. 57. (A13) In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?

29. 8. (A02) To control an adversary's command and control (C2) capabilities, command and control warfare (C2W) integrates destruction,

30. 98. (A23) The specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by

31. 53. (A12) The primary countermeasure to defeat infrared (IR) missiles is

32. 68. (A15) The laser danger zone for direct beam viewing extends over an extremely

33. 37. (A08) What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

34. 32. (A06) What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?

35. 4. (A01) What is the most effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

36. 12. (A02) Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for

37. 18. (A03) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform electronic attack (EA)?

38. 62. (A14) When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called

39. 72. (A16) What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?

40. 23. (A04) The steps taken to limit the incidental or accidental emissions from electronic equipment is best described as

41. 100. (A23) What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

42. 76. (A17) What chaff dispensing tactic confuses radar operators with multiple false targets?

43. 107. (A25) Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?

44. 46. (A10) What is the emissivity factor of a theoretical black body?

45. 48. (A10) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects

46. 7. (A01) Electronic support data is not used to produce

47. 16. (A03) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

48. 59. (A13) What feature of a missile approach warning systems (MAWS) relates to reliability?

49. 30. (A06) What Air Force aircraft is used extensively to collect electronic intelligence (ELINT) and communications intelligence (COMINT) data?

50. 44. (A10) What three properties are common to both visible and infrared (IR) light?

51. 65. (A14) The relationship between a laser's coherency and bandwidth is

52. 39. (A08) When determining a radar's azimuth, the

53. 31. (A06) What major subdivision of signal intelligence (SIGINT) collects and processes data on radar?

54. 60. (A13) What is one disadvantage of active missile approach warning system (MAWS)?

55. 66. (A14) When white light is compared to laser light,

56. 36. (A08) What unit of a pulse radar provides the pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) of the radar?

57. 38. (A08) The radar's ability to separate targets into individual returns that are close together is called

58. 13. (A02) What surface-to-air missile (SAM) system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?

59. 19. (A03) What type of jamming masks the presence and/or location of the strike force?

60. 45. (A10) The amount of infrared (IR) energy emitted by an object is

61. 9. (A02) Degrading or interfering with the enemy's command and control (C2) capabilities is best described by

62. 88. (A19) The span of the display, on a spectrum analyzer, is the size of the band of frequencies that are displayed and adjusted with the

63. 94. (A21) While the Multipurpose Electro-Optical end-to-end tester (MEON) laser is or may be operating, approved eyewear must be worn within the nominal hazard zone of

64. 96. (A22) What does the radar signal simulator require for frequency stability?

65. 82. (A18) A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at

66. 49. (A11) Most infrared (IR) missiles operate in the region of

67. 67. (A15) What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?

68. 92. (A20) The four control modes allow you to vary the output

69. 99. (A23) The countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) performs all of the following test functions except

70. 101. (A24) Which message describes the impact of threat changes on an electronic warfare (EW) system?

71. 110. (A26) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) is powered by a(n)

72. 14. (A02) What weapon is designed to home in on enemy emitters and disrupt or destroy an integrated air defense system?

73. 69. (A15) Specular laser reflections from flat objects like mirrors, window glass, and reflectors on vehicle tail lights have

74. 73. (A16) In which mode of operation does Pilot Alert System (PAS) search for contrails?

75. 90. (A20) On the pulse generator, selection of NORM mode produces

76. 74. (A17) Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector that is cut to

77. 2. (A01) Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of