Volume 2 2A851

1. 4. (202) What components guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?

A. Initiators

B. Stabilizers

C. Safety pins

D. Red streamers

2. 28. (211) At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

A. When you enter them in error

B. When you find them to be incorrect

C. When you must correct a discrepancy

D. Never, even if you entered them in error

3. 1. (201) What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?

A. Doors.

B. Nacelles

C. Windows

D. Plates and skins

4. 10. (204) Initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?

A. Nothing

B. Heat is produced

C. Your heart beats irregularly

D. Your internal organs start deteriorating.

5. 29. (211) Who ensures that the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

A. Technician

B. Supervisor

C. Crew chief

D. Aircrew member

6. 37. (212) What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?

A. The bottom portion

B. The top portion

C. Neither

D. Both

7. **15. (204) Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?**

A. Nausea

B. Vomiting

C. Dizziness

D. Unconsciousness

8. 33. (211) Which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time?

A. 781A

B. 781J

C. 781K

D. 781L

9. **42. (214) When working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use**

A. ungrounded floormats

B. a grounded workbench

C. nonconductive antistatic mats

D. a grounded LRU cable

10. **2. (201) Which major aircraft structural area provides support for the engines?**

A. Wings

B. Nacelles

C. Fuselage

D. Stabilizers

11. **49. (217) What is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire? a. Immunity to electromagnetic interference. b. Low attenuation. c. Light weight. d. Cost.**

A. Immunity to electromagnetic interference

B. Low attenuation

C. Light weight

D. Cost

12. 52. (218) Flux is designed to

A. keep connection clean

B. bond electrical connection

C. ensure electrical conductivity

D. prevent oxygen from combining with metal

13. **13. (204) Which condition is not caused by overexposure to noise?**

A. Fatigue

B. Hearing damage

C. Speech problems

D. Excessive energy

14. 14. (204) The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to the rear of the engine through an angle of a. 30° on either side. b. 45° on either side. c. 60° on either side. d. 90° on either side.

A. 30° on either side

B. 45° on either side

C. 60° on either side

D. 90° on either side

15. **16. (204) Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?**

A. Frequent nausea

B. Temporary weight gain

C. Permanent hearing loss

D. Small overdoses have little or no effect

16. 22. (208) When the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base

A. to which the aircraft belongs

B. where the first intermediate stop is made

C. from which the mission is being performed

D. nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due

17. **27. (211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form 781**

A. A

B. B

C. K

D. L

18. 30. (211) Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?

A. Description of the corrective action

B. TO references

C. Technician’s signature

D. Supervisor’s signature

19. **31. (211) Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?**

A. Aircrew

B. Pro super

C. Crewchief

D. Comm/Nav technician

20. 34. (211) Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?

A. 781A

B. 781B

C. 781K

D. 781L

21. 53. (219) Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves

A. cooling the iron by dipping in water

B. jerking the iron to remove excess solder

C. tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder

D. keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it

22. 62. (223) Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO

A. 1-1A-14

B. 1-1A-15

C. 1-1A-16

D. 1-1A-18

23. **3. (201) Which is not a major aircraft structural area?**

A. Windows

B. Fuselage

C. Stabilizers

D. Wing carry-through.

24. 45. (215) Which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss?

A. EMP

B. Coaxial

C. Shielded

D. Insulated wire

25. 6. (203) Which is not an offensive avionics system?

A. Built-in test system

B. Controls and displays

C. Central computing complex

D. Navigation and weapons delivery.

26. 7. (203) Which is not part of an engine indicating system?

A. Fuel flow

B. Oil quantity

C. Engine vibration

D. Water temperature

27. **48. (217) Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in**

A. stretching of the glass fibers

B. greater elasticity of the glass fibers

C. reduced optical power transmission

D. good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing

28. 68. (225) The frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the

A. difference and original

B. sum and difference

C. sum and original

D. two original

29. 18. (205) Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?

A. ACC units

B. AMC units

C. AFSOC units

D. All units regardless of MAJCOM

30. 20. (206) When is the thruflight inspection performed?

A. After the last flight of the day

B. Before the aircraft goes on alert

C. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops

D. After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed

31. 9. (204) When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel

A. from the side of the wheel

B. at a 45° angle to the wheel

C. from the front of or behind the wheel

D. only after the blowout screen is in place.

32. **36. (212) To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use**

A. AFTO Form 244

B. AFTO Form 781K

C. AF Form 1492

D. AF Form 979

33. 89. (234) When the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time and are creating a

A. traveling wave

B. standing wave

C. reflected wave

D. resultant wave

34. 39. (213) An example of an ESDS device is a a. diode. b. PROM. c. transistor. d. MOSROM.

A. diode

B. PROM

C. transistor

D. MOSROM

35. **44. (214) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area?**

A. Use of ionizers

B. Wearing of personal clothing

C. Improper use of conductive bags

D. Improper use of conductive tote boxes.

36. 47. (216) All of the following are RF connector precautions except

A. never step on the cable

B. ensure a good grip when using pliers

C. ensure you solder double shielded cables together

D. ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable

37. 64. (224) What is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling?

A. Prevents slipping

B. Lessens tendencies to cut wire insulation

C. Promotes moisture and fungus resistance

D. Fulfills temperature requirements for tying materials

38. **19. (206) Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?**

A. Phase

B. Preflight

C. End-of-runway

D. Basic postflight

39. 38. (213) What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?

A. Using nonconducting packaging materials

B. Using proper insulating materials

C. Dehumidified air

D. Humid air

40. **50. (217) Optoelectronic transducer detectors perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?**

A. Amplifies output circuit signals

B. Converts electrical signals to light signals

C. Converts optical energy to electrical energy

D. Emit light when current is passed through them

41. 8. (204) What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?

A. 50 feet to the front and sides.

B. 50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides

C. 25 feet to the front and sides

D. 25 feet to the front, 10 feet to the sides.

42. 60. (222) The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the

A. tool operator

B. air/nitrogen regulator

C. temperature controller

D. tubular heating element

43. **24. (210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244 are the responsibility of**

A. aerospace ground equipment mechanics

B. avionics backshop personnel

C. flight line technicians

D. propulsion mechanics

44. **40. (214) What type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect?**

A. Intermittent

B. Erroneous signal

C. Latent or delayed

D. Total component

45. 5. (202) How do independent positioning determine subsystems function?

A. By recording radar data.

B. By calculating aircraft velocity

C. Independent of inertial navigation

D. Independent of ground equipment

46. 58. (221) One way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use

A. silicone tape

B. silicone caulking

C. heat shrinkable tape

D. electrical wrapping tape

47. 79. (230) In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called

A. slug tuning

B. ganged tuning

C. parallel tuning

D. staggered tuning

48. 87. (233) The ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a nondirectional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna

A. gain

B. arrays

C. efficiency

D. reciprocity

49. **11. (204) What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?**

A. 1 foot

B. 3 feet

C. 5 feet

D. 10 feet

50. 32. (211) Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?

A. 781A

B. 781B

C. 781H

D. 781J

51. **43. (214) What type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area?**

A. Common

B. Shielded

C. Floating

D. Hard

52. 51. (218) Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures

A. connectors will mate properly

B. solder will adhere properly

C. RF will not be impeded

D. proper connection

53. 56. (221) One purpose of crimper positioners is to

A. align crimper handles to pin contact

B. put pin contacts in the proper position

C. put the turret head in line with pin contact

D. adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins

54. 65. (224) Which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?

A. Lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping

B. Tie all wire groups or bundles 12 inches or less apart

C. Do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundle that is located inside a conduit

55. **17. (205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?**

A. Periodic

B. Phased

C. Isochronal

D. Preflight

56. **55. (220) What type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?**

A. Splice

B. Terminal lug

C. Connector splice

D. Connector plug pins

57. 63. (223) What precaution must you adhere to prior heat shrink to a wire repair job?

A. Ensure proper lighting

B. Inventory required tools

C. Read all procedures in TO 1-1A-14

D. Warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft

58. 72. (227) In an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produces an automatic frequency control correction voltage?

A. Filter

B. Converter

C. Modulator

D. Discriminator

59. 23. (209) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing? a. Special inspection. b. Operator inspection. c. Acceptance inspection. d. Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication.

A. Special inspection

B. Operator inspection

C. Acceptance inspection

D. Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication.

60. **41. (214) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?**

A. Using protective tote boxes

B. Covering LRU connector plugs

C. Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation

D. Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft

61. 70. (226) In an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's

A. frequency

B. amplitude

C. phase

D. rate

62. **12. (204) The minimum safe distance from a HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is**

A. 1 foot

B. 3 feet

C. 5 feet

D. 10 feet

63. 26. (211) The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft

A. inspections

B. flight records

C. configurations

D. component repair

64. 61. (223) As a flight line technician, you can repair up to

A. 20 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

B. 20 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

C. 25 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

D. 25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

65. 78. (229) The ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called

A. sensitivity

B. reception

C. detection

D. selection

66. 86. (233) A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by

A. accepting and amplifying the minute current

B. removing the radio frequency carrier wave

C. converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

D. electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

67. 80. (230) In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, their sum, and their difference. The difference frequency is known as the

A. sum frequency

B. original frequency

C. sideband frequency

D. intermediate frequency

68. 25. (210) Part V of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document

A. item identification

B. scheduled inspections

C. non-scheduled inspections

D. maintenance/delayed discrepancies

69. 57. (221) The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact

A. insertion into a rear-release connector plug

B. extraction from a rear-release connector plug

C. insertion into a front-release connector plug

D. extraction from a front-release connector plug

70. 88. (234) The radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the

A. shielded pair

B. air coaxial line

C. parallel two-wire

D. flexible coaxial line

71. 90. (234) What type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?

A. Copper losses

B. Dielectric losses

C. Radiation losses

D. Induction losses

72. 35. (211) Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document

A. inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period

B. all immediate and urgent action TCTOs upon compliance

C. the status of depot inspections

D. higher authority inspections

73. 66. (225) The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is

A. a buffer amplifier

B. an audio amplifier

C. a power amplifier

D. a frequency multiplier

74. 69. (226) Which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?

A. Frequency

B. Amplitude

C. Phase

D. Rate

75. 82. (231) FM modulation signals ***provide* much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals *because***

A. FM uses a lower frequency range

B. amplitude modulation of the carrier increases

C. of an increase in the number of sidebands

D. of a decrease in the number of sidebands

76. **46. (216) Which is not a type of connector coupling? a. Friction. b. Bayonet. c. Insertion. d. Threaded.**

A. Friction

B. Bayonet

C. Insertion

D. Threaded

77. 67. (225) To achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?

A. Linear amplifier

B. Power amplifier

C. Balanced amplifier

D. Non-linear amplifier

78. 21. (207) Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?

A. Minor

B. Major

C. Phase

D. Periodic

79. 77. (228) The single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the

A. balanced amplifier

B. power synthesizer

C. balanced modulator

D. linear power amplifier

80. **85. (232) A major drawback in using a single-sideband receiver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the**

A. need for critical frequency stability

B. single-sideband receiver has a narrower bandpass

C. amplitude modulated receiver requires only one oscillator circuit

D. weak signals are easy to detect in the amplitude modulated receiver

81. 59. (222) The MIL-STD that governs heat tool operations in a potentially explosive environment is

A. 810

B. 811

C. 812

D. 813

82. 74. (228) Which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband?

A. Power efficiency

B. Frequency stability

C. Signal-to-noise ratio

D. Spectrum conservation

83. 75. (228) In a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by

A. the original carrier frequency

B. reinserted carrier frequencies

C. precision frequency standards

D. carefully controlled oscillators

84. 76. (228) In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of

A. the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

B. the upper and lower sidebands

C. lower sideband only

D. upper sideband only

85. **54. (220) Which is not a type of solderless connector?**

A. Splice

B. Terminal lug

C. Connector splice

D. Connector plug pins

86. 83. (232) The two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place

A. more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass

B. more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver bandpass

C. fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass

D. fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver bandpass

87. 81. (231) The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to

A. add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal

B. remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal

C. remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal

D. rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section

88. 71. (227) In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the

A. reactance modulator

B. power amplifier circuit

C. frequency multiplier circuit

D. frequency discriminator circuit

89. 73. (227) The ***low-pass filter* in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter *prevents***

A. the lower sideband from being transmitted

B. correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals

C. carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

D. the audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator

90. 84. (232) The basic difference between the single-sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a

A. carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuit

B. special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator

C. discriminator and local oscillator circuit

D. limiter and special mixer circuit.

Volume 2 2A851

1. 4. (202) What components guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. 28. (211) At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

3. 1. (201) What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?

4. 10. (204) Initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?

5. 29. (211) Who ensures that the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

6. 37. (212) What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?

7. 15. (204) Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?

8. 33. (211) Which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time?

9. 42. (214) When working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use

10. 2. (201) Which major aircraft structural area provides support for the engines?

11. 49. (217) What is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire? a. Immunity to electromagnetic interference. b. Low attenuation. c. Light weight. d. Cost.

12. 52. (218) Flux is designed to

13. 13. (204) Which condition is not caused by overexposure to noise?

14. 14. (204) The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to the rear of the engine through an angle of a. 30° on either side. b. 45° on either side. c. 60° on either side. d. 90° on either side.

15. 16. (204) Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?

16. 22. (208) When the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base

17. 27. (211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form 781

18. 30. (211) Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?

19. 31. (211) Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?

20. 34. (211) Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?

21. 53. (219) Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves

22. 62. (223) Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO

23. 3. (201) Which is not a major aircraft structural area?

24. 45. (215) Which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss?

25. 6. (203) Which is not an offensive avionics system?

26. 7. (203) Which is not part of an engine indicating system?

27. 48. (217) Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in

28. 68. (225) The frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the

29. 18. (205) Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?

30. 20. (206) When is the thruflight inspection performed?

31. 9. (204) When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel

32. 36. (212) To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use

33. 89. (234) When the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time and are creating a

34. 39. (213) An example of an ESDS device is a a. diode. b. PROM. c. transistor. d. MOSROM.

35. 44. (214) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area?

36. 47. (216) All of the following are RF connector precautions except

37. 64. (224) What is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling?

38. 19. (206) Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?

39. 38. (213) What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?

40. 50. (217) Optoelectronic transducer detectors perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?

41. 8. (204) What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?

42. 60. (222) The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the

43. 24. (210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244 are the responsibility of

44. 40. (214) What type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect?

45. 5. (202) How do independent positioning determine subsystems function?

46. 58. (221) One way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use

47. 79. (230) In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called

48. 87. (233) The ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a nondirectional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna

49. 11. (204) What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?

50. 32. (211) Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?

51. 43. (214) What type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area?

52. 51. (218) Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures

53. 56. (221) One purpose of crimper positioners is to

54. 65. (224) Which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?

55. 17. (205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?

56. 55. (220) What type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?

57. 63. (223) What precaution must you adhere to prior heat shrink to a wire repair job?

58. 72. (227) In an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produces an automatic frequency control correction voltage?

59. 23. (209) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing? a. Special inspection. b. Operator inspection. c. Acceptance inspection. d. Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication.

60. 41. (214) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?

61. 70. (226) In an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's

62. 12. (204) The minimum safe distance from a HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is

63. 26. (211) The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft

64. 61. (223) As a flight line technician, you can repair up to

65. 78. (229) The ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called

66. 86. (233) A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by

67. 80. (230) In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, their sum, and their difference. The difference frequency is known as the

68. 25. (210) Part V of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document

69. 57. (221) The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact

70. 88. (234) The radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the

71. 90. (234) What type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?

72. 35. (211) Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document

73. 66. (225) The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is

74. 69. (226) Which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?

75. 82. (231) FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because

76. 46. (216) Which is not a type of connector coupling? a. Friction. b. Bayonet. c. Insertion. d. Threaded.

77. 67. (225) To achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?

7. **15. (204) Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?**

9. **42. (214) When working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use**

10. **2. (201) Which major aircraft structural area provides support for the engines?**

11. **49. (217) What is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire? a. Immunity to electromagnetic interference. b. Low attenuation. c. Light weight. d. Cost.**

13. **13. (204) Which condition is not caused by overexposure to noise?**

15. **16. (204) Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?**

17. **27. (211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form 781**

19. **31. (211) Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?**

23. **3. (201) Which is not a major aircraft structural area?**

27. **48. (217) Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in**

32. **36. (212) To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use**

35. **44. (214) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area?**

38. **19. (206) Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?**

40. **50. (217) Optoelectronic transducer detectors perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?**

43. **24. (210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244 are the responsibility of**

44. **40. (214) What type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect?**

49. **11. (204) What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?**

51. **43. (214) What type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area?**

55. **17. (205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?**

56. **55. (220) What type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?**

60. **41. (214) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?**

62. **12. (204) The minimum safe distance from a HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is**

75. 82. (231) FM modulation signals ***provide* much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals *because***

76. **46. (216) Which is not a type of connector coupling? a. Friction. b. Bayonet. c. Insertion. d. Threaded.**

80. **85. (232) A major drawback in using a single-sideband receiver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the**

85. **54. (220) Which is not a type of solderless connector?**

89. 73. (227) The ***low-pass filter* in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter *prevents***