Volume 2 2A851
- 1.
1. (201) What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- A.
A. Doors.
- B.
B. Nacelles
- C.
C. Windows
- D.
D. Plates and skins
Correct Answer
A. A. Doors. -
- 2.
2. (201) Which major aircraft structural area provides support for the engines?
- A.
A. Wings
- B.
B. Nacelles
- C.
C. Fuselage
- D.
D. Stabilizers
Correct Answer
B. B. Nacelles -
- 3.
3. (201) Which is not a major aircraft structural area?
- A.
A. Windows
- B.
B. Fuselage
- C.
C. Stabilizers
- D.
D. Wing carry-through.
Correct Answer
D. D. Wing carry-through. -
- 4.
4. (202) What components guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?
- A.
A. Initiators
- B.
B. Stabilizers
- C.
C. Safety pins
- D.
D. Red streamers
Correct Answer
C. C. Safety pins -
- 5.
5. (202) How do independent positioning determine subsystems function?
- A.
A. By recording radar data.
- B.
B. By calculating aircraft velocity
- C.
C. Independent of inertial navigation
- D.
D. Independent of ground equipment
Correct Answer
D. D. Independent of ground equipment -
- 6.
6. (203) Which is not an offensive avionics system?
- A.
A. Built-in test system
- B.
B. Controls and displays
- C.
C. Central computing complex
- D.
D. Navigation and weapons delivery.
Correct Answer
A. A. Built-in test system -
- 7.
7. (203) Which is not part of an engine indicating system?
- A.
A. Fuel flow
- B.
B. Oil quantity
- C.
C. Engine vibration
- D.
D. Water temperature
Correct Answer
D. D. Water temperature -
- 8.
8. (204) What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
- A.
A. 50 feet to the front and sides.
- B.
B. 50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides
- C.
C. 25 feet to the front and sides
- D.
D. 25 feet to the front, 10 feet to the sides.
Correct Answer
C. C. 25 feet to the front and sides -
- 9.
9. (204) When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
- A.
A. from the side of the wheel
- B.
B. at a 45° angle to the wheel
- C.
C. from the front of or behind the wheel
- D.
D. only after the blowout screen is in place.
Correct Answer
C. C. from the front of or behind the wheel -
- 10.
10. (204) Initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
- A.
A. Nothing
- B.
B. Heat is produced
- C.
C. Your heart beats irregularly
- D.
D. Your internal organs start deteriorating.
Correct Answer
B. B. Heat is produced -
- 11.
11. (204) What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
- A.
A. 1 foot
- B.
B. 3 feet
- C.
C. 5 feet
- D.
D. 10 feet
Correct Answer
A. A. 1 foot -
- 12.
12. (204) The minimum safe distance from a HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
- A.
A. 1 foot
- B.
B. 3 feet
- C.
C. 5 feet
- D.
D. 10 feet
Correct Answer
C. C. 5 feet -
- 13.
13. (204) Which condition is not caused by overexposure to noise?
- A.
A. Fatigue
- B.
B. Hearing damage
- C.
C. Speech problems
- D.
D. Excessive energy
Correct Answer
D. D. Excessive energy -
- 14.
14. (204) The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to the rear of the engine through an angle of a. 30° on either side. b. 45° on either side. c. 60° on either side. d. 90° on either side.
- A.
A. 30° on either side
- B.
B. 45° on either side
- C.
C. 60° on either side
- D.
D. 90° on either side
Correct Answer
B. B. 45° on either side -
- 15.
15. (204) Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?
- A.
A. Nausea
- B.
B. Vomiting
- C.
C. Dizziness
- D.
D. Unconsciousness
Correct Answer
D. D. Unconsciousness -
- 16.
16. (204) Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?
- A.
A. Frequent nausea
- B.
B. Temporary weight gain
- C.
C. Permanent hearing loss
- D.
D. Small overdoses have little or no effect
Correct Answer
C. C. Permanent hearing loss -
- 17.
17. (205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
A. Periodic
- B.
B. Phased
- C.
C. Isochronal
- D.
D. Preflight
Correct Answer
D. D. Preflight -
- 18.
18. (205) Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?
- A.
A. ACC units
- B.
B. AMC units
- C.
C. AFSOC units
- D.
D. All units regardless of MAJCOM
Correct Answer
D. D. All units regardless of MAJCOM -
- 19.
19. (206) Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?
- A.
A. Phase
- B.
B. Preflight
- C.
C. End-of-runway
- D.
D. Basic postflight
Correct Answer
C. C. End-of-runway -
- 20.
20. (206) When is the thruflight inspection performed?
- A.
A. After the last flight of the day
- B.
B. Before the aircraft goes on alert
- C.
C. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
- D.
D. After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed
Correct Answer
C. C. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops -
- 21.
21. (207) Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- A.
A. Minor
- B.
B. Major
- C.
C. Phase
- D.
D. Periodic
Correct Answer
D. D. Periodic -
- 22.
22. (208) When the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base
- A.
A. to which the aircraft belongs
- B.
B. where the first intermediate stop is made
- C.
C. from which the mission is being performed
- D.
D. nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due
Correct Answer
A. A. to which the aircraft belongs -
- 23.
23. (209) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing? a. Special inspection. b. Operator inspection. c. Acceptance inspection. d. Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication.
- A.
A. Special inspection
- B.
B. Operator inspection
- C.
C. Acceptance inspection
- D.
D. Periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication.
Correct Answer
B. B. Operator inspection -
- 24.
24. (210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244 are the responsibility of
- A.
A. aerospace ground equipment mechanics
- B.
B. avionics backshop personnel
- C.
C. flight line technicians
- D.
D. propulsion mechanics
Correct Answer
A. A. aerospace ground equipment mechanics -
- 25.
25. (210) Part V of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document
- A.
A. item identification
- B.
B. scheduled inspections
- C.
C. non-scheduled inspections
- D.
D. maintenance/delayed discrepancies
Correct Answer
D. D. maintenance/delayed discrepancies -
- 26.
26. (211) The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft
- A.
A. inspections
- B.
B. flight records
- C.
C. configurations
- D.
D. component repair
Correct Answer
D. D. component repair -
- 27.
27. (211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form 781
- A.
A. A
- B.
B. B
- C.
C. K
- D.
D. L
Correct Answer
A. A. A -
- 28.
28. (211) At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
A. When you enter them in error
- B.
B. When you find them to be incorrect
- C.
C. When you must correct a discrepancy
- D.
D. Never, even if you entered them in error
Correct Answer
D. D. Never, even if you entered them in error -
- 29.
29. (211) Who ensures that the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
A. Technician
- B.
B. Supervisor
- C.
C. Crew chief
- D.
D. Aircrew member
Correct Answer
A. A. Technician -
- 30.
30. (211) Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
A. Description of the corrective action
- B.
B. TO references
- C.
C. Technician’s signature
- D.
D. Supervisor’s signature
Correct Answer
A. A. Description of the corrective action -
- 31.
31. (211) Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?
- A.
A. Aircrew
- B.
B. Pro super
- C.
C. Crewchief
- D.
D. Comm/Nav technician
Correct Answer
D. D. Comm/Nav technician -
- 32.
32. (211) Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
- A.
A. 781A
- B.
B. 781B
- C.
C. 781H
- D.
D. 781J
Correct Answer
C. C. 781H -
- 33.
33. (211) Which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time?
- A.
A. 781A
- B.
B. 781J
- C.
C. 781K
- D.
D. 781L
Correct Answer
B. B. 781J -
- 34.
34. (211) Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
- A.
A. 781A
- B.
B. 781B
- C.
C. 781K
- D.
D. 781L
Correct Answer
C. C. 781K -
- 35.
35. (211) Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
- A.
A. inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period
- B.
B. all immediate and urgent action TCTOs upon compliance
- C.
C. the status of depot inspections
- D.
D. higher authority inspections
Correct Answer
A. A. inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period -
- 36.
36. (212) To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
- A.
A. AFTO Form 244
- B.
B. AFTO Form 781K
- C.
C. AF Form 1492
- D.
D. AF Form 979
Correct Answer
C. C. AF Form 1492 -
- 37.
37. (212) What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?
- A.
A. The bottom portion
- B.
B. The top portion
- C.
C. Neither
- D.
D. Both
Correct Answer
A. A. The bottom portion -
- 38.
38. (213) What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
- A.
A. Using nonconducting packaging materials
- B.
B. Using proper insulating materials
- C.
C. Dehumidified air
- D.
D. Humid air
Correct Answer
D. D. Humid air -
- 39.
39. (213) An example of an ESDS device is a a. diode. b. PROM. c. transistor. d. MOSROM.
- A.
A. diode
- B.
B. PROM
- C.
C. transistor
- D.
D. MOSROM
Correct Answer
B. B. PROM -
- 40.
40. (214) What type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect?
- A.
A. Intermittent
- B.
B. Erroneous signal
- C.
C. Latent or delayed
- D.
D. Total component
Correct Answer
C. C. Latent or delayed -
- 41.
41. (214) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
- A.
A. Using protective tote boxes
- B.
B. Covering LRU connector plugs
- C.
C. Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
- D.
D. Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
Correct Answer
A. A. Using protective tote boxes -
- 42.
42. (214) When working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use
- A.
A. ungrounded floormats
- B.
B. a grounded workbench
- C.
C. nonconductive antistatic mats
- D.
D. a grounded LRU cable
Correct Answer
B. B. a grounded workbench -
- 43.
43. (214) What type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area?
- A.
A. Common
- B.
B. Shielded
- C.
C. Floating
- D.
D. Hard
Correct Answer
D. D. Hard -
- 44.
44. (214) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area?
- A.
A. Use of ionizers
- B.
B. Wearing of personal clothing
- C.
C. Improper use of conductive bags
- D.
D. Improper use of conductive tote boxes.
Correct Answer
A. A. Use of ionizers -
- 45.
45. (215) Which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss?
- A.
A. EMP
- B.
B. Coaxial
- C.
C. Shielded
- D.
D. Insulated wire
Correct Answer
B. B. Coaxial -
- 46.
46. (216) Which is not a type of connector coupling? a. Friction. b. Bayonet. c. Insertion. d. Threaded.
- A.
A. Friction
- B.
B. Bayonet
- C.
C. Insertion
- D.
D. Threaded
Correct Answer
C. C. Insertion -
- 47.
47. (216) All of the following are RF connector precautions except
- A.
A. never step on the cable
- B.
B. ensure a good grip when using pliers
- C.
C. ensure you solder double shielded cables together
- D.
D. ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable
Correct Answer
B. B. ensure a good grip when using pliers -
- 48.
48. (217) Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
- A.
A. stretching of the glass fibers
- B.
B. greater elasticity of the glass fibers
- C.
C. reduced optical power transmission
- D.
D. good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing
Correct Answer
C. C. reduced optical power transmission -
- 49.
49. (217) What is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire? a. Immunity to electromagnetic interference. b. Low attenuation. c. Light weight. d. Cost.
- A.
A. Immunity to electromagnetic interference
- B.
B. Low attenuation
- C.
C. Light weight
- D.
D. Cost
Correct Answer
D. D. Cost -
- 50.
50. (217) Optoelectronic transducer detectors perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
- A.
A. Amplifies output circuit signals
- B.
B. Converts electrical signals to light signals
- C.
C. Converts optical energy to electrical energy
- D.
D. Emit light when current is passed through them
Correct Answer
C. C. Converts optical energy to electrical energy -
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