3P071 Volume 2
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VOLUME 2
- 1.The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
- A.
Base defense operations center (BDOC).
- B.
Point of insertion.
- C.
Base perimeter.
- D.
Resource.
- 2.The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
- A.
Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
- B.
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- D.
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- 3.At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
- A.
S1 and S3.
- B.
S2 and S4.
- C.
S2 and S3.
- D.
S3 and S4.
- 4.What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
The operations officer and staff.
- B.
Supply noncommissioned officer.
- C.
First sergeant or section commander.
- D.
Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
- 5.In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
By rank and function.
- B.
By function and location.
- C.
By service component or function.
- D.
By service component and location.
- 6.The primary mission of a joint operation is
- A.
Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
- B.
Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
- C.
Disaster relief operations.
- D.
Humanitarian operations.
- 7.When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
- B.
Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
- C.
Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
- D.
Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
- 8.A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
Non-state-supported.
- B.
State-supported.
- C.
Stated-directed.
- D.
State-organized.
- 9.A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
- A.
Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
- B.
Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
- C.
Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
- D.
Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
- 10.Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
16–24.
- B.
21–28.
- C.
23–30.
- D.
25–32.
- 11.When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
Before execution of attack.
- B.
Just before departing for the target sight.
- C.
One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- D.
Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
- 12.The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
Arson.
- B.
Bombing.
- C.
Hijacking.
- D.
Assassination.
- 13.The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
- B.
Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
- C.
Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
- D.
Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
- 14.What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
Activity.
- B.
Intentions.
- C.
Operational capability.
- D.
Operating environment.
- 15.Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
Communication security (COMSEC).
- B.
Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
Information security (INFOSEC).
- D.
Operations security (OPSEC).
- 16.The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
- A.
Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
- C.
Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- D.
Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
- 17.When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
At the earliest possible moment.
- B.
Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
- C.
Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
- D.
Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
- 18.Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
I.
- B.
II.
- C.
III.
- D.
IV.
- 19.Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
Partisans.
- B.
Terrorists.
- C.
Sympathizers.
- D.
Agent activity.
- 20.Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
- A.
IV.
- B.
III.
- C.
II.
- D.
I.
- 21.Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
I.
- B.
II.
- C.
III.
- D.
IV.
- 22.What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
- A.
Force protection (FP) working.
- B.
Anti-terrorism working.
- C.
Physical security.
- D.
Threat working.
- 23.Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
Annual process.
- B.
Bi-annual process.
- C.
Monthly process.
- D.
Continual process.
- 24.What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
Risk.
- B.
Threat.
- C.
Vulnerability.
- D.
Anti-terrorism.
- 25.The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
- A.
The classified protection plan.
- B.
Protecting sensitive information.
- C.
The offensive force protection plan.
- D.
The defensive force protection plan.
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