3P071 Volume 2
VOLUME 2
- 1.
The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
- A.
Base defense operations center (BDOC).
- B.
Point of insertion.
- C.
Base perimeter.
- D.
Resource.
Correct Answer
D. Resource. -
- 2.
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
- A.
Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
- B.
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- D.
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base. -
- 3.
At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
- A.
S1 and S3.
- B.
S2 and S4.
- C.
S2 and S3.
- D.
S3 and S4.
Correct Answer
C. S2 and S3. -
- 4.
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
The operations officer and staff.
- B.
Supply noncommissioned officer.
- C.
First sergeant or section commander.
- D.
Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff. -
- 5.
In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
By rank and function.
- B.
By function and location.
- C.
By service component or function.
- D.
By service component and location.
Correct Answer
C. By service component or function. -
- 6.
The primary mission of a joint operation is
- A.
Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
- B.
Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
- C.
Disaster relief operations.
- D.
Humanitarian operations.
Correct Answer
B. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. -
- 7.
When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
- B.
Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
- C.
Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
- D.
Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Correct Answer
D. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. -
- 8.
A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
Non-state-supported.
- B.
State-supported.
- C.
Stated-directed.
- D.
State-organized.
Correct Answer
B. State-supported. -
- 9.
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
- A.
Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
- B.
Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
- C.
Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
- D.
Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
Correct Answer
B. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support. -
- 10.
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
16–24.
- B.
21–28.
- C.
23–30.
- D.
25–32.
Correct Answer
C. 23–30. -
- 11.
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
Before execution of attack.
- B.
Just before departing for the target sight.
- C.
One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- D.
Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
B. Just before departing for the target sight. -
- 12.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
Arson.
- B.
Bombing.
- C.
Hijacking.
- D.
Assassination.
Correct Answer
B. Bombing. -
- 13.
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
- B.
Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
- C.
Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
- D.
Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
Correct Answer
B. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. -
- 14.
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
Activity.
- B.
Intentions.
- C.
Operational capability.
- D.
Operating environment.
Correct Answer
B. Intentions. -
- 15.
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
Communication security (COMSEC).
- B.
Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
Information security (INFOSEC).
- D.
Operations security (OPSEC).
Correct Answer
D. Operations security (OPSEC). -
- 16.
The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
- A.
Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
- C.
Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- D.
Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
Correct Answer
C. Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. -
- 17.
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
At the earliest possible moment.
- B.
Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
- C.
Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
- D.
Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible moment. -
- 18.
Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
I.
- B.
II.
- C.
III.
- D.
IV.
Correct Answer
B. II. -
- 19.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
Partisans.
- B.
Terrorists.
- C.
Sympathizers.
- D.
Agent activity.
Correct Answer
C. Sympathizers. -
- 20.
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
- A.
IV.
- B.
III.
- C.
II.
- D.
I.
Correct Answer
C. II. -
- 21.
Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
I.
- B.
II.
- C.
III.
- D.
IV.
Correct Answer
C. III. -
- 22.
What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
- A.
Force protection (FP) working.
- B.
Anti-terrorism working.
- C.
Physical security.
- D.
Threat working.
Correct Answer
A. Force protection (FP) working. -
- 23.
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
Annual process.
- B.
Bi-annual process.
- C.
Monthly process.
- D.
Continual process.
Correct Answer
D. Continual process. -
- 24.
What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
Risk.
- B.
Threat.
- C.
Vulnerability.
- D.
Anti-terrorism.
Correct Answer
C. Vulnerability. -
- 25.
The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
- A.
The classified protection plan.
- B.
Protecting sensitive information.
- C.
The offensive force protection plan.
- D.
The defensive force protection plan.
Correct Answer
B. Protecting sensitive information. -
- 26.
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
- A.
Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
- B.
Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
- C.
Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
- D.
Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). -
- 27.
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
- A.
Hide.
- B.
Blend.
- C.
Decoy.
- D.
Disguise.
Correct Answer
D. Disguise. -
- 28.
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
- A.
Through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.
- B.
With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
- C.
Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
- D.
Through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).
Correct Answer
B. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD). -
- 29.
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
- A.
Quarantine.
- B.
Peacekeeping.
- C.
Clandestine infiltration.
- D.
Humanitarian assistance.
Correct Answer
C. Clandestine infiltration. -
- 30.
Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
- A.
Unity of Effort.
- B.
Objective.
- C.
Restraint.
- D.
Security.
Correct Answer
D. Security. -
- 31.
As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
- A.
Full spectrum of air and space domination.
- B.
Deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously.
- C.
Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.
- D.
Supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders.
Correct Answer
C. Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time. -
- 32.
What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?
- A.
12 hours.
- B.
24 hours.
- C.
48 hours.
- D.
72 hours.
Correct Answer
D. 72 hours. -
- 33.
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
- A.
Detectors.
- B.
Monitors.
- C.
Fighters.
- D.
Sensors.
Correct Answer
D. Sensors. -
- 34.
What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
- A.
Support.
- B.
Foundation.
- C.
Tactical operation.
- D.
Retrograde operations.
Correct Answer
B. Foundation. -
- 35.
Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
- A.
Anticipate.
- B.
Detect.
- C.
Delay.
- D.
Deny.
Correct Answer
C. Delay. -
- 36.
What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?
- A.
Countermeasures options.
- B.
If reassessments and follow ups are needed.
- C.
Whether to introduce risk management process training.
- D.
If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges.
Correct Answer
A. Countermeasures options. -
- 37.
An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
- A.
Within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- B.
On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- C.
On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives.
- D.
Within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
Correct Answer
B. On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives. -
- 38.
What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
- A.
Two bomber group leads (BGL).
- B.
Three BGLs.
- C.
Four BGLs.
- D.
Five BGLs.
Correct Answer
D. Five BGLs. -
- 39.
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
- A.
Predictability.
- B.
Flexibility.
- C.
Mobility.
- D.
Stability.
Correct Answer
A. Predictability. -
- 40.
Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
- A.
UT.
- B.
FP.
- C.
AT.
- D.
QF.
Correct Answer
D. QF. -
- 41.
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
- A.
Any level.
- B.
Unit level.
- C.
Major command (MAJCOM) level.
- D.
Air Staff level only.
Correct Answer
A. Any level. -
- 42.
What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
- A.
Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD).
- B.
Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Roster (AFWUR).
- C.
Air Expeditionary Unit Tasking Summary Sheet (AUTSS).
- D.
Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS). -
- 43.
Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
- A.
Maneuver.
- B.
Offensive.
- C.
Objective.
- D.
Mass.
Correct Answer
C. Objective. -
- 44.
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
- A.
Unity of command.
- B.
Simplicity.
- C.
Objective.
- D.
Offensive.
Correct Answer
B. Simplicity. -
- 45.
Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
- A.
Follow the rule of law.
- B.
Meet manning standards.
- C.
Follow national policy goals.
- D.
Follow mission requirements.
Correct Answer
B. Meet manning standards. -
- 46.
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
- A.
United Nations.
- B.
Geneva Convention.
- C.
Joint force commander’s directives.
- D.
US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).
Correct Answer
D. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE). -
- 47.
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
- A.
Prevent unnecessary suffering.
- B.
Prevent use of political influence.
- C.
Maintain a well-defined military plan.
- D.
Provide equal representation of all combatants.
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering. -
- 48.
What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
- A.
Sustainability.
- B.
Attainability.
- C.
Flexibility.
- D.
Simplicity.
Correct Answer
C. Flexibility. -
- 49.
What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
- A.
QFDB9.
- B.
QFEBA.
- C.
QFEBB.
- D.
QFEBD.
Correct Answer
A. QFDB9. -
- 50.
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
- A.
QFEBU.
- B.
QFEPR.
- C.
QFFPF.
- D.
QFEBA.
Correct Answer
D. QFEBA. -
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