3P071 Volume 2

90 Questions | Attempts: 185
Share
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/90 Questions

    What is the staff make-up for the S3?

    • The operations officer and staff.
    • Supply noncommissioned officer.
    • First sergeant or section commander.
    • Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Please wait...
About This Quiz

VOLUME 2

3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

    • Bare base (BB).

    • Standby base (SB).

    • Main operating base (MOB).

    • Collocated operating base (COB).

    Correct Answer
    A. Main operating base (MOB).
  • 3. 

    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

    • Arson.

    • Bombing.

    • Hijacking.

    • Assassination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing.
  • 4. 

    When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

    • At the earliest possible moment.

    • Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.

    • Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.

    • Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.

    Correct Answer
    A. At the earliest possible moment.
  • 5. 

    Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

    • A scrape out.

    • A shell crate.

    • Peak of a roof.

    • Under a parked vehicle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Peak of a roof.
  • 6. 

    What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

    • Maps.

    • Signals.

    • Reports.

    • Telegrams.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports.
  • 7. 

    Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to

    • Indicate enemy location using flares.

    • Protect themselves.

    • Report information.

    • Observe the area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicate enemy location using flares.
  • 8. 

    When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

    • ENGAGEMENT ZONE.

    • AMBUSH ZONE.

    • DEATH ZONE.

    • KILL ZONE.

    Correct Answer
    A. KILL ZONE.
  • 9. 

    A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

    • Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.

    • Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

    • Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.

    • Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
  • 10. 

    Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

    • Communication security (COMSEC).

    • Computer security (COMPUSEC).

    • Information security (INFOSEC).

    • Operations security (OPSEC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations security (OPSEC).
  • 11. 

    Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

    • UT.

    • FP.

    • AT.

    • QF.

    Correct Answer
    A. QF.
  • 12. 

    What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

    • Prevent unnecessary suffering.

    • Prevent use of political influence.

    • Maintain a well-defined military plan.

    • Provide equal representation of all combatants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent unnecessary suffering.
  • 13. 

    What should always be your first priority of work?

    • Establish local security.

    • Emplace obstacles and mines.

    • Prepare primary fighting positions.

    • Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish local security.
  • 14. 

    What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

    • When you have made contact with the enemy.

    • When time and materials are not a factor.

    • When there is ample natural cover.

    • When aerial strikes are imminent.

    Correct Answer
    A. When you have made contact with the enemy.
  • 15. 

    Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?

    • In a water tower.

    • In a stand-alone position.

    • In a single small gathering of trees.

    • In a position that doesn’t draw attention.

    Correct Answer
    A. In a position that doesn’t draw attention.
  • 16. 

    A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

    • Non-state-supported.

    • State-supported.

    • Stated-directed.

    • State-organized.

    Correct Answer
    A. State-supported.
  • 17. 

    To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

    • Hide.

    • Blend.

    • Decoy.

    • Disguise.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disguise.
  • 18. 

    Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

    • United Nations.

    • Geneva Convention.

    • Joint force commander’s directives.

    • US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).

    Correct Answer
    A. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).
  • 19. 

    What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

    • The entire base tactical boundary.

    • The entire air base defense (ABD) plan.

    • The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).

    • The limiting factors to the defense of the air base.

    Correct Answer
    A. The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).
  • 20. 

    What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

    • Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any.

    • Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT–4s.

    • Mines (claymores), sensors, and obstacles.

    • Location of home station flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Location of home station flight.
  • 21. 

    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

    • S1 and S3.

    • S2 and S4.

    • S2 and S3.

    • S3 and S4.

    Correct Answer
    A. S2 and S3.
  • 22. 

    When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

    • Determine which other countries support their beliefs.

    • Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.

    • Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.

    • Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
  • 23. 

    Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

    • Annual process.

    • Bi-annual process.

    • Monthly process.

    • Continual process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual process.
  • 24. 

    Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

    • Detectors.

    • Monitors.

    • Fighters.

    • Sensors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensors.
  • 25. 

    A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

    • Exclusion area.

    • Search area.

    • Denial area.

    • Safe area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Search area.
  • 26. 

    Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

    • Man-made and fabricated.

    • Natural and structural.

    • Hard and soft.

    • Left and right.

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural and structural.
  • 27. 

    Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

    • Follow the rule of law.

    • Meet manning standards.

    • Follow national policy goals.

    • Follow mission requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meet manning standards.
  • 28. 

    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

    • State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).

    • Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

    • Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.

    • Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
  • 29. 

    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

    • Partisans.

    • Terrorists.

    • Sympathizers.

    • Agent activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathizers.
  • 30. 

    In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?

    • 400.

    • 600.

    • 800.

    • 1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 800.
  • 31. 

    Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

    • III and IV.

    • II and III.

    • II and IV.

    • I and IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. II and III.
  • 32. 

    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

    • Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.

    • Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
  • 33. 

    What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

    • 12 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    • 48 hours.

    • 72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 72 hours.
  • 34. 

    When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

    • Provide covering fire for the assault element.

    • It’s only function is with the maneuver element.

    • Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams.

    • Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide covering fire for the assault element.
  • 35. 

    You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the

    • Number of troops required guarding it.

    • Amount of time it would take to patrol the area.

    • Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.

    • Necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.
  • 36. 

    The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

    • Base defense operations center (BDOC).

    • Point of insertion.

    • Base perimeter.

    • Resource.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource.
  • 37. 

    The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with

    • A red line.

    • A temporary sign.

    • Rope marking off the area.

    • Posted guards every 50 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. A temporary sign.
  • 38. 

    The primary mission of a joint operation is

    • Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.

    • Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

    • Disaster relief operations.

    • Humanitarian operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
  • 39. 

    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

    • 16–24.

    • 21–28.

    • 23–30.

    • 25–32.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23–30.
  • 40. 

    The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities

    • Through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.

    • With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).

    • Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.

    • Through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).

    Correct Answer
    A. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
  • 41. 

    Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

    • Quarantine.

    • Peacekeeping.

    • Clandestine infiltration.

    • Humanitarian assistance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clandestine infiltration.
  • 42. 

    Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

    • Anticipate.

    • Detect.

    • Delay.

    • Deny.

    Correct Answer
    A. Delay.
  • 43. 

    Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited

    • Depth.

    • Intelligence.

    • Denial capabilities.

    • All-around defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Depth.
  • 44. 

    What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

    • Individual personnel.

    • Light armored vehicles in sector.

    • Crew-served automatic weapons.

    • Groups of five or more in the primary sector.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crew-served automatic weapons.
  • 45. 

    The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be

    • Protected and guarded.

    • Safe and comfortable.

    • Well lit and elevated.

    • Cool and calm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safe and comfortable.
  • 46. 

    What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

    • Activity.

    • Intentions.

    • Operational capability.

    • Operating environment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intentions.
  • 47. 

    How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

    • 5 days.

    • 7 days.

    • 14 days.

    • 30 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 days.
  • 48. 

    What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

    • Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack.

    • Counter-espionage and counterattack.

    • Counterattack and counter-resistance.

    • Counter-defense and counterattack.

    Correct Answer
    A. Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack.
  • 49. 

    Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?

    • On enemy positions away from the breach site.

    • To isolate the objective.

    • For close suppression.

    • To clear a path.

    Correct Answer
    A. To isolate the objective.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 31, 2014 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 31, 2014
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 20, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    M_Jefferson1385
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.