3P071 Volume 1

99 Questions

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

Volume 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
    • A. 

      The first duty day following completion.

    • B. 

      Within 30 days of completion.

    • C. 

      72 hours after completion.

    • D. 

      48 hours after completion.

  • 2. 
    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight
    • A. 

      Commander.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      SNCO.

    • D. 

      Chief.

  • 3. 
    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
    • A. 

      SFS.

    • B. 

      SFM.

    • C. 

      SFO.

    • D. 

      SFT.

  • 4. 
    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
    • A. 

      Security patrol.

    • B. 

      Security force members.

    • C. 

      SRT member.

    • D. 

      ART member.

  • 5. 
    What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
    • A. 

      Internal SRT.

    • B. 

      Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • C. 

      Close boundary sentry.

    • D. 

      External SRT.

  • 6. 
    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
    • A. 

      Internal SRT.

    • B. 

      Immediate visual assessment sentries.

    • C. 

      Close boundary sentry.

    • D. 

      External SRT.

  • 7. 
    When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person
    • A. 

      Fire teams.

    • B. 

      Internal SRTs.

    • C. 

      Security patrols.

    • D. 

      Close boundary sentries.

  • 8. 
    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
    • A. 

      Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.

    • B. 

      Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.

    • C. 

      Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area.

    • D. 

      Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.

  • 9. 
    What does SEI stand for?
    • A. 

      Security entry identifier.

    • B. 

      Security experience index.

    • C. 

      Special delivery identifier.

    • D. 

      Special experience identifier.

  • 10. 
    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      MSCFO.

    • B. 

      IVA.

    • C. 

      CCTV.

    • D. 

      CBS.

  • 11. 
    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
    • A. 

      Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.

    • B. 

      Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs.

    • C. 

      Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.

    • D. 

      How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron.

  • 12. 
    What are the three main branches of most SF units?
    • A. 

      SFT, SFO and SFL.

    • B. 

      SFO, SFOA and SFT.

    • C. 

      SFO, SFT and SFA.

    • D. 

      SFS, CSF and SFM.

  • 13. 
    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?
    • A. 

      Report of survey office of investigation.

    • B. 

      Air Force office of investigation.

    • C. 

      Security forces training team.

    • D. 

      Security forces investigations.

  • 14. 
    Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?
    • A. 

      Phoenix ravens.

    • B. 

      Security systems operators.

    • C. 

      Electronic security systems.

    • D. 

      Antiterrorism/force protection.

  • 15. 
    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
    • A. 

      Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

    • B. 

      Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.

    • C. 

      Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.

    • D. 

      Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

  • 16. 
    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
    • A. 

      Investigations.

    • B. 

      Crime prevention.

    • C. 

      Resource protection.

    • D. 

      Reports and analysis.

  • 17. 
    Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
    • A. 

      AFI 36–2225.

    • B. 

      AFI 36–2226.

    • C. 

      AFI 36–2227.

    • D. 

      AFI 36–2525.

  • 18. 
    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Feedback.

    • C. 

      Evaluation.

    • D. 

      Cross-feed.

  • 19. 
    How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
    • A. 

      120.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 20. 
    After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      21.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      3.

  • 21. 
    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to
    • A. 

      Enforce military laws and regulations.

    • B. 

      Detect classified information.

    • C. 

      Suppress illegal drug use.

    • D. 

      Detect explosives.

  • 22. 
    Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
    • A. 

      OUT and IN.

    • B. 

      SIT and STAY.

    • C. 

      OUT and HEEL.

    • D. 

      STAY and HEEL.

  • 23. 
    When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
    • A. 

      Deterrence.

    • B. 

      Detention.

    • C. 

      Decoying.

    • D. 

      Detection.

  • 24. 
    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
    • A. 

      In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • B. 

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.

    • C. 

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • D. 

      Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

  • 25. 
    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
    • A. 

      Location and size of area.

    • B. 

      Time and terrain features.

    • C. 

      Wind speed and direction.

    • D. 

      Experience of canine and handler.

  • 26. 
    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
    • A. 

      Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.

    • B. 

      Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.

    • C. 

      Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.

    • D. 

      Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team.

  • 27. 
    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
    • A. 

      Upwind.

    • B. 

      Crosswind.

    • C. 

      Downwind.

    • D. 

      Wind direction doesn’t matter.

  • 28. 
    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
    • A. 

      Danger to the canine.

    • B. 

      Time left in patrol shift.

    • C. 

      Type and size of building.

    • D. 

      Weather conditions just prior to the search.

  • 29. 
    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
    • A. 

      Physical deterrent.

    • B. 

      Physicians deterrent.

    • C. 

      Physiological deterrent.

    • D. 

      Psychological deterrent.

  • 30. 
    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
    • A. 

      They should be tolerant of people.

    • B. 

      They should not be used often in daylight hours.

    • C. 

      The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog’s usefulness.

    • D. 

      Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.

  • 31. 
    When is the military working dog’s detection ability more effective?
    • A. 

      During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.

    • B. 

      During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.

    • C. 

      High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.

    • D. 

      During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

  • 32. 
    While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
    • A. 

      On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.

    • B. 

      In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.

    • C. 

      Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.

    • D. 

      On leash, laying down on the back seat.

  • 33. 
    If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
    • A. 

      Sit/Stay.

    • B. 

      Guard.

    • C. 

      Heel.

    • D. 

      Out.

  • 34. 
    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
    • A. 

      AF Forms 629 and 1297.

    • B. 

      AF Forms 629 and 1473.

    • C. 

      AF Forms 1297 and 1473.

    • D. 

      AF Forms 1437 and 1279.

  • 35. 
    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
    • A. 

      Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.

    • B. 

      After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.

    • C. 

      Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.

    • D. 

      Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.

  • 36. 
    What installations are required to have an ISP?
    • A. 

      Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.

    • B. 

      The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.

    • C. 

      All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.

    • D. 

      Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

  • 37. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
    • A. 

      Wing plans and programs section.

    • B. 

      Installation security police chief.

    • C. 

      Installation commander.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM commander.

  • 38. 
    What is not included in the ISP?
    • A. 

      Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings.

    • B. 

      Assessment of the installation’s vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage.

    • C. 

      A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.

    • D. 

      An estimate of support from friendly forces.

  • 39. 
    The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
    • A. 

      Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know.

    • B. 

      Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request.

    • C. 

      Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.

    • D. 

      An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question.

  • 40. 
    What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
    • A. 

      Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options.

    • B. 

      Class A vault or vault-type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance.

    • C. 

      Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door.

    • D. 

      GSA-approved security container.

  • 41. 
    Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?
    • A. 

      Only the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • B. 

      Only MAJCOM commanders.

    • C. 

      Only wing commanders.

    • D. 

      No one.

  • 42. 
    When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?
    • A. 

      A NAC.

    • B. 

      SSBI.

    • C. 

      An ENTNAC.

    • D. 

      NACI.

  • 43. 
    SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
    • A. 

      Secret.

    • B. 

      Classified.

    • C. 

      Top Secret.

    • D. 

      Confidential.

  • 44. 
    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
    • A. 

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • B. 

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.

    • C. 

      Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.

    • D. 

      Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

  • 45. 
    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a
    • A. 

      Spare tire.

    • B. 

      Public address system.

    • C. 

      Set of keys hidden in the dash.

    • D. 

      NCIC computer.

  • 46. 
    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have
    • A. 

      SF badges applied to both the front doors.

    • B. 

      Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.

    • C. 

      Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.

    • D. 

      A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.

  • 47. 
    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying
    • A. 

      Voluntarily.

    • B. 

      Unwillingly.

    • C. 

      Mandatorily.

    • D. 

      Involuntarily.

  • 48. 
    Which code is not an alarm response code?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      2.

    • D. 

      1.

  • 49. 
    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
    • A. 

      Terminate response.

    • B. 

      Immediately secure the area.

    • C. 

      Search for suspicious individuals.

    • D. 

      Search the exterior for open doors or windows.

  • 50. 
    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
    • A. 

      PL1.

    • B. 

      PL2.

    • C. 

      PL3.

    • D. 

      PL4.

  • 51. 
    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command “Open Ranks, MARCH”?
    • A. 

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • B. 

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • C. 

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • D. 

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

  • 52. 
    During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH”?
    • A. 

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

    • B. 

      Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • C. 

      At the completion of the guardmount briefing.

    • D. 

      Upon departure of the inspecting official.

  • 53. 
    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is
    • A. 

      Fit for duty.

    • B. 

      Prepared to present a post briefing.

    • C. 

      Complying with appearance directives.

    • D. 

      In possession of all required equipment.

  • 54. 
    As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for
    • A. 

      Interpretation.

    • B. 

      Discussion.

    • C. 

      Argument.

    • D. 

      Debate.

  • 55. 
    What is the unit flight schedule based on?
    • A. 

      Deployment/operations tempo.

    • B. 

      Flight TDY/leave schedule.

    • C. 

      Individual needs.

    • D. 

      Unit needs.

  • 56. 
    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound
    • A. 

      COMSEC practices.

    • B. 

      INFOSEC practices.

    • C. 

      HUMINT practices.

    • D. 

      OPSEC practices.

  • 57. 
    It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain
    • A. 

      Proficiency.

    • B. 

      Discipline.

    • C. 

      Fairness.

    • D. 

      Control.

  • 58. 
    Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping
    • A. 

      Flight moral high.

    • B. 

      Duty position assignments limited.

    • C. 

      The same highly skilled person at the same post.

    • D. 

      A new flight member focused on a particular duty position.

  • 59. 
    A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of
    • A. 

      Precedence, from least important to most important, as outlined in the ISI.

    • B. 

      Precedence as outlined in ISP.

    • C. 

      Rank precedence as outlined in the ISP.

    • D. 

      Precedence as outlined in the ISI.

  • 60. 
    What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?
    • A. 

      AFH 32–336.

    • B. 

      AFI 32–336.

    • C. 

      AFH 33–337.

    • D. 

      AFI 33–337.

  • 61. 
    In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?
    • A. 

      Length and neatness.

    • B. 

      Simplicity and directness.

    • C. 

      Correct details and factual statements.

    • D. 

      Clear statements and proper grammar.

  • 62. 
    Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
    • A. 

      Unit training section.

    • B. 

      Chief of security forces.

    • C. 

      Senior security forces NCOs.

    • D. 

      HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

  • 63. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
    • A. 

      Unit training section.

    • B. 

      Individual supervisors.

    • C. 

      Senior security forces NCOs.

    • D. 

      HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

  • 64. 
    Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?
    • A. 

      Individual skills.

    • B. 

      Collective skills.

    • C. 

      Contingency skills.

    • D. 

      Ground combat skills.

  • 65. 
    Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene
    • A. 

      Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • B. 

      Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.

    • C. 

      Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.

    • D. 

      Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster.

  • 66. 
    The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows
    • A. 

      Photographs to be taken.

    • B. 

      Responding patrols to better piece together events.

    • C. 

      The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.

    • D. 

      The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene.

  • 67. 
    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation
    • A. 

      Interferes with the ongoing investigation.

    • B. 

      Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight.

    • C. 

      Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer.

    • D. 

      Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.

  • 68. 
    At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
    • A. 

      Prior to arriving on scene.

    • B. 

      During the initial briefing.

    • C. 

      While conducting a search.

    • D. 

      During the preliminary visual examination.

  • 69. 
    Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the
    • A. 

      Number of personnel available.

    • B. 

      Size of the item to be found.

    • C. 

      Amount of time available.

    • D. 

      Area to be covered.

  • 70. 
    What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
    • A. 

      The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession.

    • B. 

      There is no time limit set on an interview.

    • C. 

      No more than 30 minutes.

    • D. 

      No more than 60 minutes.

  • 71. 
    How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
    • A. 

      At least three and one should be of the same sex.

    • B. 

      You are only required to have one investigator.

    • C. 

      As many as it takes to intimidate the suspect.

    • D. 

      An interview is limited to two investigators.

  • 72. 
    When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?
    • A. 

      Seek CSP advice.

    • B. 

      Seek ADC advice.

    • C. 

      Seek SJA advice.

    • D. 

      Question them with a witness.

  • 73. 
    What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?
    • A. 

      Let another investigator conduct the interview.

    • B. 

      Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you.

    • C. 

      Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down.

    • D. 

      Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue.

  • 74. 
    Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?
    • A. 

      Combination.

    • B. 

      Alternating.

    • C. 

      Indirect.

    • D. 

      Direct.

  • 75. 
    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
    • A. 

      Habitual offender.

    • B. 

      First time offender.

    • C. 

      Psychotic offender.

    • D. 

      Professional offender.

  • 76. 
    What is a confession?
    • A. 

      An admission of guilt that is a self-incriminating statement.

    • B. 

      Any statement made by the accused as to the elements of a crime.

    • C. 

      A complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense.

    • D. 

      An involuntary comment made by the accused pertaining to criminal activity.

  • 77. 
    The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
    • A. 

      Tact, poise, and self-assurance.

    • B. 

      Tact, poise, and self-confidence.

    • C. 

      Reliance, poise, and self-confidence.

    • D. 

      Cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.

  • 78. 
    What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?
    • A. 

      Personal knowledge.

    • B. 

      Tape recordings.

    • C. 

      Memoranda.

    • D. 

      Notes.

  • 79. 
    Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?
    • A. 

      Flight commander and supervisor.

    • B. 

      Flight chief and flight commander.

    • C. 

      Flight chief and senior patrol officer.

    • D. 

      Flight commander and operations superintendent.

  • 80. 
    Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to
    • A. 

      Leave

    • B. 

      Call a lawyer.

    • C. 

      Get their story straight.

    • D. 

      Conceal evidence of a crime.

  • 81. 
    When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be
    • A. 

      Hiding drugs.

    • B. 

      Looking for an escape.

    • C. 

      Cold and wants a jacket.

    • D. 

      Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.

  • 82. 
    What is not an indication of child neglect?
    • A. 

      Lack of medical care.

    • B. 

      Inadequate nourishment.

    • C. 

      Signs of impoverishment.

    • D. 

      Insufficient clothing, lack of supervision.

  • 83. 
    Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are indicators of
    • A. 

      Neglect.

    • B. 

      Sexual abuse.

    • C. 

      Physical abuse.

    • D. 

      Emotional maltreatment.

  • 84. 
    It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced
    • A. 

      An intense financial trauma.

    • B. 

      An intense physical trauma.

    • C. 

      A serious violent crime.

    • D. 

      An emotional trauma.

  • 85. 
    The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the
    • A. 

      SJA.

    • B. 

      CSP.

    • C. 

      OSI.

    • D. 

      SFOI.

  • 86. 
    What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
    • A. 

      Calm, positive, and helpful.

    • B. 

      Agitated, positive, and helpful.

    • C. 

      Uncaring, bothered, and hurried.

    • D. 

      Aggressive, hostile, and immediate.

  • 87. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies
    • A. 

      RO.

    • B. 

      SJA.

    • C. 

      CSP.

    • D. 

      LRO.

  • 88. 
    On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onscene commander deems it appropriate?
    • A. 

      DFC.

    • B. 

      LOAC.

    • C. 

      Geneva Convention.

    • D. 

      United States.

  • 89. 
    If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?
    • A. 

      Medical personnel.

    • B. 

      Roommate.

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Spouse.

  • 90. 
    Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called
    • A. 

      A hearing.

    • B. 

      A case review.

    • C. 

      An additional interviews.

    • D. 

      A follow-up investigation.

  • 91. 
    The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional investigative steps of an incident when the member is
    • A. 

      Reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared.

    • B. 

      Identifying and apprehending suspects.

    • C. 

      Conducting additional interviews.

    • D. 

      Collecting physical evidence.

  • 92. 
    What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?
    • A. 

      Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and Article 7b, UCMJ.

    • B. 

      AF Form 3226, Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling.

    • C. 

      Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.

    • D. 

      US Constitution and RCM 302(c).

  • 93. 
    The nuclear weapons mishap flag word “Dull Sword” identifies a nuclear weapons
    • A. 

      Accident.

    • B. 

      Incident.

    • C. 

      Deficiency.

    • D. 

      Occurrence.

  • 94. 
    Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?
    • A. 

      Law enforcement desk.

    • B. 

      Security control.

    • C. 

      Command post.

    • D. 

      Base ops.

  • 95. 
    In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
    • A. 

      Downwind or crosswind.

    • B. 

      Crosswind or sidewind.

    • C. 

      Upwind or downwind.

    • D. 

      Upwind or crosswind.

  • 96. 
    Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
    • A. 

      Reporters.

    • B. 

      Medical staff.

    • C. 

      Photographers.

    • D. 

      Key personnel.

  • 97. 
    Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?
    • A. 

      FBI.

    • B. 

      OSI.

    • C. 

      CIA.

    • D. 

      SJA.

  • 98. 
    From a hostage’s standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when
    • A. 

      The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact.

    • B. 

      Most of the traveling occurs, after the hostage is abducted.

    • C. 

      The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.

    • D. 

      All deals are made for the release of the hostages.

  • 99. 
    POM submissions are done in
    • A. 

      Odd years

    • B. 

      Even years

    • C. 

      Odd months

    • D. 

      Even months