3P071 Volume 1

1. All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a

Spare tire.

Public address system.

Set of keys hidden in the dash.

NCIC computer.

2. Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene

Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.

Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.

Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster.

3. Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping

Flight moral high.

Duty position assignments limited.

The same highly skilled person at the same post.

A new flight member focused on a particular duty position.

4. The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

Photographs to be taken.

Responding patrols to better piece together events.

The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.

The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene.

5. Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation

Interferes with the ongoing investigation.

Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight.

Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer.

Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.

6. When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.

After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.

Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.

Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.

7. The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.

Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.

Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

8. When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

Seek CSP advice.

Seek ADC advice.

Seek SJA advice.

Question them with a witness.

9. What installations are required to have an ISP?

Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.

The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.

All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.

Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

10. Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

Fit for duty.

Prepared to present a post briefing.

Complying with appearance directives.

In possession of all required equipment.

11. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Analysis.

Feedback.

Evaluation.

Cross-feed.

12. The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to

Enforce military laws and regulations.

Detect classified information.

Suppress illegal drug use.

Detect explosives.

13. What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession.

There is no time limit set on an interview.

No more than 30 minutes.

No more than 60 minutes.

14. What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

Calm, positive, and helpful.

Agitated, positive, and helpful.

Uncaring, bothered, and hurried.

Aggressive, hostile, and immediate.

15. The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "Dull Sword" identifies a nuclear weapons

Accident.

Incident.

Deficiency.

Occurrence.

16. Which code is not an alarm response code?

4.

3.

2.

1.

17. From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact.

Most of the traveling occurs, after the hostage is abducted.

The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.

All deals are made for the release of the hostages.

18. When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

Danger to the canine.

Time left in patrol shift.

Type and size of building.

Weather conditions just prior to the search.

19. When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

Physical deterrent.

Physicians deterrent.

Physiological deterrent.

Psychological deterrent.

20. Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

AF Forms 629 and 1297.

AF Forms 629 and 1473.

AF Forms 1297 and 1473.

AF Forms 1437 and 1279.

21. Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?

Flight commander and supervisor.

Flight chief and flight commander.

Flight chief and senior patrol officer.

Flight commander and operations superintendent.

22. It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

Proficiency.

Discipline.

Fairness.

Control.

23. What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Internal SRT.

Immediate visual assessment sentries

Close boundary sentry.

External SRT.

24. When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.

At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

25. What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgradetraining.

Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.

Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

26. Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

PL1.

PL2.

PL3.

PL4.

27. Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the

Number of personnel available.

Size of the item to be found.

Amount of time available.

Area to be covered.

28. What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Internal SRT.

Immediate visual assessment sentries.

Close boundary sentry.

External SRT.

29. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

Habitual offender.

First time offender.

Psychotic offender.

Professional offender.

30. Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying

Voluntarily.

Unwillingly.

Mandatorily.

Involuntarily.

31. All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have

SF badges applied to both the front doors.

Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.

Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.

A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.

32. What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?

Let another investigator conduct the interview.

Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you.

Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down.

Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue.

33. The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

Tact, poise, and self-assurance.

Tact, poise, and self-confidence.

Reliance, poise, and self-confidence.

Cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.

34. From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

Upwind.

Crosswind.

Downwind.

Wind direction doesn’t matter.

35. What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command "Open Ranks, MARCH"?

36. Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

OUT and IN.

SIT and STAY.

OUT and HEEL.

STAY and HEEL.

37. What is the unit flight schedule based on?

Deployment/operations tempo.

Flight TDY/leave schedule.

Individual needs.

Unit needs.

38. When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

Hiding drugs.

Looking for an escape.

Cold and wants a jacket.

Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.

39. If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?

Sit/Stay.

Guard.

Heel.

Out.

40. Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

Investigations.

Crime prevention.

Resource protection.

Reports and analysis.

41. Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound

COMSEC practices.

INFOSEC practices.

HUMINT practices.

OPSEC practices.

42. What does SEI stand for?

Security entry identifier.

Security experience index.

Special delivery identifier.

Special experience identifier.

43. When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

The first duty day following completion.

Within 30 days of completion.

72 hours after completion.

48 hours after completion.

44. Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Unit training section.

Chief of security forces.

Senior security forces NCOs.

HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

45. Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

Individual skills.

Collective skills.

Contingency skills.

Ground combat skills.

46. When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?

During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.

During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.

High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.

During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

47. Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to

Leave

Call a lawyer.

Get their story straight.

Conceal evidence of a crime.

48. How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?

At least three and one should be of the same sex.

You are only required to have one investigator.

As many as it takes to intimidate the suspect.

An interview is limited to two investigators.

49. What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.

Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.

Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.

Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team.

50. During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH"?

When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

At the completion of the guardmount briefing.

Upon departure of the inspecting official.

51. What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?

Personal knowledge.

Tape recordings.

Memoranda.

Notes.

52. How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

120.

90.

60.

30.

53. The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?

Report of survey office of investigation.

Air Force office of investigation.

Security forces training team.

Security forces investigations.

54. What is a confession?

An admission of guilt that is a self-incriminating statement.

Any statement made by the accused as to the elements of a crime.

A complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense.

An involuntary comment made by the accused pertaining to criminal activity.

55. If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?

Medical personnel.

Roommate.

Supervisor.

Spouse.

56. What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?

Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and Article 7b, UCMJ.

AF Form 3226, Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling.

Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.

US Constitution and RCM 302(c).

57. Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?

Combination.

Alternating.

Indirect.

Direct.

58. Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

Terminate response.

Immediately secure the area.

Search for suspicious individuals.

Search the exterior for open doors or windows.

59. Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?

Law enforcement desk.

Security control.

Command post.

Base ops.

60. The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight

Commander.

Supervisor.

SNCO.

Chief.

61. Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

SFS.

SFM.

SFO.

SFT.

62. Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?

Only the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.

Only MAJCOM commanders.

Only wing commanders.

No one.

63. What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?

Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options.

Class A vault or vault-type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance.

Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door.

GSA-approved security container.

64. While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?

On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.

In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.

Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.

On leash, laying down on the back seat.

65. What is not an indication of child neglect?

Lack of medical care.

Inadequate nourishment.

Signs of impoverishment.

Insufficient clothing, lack of supervision.

66. When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

Fire teams.

Internal SRTs.

Security patrols.

Close boundary sentries.

67. Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

They should be tolerant of people.

They should not be used often in daylight hours.

The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog’s usefulness.

Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outwardsign of aggression.

68. In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?

Downwind or crosswind.

Crosswind or sidewind.

Upwind or downwind.

Upwind or crosswind.

69. After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?

30.

21.

15.

3.

70. What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

Location and size of area.

Time and terrain features.

Wind speed and direction.

Experience of canine and handler.

71. POM submissions are done in

Odd years

Even years

Odd months

Even months

72. When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

Deterrence.

Detention.

Decoying.

Detection.

73. Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?

Reporters.

Medical staff.

Photographers.

Key personnel.

74. Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Unit training section.

Individual supervisors.

Senior security forces NCOs.

HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

75. The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

Security patrol.

Security force members.

SRT member.

ART member.

76. The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the

SJA.

CSP.

OSI.

SFOI.

77. Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?

FBI.

OSI.

CIA.

SJA.

78. The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to

Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know.

Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request.

Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.

An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question.

79. SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?

Secret.

Classified.

Top Secret.

Confidential.

80. Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called

A hearing.

A case review.

An additional interviews.

A follow-up investigation.

81. What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?

AFH 32–336.

AFI 32–336.

AFH 33–337.

AFI 33–337.

82. As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for

Interpretation.

Discussion.

Argument.

Debate.

83. What is not included in the ISP?

Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings.

Assessment of the installation’s vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage.

A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.

An estimate of support from friendly forces.

84. Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?

Wing plans and programs section.

Installation security police chief.

Installation commander.

MAJCOM commander.

85. Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are indicators of

Neglect.

Sexual abuse.

Physical abuse.

Emotional maltreatment.

86. Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?

AFI 36–2225.

AFI 36–2226.

AFI 36–2227.

AFI 36–2525.

87. In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

Length and neatness.

Simplicity and directness.

Correct details and factual statements.

Clear statements and proper grammar.

88. What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.

Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.

89. Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the

MSCFO.

IVA.

CCTV.

CBS.

90. It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced

An intense financial trauma.

An intense physical trauma.

A serious violent crime.

An emotional trauma.

91. On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onscene commander deems it appropriate?

DFC.

LOAC.

Geneva Convention.

United States.

92. The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional investigative steps of an incident when the member is

Reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared.

Identifying and apprehending suspects.

Conducting additional interviews.

Collecting physical evidence.

93. The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.

Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well asmanage needs.

Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.

How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron.

94. What are the three main branches of most SF units?

SFT, SFO and SFL.

SFO, SFOA and SFT.

SFO, SFT and SFA.

SFS, CSF and SFM.

95. Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?

Phoenix ravens.

Security systems operators.

Electronic security systems.

Antiterrorism/force protection.

96. At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?

Prior to arriving on scene.

During the initial briefing.

While conducting a search.

During the preliminary visual examination.

97. Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies

RO.

SJA.

CSP.

LRO.

98. When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?

A NAC.

SSBI.

An ENTNAC.

NACI.

99. A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of

Precedence, from least important to most important, as outlined in the ISI.

Precedence as outlined in ISP.

Rank precedence as outlined in the ISP.

Precedence as outlined in the ISI.

3P071 Volume 1

1. All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene

3. Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping

4. The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

5. Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation

6. When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

7. The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

8. When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

9. What installations are required to have an ISP?

10. Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

11. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

12. The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to

13. What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

14. What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

15. The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "Dull Sword" identifies a nuclear weapons

16. Which code is not an alarm response code?

17. From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

18. When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

19. When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

20. Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

21. Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?

22. It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

23. What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

24. When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

25. What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

26. Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

27. Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the

28. What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

29. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

30. Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying

31. All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have

32. What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?

33. The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

34. From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

35. What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command "Open Ranks, MARCH"?

36. Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

37. What is the unit flight schedule based on?

38. When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

39. If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?

40. Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

41. Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound

42. What does SEI stand for?

43. When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

44. Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

45. Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

46. When is the military working dog's detection ability more effective?

47. Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to

48. How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?

49. What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

50. During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH"?

51. What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?

52. How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

53. The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?

54. What is a confession?

55. If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?

56. What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?

57. Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?

58. Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

59. Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?

60. The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight

61. Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

62. Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?

63. What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?

64. While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?

65. What is not an indication of child neglect?

66. When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

67. Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

68. In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?

69. After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?

70. What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

71. POM submissions are done in

72. When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

73. Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?

74. Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

75. The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

76. The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the

77. Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?