CDC 5J051 : Trivia Quiz On Paralegal Journeyman!

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1. If you receive a request for information regarding government records, you have received a 

Explanation

The correct answer is Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). The FOIA gives individuals the right to access government records and information. If someone requests information regarding government records, it means they are exercising their rights under the FOIA to obtain information from the government. The FOIA promotes transparency and accountability by allowing the public to access government records, subject to certain exemptions and limitations.

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About This Quiz
CDC 5J051 : Trivia Quiz On Paralegal Journeyman! - Quiz

This CDC 5J051 trivia quiz explores key legal procedures within the Air Force, focusing on administrative separations, discharge protocols, and legal office reviews. It assesses understanding of AFI 36-3208 standards, enhancing both legal comprehension and procedural knowledge for airmen.

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2. Which type of operation is conducted outside of the United States to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?

Explanation

Humanitarian assistance is the correct answer because it refers to the type of operation conducted outside of the United States to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters. This involves providing aid, support, and resources to affected populations, including food, water, medical supplies, and shelter. Humanitarian assistance aims to alleviate suffering, protect human rights, and promote recovery and resilience in the face of disasters. It is a crucial component of international relief efforts and is often carried out by governments, non-governmental organizations, and international agencies.

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3. If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his/her conscientious objector status without good reaon, then the member

Explanation

If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his/her conscientious objector status without good reason, it means that the member has voluntarily given up or renounced their rights to be present at the hearing. This implies that they will not have the opportunity to participate in the hearing and present their case.

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4. What must be considered when the US Armed Forces deploy to a foriegn country?

Explanation

When the US Armed Forces deploy to a foreign country, it is crucial to consider international law. International law governs the conduct of states in their relations with each other, and it provides a framework for resolving disputes and maintaining peace. The deployment of military forces involves various legal aspects such as the respect for the sovereignty of the host country, adherence to human rights standards, and compliance with treaties and agreements. Ignoring international law can lead to diplomatic tensions, legal consequences, and damage to the reputation of the United States on the global stage.

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5. When checking for eligibility for legal assistance services, what is the first step?

Explanation

The first step when checking for eligibility for legal assistance services is to check the client's military ID card. This is because the client's military ID card serves as proof of their military affiliation and eligibility for legal assistance services. By checking the military ID card, it can be determined whether the client is eligible to receive the services or not.

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6. When producing a power of attorney in WebLIONS for a client that is on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select

Explanation

When producing a power of attorney in WebLIONS for a client that is on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select "client waiting list". This option is chosen because it allows the user to access and manage the clients who are currently on the waiting list for power of attorney. By selecting this option, the user can proceed with the necessary steps to generate the power of attorney for the client in question.

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7. Under which area of the preventative law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?

Explanation

In the context of a preventative law program, the importance of preparing a will would be stressed under the "deployment readiness preparation" area. This is because when individuals are preparing for deployment, it is crucial for them to have their legal affairs in order, including creating a will to ensure their assets and wishes are protected in the event of their absence or death during deployment.

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8. Before the commander sends a voluntary discharge request to the convening authority, it must be reviewed by the

Explanation

Before the commander sends a voluntary discharge request to the convening authority, it must be reviewed by the legal office. This is because the legal office is responsible for ensuring that all legal requirements and procedures are followed in the discharge process. They review the request to ensure that it is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, and provide legal advice and guidance to the commander. This review is important to ensure that the discharge request is valid and legally sound.

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9. After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander NOT allowed to reommend an entry level involuntary discharge?

Explanation

A commander is not allowed to recommend an entry level involuntary discharge after 180 days of continuous active duty. This means that if a service member has been on active duty for 180 days or more, the commander cannot initiate the process for involuntary discharge. This policy is likely in place to ensure that service members are given a sufficient amount of time to adjust to military life and demonstrate their ability to meet the requirements and expectations of their position before any potential discharge is considered.

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10. A notary should be performed when the client

Explanation

A notary should be performed when the client has a completed document signed in your presence because a notary public is responsible for verifying the identity of the signer and ensuring that the document is signed willingly and knowingly. By witnessing the signing of the completed document, the notary can confirm its authenticity and legality, providing an added level of assurance for all parties involved.

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11. A private citizen's Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request may be denied if 

Explanation

A private citizen's Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request may be denied if it is for privileged information protected by the attorney-client relationship. This means that if the requested information falls under the attorney-client privilege, which is a legal protection that keeps communications between an attorney and their client confidential, the FOIA request can be denied. This is because the attorney-client privilege is recognized as an important aspect of the legal system and allows clients to freely communicate with their attorneys without fear of disclosure.

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12. Air Force Chaplains are considered

Explanation

Air Force Chaplains are considered non-combatants because their role is primarily focused on providing spiritual support and guidance to military personnel. They do not engage in direct combat or participate in armed conflict. Instead, they offer religious services, counseling, and moral guidance to support the well-being of service members. As non-combatants, they are protected under international humanitarian law and are not targetable during warfare. Their presence aims to promote the spiritual and emotional welfare of military personnel, ensuring their overall resilience and readiness.

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13. If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 Sep 08, by what date mst he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?

Explanation

The commander must review the UIF on his assigned personnel by 4 Dec 08 because it is the only date listed that is before 31 Dec 08, which is the end of the year. Since the commander assumes command on 5 Sep 08, it is logical that he would need to review the UIF within a few months of assuming command. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 Dec 08.

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14. A client has come to the legal office requesting legal assistance. In determining eligibility of legal assistance, you find the client ha hired a civilian attorney for the same matter. What is your immediate response?

Explanation

The immediate response in this situation would be to refer the client to their civilian attorney. Since they have already hired a civilian attorney for the same matter, it is best to let the attorney handle the case. Referring the client to their attorney ensures that they receive the appropriate legal assistance and avoids any potential conflicts or duplication of efforts.

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15. Which of the following classes is a conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as a combatant in war, but whose convictions or beliefs will permit him/her to serve in a noncombatant status?

Explanation

A conscientious objector is someone who objects to participating as a combatant in war due to their deeply held beliefs or convictions. However, they may still be willing to serve in a noncombatant role. The answer 1-A-0 indicates that this class of individuals is a conscientious objector who is willing to serve in a noncombatant status.

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16. If acting as an assistant to the recorder  in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will

Explanation

When acting as an assistant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, it is important to be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times. This is because the attorney will provide guidance and ensure that the proceedings are conducted in accordance with legal requirements. The attorney will also be responsible for overseeing the assistant's work and making any necessary corrections or adjustments. Therefore, being under direct supervision of an attorney is crucial to maintain the integrity and legality of the proceedings.

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17. If an employee is using government property to further the organization's mission, then that use of government property is considered to be

Explanation

If an employee is using government property to further the organization's mission, it is considered official. This means that the employee is utilizing the government property in a manner that aligns with the goals and objectives of the organization. The use of government property in this context is authorized and serves a mission essential purpose.

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18. Who retains sole responsibility for response to off-installation foreign incidents?

Explanation

The host nation retains sole responsibility for response to off-installation foreign incidents. This means that when an incident occurs outside of the installation or base, the host nation, which refers to the country where the incident takes place, is responsible for handling and responding to the situation. The host nation has the authority and jurisdiction to take appropriate actions and measures to address the incident and ensure the safety and security of all involved.

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19. In an administrative discharge board proceeding, what are your standards of proof in you are acting as the recorder?

Explanation

In an administrative discharge board proceeding, the standard of proof when acting as the recorder is "preponderance of the evidence." This means that the evidence presented must show that it is more likely than not that the allegations or charges against the individual are true. The burden of proof is not as high as "beyond a reasonable doubt," which is the standard used in criminal cases, but it still requires a greater weight of evidence in favor of the allegations. "Clear and convincing evidence" is a higher standard than preponderance of the evidence and is typically used in civil cases involving serious consequences.

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20. A commander may continue demotion action baesd on incidents that occurred before an Airman's enlistment?

Explanation

The correct answer is if the circumstances and facts of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment. This means that if the commander was not aware of the incidents that occurred before the Airman's enlistment until after the reenlistment, they can still take demotion action based on those incidents. It implies that the commander can consider previous incidents as long as they were not aware of them at the time of reenlistment.

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21. In a federal Magistrate Course case, immediately following arraignment on a petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will

Explanation

In a federal Magistrate Court case, after the defendant pleads guilty to a petty offense during the arraignment, the magistrate will impose a sentence. This means that the magistrate will determine and announce the punishment or penalty for the defendant's guilty plea. The other options, such as setting a date for sentencing, assigning a public defender, or requesting a pre-sentencing report, are not applicable in this specific scenario.

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22. The first supervisor in te chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilian above the genera schedule (GS-11), is the individual to seek approval for 

Explanation

The first supervisor in the chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilian above the general schedule (GS-11), is the individual to seek approval for using government property for limited personal use. This means that if an individual wants to use government property for personal reasons, such as borrowing a work laptop for a personal project, they need to seek approval from their first supervisor. This ensures that the use of government property is properly regulated and authorized.

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23. When determining rules of engagement (ROE), where is the place you need to check first and foremost?

Explanation

When determining rules of engagement (ROE), the first place you need to check is the Standing ROE. Standing ROE refers to the standard set of rules and guidelines that are applicable to all military operations. These rules provide a baseline for the use of force and dictate how military personnel should respond in various situations. By checking the Standing ROE first, you can ensure that you are familiar with the general rules and principles that govern the use of force before considering any special or mission-specific instructions.

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24. After an airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?

Explanation

After an airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, his next action is to report to the medical group for a medical examination. This is important to ensure that the airman is in good health and fit for discharge. The medical examination will assess any potential medical conditions or issues that may need to be addressed before the airman's discharge. It is a standard procedure to ensure the airman's well-being and to provide appropriate medical care if needed.

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25. When an Airman loses authorization for shipment of household goods as a consequence of an administrative demotion action, the demotion action 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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26. If you receive a request for information regarding records, forms and other written or permanent documents that pertainto an individual, you have received a 

Explanation

If you receive a request for information regarding records, forms, and other written or permanent documents that pertain to an individual, you have received a Privacy Act (PA) request. The Privacy Act of 1974 is a law that protects the privacy of individuals by regulating the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by federal agencies. It allows individuals to access and request amendments to their own records held by federal agencies. Therefore, a request for such information would fall under the Privacy Act (PA) request category.

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27. If a civil service employee has a discrimination complaint, then their case would be handled by the

Explanation

If a civil service employee has a discrimination complaint, their case would be handled by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. This is because the EEOC is responsible for enforcing federal laws that prohibit workplace discrimination. They investigate complaints of discrimination, such as those based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. The EEOC works to ensure that employees are treated fairly and have equal opportunities in the workplace.

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28. If you ar using a telephone that has a secure voice and data equipment designed for use on digital communications networks, then you are using a

Explanation

If you are using a telephone that has secure voice and data equipment designed for use on digital communications networks, then you are using Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is specifically designed to provide secure communication and is commonly used in military and government organizations. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of voice and data transmissions, protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or interception. The other options mentioned, such as Defense secure network (DSN), Secure telephone unit, third generation (STU III), and Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE), are not specifically designed for use on digital communications networks and may not provide the same level of security as STE.

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29. What type of contract is the contractor bound to perform at a specified price and bears the risk of cost overruns?

Explanation

A fixed priced contract is a type of contract where the contractor is obligated to perform the work at a specified price. In this contract, the contractor bears the risk of cost overruns, meaning that if the actual costs exceed the agreed-upon price, the contractor will have to cover the additional expenses. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is well-defined and the risks associated with cost fluctuations can be reasonably estimated and allocated to the contractor.

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30. The independant, permanent court that tries persons accused of the most serious crimes of international concern, namely genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes is the 

Explanation

The International Criminal Court is the correct answer because it is an independent and permanent court that is responsible for prosecuting individuals accused of committing genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes. It was established by the Rome Statute in 2002 and is based in The Hague, Netherlands. The ICC's jurisdiction extends to cases where national courts are unable or unwilling to prosecute these serious crimes. Its primary goal is to promote justice and accountability for these grave international offenses. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a humanitarian organization, not a court. The International Supreme Court and Military Commissions are not specifically dedicated to trying crimes of international concern.

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31. When using WebLIONS, you get to the screen to enter client data by selecting

Explanation

The correct answer is "enter client info" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar because selecting this option allows the user to access the screen where they can enter client data.

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32. If you are making a determination of the facts surrounding a particular event, occurance, circumstance, or action, then you are performing an

Explanation

When you are making a determination of the facts surrounding a particular event, occurrence, circumstance, or action, you are conducting an investigation. This involves gathering information, collecting evidence, and analyzing it to understand what happened and why. An investigation is typically conducted to uncover the truth, find answers to specific questions, and make informed decisions based on the findings.

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33. If the applicant does not sumit a rebuttal for denial of any classification as a conscientious objector within 15 calendar days from the receipt of te record, then the member

Explanation

If the applicant does not submit a rebuttal for denial of any classification as a conscientious objector within 15 calendar days from the receipt of the record, then the member loses the right to rebuttal. This means that if the applicant fails to provide a response within the specified time frame, they will no longer have the opportunity to contest the denial and present their arguments or evidence. The window for submitting a rebuttal is limited to 15 calendar days, and if this deadline is missed, the right to rebuttal is forfeited.

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34. Which of the following types of information will not be made available for use in litigation?

Explanation

Privileged information refers to communication between two parties that is protected by a legal privilege, such as attorney-client privilege or doctor-patient confidentiality. This type of information cannot be disclosed or made available for use in litigation without the consent of the party holding the privilege. Therefore, privileged information will not be made available for use in litigation.

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35. The Contract Disputes Act obligates the contractor to

Explanation

The correct answer is "Continue performance pending resolution of any dispute." This means that the contractor is required to continue fulfilling their obligations under the contract even if there is a dispute or disagreement between the parties involved. They cannot stop or delay their performance until the dispute is resolved. This ensures that the contract is not disrupted and that both parties continue to fulfill their responsibilities until a resolution is reached.

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36. If a General Order is issued by a combatnat commander in a multinational force, then the General Order applies to

Explanation

A General Order issued by a combatant commander in a multinational force applies to Deployed US personnel because they are specifically mentioned in the question. The other options, such as everyone in the multinational force or anyone that has read the General Order, are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be assumed to be correct. The option "Only those working in the same area as Air Force members" is also not mentioned in the question and is therefore not a valid answer.

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37. What is recognized as the most common international agreement for defining the legal status of US personnel and property in the territory of another nation?

Explanation

The most common international agreement for defining the legal status of US personnel and property in the territory of another nation is the Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA). This agreement outlines the rights and responsibilities of both the US and the host nation regarding the presence and activities of US military personnel. It covers various aspects such as jurisdiction, criminal jurisdiction, taxation, customs regulations, and civil and administrative jurisdiction. SOFAs are essential for maintaining good relations between the US and the host nation, ensuring the legal protection of US personnel, and facilitating military cooperation and operations.

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38. What is the highest ranking Air Force officer assigned to a joint task force normally called?

Explanation

The highest ranking Air Force officer assigned to a joint task force is called the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR). This individual is responsible for overseeing all Air Force operations within the joint task force and coordinating with other branches of the military. They work closely with the overall joint task force commander to ensure the successful execution of the mission.

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39. Which of the following is the first step in a Magistrate Court case?

Explanation

The first step in a Magistrate Court case is to determine jurisdiction. This involves establishing whether the court has the authority to hear and decide the particular case. Jurisdiction can be based on factors such as the location of the offense, the parties involved, and the type of case. By determining jurisdiction, the court ensures that it has the legal power to handle the case before proceeding with other steps such as drafting the information or requesting relevant documents.

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40. If you participate in a major exercise or operation, or directly support one, then on your return you must submit a(n)

Explanation

After participating in a major exercise or operation, or providing direct support, it is required to submit an after-action report. This report is a detailed analysis of the event, including an assessment of what went well, what could be improved, and any lessons learned. It helps to identify strengths and weaknesses, and provides valuable information for future planning and decision-making.

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41. For an officer discharge, after the board of inquiry is completed, to what level of command do you send the completed report along with the findings and recommendations?

Explanation

After the board of inquiry is completed, the completed report along with the findings and recommendations is sent to the MAJCOM (Major Command) level of command. This is because the MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing multiple wings and squadrons, and they have the authority to make decisions regarding officer discharge based on the findings and recommendations provided in the report. The MAJCOM level of command ensures that the decision-making process is fair and consistent across all units under its jurisdiction.

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42. If the commander to whom the application for redress for an Article 138, UCMJ, comlaint is properly submitted refued the redress, then the next option for the member is to submit the complaint

Explanation

If the commander refuses to provide redress for an Article 138, UCMJ complaint, the next option for the member is to submit the complaint directly to the officer exercising GCM jurisdiction. This is because the officer exercising General Court-Martial (GCM) jurisdiction has the authority to address and resolve the complaint at a higher level. This option allows for a more formal and thorough investigation into the complaint, ensuring that it is properly addressed and resolved.

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43. What action legally binds the Air Force to make payments?

Explanation

In the context of the question, an obligation refers to a legal commitment or duty to make payments. This means that once an obligation is established, the Air Force is legally bound to fulfill its payment responsibilities. Appropriation refers to the allocation of funds for specific purposes, authorization refers to the approval or permission granted for certain actions, and procurement refers to the process of obtaining goods or services. While these actions may be related to the financial operations of the Air Force, they do not necessarily involve the legal binding of payments as an obligation does.

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44. Who appoints military legal advisors?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Local SJA." The local SJA, or Staff Judge Advocate, is responsible for appointing military legal advisors. These advisors provide legal guidance and support to military personnel within their specific installation or unit. They ensure that military operations and actions are conducted in accordance with legal regulations and policies.

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45. Which agency is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad?

Explanation

The Department of State is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad. This agency is primarily focused on diplomacy and foreign relations, and it has the authority and resources to assist US citizens in times of crisis or emergency situations in foreign countries. The Department of State works closely with embassies and consulates around the world to ensure the safety and well-being of US citizens traveling or residing abroad.

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46. In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the last oath?

Explanation

In an administrative discharge board hearing, the legal advisor does not administer the last oath. Instead, it is the responsibility of the recorder to administer the last oath. The recorder is typically responsible for keeping a record of the proceedings and ensuring that all necessary oaths are administered correctly.

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47. Once the opening statements have been made, who presents evidence in an administrative discharge board hearing?

Explanation

In an administrative discharge board hearing, the recorder is responsible for presenting evidence. The recorder is typically a neutral party who assists in maintaining a record of the proceedings. They ensure that all evidence is properly documented and presented to the board for consideration. The recorder's role is crucial in ensuring a fair and accurate hearing process.

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48. Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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49. Under AFI 36-3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen, before an Airman can request discharg in lieu of court-martial,

Explanation

According to AFI 36-3208, before an Airman can request discharge in lieu of court-martial, charges must be preferred against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized. This means that the Airman must be formally accused of the alleged misconduct, and the punishment of a punitive discharge must be authorized by the appropriate authority. It is not necessary for the airman to be placed in pretrial confinement or for their date of separation to be within 90 days of the scheduled court-martial.

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50. Who supervises and manages the tax assistance program at base level?

Explanation

The correct answer is SJA. SJA stands for Staff Judge Advocate, who is responsible for supervising and managing the tax assistance program at the base level. They provide legal advice and assistance to military personnel, including tax-related matters. The SJA ensures that the tax assistance program is properly administered and meets the needs of the base community.

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51. Before travel payments are accepted from a non-federal source, the 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Travel approving authority must grant approval." This means that before accepting travel payments from a non-federal source, the travel approving authority must give their approval. This ensures that the travel is authorized and meets the necessary ethical and legal requirements. The Designated Agency Ethics Official, Base SJA, and Member's commander may have their own roles and responsibilities in the approval process, but the ultimate decision lies with the travel approving authority.

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52. If you are performing an investigation to preserve available evidence for use in clams, litigation, disciplinary actions, administrative proceedings, and all other actions, then you are performing a(n)

Explanation

An accident investigation is the correct answer because it involves the process of preserving evidence for various purposes such as claims, litigation, disciplinary actions, administrative proceedings, and other actions. This type of investigation is conducted to determine the cause of an accident, analyze contributing factors, and prevent similar incidents in the future. It aims to gather evidence, interview witnesses, examine physical evidence, and reconstruct the events leading up to the accident. The collected evidence and findings can then be used in legal proceedings or to implement safety measures and prevent future accidents.

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53. Additional copies of an accident report are required if more than one 

Explanation

Additional copies of an accident report are required if the MAJCOM (Major Command) is involved. This suggests that when a major command within the military is involved in an accident, it is necessary to have multiple copies of the accident report. The involvement of a MAJCOM may require additional documentation for investigation, analysis, and reporting purposes, hence the need for extra copies of the report.

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54. When working with contracting issues, the Logistics Civil Augmentation Program/Air Force Contract Augmentation Program (LOGCAP/AFCAP) is the type of contract you should use 

Explanation

The LOGCAP/AFCAP contract should be used as a last resort when working with contracting issues because it is typically utilized for larger contracts. This type of contract is commonly used for military operations and provides logistical support and services. Therefore, it is recommended to explore other options and consider using LOGCAP/AFCAP only when all other alternatives have been exhausted or are not feasible.

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55. If a commander places an Airman on a control roster on 1 Sep 08, when is the latest he may remove the individual from the control roster?

Explanation

The commander can remove the individual from the control roster on or before 28 Feb 09. This is because the question states that the individual was placed on the control roster on 1 Sep 08, and the latest date for removal would be 6 months later, which is 28 Feb 09.

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56. Which compain is calid under Article 138, UCMJ?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Promotion withheld for no reason." According to Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), service members have the right to seek redress for wrongs committed against them. This includes situations where a promotion is withheld without a valid reason. The article allows service members to file complaints against their superiors for such actions, seeking appropriate resolution and redress.

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57. Which option is not an SJA option when receiving a request for information?

Explanation

The option "Consult the US Attorney" is not an SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) option when receiving a request for information. SJA options typically involve consulting relevant divisions or authorities within the organization, such as the Operations & International Law Division or forwarding the request to the appropriate authority to deny. Consulting the US Attorney is not mentioned as one of the available options, suggesting that it is not a part of the SJA's role in handling such requests.

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58. When assembling a Magistrate Court file, which of the following is the first step?

Explanation

The first step in assembling a Magistrate Court file is to obtain consent to try the case in federal Magistrate Court. This is important because without obtaining consent, the case cannot proceed in the Magistrate Court. Once consent is obtained, the other steps such as drafting the information, putting a cover sheet on the file, and requesting a copy of the report of investigation can be followed. However, obtaining consent is the initial and crucial step in the process.

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59. If a commander requests supplemental rules of engagement (ROE), then the request must be classified at least

Explanation

If a commander requests supplemental rules of engagement (ROE), the request must be classified as at least Confidential. This means that the information contained in the request is sensitive and should only be accessed by individuals with the appropriate security clearance. The request may involve operational plans, tactics, or other critical information that, if disclosed, could compromise the mission or endanger personnel. Therefore, it is essential to classify the request as Confidential to ensure the protection of sensitive information.

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60. What must occur before a commander extends the probation and rehabilitation period?

Explanation

Before a commander extends the probation and rehabilitation period, the airman must agree to the extension. This means that the airman has to give their consent for the extension to take place. Without the airman's agreement, the probation and rehabilitation period cannot be extended.

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61. In a joint command, if NJP is imposed on an Air Force member by a commander of a different service, the decisions as to collateral administrative action will be made by the

Explanation

In a joint command, if NJP is imposed on an Air Force member by a commander of a different service, the decisions as to collateral administrative action will be made by the senior Air Force officer or commander of the Air Force element in the joint command. This is because the senior Air Force officer or commander is responsible for overseeing the actions and welfare of Air Force personnel in the joint command. They have the authority to make decisions regarding administrative actions that may affect the Air Force member.

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62. If a commander wants to demote a senior or chief master sergeant, then it must be approved by the

Explanation

In the Air Force, the rank of senior or chief master sergeant is quite high, and demoting someone from this rank requires approval from a higher authority. The MAJCOM commander, who is in charge of a major command within the Air Force, holds the authority to approve such demotions. This is because the MAJCOM commander has the necessary knowledge and understanding of the situation, as well as the power to make decisions regarding personnel matters within their command. Therefore, the MAJCOM commander is the correct authority to approve the demotion of a senior or chief master sergeant.

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63. If an officer member of a tenant unit is being administratively discharged, then jursdiction for the member and the discharge belongs to

Explanation

When an officer member of a tenant unit is being administratively discharged, the jurisdiction for the member and the discharge belongs to the tenant command. The tenant command is responsible for the administrative matters and operations of the specific unit, including the discharge of its members. The host command's MAJCOM may have overall authority over the installation or base where the tenant unit is located, but when it comes to the administrative actions within the tenant unit, the tenant command has jurisdiction.

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64. Before a board of officers for an officer case can be convened, the legal advisor, recorder and board members must be appointed by the

Explanation

In order for a board of officers for an officer case to be convened, the legal advisor, recorder, and board members need to be appointed. The correct answer is the MAJCOM commander. This is because the MAJCOM commander has the authority to appoint these individuals for the board. The Secretary of the Air Force, NAF commander, and wing commander do not have the specific authority to make these appointments. Therefore, the MAJCOM commander is the correct choice for this question.

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65. To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization-and deployment- related legal assistance?

Explanation

The NAF/SJA (Numbered Air Force/Staff Judge Advocate) may add requirements for mobilization and deployment-related legal assistance to ensure mission readiness. This indicates that it is the responsibility of the NAF/SJA to assess the legal needs and provide necessary support during mobilization and deployment operations. The other options, such as Base SJA, TJAG, and MAJCOM/SJA, do not specifically mention the authority to add requirements for mobilization and deployment-related legal assistance.

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66. Which type of SOFA is accomplished through an exchange of diplomatic notes?

Explanation

Administrative and Technical Status is a type of SOFA that is accomplished through an exchange of diplomatic notes. This type of SOFA typically covers the administrative and technical aspects of the presence of foreign forces in a host country, such as the status of personnel, customs regulations, and taxation. It does not involve the full range of privileges and immunities provided by a Full-SOFA. The other options, Full-SOFA, Mini-SOFA, and Ambassador Executive Leadership status, do not specifically involve an exchange of diplomatic notes.

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67. After the board is adjourned during a discharge board proceeding, who normally authenticates the record of proceedings?

Explanation

After the board is adjourned during a discharge board proceeding, the record of proceedings needs to be authenticated. This is typically done by the Legal Advisor. They are responsible for ensuring the accuracy and legality of the proceedings, including the documentation of the record. The Legal Advisor plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the discharge board process.

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68. While TJAG is rsponsible for the legal assistance program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA/AFJAGS). This agency is responsible for monitoring the legal assistance program Air Force-wide. They oversee and ensure the program's effectiveness and compliance with regulations. The other options, MAJCOM/SJA, NAF/SJA, and Base SJA, may have some involvement in the program but do not have the primary responsibility for monitoring it.

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69. Which payment method is the most difficult method of Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement payment to manage due to the disparity in value of items, requirements and coordinatio, differing budget authorities, and financial processes involved?

Explanation

Equal value exchange (EVE) is the most difficult method of Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement payment to manage due to the disparity in value of items, requirements and coordination, differing budget authorities, and financial processes involved. This means that it is challenging to determine the equal value of the items being exchanged, coordinate the requirements between the parties involved, and manage the financial processes and budget authorities. This complexity makes EVE the most difficult payment method to handle in the context of Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreements.

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70. What is the legal means employed to deny or limit access to remote sensing imagery?

Explanation

Shutter control is the legal means employed to deny or limit access to remote sensing imagery. This refers to the practice of controlling the opening and closing of camera shutters on satellites or other remote sensing devices. By implementing shutter control, authorities can restrict the capture and distribution of certain imagery, particularly in sensitive or classified areas. This measure helps to maintain national security and protect sensitive information from being accessed or misused.

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71. Assessments of the drug testing progam must be performed at least?

Explanation

Assessments of the drug testing program must be performed quarterly in order to ensure regular monitoring and evaluation of the program's effectiveness. This frequency allows for more frequent identification of potential issues or areas of improvement, ensuring that any necessary adjustments can be made in a timely manner. Quarterly assessments also help to maintain accountability and compliance with regulatory requirements, as well as provide a more accurate and up-to-date picture of the program's impact on drug use within the organization.

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72. What UCMJ article has been violated if a member fails to report for a scheduleed fitness appointment?

Explanation

Article 90 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that any member of the armed forces who willfully disobeys a lawful order from a superior officer shall be punished. Failing to report for a scheduled fitness appointment can be considered as a violation of this article as it involves disobeying an order from a superior officer.

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73. After the board of officers has determined its findings, made its recommendation, and authenticated the record, it is sent to the

Explanation

After the board of officers has completed their investigation and made their recommendation, the next step is to send the record to the SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) for legal review. The SJA will review the findings and ensure that they are legally sound and in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. This step is crucial to ensure that the entire process is fair and legally valid.

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74. If a National Security Personnel System employee is considered a subject matter expert, they are in

Explanation

If a National Security Personnel System employee is considered a subject matter expert, they are in Pay Band 3. This suggests that Pay Band 3 is the level at which employees with expertise in their field are placed.

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75. The post-conflict action that is predominately diplomatic to strengthen civilian infrastructure is peace

Explanation

Building is the correct answer because after a conflict, one of the main actions is to strengthen civilian infrastructure. This involves constructing or rebuilding essential facilities such as schools, hospitals, roads, and utilities. Building infrastructure is a diplomatic action as it requires coordination and cooperation between different parties, including governments, international organizations, and local communities. This process aims to promote stability, economic development, and social well-being in post-conflict areas, ultimately contributing to long-lasting peace.

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76. What joint command was created to protect the US and its territories?

Explanation

US Northern Command was created to protect the US and its territories. This joint command is responsible for the defense of North America, including the United States, Canada, and Mexico. It conducts homeland defense, civil support, and security cooperation to ensure the safety and security of the region. US Northern Command coordinates with other military commands, federal agencies, and international partners to deter and respond to threats in the region.

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77. Which of the following have historically been used to prosecute enemy combatants who violate the Laws of War?

Explanation

Military Commissions have historically been used to prosecute enemy combatants who violate the Laws of War. These commissions are established by the government or military of a country and are responsible for trying individuals accused of war crimes, terrorism, or other violations of international law. They are specifically designed to handle cases involving enemy combatants and operate outside the traditional civilian court system. Military Commissions have been used in various conflicts throughout history, including World War II and the War on Terror. They provide a legal framework for holding individuals accountable for their actions during armed conflicts.

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78. If you receive a written congressional inquiry, then which of the following must happen within 24 hours of receipt?

Explanation

When a written congressional inquiry is received, it must be faxed to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division within 24 hours. This implies that the inquiry must be forwarded to the proper agency, but it does not necessarily mean that it must be answered within that timeframe. Therefore, the correct answer is to fax a copy of the written inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division.

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79. Who must approve waiver of US jurisdiction for Air Force members charged with crimes by host nations?

Explanation

TJAG stands for The Judge Advocate General, who is the highest-ranking legal officer in the US Air Force. They are responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the Air Force, including matters related to jurisdiction and crimes committed by Air Force members in host nations. Therefore, the TJAG is the authority who must approve the waiver of US jurisdiction for Air Force members charged with crimes by host nations.

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80. What is the final step in the SF 278, Executive Branch Personnel Public Financial Disclosure Report, review?

Explanation

The final step in the SF 278, Executive Branch Personnel Public Financial Disclosure Report, review is to Express Mail the form to SFA/GCA. This indicates that after the form has been reviewed by the NCOIC of General Law and the SJA as agency reviewers, it needs to be sent via Express Mail to the Secretary of the Air Force General Counsel (SFA/GCA) for further processing.

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81. Under which area of the preventative law program would the full range of legal services probided by the legal office be stressed?

Explanation

Commander awareness is the correct answer because it implies that the legal office would emphasize providing a comprehensive range of legal services to commanders. This would involve ensuring that commanders are aware of their legal rights and responsibilities, as well as providing guidance and advice on legal issues that may arise within their units. It suggests that the legal office would prioritize educating and informing commanders about legal matters, in order to enhance their understanding and decision-making abilities.

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82. Which act defines hazardous waste and controls generation, storage, transport, treatment, and disposal of hazardous wastes?

Explanation

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) is the correct answer because it is a federal law in the United States that defines hazardous waste and establishes a framework for the management of hazardous waste. It regulates the generation, storage, transport, treatment, and disposal of hazardous wastes to protect human health and the environment. The RCRA also sets standards for the safe handling of hazardous waste and requires permits for facilities that generate, treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste.

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83. If you are making a determination of facts made by checkin records, reviewing directives, examining material evidence and interviewing witnesses, then you are performing an

Explanation

An inquiry involves the process of gathering information and investigating a situation by reviewing directives, examining material evidence, and interviewing witnesses. It is a systematic and thorough examination of facts and evidence to uncover the truth or find answers to specific questions. Unlike an interrogation which involves questioning suspects, an inquiry focuses on gathering information from various sources to understand a situation better. Therefore, an inquiry is the most appropriate term to describe the process of making determinations based on check-in records, reviewing directives, examining material evidence, and interviewing witnesses.

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84. What office provides expertise for the Air Force design and construction projects?

Explanation

The Air Force Center of Environmental Excellence provides expertise for the Air Force design and construction projects. This office specializes in environmental matters and ensures that these projects are carried out in an environmentally responsible manner. They provide guidance and support to the Air Force in areas such as environmental planning, compliance, and sustainability.

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85. Who is the principal air advisor to the Joint Force Commander (JFC)

Explanation

The principal air advisor to the Joint Force Commander (JFC) is the Joint force air component commander (JFACC). This individual is responsible for planning, coordinating, and executing air operations in support of the overall joint mission. They work closely with the JFC to ensure that air assets are effectively employed and integrated with other elements of the joint force. The JFACC is typically a senior air officer with extensive experience and expertise in air operations. They play a critical role in shaping the air campaign and ensuring its success.

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