CDC 5J051 : Trivia Quiz On Paralegal Journeyman!

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  • 1/85 Questions

    If you receive a request for information regarding government records, you have received a 

    • Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
    • Disclosure authority (DA)
    • Business records (BR)
    • Privacy Act (PA)
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About This Quiz

This CDC 5J051 trivia quiz explores key legal procedures within the Air Force, focusing on administrative separations, discharge protocols, and legal office reviews. It assesses understanding of AFI 36-3208 standards, enhancing both legal comprehension and procedural knowledge for airmen.

CDC 5J051 : Trivia Quiz On Paralegal Journeyman! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which type of operation is conducted outside of the United States to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?

    • Humanitarian assistance

    • Peace building

    • Peacekeeping

    • Combatant

    Correct Answer
    A. Humanitarian assistance
    Explanation
    Humanitarian assistance is the correct answer because it refers to the type of operation conducted outside of the United States to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters. This involves providing aid, support, and resources to affected populations, including food, water, medical supplies, and shelter. Humanitarian assistance aims to alleviate suffering, protect human rights, and promote recovery and resilience in the face of disasters. It is a crucial component of international relief efforts and is often carried out by governments, non-governmental organizations, and international agencies.

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  • 3. 

    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his/her conscientious objector status without good reaon, then the member

    • Has waived his/her rights to be present at the hearing

    • Has the option of appearing in a private hearing

    • Can request another hearing at a later date

    • Can submit a waiver at a later date

    Correct Answer
    A. Has waived his/her rights to be present at the hearing
    Explanation
    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his/her conscientious objector status without good reason, it means that the member has voluntarily given up or renounced their rights to be present at the hearing. This implies that they will not have the opportunity to participate in the hearing and present their case.

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  • 4. 

    What must be considered when the US Armed Forces deploy to a foriegn country?

    • Currency rate

    • International law

    • Country's location

    • United States laws only

    Correct Answer
    A. International law
    Explanation
    When the US Armed Forces deploy to a foreign country, it is crucial to consider international law. International law governs the conduct of states in their relations with each other, and it provides a framework for resolving disputes and maintaining peace. The deployment of military forces involves various legal aspects such as the respect for the sovereignty of the host country, adherence to human rights standards, and compliance with treaties and agreements. Ignoring international law can lead to diplomatic tensions, legal consequences, and damage to the reputation of the United States on the global stage.

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  • 5. 

    When checking for eligibility for legal assistance services, what is the first step?

    • Ask the subject matter to see if services can be rendered

    • Ask the client's if they have retained a civilian attorney

    • Enter their personal information into WebLIONS

    • Check the client's military ID card

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the client's military ID card
    Explanation
    The first step when checking for eligibility for legal assistance services is to check the client's military ID card. This is because the client's military ID card serves as proof of their military affiliation and eligibility for legal assistance services. By checking the military ID card, it can be determined whether the client is eligible to receive the services or not.

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  • 6. 

    When producing a power of attorney in WebLIONS for a client that is on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select

    • "all open visits"

    • "your open visits"

    • "client waiting list"

    • "POA office setup"

    Correct Answer
    A. "client waiting list"
    Explanation
    When producing a power of attorney in WebLIONS for a client that is on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select "client waiting list". This option is chosen because it allows the user to access and manage the clients who are currently on the waiting list for power of attorney. By selecting this option, the user can proceed with the necessary steps to generate the power of attorney for the client in question.

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  • 7. 

    Under which area of the preventative law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?

    • Legal assistance and consumer protection

    • Deployment readiness preparation

    • Commander awareness

    • Tax assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment readiness preparation
    Explanation
    In the context of a preventative law program, the importance of preparing a will would be stressed under the "deployment readiness preparation" area. This is because when individuals are preparing for deployment, it is crucial for them to have their legal affairs in order, including creating a will to ensure their assets and wishes are protected in the event of their absence or death during deployment.

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  • 8. 

    Before the commander sends a voluntary discharge request to the convening authority, it must be reviewed by the

    • Legal office

    • Medical group

    • Area defense counsel

    • Military personnel flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Legal office
    Explanation
    Before the commander sends a voluntary discharge request to the convening authority, it must be reviewed by the legal office. This is because the legal office is responsible for ensuring that all legal requirements and procedures are followed in the discharge process. They review the request to ensure that it is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, and provide legal advice and guidance to the commander. This review is important to ensure that the discharge request is valid and legally sound.

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  • 9. 

    After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander NOT allowed to reommend an entry level involuntary discharge?

    • 80 days

    • 90 days

    • 180 days

    • 190 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 180 days
    Explanation
    A commander is not allowed to recommend an entry level involuntary discharge after 180 days of continuous active duty. This means that if a service member has been on active duty for 180 days or more, the commander cannot initiate the process for involuntary discharge. This policy is likely in place to ensure that service members are given a sufficient amount of time to adjust to military life and demonstrate their ability to meet the requirements and expectations of their position before any potential discharge is considered.

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  • 10. 

    A notary should be performed when the client

    • Makes changes to their will

    • Requires a copy of their birth certificate

    • Has a completed document signed in your presence

    • Has a complete document not signed in your presence

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a completed document signed in your presence
    Explanation
    A notary should be performed when the client has a completed document signed in your presence because a notary public is responsible for verifying the identity of the signer and ensuring that the document is signed willingly and knowingly. By witnessing the signing of the completed document, the notary can confirm its authenticity and legality, providing an added level of assurance for all parties involved.

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  • 11. 

    A private citizen's Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request may be denied if 

    • The information is for a tort claim

    • It pertains to unclassified matters

    • The request is for information regarding the requestor

    • It is for privileged information protected by the attorney-client relationship

    Correct Answer
    A. It is for privileged information protected by the attorney-client relationship
    Explanation
    A private citizen's Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request may be denied if it is for privileged information protected by the attorney-client relationship. This means that if the requested information falls under the attorney-client privilege, which is a legal protection that keeps communications between an attorney and their client confidential, the FOIA request can be denied. This is because the attorney-client privilege is recognized as an important aspect of the legal system and allows clients to freely communicate with their attorneys without fear of disclosure.

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  • 12. 

    Air Force Chaplains are considered

    • Combatants

    • Non-combatants

    • Lawful combatants

    • Unlawful combatants

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-combatants
    Explanation
    Air Force Chaplains are considered non-combatants because their role is primarily focused on providing spiritual support and guidance to military personnel. They do not engage in direct combat or participate in armed conflict. Instead, they offer religious services, counseling, and moral guidance to support the well-being of service members. As non-combatants, they are protected under international humanitarian law and are not targetable during warfare. Their presence aims to promote the spiritual and emotional welfare of military personnel, ensuring their overall resilience and readiness.

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  • 13. 

    If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 Sep 08, by what date mst he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?

    • 4 Jan 09

    • 31 Jan 09

    • 4 Dec 08

    • 31 Dec 08

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 Dec 08
    Explanation
    The commander must review the UIF on his assigned personnel by 4 Dec 08 because it is the only date listed that is before 31 Dec 08, which is the end of the year. Since the commander assumes command on 5 Sep 08, it is logical that he would need to review the UIF within a few months of assuming command. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 Dec 08.

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  • 14. 

    A client has come to the legal office requesting legal assistance. In determining eligibility of legal assistance, you find the client ha hired a civilian attorney for the same matter. What is your immediate response?

    • Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter

    • Refer the client to their civilian attorney

    • Refer them to another agency on base

    • Sign them in for legal assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Refer the client to their civilian attorney
    Explanation
    The immediate response in this situation would be to refer the client to their civilian attorney. Since they have already hired a civilian attorney for the same matter, it is best to let the attorney handle the case. Referring the client to their attorney ensures that they receive the appropriate legal assistance and avoids any potential conflicts or duplication of efforts.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following classes is a conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as a combatant in war, but whose convictions or beliefs will permit him/her to serve in a noncombatant status?

    • 1-0

    • 1-A-0

    • 1-B-0

    • 1-C-0

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-A-0
    Explanation
    A conscientious objector is someone who objects to participating as a combatant in war due to their deeply held beliefs or convictions. However, they may still be willing to serve in a noncombatant role. The answer 1-A-0 indicates that this class of individuals is a conscientious objector who is willing to serve in a noncombatant status.

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  • 16. 

    If acting as an assistant to the recorder  in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will

    • Need to have a copy of the script

    • Need to be organized and ready to proceed

    • Need to have a copy of the convening order

    • Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times

    Correct Answer
    A. Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times
    Explanation
    When acting as an assistant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, it is important to be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times. This is because the attorney will provide guidance and ensure that the proceedings are conducted in accordance with legal requirements. The attorney will also be responsible for overseeing the assistant's work and making any necessary corrections or adjustments. Therefore, being under direct supervision of an attorney is crucial to maintain the integrity and legality of the proceedings.

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  • 17. 

    If an employee is using government property to further the organization's mission, then that use of government property is considered to be

    • Official

    • Unofficial

    • Authorized

    • Nonmission essential

    Correct Answer
    A. Official
    Explanation
    If an employee is using government property to further the organization's mission, it is considered official. This means that the employee is utilizing the government property in a manner that aligns with the goals and objectives of the organization. The use of government property in this context is authorized and serves a mission essential purpose.

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  • 18. 

    Who retains sole responsibility for response to off-installation foreign incidents?

    • Host nation

    • Commander

    • United Nations

    • US ambassador

    Correct Answer
    A. Host nation
    Explanation
    The host nation retains sole responsibility for response to off-installation foreign incidents. This means that when an incident occurs outside of the installation or base, the host nation, which refers to the country where the incident takes place, is responsible for handling and responding to the situation. The host nation has the authority and jurisdiction to take appropriate actions and measures to address the incident and ensure the safety and security of all involved.

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  • 19. 

    In an administrative discharge board proceeding, what are your standards of proof in you are acting as the recorder?

    • Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • Preponderance of the evidence

    • Clear and convincing evidence

    • No standard of proof for discharge boards

    Correct Answer
    A. Preponderance of the evidence
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board proceeding, the standard of proof when acting as the recorder is "preponderance of the evidence." This means that the evidence presented must show that it is more likely than not that the allegations or charges against the individual are true. The burden of proof is not as high as "beyond a reasonable doubt," which is the standard used in criminal cases, but it still requires a greater weight of evidence in favor of the allegations. "Clear and convincing evidence" is a higher standard than preponderance of the evidence and is typically used in civil cases involving serious consequences.

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  • 20. 

    A commander may continue demotion action baesd on incidents that occurred before an Airman's enlistment?

    • By special approval of the SECAF

    • By special approval of the MAJCOM commander

    • If the AIrman was promoted based o achievements prior to the reenlistment

    • If the circumstances and facts of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment

    Correct Answer
    A. If the circumstances and facts of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is if the circumstances and facts of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment. This means that if the commander was not aware of the incidents that occurred before the Airman's enlistment until after the reenlistment, they can still take demotion action based on those incidents. It implies that the commander can consider previous incidents as long as they were not aware of them at the time of reenlistment.

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  • 21. 

    In a federal Magistrate Course case, immediately following arraignment on a petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will

    • Impose a sentence

    • Set a date for sentencing

    • Assign a public defender to the accused

    • Request a pre-sentencing report from Pre-Trial Services

    Correct Answer
    A. Impose a sentence
    Explanation
    In a federal Magistrate Court case, after the defendant pleads guilty to a petty offense during the arraignment, the magistrate will impose a sentence. This means that the magistrate will determine and announce the punishment or penalty for the defendant's guilty plea. The other options, such as setting a date for sentencing, assigning a public defender, or requesting a pre-sentencing report, are not applicable in this specific scenario.

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  • 22. 

    The first supervisor in te chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilian above the genera schedule (GS-11), is the individual to seek approval for 

    • Volunteering for non-government sanctioned activities during duty hours

    • Volunteering for government sanctioned activities during duty hours

    • Using government property for limited personal use

    • Using personal property for government use

    Correct Answer
    A. Using government property for limited personal use
    Explanation
    The first supervisor in the chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilian above the general schedule (GS-11), is the individual to seek approval for using government property for limited personal use. This means that if an individual wants to use government property for personal reasons, such as borrowing a work laptop for a personal project, they need to seek approval from their first supervisor. This ensures that the use of government property is properly regulated and authorized.

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  • 23. 

    When determining rules of engagement (ROE), where is the place you need to check first and foremost?

    • Standing ROE

    • Special instructions

    • Theater specific ROE

    • Mission specific ROE

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing ROE
    Explanation
    When determining rules of engagement (ROE), the first place you need to check is the Standing ROE. Standing ROE refers to the standard set of rules and guidelines that are applicable to all military operations. These rules provide a baseline for the use of force and dictate how military personnel should respond in various situations. By checking the Standing ROE first, you can ensure that you are familiar with the general rules and principles that govern the use of force before considering any special or mission-specific instructions.

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  • 24. 

    After an airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?

    • Go to the military personnel flight for discharge processing

    • Report to the medical group for a medical examination

    • Make an appointment with the area defense counsel

    • Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge

    Correct Answer
    A. Report to the medical group for a medical examination
    Explanation
    After an airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, his next action is to report to the medical group for a medical examination. This is important to ensure that the airman is in good health and fit for discharge. The medical examination will assess any potential medical conditions or issues that may need to be addressed before the airman's discharge. It is a standard procedure to ensure the airman's well-being and to provide appropriate medical care if needed.

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  • 25. 

    When an Airman loses authorization for shipment of household goods as a consequence of an administrative demotion action, the demotion action 

    • Is delayed and completed by the gaining commander

    • Is terminated and reinitiated by the gaining commander

    • Goes into effect and household goods are moved at the airman's own expense

    • Goes into effect and a waiver of household goods shipment is issued by the Traffic Management Office

    Correct Answer
    A. Is delayed and completed by the gaining commander
  • 26. 

    If you receive a request for information regarding records, forms and other written or permanent documents that pertainto an individual, you have received a 

    • Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)

    • Disclosure Authority (DA)

    • Business records (BR)

    • Privacy Act (PA) request

    Correct Answer
    A. Privacy Act (PA) request
    Explanation
    If you receive a request for information regarding records, forms, and other written or permanent documents that pertain to an individual, you have received a Privacy Act (PA) request. The Privacy Act of 1974 is a law that protects the privacy of individuals by regulating the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by federal agencies. It allows individuals to access and request amendments to their own records held by federal agencies. Therefore, a request for such information would fall under the Privacy Act (PA) request category.

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  • 27. 

    If a civil service employee has a discrimination complaint, then their case would be handled by the

    • Office of Special Counsel

    • Merit System Protection Board

    • Office of Personnel Management

    • Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
    Explanation
    If a civil service employee has a discrimination complaint, their case would be handled by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. This is because the EEOC is responsible for enforcing federal laws that prohibit workplace discrimination. They investigate complaints of discrimination, such as those based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. The EEOC works to ensure that employees are treated fairly and have equal opportunities in the workplace.

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  • 28. 

    If you ar using a telephone that has a secure voice and data equipment designed for use on digital communications networks, then you are using a

    • Defense secure network (DSN)

    • Secure terminal Equipment (STE)

    • Secure telephone unit, third generation (STU III)

    • Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure terminal Equipment (STE)
    Explanation
    If you are using a telephone that has secure voice and data equipment designed for use on digital communications networks, then you are using Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is specifically designed to provide secure communication and is commonly used in military and government organizations. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of voice and data transmissions, protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or interception. The other options mentioned, such as Defense secure network (DSN), Secure telephone unit, third generation (STU III), and Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE), are not specifically designed for use on digital communications networks and may not provide the same level of security as STE.

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  • 29. 

    What type of contract is the contractor bound to perform at a specified price and bears the risk of cost overruns?

    • Lowest bid contract

    • Fixed priced contract

    • Assumable risk contract

    • Cost reimbursement contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed priced contract
    Explanation
    A fixed priced contract is a type of contract where the contractor is obligated to perform the work at a specified price. In this contract, the contractor bears the risk of cost overruns, meaning that if the actual costs exceed the agreed-upon price, the contractor will have to cover the additional expenses. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is well-defined and the risks associated with cost fluctuations can be reasonably estimated and allocated to the contractor.

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  • 30. 

    The independant, permanent court that tries persons accused of the most serious crimes of international concern, namely genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes is the 

    • International Committee of the Red Cross

    • International Supreme Court

    • International Criminal Court

    • Military Commissions

    Correct Answer
    A. International Criminal Court
    Explanation
    The International Criminal Court is the correct answer because it is an independent and permanent court that is responsible for prosecuting individuals accused of committing genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes. It was established by the Rome Statute in 2002 and is based in The Hague, Netherlands. The ICC's jurisdiction extends to cases where national courts are unable or unwilling to prosecute these serious crimes. Its primary goal is to promote justice and accountability for these grave international offenses. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a humanitarian organization, not a court. The International Supreme Court and Military Commissions are not specifically dedicated to trying crimes of international concern.

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  • 31. 

    When using WebLIONS, you get to the screen to enter client data by selecting

    • "submit" from the client data screen

    • "legal assistance" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar

    • "docs and notary" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar

    • "enter client info" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar

    Correct Answer
    A. "enter client info" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "enter client info" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar because selecting this option allows the user to access the screen where they can enter client data.

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  • 32. 

    If you are making a determination of the facts surrounding a particular event, occurance, circumstance, or action, then you are performing an

    • Interrogation

    • Investigation

    • Inspection

    • Inquiry

    Correct Answer
    A. Investigation
    Explanation
    When you are making a determination of the facts surrounding a particular event, occurrence, circumstance, or action, you are conducting an investigation. This involves gathering information, collecting evidence, and analyzing it to understand what happened and why. An investigation is typically conducted to uncover the truth, find answers to specific questions, and make informed decisions based on the findings.

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  • 33. 

    If the applicant does not sumit a rebuttal for denial of any classification as a conscientious objector within 15 calendar days from the receipt of te record, then the member

    • Can submit a rebuttal up to 30 calendar days late

    • Can request an extension

    • Loses the right to rebuttal

    • Can request a rehearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Loses the right to rebuttal
    Explanation
    If the applicant does not submit a rebuttal for denial of any classification as a conscientious objector within 15 calendar days from the receipt of the record, then the member loses the right to rebuttal. This means that if the applicant fails to provide a response within the specified time frame, they will no longer have the opportunity to contest the denial and present their arguments or evidence. The window for submitting a rebuttal is limited to 15 calendar days, and if this deadline is missed, the right to rebuttal is forfeited.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following types of information will not be made available for use in litigation?

    • Personal

    • Privileged

    • Confidential

    • For Official Use Only

    Correct Answer
    A. Privileged
    Explanation
    Privileged information refers to communication between two parties that is protected by a legal privilege, such as attorney-client privilege or doctor-patient confidentiality. This type of information cannot be disclosed or made available for use in litigation without the consent of the party holding the privilege. Therefore, privileged information will not be made available for use in litigation.

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  • 35. 

    The Contract Disputes Act obligates the contractor to

    • Continue performance pending resolution of any dispute

    • Continue performance only after resolution of the dispute

    • Complete the contractual terms regardless of any disputes

    • Complete the contractual terms as modified by interim agreement

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue performance pending resolution of any dispute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Continue performance pending resolution of any dispute." This means that the contractor is required to continue fulfilling their obligations under the contract even if there is a dispute or disagreement between the parties involved. They cannot stop or delay their performance until the dispute is resolved. This ensures that the contract is not disrupted and that both parties continue to fulfill their responsibilities until a resolution is reached.

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  • 36. 

    If a General Order is issued by a combatnat commander in a multinational force, then the General Order applies to

    • Deployed US personnel

    • Everyone in the multinational force

    • Anyone that has read the General Order

    • Only those working in the same area as Air Force members

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployed US personnel
    Explanation
    A General Order issued by a combatant commander in a multinational force applies to Deployed US personnel because they are specifically mentioned in the question. The other options, such as everyone in the multinational force or anyone that has read the General Order, are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be assumed to be correct. The option "Only those working in the same area as Air Force members" is also not mentioned in the question and is therefore not a valid answer.

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  • 37. 

    What is recognized as the most common international agreement for defining the legal status of US personnel and property in the territory of another nation?

    • Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA)

    • Host Nation Support Agreement (HNSA)

    • Foreign Criminal Justice Agreement (FCJA)

    • Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement (ACSA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA)
    Explanation
    The most common international agreement for defining the legal status of US personnel and property in the territory of another nation is the Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA). This agreement outlines the rights and responsibilities of both the US and the host nation regarding the presence and activities of US military personnel. It covers various aspects such as jurisdiction, criminal jurisdiction, taxation, customs regulations, and civil and administrative jurisdiction. SOFAs are essential for maintaining good relations between the US and the host nation, ensuring the legal protection of US personnel, and facilitating military cooperation and operations.

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  • 38. 

    What is the highest ranking Air Force officer assigned to a joint task force normally called?

    • Joint task force combat commander (JTFCC)

    • Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)

    • Joint force air component commander (JFACC)

    • Combined Forces Air Component Command (CFACC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)
    Explanation
    The highest ranking Air Force officer assigned to a joint task force is called the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR). This individual is responsible for overseeing all Air Force operations within the joint task force and coordinating with other branches of the military. They work closely with the overall joint task force commander to ensure the successful execution of the mission.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is the first step in a Magistrate Court case?

    • Draft the information

    • Determine jurisdiction

    • Request a copy of the report of investigation

    • Request a copy of DD Form 1805 US District Court Violation Notice

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine jurisdiction
    Explanation
    The first step in a Magistrate Court case is to determine jurisdiction. This involves establishing whether the court has the authority to hear and decide the particular case. Jurisdiction can be based on factors such as the location of the offense, the parties involved, and the type of case. By determining jurisdiction, the court ensures that it has the legal power to handle the case before proceeding with other steps such as drafting the information or requesting relevant documents.

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  • 40. 

    If you participate in a major exercise or operation, or directly support one, then on your return you must submit a(n)

    • Special interest report

    • Investigation report

    • After-action report

    • Situation report

    Correct Answer
    A. After-action report
    Explanation
    After participating in a major exercise or operation, or providing direct support, it is required to submit an after-action report. This report is a detailed analysis of the event, including an assessment of what went well, what could be improved, and any lessons learned. It helps to identify strengths and weaknesses, and provides valuable information for future planning and decision-making.

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  • 41. 

    For an officer discharge, after the board of inquiry is completed, to what level of command do you send the completed report along with the findings and recommendations?

    • MAJCOM

    • NAF

    • Wing

    • Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM
    Explanation
    After the board of inquiry is completed, the completed report along with the findings and recommendations is sent to the MAJCOM (Major Command) level of command. This is because the MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing multiple wings and squadrons, and they have the authority to make decisions regarding officer discharge based on the findings and recommendations provided in the report. The MAJCOM level of command ensures that the decision-making process is fair and consistent across all units under its jurisdiction.

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  • 42. 

    If the commander to whom the application for redress for an Article 138, UCMJ, comlaint is properly submitted refued the redress, then the next option for the member is to submit the complaint

    • Directly to the officer exercising GCM jurisdiction

    • Directly to the inspector general

    • To equal employment office

    • To their congressman

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly to the officer exercising GCM jurisdiction
    Explanation
    If the commander refuses to provide redress for an Article 138, UCMJ complaint, the next option for the member is to submit the complaint directly to the officer exercising GCM jurisdiction. This is because the officer exercising General Court-Martial (GCM) jurisdiction has the authority to address and resolve the complaint at a higher level. This option allows for a more formal and thorough investigation into the complaint, ensuring that it is properly addressed and resolved.

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  • 43. 

    What action legally binds the Air Force to make payments?

    • Appropriation

    • Authorization

    • Obligation

    • Procurement

    Correct Answer
    A. Obligation
    Explanation
    In the context of the question, an obligation refers to a legal commitment or duty to make payments. This means that once an obligation is established, the Air Force is legally bound to fulfill its payment responsibilities. Appropriation refers to the allocation of funds for specific purposes, authorization refers to the approval or permission granted for certain actions, and procurement refers to the process of obtaining goods or services. While these actions may be related to the financial operations of the Air Force, they do not necessarily involve the legal binding of payments as an obligation does.

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  • 44. 

    Who appoints military legal advisors?

    • Local SJA

    • Installation commander

    • MAJCOM commander

    • TJAG

    Correct Answer
    A. Local SJA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Local SJA." The local SJA, or Staff Judge Advocate, is responsible for appointing military legal advisors. These advisors provide legal guidance and support to military personnel within their specific installation or unit. They ensure that military operations and actions are conducted in accordance with legal regulations and policies.

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  • 45. 

    Which agency is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad?

    • Department of State

    • Department of Defense

    • Central Intelligence Agency

    • Federal Bureau of Investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad. This agency is primarily focused on diplomacy and foreign relations, and it has the authority and resources to assist US citizens in times of crisis or emergency situations in foreign countries. The Department of State works closely with embassies and consulates around the world to ensure the safety and well-being of US citizens traveling or residing abroad.

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  • 46. 

    In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the last oath?

    • Reporter

    • Recorder

    • Legal Advisor

    • Voting members

    Correct Answer
    A. Recorder
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, the legal advisor does not administer the last oath. Instead, it is the responsibility of the recorder to administer the last oath. The recorder is typically responsible for keeping a record of the proceedings and ensuring that all necessary oaths are administered correctly.

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  • 47. 

    Once the opening statements have been made, who presents evidence in an administrative discharge board hearing?

    • Respondent's counsel

    • Legal advisor

    • Recorder

    • Reporter

    Correct Answer
    A. Recorder
    Explanation
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, the recorder is responsible for presenting evidence. The recorder is typically a neutral party who assists in maintaining a record of the proceedings. They ensure that all evidence is properly documented and presented to the board for consideration. The recorder's role is crucial in ensuring a fair and accurate hearing process.

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  • 48. 

    Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using

    • DD Form 1058, UIF

    • AF Form 1058, UIF

    • DD Form 2907, UIF

    • AF Form 2907, UIF

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1058, UIF
  • 49. 

    Under AFI 36-3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen, before an Airman can request discharg in lieu of court-martial,

    • The airman must be placed in pretrial confinement

    • The airman's date of separation is within 90 days of the scheduled court-martial

    • Charges must be referred against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized

    • Charges must be PREFERRED against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized

    Correct Answer
    A. Charges must be PREFERRED against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized
    Explanation
    According to AFI 36-3208, before an Airman can request discharge in lieu of court-martial, charges must be preferred against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized. This means that the Airman must be formally accused of the alleged misconduct, and the punishment of a punitive discharge must be authorized by the appropriate authority. It is not necessary for the airman to be placed in pretrial confinement or for their date of separation to be within 90 days of the scheduled court-martial.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 09, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Risika1

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