CDC 5J051 : Trivia Quiz On Paralegal Journeyman!

85 Questions | Total Attempts: 33

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CDC 5J051 : Trivia Quiz On Paralegal Journeyman!

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Under AFI 36-3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen, before an Airman can request discharg in lieu of court-martial,
    • A. 

      The airman must be placed in pretrial confinement

    • B. 

      The airman's date of separation is within 90 days of the scheduled court-martial

    • C. 

      Charges must be referred against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized

    • D. 

      Charges must be PREFERRED against the airman and a punitive discharge authorized

  • 2. 
    Before the commander sends a voluntary discharge request to the convening authority, it must be reviewed by the
    • A. 

      Legal office

    • B. 

      Medical group

    • C. 

      Area defense counsel

    • D. 

      Military personnel flight

  • 3. 
    After how many days of continuous active duty is a commander NOT allowed to reommend an entry level involuntary discharge?
    • A. 

      80 days

    • B. 

      90 days

    • C. 

      180 days

    • D. 

      190 days

  • 4. 
    After an airman acknowledges receipt of a notification for discharge, what is his next action?
    • A. 

      Go to the military personnel flight for discharge processing

    • B. 

      Report to the medical group for a medical examination

    • C. 

      Make an appointment with the area defense counsel

    • D. 

      Submit a statement in rebuttal of the discharge

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      The SpCMCA must agree to the extension

    • B. 

      The airman must agree to the extension

    • C. 

      At least 7 months must have passed

    • D. 

      At least 9 months must have passed

  • 6. 
    In an administrative discharge board hearing, to whom does the legal advisor administer the last oath?
    • A. 

      Reporter

    • B. 

      Recorder

    • C. 

      Legal Advisor

    • D. 

      Voting members

  • 7. 
    Once the opening statements have been made, who presents evidence in an administrative discharge board hearing?
    • A. 

      Respondent's counsel

    • B. 

      Legal advisor

    • C. 

      Recorder

    • D. 

      Reporter

  • 8. 
    After the board is adjourned during a discharge board proceeding, who normally authenticates the record of proceedings?
    • A. 

      Legal Advisor

    • B. 

      Respondent

    • C. 

      Reporter

    • D. 

      Judge

  • 9. 
    If acting as an assistant to the recorder  in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you will
    • A. 

      Need to have a copy of the script

    • B. 

      Need to be organized and ready to proceed

    • C. 

      Need to have a copy of the convening order

    • D. 

      Be under direct supervision of an attorney at all times

  • 10. 
    In an administrative discharge board proceeding, what are your standards of proof in you are acting as the recorder?
    • A. 

      Beyond a reasonable doubt

    • B. 

      Preponderance of the evidence

    • C. 

      Clear and convincing evidence

    • D. 

      No standard of proof for discharge boards

  • 11. 
    For an officer discharge, after the board of inquiry is completed, to what level of command do you send the completed report along with the findings and recommendations?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      NAF

    • C. 

      Wing

    • D. 

      Squadron

  • 12. 
    A commander may continue demotion action baesd on incidents that occurred before an Airman's enlistment?
    • A. 

      By special approval of the SECAF

    • B. 

      By special approval of the MAJCOM commander

    • C. 

      If the AIrman was promoted based o achievements prior to the reenlistment

    • D. 

      If the circumstances and facts of the incidents were not known by the commander until after reenlistment

  • 13. 
    When an Airman loses authorization for shipment of household goods as a consequence of an administrative demotion action, the demotion action 
    • A. 

      Is delayed and completed by the gaining commander

    • B. 

      Is terminated and reinitiated by the gaining commander

    • C. 

      Goes into effect and household goods are moved at the airman's own expense

    • D. 

      Goes into effect and a waiver of household goods shipment is issued by the Traffic Management Office

  • 14. 
    If a commander wants to demote a senior or chief master sergeant, then it must be approved by the
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      NAF commander

    • C. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • D. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

  • 15. 
    Before a board of officers for an officer case can be convened, the legal advisor, recorder and board members must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • B. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • C. 

      NAF commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 16. 
    After the board of officers has determined its findings, made its recommendation, and authenticated the record, it is sent to the
    • A. 

      GCMCA for disposition

    • B. 

      MAJCOM commander for disposition

    • C. 

      Air Force Personnel Center to update records

    • D. 

      SJA for legal review

  • 17. 
    If a commander places an Airman on a control roster on 1 Sep 08, when is the latest he may remove the individual from the control roster?
    • A. 

      31 Jan 09

    • B. 

      28 Feb 09

    • C. 

      30 June 09

    • D. 

      31 Aug 09

  • 18. 
    Prior to filing an optional document in an Airman's UIF, the decision authority must first notify the member of the intent to do so by using
    • A. 

      DD Form 1058, UIF

    • B. 

      AF Form 1058, UIF

    • C. 

      DD Form 2907, UIF

    • D. 

      AF Form 2907, UIF

  • 19. 
    If a commander assumes command of his squadron on 5 Sep 08, by what date mst he review the UIF on his assigned personnel?
    • A. 

      4 Jan 09

    • B. 

      31 Jan 09

    • C. 

      4 Dec 08

    • D. 

      31 Dec 08

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      107

    • D. 

      134

  • 21. 
    Assessments of the drug testing progam must be performed at least?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-annually

    • C. 

      Anually

    • D. 

      Every 2 years

  • 22. 
    While TJAG is rsponsible for the legal assistance program Air Force-wide, who is responsible for monitoring the program?
    • A. 

      AIr Force Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA/AFJAGS)

    • B. 

      MAJCOM/SJA

    • C. 

      NAF/SJA

    • D. 

      Base SJA

  • 23. 
    To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization-and deployment- related legal assistance?
    • A. 

      Base SJA

    • B. 

      TJAG

    • C. 

      NAF/SJA

    • D. 

      MAJCOM/SJA

  • 24. 
    When checking for eligibility for legal assistance services, what is the first step?
    • A. 

      Ask the subject matter to see if services can be rendered

    • B. 

      Ask the client's if they have retained a civilian attorney

    • C. 

      Enter their personal information into WebLIONS

    • D. 

      Check the client's military ID card

  • 25. 
    A client has come to the legal office requesting legal assistance. In determining eligibility of legal assistance, you find the client ha hired a civilian attorney for the same matter. What is your immediate response?
    • A. 

      Defer to the SJA for a decision on the matter

    • B. 

      Refer the client to their civilian attorney

    • C. 

      Refer them to another agency on base

    • D. 

      Sign them in for legal assistance

  • 26. 
    When using WebLIONS, you get to the screen to enter client data by selecting
    • A. 

      "submit" from the client data screen

    • B. 

      "legal assistance" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar

    • C. 

      "docs and notary" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar

    • D. 

      "enter client info" from the drop-down box in the "actions" bar

  • 27. 
    When producing a power of attorney in WebLIONS for a client that is on the waiting list, the first step from the "actions" drop down menu is to select
    • A. 

      "all open visits"

    • B. 

      "your open visits"

    • C. 

      "client waiting list"

    • D. 

      "POA office setup"

  • 28. 
    A notary should be performed when the client
    • A. 

      Makes changes to their will

    • B. 

      Requires a copy of their birth certificate

    • C. 

      Has a completed document signed in your presence

    • D. 

      Has a complete document not signed in your presence

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      SJA

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Chief of legal assistance

  • 30. 
    Under which area of the preventative law program would the full range of legal services probided by the legal office be stressed?
    • A. 

      Legal assistance and consumer protection

    • B. 

      Deployment readiness preparation

    • C. 

      Commander awareness

    • D. 

      Tax assistance

  • 31. 
    Under which area of the preventative law program would the importance of preparing a will be stressed?
    • A. 

      Legal assistance and consumer protection

    • B. 

      Deployment readiness preparation

    • C. 

      Commander awareness

    • D. 

      Tax assistance

  • 32. 
    If you are making a determination of facts made by checkin records, reviewing directives, examining material evidence and interviewing witnesses, then you are performing an
    • A. 

      Interrogation

    • B. 

      Investigation

    • C. 

      Inspection

    • D. 

      Inquiry

  • 33. 
    If you are making a determination of the facts surrounding a particular event, occurance, circumstance, or action, then you are performing an
    • A. 

      Interrogation

    • B. 

      Investigation

    • C. 

      Inspection

    • D. 

      Inquiry

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      1-0

    • B. 

      1-A-0

    • C. 

      1-B-0

    • D. 

      1-C-0

  • 35. 
    If a member fails to appear at the hearing for his/her conscientious objector status without good reaon, then the member
    • A. 

      Has waived his/her rights to be present at the hearing

    • B. 

      Has the option of appearing in a private hearing

    • C. 

      Can request another hearing at a later date

    • D. 

      Can submit a waiver at a later date

  • 36. 
    If the applicant does not sumit a rebuttal for denial of any classification as a conscientious objector within 15 calendar days from the receipt of te record, then the member
    • A. 

      Can submit a rebuttal up to 30 calendar days late

    • B. 

      Can request an extension

    • C. 

      Loses the right to rebuttal

    • D. 

      Can request a rehearing

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Promotion withheld for no reason

    • B. 

      60 days restriction as a result of nonjudicial punishment

    • C. 

      A SpCM sentence with an adjudged bad conduct discharge

    • D. 

      A GCM sentence with an adjudged dishonorable discharge

  • 38. 
    If the commander to whom the application for redress for an Article 138, UCMJ, comlaint is properly submitted refued the redress, then the next option for the member is to submit the complaint
    • A. 

      Directly to the officer exercising GCM jurisdiction

    • B. 

      Directly to the inspector general

    • C. 

      To equal employment office

    • D. 

      To their congressman

  • 39. 
    If you receive a written congressional inquiry, then which of the following must happen within 24 hours of receipt?
    • A. 

      The inquiry must be answered

    • B. 

      The inquiry must be forwarded to the proper agency

    • C. 

      Fax a copy of a written inquiry to the Legislative Liaison Inquiry Division

    • D. 

      Fax a copy of a written inquiry to TJAG

  • 40. 
    If you are performing an investigation to preserve available evidence for use in clams, litigation, disciplinary actions, administrative proceedings, and all other actions, then you are performing a(n)
    • A. 

      Article 32, UCMJ investigation

    • B. 

      Accident investigation

    • C. 

      Claims investigation

    • D. 

      Safety investigation

  • 41. 
    Additional copies of an accident report are required if more than one 
    • A. 

      Pilot is involved

    • B. 

      Aircraft is involved

    • C. 

      Legal office is involved

    • D. 

      MAJCOM is involved

  • 42. 
    A private citizen's Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request may be denied if 
    • A. 

      The information is for a tort claim

    • B. 

      It pertains to unclassified matters

    • C. 

      The request is for information regarding the requestor

    • D. 

      It is for privileged information protected by the attorney-client relationship

  • 43. 
    If you receive a request for information regarding records, forms and other written or permanent documents that pertainto an individual, you have received a 
    • A. 

      Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)

    • B. 

      Disclosure Authority (DA)

    • C. 

      Business records (BR)

    • D. 

      Privacy Act (PA) request

  • 44. 
    If you receive a request for information regarding government records, you have received a 
    • A. 

      Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)

    • B. 

      Disclosure authority (DA)

    • C. 

      Business records (BR)

    • D. 

      Privacy Act (PA)

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Personal

    • B. 

      Privileged

    • C. 

      Confidential

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Consult Operations & International law Division (HQ USAF/JAO)

    • B. 

      Forward request to appropriate authority to deny

    • C. 

      Consult the US Attorney

    • D. 

      Approve the request

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      Draft the information

    • B. 

      Determine jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Request a copy of the report of investigation

    • D. 

      Request a copy of DD Form 1805 US District Court Violation Notice

  • 48. 
    When assembling a Magistrate Court file, which of the following is the first step?
    • A. 

      Draft the information

    • B. 

      Put a cover sheet on the file

    • C. 

      Request a copy of the report of investigation

    • D. 

      Obtain consent to try the case in federal Magistrate Court

  • 49. 
    In a federal Magistrate Course case, immediately following arraignment on a petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will
    • A. 

      Impose a sentence

    • B. 

      Set a date for sentencing

    • C. 

      Assign a public defender to the accused

    • D. 

      Request a pre-sentencing report from Pre-Trial Services

  • 50. 
    If an officer member of a tenant unit is being administratively discharged, then jursdiction for the member and the discharge belongs to
    • A. 

      Tenant command's MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Host command's MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Tenant command

    • D. 

      Host command

  • 51. 
    In a joint command, if NJP is imposed on an Air Force member by a commander of a different service, the decisions as to collateral administrative action will be made by the
    • A. 

      Commander that imposed the NJP

    • B. 

      Commander of the member's home station

    • C. 

      SpCMCA of the member's home station

    • D. 

      Senior Air Force officer or commander of the Air Force element in the joint command

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Clean Air Act

    • B. 

      National Environmental Policy Act

    • C. 

      Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

    • D. 

      Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Army Corps of Engineers

    • B. 

      Environmental Protection Agency

    • C. 

      Environmental Law and Litigation Division

    • D. 

      Air Force Center of Environmental Excellence

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Lowest bid contract

    • B. 

      Fixed priced contract

    • C. 

      Assumable risk contract

    • D. 

      Cost reimbursement contract

  • 55. 
    The Contract Disputes Act obligates the contractor to
    • A. 

      Continue performance pending resolution of any dispute

    • B. 

      Continue performance only after resolution of the dispute

    • C. 

      Complete the contractual terms regardless of any disputes

    • D. 

      Complete the contractual terms as modified by interim agreement

  • 56. 
    If a civil service employee has a discrimination complaint, then their case would be handled by the
    • A. 

      Office of Special Counsel

    • B. 

      Merit System Protection Board

    • C. 

      Office of Personnel Management

    • D. 

      Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

  • 57. 
    If a National Security Personnel System employee is considered a subject matter expert, they are in
    • A. 

      Pay Band 1

    • B. 

      Pay Band 2

    • C. 

      Pay Band 3

    • D. 

      Pay Band 4

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Appropriation

    • B. 

      Authorization

    • C. 

      Obligation

    • D. 

      Procurement

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      The NCOIC of General Law signs as the agency reviewer

    • B. 

      Priority Mail the form to Secretary of the Air Force General Counsel (SFA/CA)

    • C. 

      The SJA signs as agency reviewer

    • D. 

      Express Mail the form to SFA/GCA

  • 60. 
    Before travel payments are accepted from a non-federal source, the 
    • A. 

      Designated Agency Ethics Official must grant approval

    • B. 

      Travel approving authority must grant approval

    • C. 

      Base SJA must grant approval

    • D. 

      Member's commander must grant approval

  • 61. 
    If an employee is using government property to further the organization's mission, then that use of government property is considered to be
    • A. 

      Official

    • B. 

      Unofficial

    • C. 

      Authorized

    • D. 

      Nonmission essential

  • 62. 
    The first supervisor in te chain of command, whether a commissioned officer or civilian above the genera schedule (GS-11), is the individual to seek approval for 
    • A. 

      Volunteering for non-government sanctioned activities during duty hours

    • B. 

      Volunteering for government sanctioned activities during duty hours

    • C. 

      Using government property for limited personal use

    • D. 

      Using personal property for government use

  • 63. 
    If a General Order is issued by a combatnat commander in a multinational force, then the General Order applies to
    • A. 

      Deployed US personnel

    • B. 

      Everyone in the multinational force

    • C. 

      Anyone that has read the General Order

    • D. 

      Only those working in the same area as Air Force members

  • 64. 
    If you participate in a major exercise or operation, or directly support one, then on your return you must submit a(n)
    • A. 

      Special interest report

    • B. 

      Investigation report

    • C. 

      After-action report

    • D. 

      Situation report

  • 65. 
    If you ar using a telephone that has a secure voice and data equipment designed for use on digital communications networks, then you are using a
    • A. 

      Defense secure network (DSN)

    • B. 

      Secure terminal Equipment (STE)

    • C. 

      Secure telephone unit, third generation (STU III)

    • D. 

      Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Currency rate

    • B. 

      International law

    • C. 

      Country's location

    • D. 

      United States laws only

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Payment in Cash (PIC)

    • B. 

      Credit for future (CFC)

    • C. 

      Replacement in kind (RIK)

    • D. 

      Equal value exchange (EVE)

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA)

    • B. 

      Host Nation Support Agreement (HNSA)

    • C. 

      Foreign Criminal Justice Agreement (FCJA)

    • D. 

      Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement (ACSA)

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Full-SOFA

    • B. 

      Mini-SOFA

    • C. 

      Administrative and Technical Status

    • D. 

      Ambassador Executive Leadership status

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      TJAG

    • C. 

      SECAF

    • D. 

      President

  • 71. 
    • A. 

      Local SJA

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • D. 

      TJAG

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Shutter control

    • B. 

      Space prevention

    • C. 

      Space negation

    • D. 

      Navigation warfare

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      Joint task force air commander (JTFAC)

    • B. 

      Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)

    • C. 

      Joint force air component commander (JFACC)

    • D. 

      Joint air operations center commander (JAOCC)

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Joint task force combat commander (JTFCC)

    • B. 

      Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)

    • C. 

      Joint force air component commander (JFACC)

    • D. 

      Combined Forces Air Component Command (CFACC)

  • 75. 
    If a commander requests supplemental rules of engagement (ROE), then the request must be classified at least
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Top Secret

    • C. 

      Confidential

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only

  • 76. 
    When determining rules of engagement (ROE), where is the place you need to check first and foremost?
    • A. 

      Standing ROE

    • B. 

      Special instructions

    • C. 

      Theater specific ROE

    • D. 

      Mission specific ROE

  • 77. 
    Air Force Chaplains are considered
    • A. 

      Combatants

    • B. 

      Non-combatants

    • C. 

      Lawful combatants

    • D. 

      Unlawful combatants

  • 78. 
    The independant, permanent court that tries persons accused of the most serious crimes of international concern, namely genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes is the 
    • A. 

      International Committee of the Red Cross

    • B. 

      International Supreme Court

    • C. 

      International Criminal Court

    • D. 

      Military Commissions

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      International Committee of the Red Cross

    • B. 

      International Supreme Court

    • C. 

      International Criminal Court

    • D. 

      Military Commissions

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      Department of State

    • B. 

      Department of Defense

    • C. 

      Central Intelligence Agency

    • D. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigations

  • 81. 
    The post-conflict action that is predominately diplomatic to strengthen civilian infrastructure is peace
    • A. 

      Enforcement

    • B. 

      Building

    • C. 

      Keeping

    • D. 

      Making

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Humanitarian assistance

    • B. 

      Peace building

    • C. 

      Peacekeeping

    • D. 

      Combatant

  • 83. 
    When working with contracting issues, the Logistics Civil Augmentation Program/Air Force Contract Augmentation Program (LOGCAP/AFCAP) is the type of contract you should use 
    • A. 

      If the contract is under $250,000

    • B. 

      If the contract is under $100,000

    • C. 

      As the first option

    • D. 

      As a last resort

  • 84. 
    • A. 

      Host nation

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      United Nations

    • D. 

      US ambassador

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      US Space Command

    • B. 

      US Strategic Command

    • C. 

      US Northern Command

    • D. 

      US Pacific Command