4N051 Set B Vol 2

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admissions to a nursing unit?

    • A.

      Evaluation

    • B.

      Obtain patient's history

    • C.

      Transcribe doctor's orders

    • D.

      Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight

    Correct Answer
    D. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight
    Explanation
    The responsibility of a medical technician during a routine patient admissions to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining appropriate treatment plans. The medical technician would use specific tools and techniques to accurately measure and record these vital signs, height, and weight, which would then be used by the medical team for further evaluation and diagnosis.

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  • 2. 

    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

    • A.

      Patient's condition and the cost of admission per day

    • B.

      Facility policy and the patient's distance from home

    • C.

      Patient's condition and the facility policy

    • D.

      Facility policy and patient's request

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient's condition and the facility policy
    Explanation
    The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important to assess the level of care and treatment required, while the facility policy dictates the specific procedures and protocols to be followed during the admission process. Both factors play a crucial role in ensuring that the patient receives appropriate care and that the facility operates efficiently and effectively.

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  • 3. 

    While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?

    • A.

      Call the doctor to order restraints

    • B.

      Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling

    • C.

      Look at the patient's medication: it could be a side effect

    • D.

      Put restraints on the patient until the physician can be notified

    Correct Answer
    B. Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling
    Explanation
    Based on the given scenario, the correct answer is to inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling. This is the appropriate course of action because dizziness and instability could indicate a potential fall risk for the patient. By informing the nurse, they can take necessary precautions such as providing assistance or implementing safety measures to prevent falls. Checking the patient's medication for side effects is also a valid consideration, but informing the nurse is the immediate action required to address the patient's current condition.

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  • 4. 

    Who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer?

    • A.

      Chief nurse

    • B.

      Both service chiefs

    • C.

      Receiving physician

    • D.

      Chief of hospital services

    Correct Answer
    B. Both service chiefs
    Explanation
    Both service chiefs authorize the transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer. This means that the transfer requires approval from the chiefs of both the sending and receiving services. The involvement of both service chiefs ensures that the transfer is properly coordinated and that the patient's care is effectively transferred from one service to another.

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  • 5. 

    During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requring sedation, how are the patient's valuables safeguarded?

    • A.

      Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail

    • B.

      Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by overnight mail

    • C.

      An aeromedical evacuation technician signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient

    • D.

      An aeromedical edacuation flight nurse signs for the property and transfers it with the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
    Explanation
    During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, the patient's valuables are safeguarded by having a designated custodian sign for the property. The custodian then forwards the items by registered mail, ensuring that they are securely transported and accounted for. This method provides a reliable and traceable way to protect the patient's valuables during the transfer process.

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  • 6. 

    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 to 48 hours?

    • A.

      Pass

    • B.

      Discharge

    • C.

      Subsisting elsewhere

    • D.

      Absent without leave

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass
    Explanation
    The term "pass" in the context of a medical facility refers to allowing a patient to temporarily leave the facility for a short period of time, typically between 24 to 48 hours. This allows the patient to have a break or attend to personal matters outside of the facility while still being under the care and supervision of the medical staff. "Discharge" refers to the permanent release of a patient from the facility after their treatment is completed. "Subsisting elsewhere" and "absent without leave" do not accurately describe the temporary departure of a patient from a medical facility.

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  • 7. 

    Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within

    • A.

      4 hours

    • B.

      8 hours

    • C.

      12 hours

    • D.

      24 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 hours
    Explanation
    According to the given statement, verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within a certain time frame. The correct answer is 24 hours. This means that the physician has up to 24 hours to review and sign the verbal orders. It is important for the physician to review and sign these orders within this time frame to ensure accuracy and accountability in patient care.

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  • 8. 

    The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the

    • A.

      Intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs record

    • B.

      Blood transfusion record and doctors orders

    • C.

      Vital signs record and progress notes

    • D.

      Progress notes and doctors orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs record
    Explanation
    A medical technician is responsible for completing various forms in their role. Two of the most common forms they are responsible for are the intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs record. The intake and output flow sheet is used to track the amount of fluids a patient consumes and excretes, which is important for assessing their overall health and hydration status. The vital signs record is used to document the patient's vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory rate, which helps monitor their physiological condition. These forms provide valuable information for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about the patient's care.

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  • 9. 

    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, intake and output worksheets?

    • A.

      No documentation is required at shift change

    • B.

      Document all totals in the remarks section

    • C.

      Document in the grand total block

    • D.

      Circle the last accumulated total

    Correct Answer
    D. Circle the last accumulated total
    Explanation
    The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, intake and output worksheets is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output amounts should be calculated and circled to indicate that they are the final totals for that particular shift. This helps to ensure accurate record-keeping and provides a clear reference point for the next shift to start from.

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  • 10. 

    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

    • A.

      Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed

    • B.

      Patient is doing well and no problems were noted

    • C.

      Doctor probably changed the orders verbally

    • D.

      Vital signs were not completed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Vital signs were not completed.
    Explanation
    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, the assumption would be that the vital signs were not completed. This is because the chart being blank indicates that no vital signs were recorded, which could be due to various reasons such as oversight, lack of availability of staff, or the patient's condition not requiring frequent monitoring. The other options, such as the patient being off the unit, doing well with no problems, or the doctor changing the orders verbally, do not provide a clear explanation for the absence of vital signs in the chart.

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  • 11. 

    Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Assessing

    • C.

      Evaluating

    • D.

      Implementing

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a comprehensive care plan based on the assessment data gathered. It includes setting goals, identifying interventions, and determining the resources needed to achieve those goals. Through effective planning, nurses can prioritize and organize their actions to address the identified nursing diagnoses and promote optimal patient outcomes. By carefully considering the individual needs and preferences of the patient, planning helps nurses provide individualized and holistic care.

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  • 12. 

    Relative to nursing process, what is a client goal?

    • A.

      An observable change in patient behavior

    • B.

      A measurable change in the patient's condition

    • C.

      A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning

    • D.

      A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior

    Correct Answer
    D. A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
    Explanation
    A client goal in relation to the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be specific, achievable, and observable, allowing healthcare professionals to track the progress and effectiveness of the care provided. By setting clear goals, nurses can work towards improving the patient's condition and overall well-being.

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  • 13. 

    Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively?

    • A.

      Nursing interventions

    • B.

      Nursing diagnosis

    • C.

      Nursing skills

    • D.

      Charting

    Correct Answer
    A. Nursing interventions
    Explanation
    Nursing interventions are actions taken by nurses to address the patient's healthcare needs and help them reach their goals effectively. These interventions are based on the nursing diagnosis, which identifies the patient's health problems and potential risks. Nursing skills are the abilities and knowledge that nurses possess to provide care, while charting refers to the documentation of patient information. However, nursing interventions specifically focus on implementing strategies and actions to promote the patient's well-being and achieve desired outcomes.

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  • 14. 

    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

    • A.

      Sedation

    • B.

      Back massage

    • C.

      Oxygen therapy

    • D.

      Preoperative teaching

    Correct Answer
    D. Preoperative teaching
    Explanation
    Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information and education about the procedure, potential risks and complications, and what to expect during the recovery process, patients can feel more informed and prepared. This can help alleviate anxiety and fear, enabling them to make informed decisions and feel more confident about the surgery.

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  • 15. 

    What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

    • A.

      Credentials of the surgeon

    • B.

      Availability of a smoking lounge

    • C.

      Professionalism and caring attitude

    • D.

      Number of nurses and technicians on staff

    Correct Answer
    C. Professionalism and caring attitude
    Explanation
    The professionalism and caring attitude of healthcare providers have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism, they adhere to ethical standards, maintain competence, and communicate effectively with patients. A caring attitude involves showing empathy, compassion, and respect towards patients, which can greatly enhance their overall experience and satisfaction with the care they receive. These qualities contribute to building trust and confidence in healthcare providers, ultimately influencing how patients perceive the quality of their care and treatment.

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  • 16. 

    The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to

    • A.

      Reduce recovery time

    • B.

      Dry mucous membranes

    • C.

      Produce an unconscious state

    • D.

      Prevent aspiration during surgery

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry mucous membranes
    Explanation
    The preoperative medication given to the surgery patient is intended to dry the mucous membranes. This is important because dry mucous membranes can help reduce the risk of complications during surgery, such as excessive bleeding or difficulty in breathing. By drying the mucous membranes, the patient's airway can be kept clear and any potential obstructions can be minimized, thus promoting a smoother surgical procedure and aiding in a faster recovery time.

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  • 17. 

    Which surgical case would likely be performed in a same day surgery clinic?

    • A.

      Hip replacement

    • B.

      Hysterectomy

    • C.

      Appendectomy

    • D.

      Odonectomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Odonectomy
    Explanation
    An odonectomy, also known as a wisdom tooth extraction, is a relatively simple and quick surgical procedure that can usually be done on an outpatient basis. It does not require a long recovery time or extensive post-operative care, making it suitable for a same day surgery clinic. On the other hand, hip replacement, hysterectomy, and appendectomy are more complex surgeries that typically require a longer hospital stay and more intensive post-operative care.

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  • 18. 

    Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    Antiembolism stockings are compression stockings that are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. These stockings are typically worn to improve blood circulation and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, there are times when they may need to be removed, such as for personal hygiene or during certain medical procedures. Without provider approval, the maximum time that antiembolism stockings may be removed is 30 minutes. This ensures that the stockings are not removed for an extended period of time, which could increase the risk of blood clots forming.

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  • 19. 

    What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

    • A.

      Isolation is necessary

    • B.

      No precautions are necessary

    • C.

      A lead apron is placed over the patient

    • D.

      Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation is necessary
    Explanation
    For a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant, isolation is necessary. This is because radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to others. By placing the patient in isolation, the risk of exposing others to radiation is minimized. This precaution ensures the safety of both the patient and those around them.

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  • 20. 

    when performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes?

    • A.

      Onset provoke quality radiation severity and time (OPQRST)

    • B.

      Pupils equal, round, reactive to lights and accommodation (PERRLA)

    • C.

      Evaluating extraocular movements (EOM)

    • D.

      Range-of-motion (ROM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Pupils equal, round, reactive to lights and accommodation (PERRLA)
    Explanation
    When performing a neurological check on a patient, evaluating the pupils to be equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation indicates an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes. This examination assesses the normal functioning of the pupillary reflex, which involves the constriction of the pupils in response to light stimulation. The equal and round shape of the pupils indicates symmetry, while their reactivity to light and accommodation demonstrates normal neurological function.

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  • 21. 

    With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on

    • A.

      A standard form 518

    • B.

      A standard form 3066

    • C.

      An af form 2019

    • D.

      An af form 3066

    Correct Answer
    A. A standard form 518
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a standard form 518. When it comes to blood transfusions, it is important to document the procedure accurately for record-keeping purposes. A standard form 518 is commonly used in medical settings to document transfusions. This form allows healthcare professionals to record important information such as the patient's name, date and time of the transfusion, blood type, and any adverse reactions or complications that may occur. By using a standard form 518, healthcare providers can ensure that the transfusion process is properly documented and tracked for the patient's safety and medical records.

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  • 22. 

    What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?

    • A.

      Platelets

    • B.

      Leukocytes

    • C.

      Packed cells

    • D.

      Anticoagulants

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are the component of blood that is involved in the clotting process. When there is an injury, platelets gather at the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Leukocytes are involved in the immune response, packed cells are red blood cells, and anticoagulants are substances that prevent blood from clotting.

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  • 23. 

    How is whole blood normally supplied?

    • A.

      100 cc unit

    • B.

      250 cc unit

    • C.

      450 cc unit

    • D.

      500 cc unit

    Correct Answer
    C. 450 cc unit
    Explanation
    Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that a standard unit of whole blood consists of 450 cubic centimeters. This is the typical volume of whole blood that is collected from a donor and used for transfusions or other medical purposes.

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  • 24. 

    What is the guideline for the macimum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products is 30. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the transfusion. Waiting longer than 30 minutes may lead to potential risks and complications.

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  • 25. 

    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

    • A.

      Continue to monitor, this is a normal side effect

    • B.

      Place the patient on his/her left side

    • C.

      Administer 100% oxygen

    • D.

      Stop the transfusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Stop the transfusion
    Explanation
    If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits distended neck veins and dyspnea, it suggests a potential complication called transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO). TACO occurs when the volume of blood transfused exceeds the patient's circulatory capacity. To prevent further harm to the patient, the first step should be to stop the transfusion immediately. This will help mitigate the symptoms and prevent the condition from worsening.

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  • 26. 

    A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing wiolently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing

    • A.

      Extreme pain

    • B.

      Hyperthermia

    • C.

      Emergence delirium

    • D.

      Electrolyte imbalance

    Correct Answer
    C. Emergence delirium
    Explanation
    Emergence delirium refers to a state of confusion and agitation that can occur as a patient wakes up from anesthesia after surgery. It is characterized by behaviors such as restlessness, thrashing, and crying. This state is often caused by the effects of anesthesia wearing off and the brain trying to readjust. Extreme pain, hyperthermia, and electrolyte imbalance can also cause agitation, but emergence delirium is the most likely explanation in this case as it specifically occurs after surgery and during the recovery period.

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  • 27. 

    Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning

    • A.

      Modified lateral

    • B.

      Trendelenberg

    • C.

      Semisitting

    • D.

      Supine

    Correct Answer
    C. Semisitting
    Explanation
    Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, a patient is ideally placed in a semisitting position. This position helps to prevent aspiration of secretions into the lungs by promoting the drainage of saliva and other fluids from the mouth and throat. It also allows for easier access to the oropharynx for suctioning and helps to maintain the patient's airway patency. The semisitting position involves elevating the head of the bed to approximately 45 degrees, with the patient's upper body supported by pillows or a backrest.

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  • 28. 

    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called

    • A.

      Hairline

    • B.

      Pathologic

    • C.

      Congenital

    • D.

      Traumatic

    Correct Answer
    B. Pathologic
    Explanation
    A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is referred to as a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by an underlying medical condition, making it more susceptible to breaking. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and cause it to become fragile and prone to fractures. Therefore, a pathologic fracture is different from other types of fractures, such as hairline, congenital, or traumatic fractures, as it is specifically caused by a disease.

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  • 29. 

    Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as

    • A.

      Infectious

    • B.

      Congenital

    • C.

      Pathologic

    • D.

      Temporary

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital
    Explanation
    Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of the bones, joints, muscles, or connective tissues. These deformities are not caused by an infection or disease, but rather occur during fetal development. They are typically present from birth and may require medical intervention or treatment to correct or manage.

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  • 30. 

    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospiralized for what orthopedic problems?

    • A.

      Inflammatory disease

    • B.

      Congenital problems

    • C.

      Traumatic injuries

    • D.

      Infectious disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Traumatic injuries
    Explanation
    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and combat environments, which increase the likelihood of experiencing injuries such as fractures, dislocations, sprains, and strains. Traumatic injuries can result from various causes, including accidents, falls, explosions, and combat-related incidents. These injuries require medical intervention and orthopedic care to ensure proper diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation.

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  • 31. 

    The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it

    • A.

      Causes drop foot

    • B.

      Causes venous stasis

    • C.

      Causes external hip rotation

    • D.

      Promotes flexion deformities of the hip

    Correct Answer
    D. Promotes flexion deformities of the hip
    Explanation
    The semi-recumbent position refers to a sitting position where the patient is partially reclined. This position can put excessive pressure on the hips and promote flexion deformities, which are abnormal bending or flexing of the hip joint. Patients with orthopedic disorders may already have compromised hip joint function, so prolonged periods in the semi-recumbent position can worsen their condition and lead to the development or progression of flexion deformities. Therefore, it is important to avoid this position in such patients to prevent further hip joint complications.

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  • 32. 

    What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching

    • A.

      Muscular pain

    • B.

      Bone infection

    • C.

      Malignant tumor

    • D.

      Psychosomatic issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscular pain
    Explanation
    If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem would be muscular pain. Muscular pain is commonly caused by muscle strain, overuse, or injury. It is characterized by discomfort or soreness in the muscles and can be relieved with rest, stretching, and pain medication. Bone infection and malignant tumors typically present with different symptoms such as localized pain, swelling, and redness. Psychosomatic issues, on the other hand, refer to physical symptoms that are caused by psychological factors rather than a specific orthopedic problem.

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  • 33. 

    Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

    • A.

      Age

    • B.

      Gender

    • C.

      Extent of injury

    • D.

      Circulation to the area

    Correct Answer
    B. Gender
    Explanation
    The healing time of a bone fracture is determined by various factors, including age, extent of injury, and circulation to the area. However, gender is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture. Both males and females have the ability to heal bone fractures at a similar rate, and gender does not play a significant role in the healing process.

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  • 34. 

    The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a

    • A.

      Phantom limb pain

    • B.

      Phantom limb sensation

    • C.

      Physiological phenomena

    • D.

      Psychological phenomena

    Correct Answer
    A. Phantom limb pain
    Explanation
    Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present in the amputated limb but is perceived by the individual. It is considered a physiological phenomenon because it involves the body's nervous system and the brain's interpretation of signals from the amputated area. The pain is not solely psychological, as it is a real sensation experienced by the individual.

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  • 35. 

    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

    • A.

      Suction

    • B.

      Oxygen

    • C.

      Ng tube

    • D.

      Tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    D. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to control bleeding by applying pressure to a limb. After amputation surgery, there is a risk of excessive bleeding, and a tourniquet can be used to quickly and effectively stop the bleeding if necessary. It is an important tool for managing postoperative complications and ensuring the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 36. 

    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Cardiac arrest

    • C.

      Disorientation

    • D.

      Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    B. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest due to the potential disruption of blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. This sudden movement can lead to a sudden decrease in blood pressure, which can result in the heart not receiving enough blood and oxygen, leading to cardiac arrest.

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  • 37. 

    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

    • A.

      A life-long process

    • B.

      Of no use because they do not fully recover

    • C.

      Continued for 6 months after the injury occurred

    • D.

      Continued for up to 2 years after the final surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A life-long process
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life-long process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and loss of function, requiring ongoing therapy and support to manage symptoms, improve mobility, and enhance overall quality of life. While some progress may be made in the initial months or years after the injury, the effects are typically long-lasting, necessitating lifelong rehabilitation efforts.

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  • 38. 

    During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to

    • A.

      Sustain life

    • B.

      Stop ischemia

    • C.

      Maintain mobility

    • D.

      Monitor vital signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustain life
    Explanation
    During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to sustain life. This means ensuring that the patient's basic physiological functions are maintained and that they receive immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or death. Sustaining life involves providing necessary interventions such as maintaining a patent airway, ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, stabilizing blood pressure, and providing appropriate medical treatment to address the underlying cause of the stroke. This goal takes precedence over other considerations such as stopping ischemia, maintaining mobility, or monitoring vital signs, as without sustaining life, these other goals become irrelevant.

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  • 39. 

    During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

    • A.

      Early infancy

    • B.

      Preschool

    • C.

      School age

    • D.

      Adolescence

    Correct Answer
    B. Preschool
    Explanation
    Preschool is the most stressful stage for separation anxiety because it typically occurs between the ages of 2 and 5. At this stage, children are still developing a sense of security and trust in their caregivers. They may experience distress and fear when separated from their parents or primary caregivers, as they are not yet confident in their ability to navigate the world independently. Preschoolers may exhibit clingy behavior, cry, or throw tantrums when faced with separation, making this stage the most challenging for both the child and their caregivers.

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  • 40. 

    Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?

    • A.

      Strictly enforced rules

    • B.

      Use of safety restraints

    • C.

      Changes in daily routine

    • D.

      Established daily rituals and routines

    Correct Answer
    D. Established daily rituals and routines
    Explanation
    Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control because they create a predictable and familiar environment. When a child knows what to expect each day, it gives them a sense of stability and allows them to feel more in control of their situation. These rituals and routines can include things like regular mealtimes, playtime, and bedtime, which help the child feel a sense of normalcy and security in the hospital setting.

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  • 41. 

    The normal adaptive mechanism used by hcildren when they loose their sense of control is

    • A.

      Fantasy

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Regression

    • D.

      Displacement

    Correct Answer
    C. Regression
    Explanation
    Regression is the correct answer because when children lose their sense of control, they often revert back to behaviors and actions that they used when they were younger and felt more secure. This is known as regression. By regressing, children seek comfort and security in behaviors and actions that they used in the past, such as seeking attention, acting out, or becoming more dependent on others. Regression allows them to regain a sense of control and cope with the feelings of insecurity and loss of control.

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  • 42. 

    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

    • A.

      Hypernatremia

    • B.

      Hyperkalemia

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    C. Dehydration
    Explanation
    When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous and can cause symptoms such as dry mouth, decreased urine output, fatigue, and dizziness. It is important to monitor the child's fluid intake and make sure they are adequately hydrated to prevent complications.

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  • 43. 

    Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

    • A.

      The physician needs to suture the child's face

    • B.

      The child continues to climb out of bed in the night

    • C.

      To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair

    • D.

      You have other rasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

    Correct Answer
    D. You have other rasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
    Explanation
    The reason "you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it prioritizes the caregiver's convenience over the child's safety and well-being. Restraining a child should only be considered when it is necessary for their immediate safety, such as when the physician needs to suture the child's face or to prevent the child from falling out of a highchair. The child continuing to climb out of bed in the night also poses a potential risk and may require appropriate measures to ensure their safety.

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  • 44. 

    The amount of sleep required at night by elderly  patients is generally

    • A.

      Less because of frequent daytime naps

    • B.

      More because of insufficient activity

    • C.

      The same as required by all ages

    • D.

      More than for youthful patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Less because of frequent daytime naps
    Explanation
    Elderly patients require less sleep at night because they tend to take frequent daytime naps. These naps compensate for the shorter duration of nighttime sleep. As people age, their sleep patterns often change, and they may experience difficulty staying asleep throughout the night. Therefore, they rely on daytime naps to make up for any sleep deficits. This is why the amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally less than that of younger individuals.

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  • 45. 

    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

    • A.

      Explain the importance of nutrition

    • B.

      Ask the patient to try new foods

    • C.

      Cater to the patients customs

    • D.

      Bring a tray full of choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Cater to the patients customs
    Explanation
    Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences and restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By respecting and incorporating these customs into their meals, it can increase their interest in eating and make the dining experience more enjoyable. This approach recognizes the importance of providing personalized care and ensuring that the patient feels comfortable and satisfied with their food choices.

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  • 46. 

    The first stage of dying is

    • A.

      Bargaining

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Anger

    • D.

      Denial

    Correct Answer
    D. Denial
    Explanation
    In the first stage of dying, individuals often experience denial. This is a defense mechanism where they refuse to accept the reality of their impending death or the loss of a loved one. Denial helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and allows them time to gradually come to terms with the situation. It is a common reaction and can provide a temporary sense of control and protection from the pain.

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  • 47. 

    What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surronding tissues?

    • A.

      Infiltration

    • B.

      Embolism

    • C.

      Phlebitis

    • D.

      Extravasation

    Correct Answer
    D. Extravasation
    Explanation
    Extravasation is the correct answer because it refers to the leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues. This can cause serious side effects such as tissue damage, necrosis, and pain. It is important to detect and manage extravasation promptly to minimize complications and ensure proper administration of chemotherapy.

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  • 48. 

    All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed

    • A.

      Environment

    • B.

      Personality

    • C.

      Character

    • D.

      Heredity

    Correct Answer
    B. Personality
    Explanation
    Personality refers to the unique set of characteristics, traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses both the internal and external aspects of a person's identity and influences how they perceive and interact with the world. While environment, character, and heredity also play a role in shaping an individual, personality specifically encompasses the combination of these factors that make each person distinct.

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  • 49. 

    What affects an individuals feelings about themselves?

    • A.

      Socioeconomic status

    • B.

      Opinions of others

    • C.

      Self perception

    • D.

      Job title

    Correct Answer
    C. Self perception
    Explanation
    An individual's feelings about themselves are primarily influenced by their self perception. This refers to how they see and evaluate themselves, including their beliefs, thoughts, and attitudes. Self perception plays a significant role in shaping one's self-esteem, self-worth, and overall self-image. While socioeconomic status, opinions of others, and job title may also have some impact on an individual's feelings about themselves, self perception is the most crucial factor as it reflects their own internal thoughts and evaluations of themselves.

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  • 50. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

    • A.

      Compulsion

    • B.

      Delusion

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion
    Explanation
    A compulsion is a psychiatric term that refers to an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions. This term is commonly associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD), where individuals feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental rituals in order to alleviate anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. These actions may seem irrational or unnecessary to others, but they are driven by an overwhelming need to relieve distress.

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