4N051 Set B Vol 2

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1. Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?

Explanation

The correct answer is "abuser". In cases of sexual abuse of a child, the responsibility lies with the person who commits the abusive act, commonly referred to as the abuser. They are the ones who engage in inappropriate and harmful behavior towards the child, violating their rights and causing them harm. It is important to hold the abuser accountable for their actions and take measures to protect and support the child who has been abused.

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About This Quiz
Healthcare Administration Quizzes & Trivia

The '4n051 set b vol 2' quiz focuses on routine patient admissions, including vital sign collection, admission procedures based on patient condition, and transfer protocols. It assesses key... see moreskills in healthcare administration and patient safety, essential for medical technicians and healthcare professionals. see less

2. When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes?

Explanation

When performing a neurological check on a patient, evaluating the pupils to be equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation indicates an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes. This examination assesses the normal functioning of the pupillary reflex, which involves the constriction of the pupils in response to light stimulation. The equal and round shape of the pupils indicates symmetry, while their reactivity to light and accommodation demonstrates normal neurological function.

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3. While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?

Explanation

Based on the given scenario, the correct answer is to inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling. This is the appropriate course of action because dizziness and instability could indicate a potential fall risk for the patient. By informing the nurse, they can take necessary precautions such as providing assistance or implementing safety measures to prevent falls. Checking the patient's medication for side effects is also a valid consideration, but informing the nurse is the immediate action required to address the patient's current condition.

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4. What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?

Explanation

If you notice a child you are taking care of showing signs of abuse such as burns and bruises, you should report the suspected abuse. It is important to take action and report any suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

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5. What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

Explanation

Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information and education about the procedure, potential risks and complications, and what to expect during the recovery process, patients can feel more informed and prepared. This can help alleviate anxiety and fear, enabling them to make informed decisions and feel more confident about the surgery.

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6. What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

The professionalism and caring attitude of healthcare providers have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism, they adhere to ethical standards, maintain competence, and communicate effectively with patients. A caring attitude involves showing empathy, compassion, and respect towards patients, which can greatly enhance their overall experience and satisfaction with the care they receive. These qualities contribute to building trust and confidence in healthcare providers, ultimately influencing how patients perceive the quality of their care and treatment.

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7. Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admissions to a nursing unit?

Explanation

The responsibility of a medical technician during a routine patient admissions to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining appropriate treatment plans. The medical technician would use specific tools and techniques to accurately measure and record these vital signs, height, and weight, which would then be used by the medical team for further evaluation and diagnosis.

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8. What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?

Explanation

Platelets are the component of blood that is involved in the clotting process. When there is an injury, platelets gather at the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Leukocytes are involved in the immune response, packed cells are red blood cells, and anticoagulants are substances that prevent blood from clotting.

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9. A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of

Explanation

The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt may lead them to withdraw from social interactions and isolate themselves. They may feel a lack of motivation to engage with others due to their negative emotions and may prefer to be alone rather than risking further emotional pain. This behavior of withdrawal is a common response when individuals feel disconnected and unsupported.

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10. Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?

Explanation

Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control because they create a predictable and familiar environment. When a child knows what to expect each day, it gives them a sense of stability and allows them to feel more in control of their situation. These rituals and routines can include things like regular mealtimes, playtime, and bedtime, which help the child feel a sense of normalcy and security in the hospital setting.

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11. When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

Explanation

When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous and can cause symptoms such as dry mouth, decreased urine output, fatigue, and dizziness. It is important to monitor the child's fluid intake and make sure they are adequately hydrated to prevent complications.

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12. Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

Explanation

The reason "you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it prioritizes the caregiver's convenience over the child's safety and well-being. Restraining a child should only be considered when it is necessary for their immediate safety, such as when the physician needs to suture the child's face or to prevent the child from falling out of a highchair. The child continuing to climb out of bed in the night also poses a potential risk and may require appropriate measures to ensure their safety.

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13. If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

Explanation

If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, the assumption would be that the vital signs were not completed. This is because the chart being blank indicates that no vital signs were recorded, which could be due to various reasons such as oversight, lack of availability of staff, or the patient's condition not requiring frequent monitoring. The other options, such as the patient being off the unit, doing well with no problems, or the doctor changing the orders verbally, do not provide a clear explanation for the absence of vital signs in the chart.

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14. Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as

Explanation

Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of the bones, joints, muscles, or connective tissues. These deformities are not caused by an infection or disease, but rather occur during fetal development. They are typically present from birth and may require medical intervention or treatment to correct or manage.

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15. Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

Explanation

A compulsion is a psychiatric term that refers to an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions. This term is commonly associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD), where individuals feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental rituals in order to alleviate anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. These actions may seem irrational or unnecessary to others, but they are driven by an overwhelming need to relieve distress.

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16. Military personnel are commonly treated or hospiralized for what orthopedic problems?

Explanation

Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and combat environments, which increase the likelihood of experiencing injuries such as fractures, dislocations, sprains, and strains. Traumatic injuries can result from various causes, including accidents, falls, explosions, and combat-related incidents. These injuries require medical intervention and orthopedic care to ensure proper diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation.

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17. Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

Explanation

The healing time of a bone fracture is determined by various factors, including age, extent of injury, and circulation to the area. However, gender is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture. Both males and females have the ability to heal bone fractures at a similar rate, and gender does not play a significant role in the healing process.

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18. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

Explanation

Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life-long process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and loss of function, requiring ongoing therapy and support to manage symptoms, improve mobility, and enhance overall quality of life. While some progress may be made in the initial months or years after the injury, the effects are typically long-lasting, necessitating lifelong rehabilitation efforts.

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19. If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

Explanation

If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits distended neck veins and dyspnea, it suggests a potential complication called transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO). TACO occurs when the volume of blood transfused exceeds the patient's circulatory capacity. To prevent further harm to the patient, the first step should be to stop the transfusion immediately. This will help mitigate the symptoms and prevent the condition from worsening.

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20. What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

Explanation

A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to control bleeding by applying pressure to a limb. After amputation surgery, there is a risk of excessive bleeding, and a tourniquet can be used to quickly and effectively stop the bleeding if necessary. It is an important tool for managing postoperative complications and ensuring the patient's safety and well-being.

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21. During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

Explanation

Preschool is the most stressful stage for separation anxiety because it typically occurs between the ages of 2 and 5. At this stage, children are still developing a sense of security and trust in their caregivers. They may experience distress and fear when separated from their parents or primary caregivers, as they are not yet confident in their ability to navigate the world independently. Preschoolers may exhibit clingy behavior, cry, or throw tantrums when faced with separation, making this stage the most challenging for both the child and their caregivers.

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22. What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching

Explanation

If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem would be muscular pain. Muscular pain is commonly caused by muscle strain, overuse, or injury. It is characterized by discomfort or soreness in the muscles and can be relieved with rest, stretching, and pain medication. Bone infection and malignant tumors typically present with different symptoms such as localized pain, swelling, and redness. Psychosomatic issues, on the other hand, refer to physical symptoms that are caused by psychological factors rather than a specific orthopedic problem.

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23. When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

Explanation

The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the treatment and recovery of mentally ill patients. Starting rehabilitation immediately allows for the implementation of appropriate therapies, medications, and support systems to address the patient's needs and improve their overall well-being. Delaying the rehabilitation process can lead to worsening symptoms, decreased motivation, and a longer recovery period. Therefore, initiating rehabilitation as soon as possible after admission is essential for the patient's successful rehabilitation journey.

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24. What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?

Explanation

The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98%. This means that the oxygen level in the arterial blood should ideally be between 95% and 98%. Oxygen saturation is a measure of how much oxygen is being carried by the red blood cells in the body. This range is considered normal and indicates that the body is effectively oxygenated.

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25. When observing and reporting on a mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is

Explanation

When observing and reporting on a mentally ill patient, the most important factor to consider is their behavior. This is because behavior provides valuable insights into the patient's mental state, including any abnormal or concerning actions, reactions, or patterns of behavior. By closely observing and documenting their behavior, healthcare professionals can better understand the patient's condition, track their progress, and make informed decisions regarding their treatment and care.

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26. If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions except

Explanation

Leaving the other patients to follow the escaping patient is not a recommended action because it compromises the safety and well-being of the other patients. The priority should be to ensure the safety of all patients, so it is important to stay with the other patients and provide necessary care and supervision while seeking help, describing the patient, and noting the direction in which the patient is heading.

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27. What affects an individuals feelings about themselves?

Explanation

An individual's feelings about themselves are primarily influenced by their self perception. This refers to how they see and evaluate themselves, including their beliefs, thoughts, and attitudes. Self perception plays a significant role in shaping one's self-esteem, self-worth, and overall self-image. While socioeconomic status, opinions of others, and job title may also have some impact on an individual's feelings about themselves, self perception is the most crucial factor as it reflects their own internal thoughts and evaluations of themselves.

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28. What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

Explanation

The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important to assess the level of care and treatment required, while the facility policy dictates the specific procedures and protocols to be followed during the admission process. Both factors play a crucial role in ensuring that the patient receives appropriate care and that the facility operates efficiently and effectively.

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29. Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 to 48 hours?

Explanation

The term "pass" in the context of a medical facility refers to allowing a patient to temporarily leave the facility for a short period of time, typically between 24 to 48 hours. This allows the patient to have a break or attend to personal matters outside of the facility while still being under the care and supervision of the medical staff. "Discharge" refers to the permanent release of a patient from the facility after their treatment is completed. "Subsisting elsewhere" and "absent without leave" do not accurately describe the temporary departure of a patient from a medical facility.

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30. How are corneal abrasions detected?

Explanation

Corneal abrasions are detected using a fluorescein stain. This is because the stain is a fluorescent dye that can highlight any damaged areas on the cornea. When the stain is applied to the eye, it adheres to any areas where the corneal surface has been disrupted, such as in the case of an abrasion. This allows healthcare professionals to easily visualize and identify the presence of a corneal abrasion, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning. X-rays, venograms, and angiograms are not typically used to detect corneal abrasions as they are imaging techniques that are more commonly used for other medical conditions.

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31. The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the

Explanation

A medical technician is responsible for completing various forms in their role. Two of the most common forms they are responsible for are the intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs record. The intake and output flow sheet is used to track the amount of fluids a patient consumes and excretes, which is important for assessing their overall health and hydration status. The vital signs record is used to document the patient's vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory rate, which helps monitor their physiological condition. These forms provide valuable information for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about the patient's care.

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32. The first stage of dying is

Explanation

In the first stage of dying, individuals often experience denial. This is a defense mechanism where they refuse to accept the reality of their impending death or the loss of a loved one. Denial helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and allows them time to gradually come to terms with the situation. It is a common reaction and can provide a temporary sense of control and protection from the pain.

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33. Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?

Explanation

Antiembolism stockings are compression stockings that are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. These stockings are typically worn to improve blood circulation and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, there are times when they may need to be removed, such as for personal hygiene or during certain medical procedures. Without provider approval, the maximum time that antiembolism stockings may be removed is 30 minutes. This ensures that the stockings are not removed for an extended period of time, which could increase the risk of blood clots forming.

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34. The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a

Explanation

Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present in the amputated limb but is perceived by the individual. It is considered a physiological phenomenon because it involves the body's nervous system and the brain's interpretation of signals from the amputated area. The pain is not solely psychological, as it is a real sensation experienced by the individual.

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35. When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is

Explanation

When caring for a patient with electrical burns, the first priority is the management of the patient's airway. Electrical burns can cause damage to the airway due to the heat generated during the injury. This can lead to swelling and obstruction of the airway, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, ensuring that the patient's airway is open and clear takes precedence over other actions such as applying sterile dressings or evaluating the extent of the burn.

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36. How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Explanation

Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences and restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By respecting and incorporating these customs into their meals, it can increase their interest in eating and make the dining experience more enjoyable. This approach recognizes the importance of providing personalized care and ensuring that the patient feels comfortable and satisfied with their food choices.

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37. What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?

Explanation

Allowing patients to channel their hostility through verbal expression can be helpful in managing their anger and hostility. By providing a safe and controlled environment for patients to express their emotions verbally, it allows them to release their anger without resorting to physical aggression. This approach can help patients feel heard and understood, potentially deescalating their anger and facilitating communication between the patient and healthcare providers. It also provides an opportunity for healthcare professionals to assess and address any underlying issues contributing to the patient's anger.

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38. Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

Explanation

Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest due to the potential disruption of blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. This sudden movement can lead to a sudden decrease in blood pressure, which can result in the heart not receiving enough blood and oxygen, leading to cardiac arrest.

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39. Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

Explanation

A drawsheet is a sheet that is placed under the patient to facilitate movement, while a roller board is a device that allows for easy sliding of the patient from one surface to another. Therefore, using a drawsheet and a roller board together would be the most effective method for sliding a patient from a bed to a stretcher. A trapeze and a patient hoist are not specifically designed for this purpose and may not provide the same level of ease and safety during the transfer.

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40. How yould you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?

Explanation

Applying a wet to dry dressing involves moistening the dressing with a sterile saline solution or wound cleanser and then placing it onto the wound. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound and any dead tissue or debris present in the wound bed is removed when the dressing is removed. This method is commonly used for debridement, as it helps to mechanically lift and remove necrotic tissue, promoting a cleaner wound bed for healing.

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41. The amount of sleep required at night by elderly  patients is generally

Explanation

Elderly patients require less sleep at night because they tend to take frequent daytime naps. These naps compensate for the shorter duration of nighttime sleep. As people age, their sleep patterns often change, and they may experience difficulty staying asleep throughout the night. Therefore, they rely on daytime naps to make up for any sleep deficits. This is why the amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally less than that of younger individuals.

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42. Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively?

Explanation

Nursing interventions are actions taken by nurses to address the patient's healthcare needs and help them reach their goals effectively. These interventions are based on the nursing diagnosis, which identifies the patient's health problems and potential risks. Nursing skills are the abilities and knowledge that nurses possess to provide care, while charting refers to the documentation of patient information. However, nursing interventions specifically focus on implementing strategies and actions to promote the patient's well-being and achieve desired outcomes.

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43. What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

Explanation

For a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant, isolation is necessary. This is because radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to others. By placing the patient in isolation, the risk of exposing others to radiation is minimized. This precaution ensures the safety of both the patient and those around them.

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44. During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to

Explanation

During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to sustain life. This means ensuring that the patient's basic physiological functions are maintained and that they receive immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or death. Sustaining life involves providing necessary interventions such as maintaining a patent airway, ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, stabilizing blood pressure, and providing appropriate medical treatment to address the underlying cause of the stroke. This goal takes precedence over other considerations such as stopping ischemia, maintaining mobility, or monitoring vital signs, as without sustaining life, these other goals become irrelevant.

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45. The normal adaptive mechanism used by hcildren when they loose their sense of control is

Explanation

Regression is the correct answer because when children lose their sense of control, they often revert back to behaviors and actions that they used when they were younger and felt more secure. This is known as regression. By regressing, children seek comfort and security in behaviors and actions that they used in the past, such as seeking attention, acting out, or becoming more dependent on others. Regression allows them to regain a sense of control and cope with the feelings of insecurity and loss of control.

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46. This is usually described by the patient as a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within the chest.

Explanation

Palpitation is the correct answer because it refers to the sensation of a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within the chest, as described by the patient. This term is commonly used to describe an abnormal awareness of one's own heartbeat. It is important to note that palpitations can be caused by various factors, including stress, anxiety, caffeine, or certain medical conditions.

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47. A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing wiolently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing

Explanation

Emergence delirium refers to a state of confusion and agitation that can occur as a patient wakes up from anesthesia after surgery. It is characterized by behaviors such as restlessness, thrashing, and crying. This state is often caused by the effects of anesthesia wearing off and the brain trying to readjust. Extreme pain, hyperthermia, and electrolyte imbalance can also cause agitation, but emergence delirium is the most likely explanation in this case as it specifically occurs after surgery and during the recovery period.

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48. A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called

Explanation

A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is referred to as a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by an underlying medical condition, making it more susceptible to breaking. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and cause it to become fragile and prone to fractures. Therefore, a pathologic fracture is different from other types of fractures, such as hairline, congenital, or traumatic fractures, as it is specifically caused by a disease.

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49. All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed

Explanation

Personality refers to the unique set of characteristics, traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses both the internal and external aspects of a person's identity and influences how they perceive and interact with the world. While environment, character, and heredity also play a role in shaping an individual, personality specifically encompasses the combination of these factors that make each person distinct.

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50. With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on

Explanation

The correct answer is a standard form 518. When it comes to blood transfusions, it is important to document the procedure accurately for record-keeping purposes. A standard form 518 is commonly used in medical settings to document transfusions. This form allows healthcare professionals to record important information such as the patient's name, date and time of the transfusion, blood type, and any adverse reactions or complications that may occur. By using a standard form 518, healthcare providers can ensure that the transfusion process is properly documented and tracked for the patient's safety and medical records.

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51. To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every

Explanation

To prevent decubitus ulcers, it is important to regularly change the patient's position. This helps to relieve pressure on specific areas of the body and promotes blood circulation. Changing the patient's position every 2 hours is considered an appropriate interval as it strikes a balance between providing enough time for the body to adjust and preventing prolonged pressure on vulnerable areas. This practice is commonly recommended in healthcare settings to reduce the risk of developing decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores.

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52. When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injuty to yourself by

Explanation

Using good teamwork and proper body mechanics can help reduce the chance of injury to yourself when transferring patients. Good teamwork involves coordinating with others involved in the transfer to ensure everyone is on the same page and working together safely. Proper body mechanics refer to using correct posture, lifting techniques, and body positioning to minimize strain on your muscles and joints. By practicing these techniques, you can protect yourself from potential injuries during patient transfers.

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53. What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?

Explanation

In the third phase of spousal abuse, the abuser typically states that the abuse will never happen again. This is a common pattern in abusive relationships known as the "honeymoon phase" or the "remorse and reconciliation" phase. During this phase, the abuser may apologize, show remorse, and promise to change their behavior. However, it is important to note that this phase is often temporary and the cycle of abuse tends to repeat itself, with tension and stress building up again leading to further abuse.

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54. What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?

Explanation

Patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract are usually ordered a liquid diet. This is because liquids are easier to swallow and require less effort to be broken down by the digestive system. A liquid diet also helps in reducing the amount of residue left in the digestive tract, making it easier for patients with these difficulties to consume and digest their food.

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55. The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to

Explanation

Pinching the urinary catheter prior to removal from the bladder prevents air from entering into the bladder. This is important because if air enters the bladder, it can cause discomfort and potentially lead to complications such as urinary tract infections. By preventing air from entering the bladder, the risk of these complications is minimized.

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56. When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?

Explanation

When turning a patient, raising the far side rail is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient. This is because raising the far side rail provides a protective barrier that prevents the patient from accidentally rolling off the bed during the turning process. It helps to ensure their safety and minimize the risk of falls or injuries.

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57. When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the change of an air embolism?

Explanation

The Valsalva maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism during the insertion of a central venous pressure line. The Valsalva maneuver involves the patient holding their breath and bearing down, which increases the pressure in the chest and helps to prevent air from entering the bloodstream. This maneuver is commonly used in various medical procedures to minimize the risk of complications such as air embolism.

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58. Damage to the epidermis with possible damange to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn?

Explanation

Partial thickness burns refer to damage to the epidermis and possible damage to the dermis and its appendages. This type of burn involves injury to the top layers of the skin, causing redness, blistering, and pain. It is less severe than full-thickness burns, which involve damage to all layers of the skin, and more severe than superficial burns, which only affect the top layer of the skin. "Severe thickness" is not a recognized classification for burns.

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59. Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

Explanation

Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a comprehensive care plan based on the assessment data gathered. It includes setting goals, identifying interventions, and determining the resources needed to achieve those goals. Through effective planning, nurses can prioritize and organize their actions to address the identified nursing diagnoses and promote optimal patient outcomes. By carefully considering the individual needs and preferences of the patient, planning helps nurses provide individualized and holistic care.

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60. Which surgical case would likely be performed in a same day surgery clinic?

Explanation

An odonectomy, also known as a wisdom tooth extraction, is a relatively simple and quick surgical procedure that can usually be done on an outpatient basis. It does not require a long recovery time or extensive post-operative care, making it suitable for a same day surgery clinic. On the other hand, hip replacement, hysterectomy, and appendectomy are more complex surgeries that typically require a longer hospital stay and more intensive post-operative care.

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61. The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the

Explanation

A clear liquid diet is a diet that consists of only clear liquids, such as water, broth, and plain gelatin. This type of diet is low in calories and lacks essential nutrients like protein, fiber, and vitamins. It is typically prescribed for a short period of time, usually no more than 3 days, to allow the digestive system to rest and recover. However, due to its lack of nutrients, it should not be given for an extended period as it can lead to malnutrition and other health complications.

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62. Who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer?

Explanation

Both service chiefs authorize the transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer. This means that the transfer requires approval from the chiefs of both the sending and receiving services. The involvement of both service chiefs ensures that the transfer is properly coordinated and that the patient's care is effectively transferred from one service to another.

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63. What major problem affects mental health treatment?

Explanation

The major problem that affects mental health treatment is the attitude of society. This refers to the stigma and discrimination surrounding mental health issues, which often prevents individuals from seeking help and receiving the support they need. Society's negative perception and lack of understanding towards mental health can lead to isolation, shame, and reluctance to access treatment, ultimately hindering the overall well-being and recovery of individuals experiencing mental health challenges.

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64. What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

Explanation

The solution temperature during gastric gavage should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, such as hot or chilled solutions, can cause discomfort or injury to the animal's gastrointestinal tract. Lukewarm solutions may also be unsuitable as they can cause thermal stress. Therefore, maintaining the solution at room temperature ensures the safety and well-being of the animal during the procedure.

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65. A patient's feet must be placed on the floor of a footstool during "dangling" to prevent

Explanation

During "dangling," a patient sits on the edge of the bed with their feet resting on the floor of a footstool. This position helps prevent the patient from falling out of bed. Placing the feet on the footstool also helps to alleviate pressure on the back of the legs. This is important because prolonged pressure on the back of the legs can lead to impaired circulation and potentially cause complications such as blood clots or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, placing the patient's feet on the footstool during dangling helps to prevent pressure on the back of the legs.

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66. During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requring sedation, how are the patient's valuables safeguarded?

Explanation

During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, the patient's valuables are safeguarded by having a designated custodian sign for the property. The custodian then forwards the items by registered mail, ensuring that they are securely transported and accounted for. This method provides a reliable and traceable way to protect the patient's valuables during the transfer process.

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67. When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

Explanation

When helping a patient to ambulate, it is important to stand beside the patient and slightly behind them. This position allows for better support and control. Placing one hand on the patient's waist helps to stabilize their balance, while the other hand under their near arm provides additional support and guidance. This positioning and hand placement ensures the safety and comfort of the patient while ambulating.

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68. Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?

Explanation

Three-point gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other. In this gait, the patient advances using crutches or a walker while keeping the affected leg completely off the ground. The unaffected leg bears the full weight, while the patient uses the crutches or walker for support and balance. This gait allows for minimal weight-bearing on the affected leg, reducing pressure and strain on it during the walking process.

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69. Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within

Explanation

According to the given statement, verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within a certain time frame. The correct answer is 24 hours. This means that the physician has up to 24 hours to review and sign the verbal orders. It is important for the physician to review and sign these orders within this time frame to ensure accuracy and accountability in patient care.

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70. There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many minutes of the accident.

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 minutes. This is because the success rate for tooth replacement is highest when the procedure is carried out within the first 30 minutes of the accident. After this time frame, the chances of a successful tooth replacement decrease significantly. Therefore, it is crucial for a dentist to act quickly and perform the procedure within 30 minutes to maximize the chances of success.

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71. What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, intake and output worksheets?

Explanation

The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, intake and output worksheets is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output amounts should be calculated and circled to indicate that they are the final totals for that particular shift. This helps to ensure accurate record-keeping and provides a clear reference point for the next shift to start from.

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72. Before performing tracheostomy care, you would first

Explanation

Before performing tracheostomy care, it is important to assess the stoma for patency. This involves checking if the stoma is open and clear, allowing for proper airflow. By assessing the stoma for patency, the healthcare provider ensures that the patient's airway is not obstructed and can be properly cared for. This step is crucial in providing appropriate tracheostomy care and maintaining the patient's respiratory function.

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73. What is the guideline for the macimum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products?

Explanation

The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products is 30. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the transfusion. Waiting longer than 30 minutes may lead to potential risks and complications.

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74. The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to

Explanation

The preoperative medication given to the surgery patient is intended to dry the mucous membranes. This is important because dry mucous membranes can help reduce the risk of complications during surgery, such as excessive bleeding or difficulty in breathing. By drying the mucous membranes, the patient's airway can be kept clear and any potential obstructions can be minimized, thus promoting a smoother surgical procedure and aiding in a faster recovery time.

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75. When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to

Explanation

When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, developing a good rapport is the primary goal. This is because establishing a strong and positive relationship with the patient is essential for effective therapy and treatment. By building trust and understanding, the therapist can create a safe and supportive environment where the patient feels comfortable sharing their thoughts and emotions. This rapport allows for better communication, collaboration, and ultimately leads to more successful outcomes in the patient's treatment journey.

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76. The patient's colostomy bad shoould be changed when it is

Explanation

The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is one-third full. This is because allowing the bag to become too full can lead to leakage or overflow, causing discomfort and potential skin irritation. Changing the bag when it is one-third full ensures proper hygiene and prevents any complications.

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77. The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it

Explanation

The semi-recumbent position refers to a sitting position where the patient is partially reclined. This position can put excessive pressure on the hips and promote flexion deformities, which are abnormal bending or flexing of the hip joint. Patients with orthopedic disorders may already have compromised hip joint function, so prolonged periods in the semi-recumbent position can worsen their condition and lead to the development or progression of flexion deformities. Therefore, it is important to avoid this position in such patients to prevent further hip joint complications.

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78. Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your

Explanation

Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your base of support. The base of support refers to the area on which an object or person rests and provides stability. When your center of gravity is closer to your base of support, it means that your weight is distributed over a larger area, making it more difficult for you to lose balance. This is why having a wider stance or spreading your feet apart can increase your stability, as it increases your base of support.

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79. How is whole blood normally supplied?

Explanation

Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that a standard unit of whole blood consists of 450 cubic centimeters. This is the typical volume of whole blood that is collected from a donor and used for transfusions or other medical purposes.

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80. To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between

Explanation

Removing too much urine during catheterization can cause rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, which can lead to complications such as bladder spasms, hematuria (blood in the urine), and even bladder rupture. Therefore, to prevent these complications, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catheterization is between 750-1000 cc.

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81. Isometric exercises are activities that involve

Explanation

Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle contraction without body movement. In these exercises, the muscle is contracted and held in a static position, without any movement occurring at the joints. This type of exercise helps to strengthen and tone the muscles without placing stress on the joints. Isometric exercises are often used in rehabilitation programs and can be beneficial for improving muscle strength and stability.

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82. Which technique for moving the patient up in the bed is not used for a patient who has back or chest injuries?

Explanation

The shoulder-lift technique is not used for a patient who has back or chest injuries because it involves lifting the patient by their shoulders, which could potentially worsen their injuries. This technique may put strain on the injured areas and cause further damage. Therefore, it is important to avoid using the shoulder-lift technique for patients with back or chest injuries and instead opt for other techniques that are safer and more appropriate for their condition.

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83. During catherization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the cathere inserted for placement in the urinary bladder?

Explanation

During catheterization of a female patient, the catheter is inserted approximately 2 to 3 inches into the urinary bladder for proper placement. This length is sufficient to reach the bladder and allow for the drainage of urine. Inserting the catheter too far or not far enough can cause discomfort or lead to ineffective drainage. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 to 3 inches.

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84. How many minutes should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eye?

Explanation

To irrigate a chemical burn to the eye, it is recommended to flush the eye with water for at least 20 minutes. This duration allows for thorough rinsing of the eye and helps to remove any harmful chemicals that may be present. Flushing the eye for a shorter duration may not be sufficient to fully cleanse the eye, while a longer duration may not provide any additional benefits. Therefore, 20 minutes is the recommended time for irrigation in such cases.

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85. Care must be taken to ensure patients do not hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as that may cause

Explanation

Holding one's breath during isometric exercises can lead to an increase in blood pressure and heart rate, which can put extra strain on the cardiovascular system. This increased strain can potentially trigger a heart attack, especially in individuals with pre-existing heart conditions. Therefore, it is important for patients to avoid holding their breath during isometric exercises to minimize the risk of a heart attack.

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86. Relative to nursing process, what is a client goal?

Explanation

A client goal in relation to the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be specific, achievable, and observable, allowing healthcare professionals to track the progress and effectiveness of the care provided. By setting clear goals, nurses can work towards improving the patient's condition and overall well-being.

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87. For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to

Explanation

Beginning the exercise program early in the patient's hospital stay is the best way to ensure a successful program for patients who suffer from pain. By starting the program early, the patient can gradually build up their tolerance and strength, which can help to alleviate pain over time. It also allows healthcare professionals to closely monitor the patient's progress and make any necessary adjustments to the program. Starting early can also help to establish a routine and mindset of incorporating exercise into the patient's daily life, increasing the likelihood of long-term adherence to the program.

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88. Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?

Explanation

The four-point gait is a safe and stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs. In this gait, the patient moves one crutch forward, followed by the opposite leg, then the other crutch, and finally the other leg. This pattern provides a wider base of support and promotes balance and stability while walking. It is commonly used for patients who have weakness or pain in both legs and need additional support and stability during ambulation.

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89. Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning

Explanation

Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, a patient is ideally placed in a semisitting position. This position helps to prevent aspiration of secretions into the lungs by promoting the drainage of saliva and other fluids from the mouth and throat. It also allows for easier access to the oropharynx for suctioning and helps to maintain the patient's airway patency. The semisitting position involves elevating the head of the bed to approximately 45 degrees, with the patient's upper body supported by pillows or a backrest.

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90. Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing

Explanation

When your feet are parallel while standing, it helps to maintain balance by evenly distributing your body weight. This reduces the strain on your back, hips, and legs, as they are not forced to compensate for an uneven weight distribution. Additionally, keeping your feet parallel can help prevent any misalignment or imbalance in the spine, which could lead to back, hip, and leg strain. However, the answer does not mention the neck, so it is not necessary to consider it in this context.

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91. For what length of time in minutes should the patient retain the solution of a cleansing enema?

Explanation

The patient should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for 5 minutes. This is the recommended duration for the solution to effectively clean the colon and remove any waste or impurities. Retaining the solution for a shorter time may not provide thorough cleansing, while retaining it for a longer time may cause discomfort or dehydration. Therefore, 5 minutes is the appropriate length of time for the patient to retain the solution.

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92. Which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality?

Explanation

Neuroses is the correct answer because it refers to a psychiatric term that describes functional disorders where there is no significant disruption of personality or loss of contact with reality. Neuroses are characterized by excessive anxiety, obsessions, compulsions, or other distressing symptoms that do not involve a complete break from reality. This term is used to differentiate these conditions from psychoses, which involve more severe disturbances in perception, thinking, and behavior.

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93. If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?

Explanation

If a patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated, the correct position for the patient to be in is prone. Placing the patient in the prone position helps to prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and also allows for better airway management. Additionally, it helps to minimize the risk of injury to the patient and healthcare providers due to the patient's extreme agitation.

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94. What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surronding tissues?

Explanation

Extravasation is the correct answer because it refers to the leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues. This can cause serious side effects such as tissue damage, necrosis, and pain. It is important to detect and manage extravasation promptly to minimize complications and ensure proper administration of chemotherapy.

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95. For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is

Explanation

For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is 60 to 90 percent. A nonrebreathing mask is a type of mask used in medical settings to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients. It consists of a reservoir bag attached to a mask that covers the nose and mouth. The reservoir bag is filled with pure oxygen, and when the patient inhales, the one-way valves prevent the exhaled air from mixing with the fresh oxygen supply. This allows the patient to breathe in a higher concentration of oxygen, typically ranging from 60 to 90 percent.

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96. How are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories?

Explanation

Behavior disorders and syndromes are grouped into categories based on shared characteristics or established criteria. This means that individuals with similar behaviors or symptoms are grouped together, or they are categorized based on specific criteria that have been established by professionals in the field. This helps in organizing and understanding different disorders and syndromes, making it easier to diagnose and treat individuals based on their shared characteristics or the established criteria.

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97. Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Explanation

Patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) often have difficulty breathing and require precise oxygen delivery. A venturi mask is suggested for these patients because it allows for precise oxygen concentration delivery. The venturi mask has a dial that can be adjusted to control the amount of oxygen delivered, ensuring that the patient receives the correct amount of oxygen based on their specific needs. This mask is especially beneficial for COPD patients who may have varying oxygen requirements during different stages of their illness.

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98. What reflex actoin would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time?

Explanation

If a heat treatment is left in place for a prolonged period of time, the body's natural response would be reflex vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels in the affected area would constrict, reducing blood flow to that area. This reflex action is a protective mechanism of the body to prevent excessive heat from causing damage to tissues and organs. By constricting the blood vessels, the body aims to regulate the temperature and prevent overheating.

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99. For insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, in what position should the patient be placed?

Explanation

The patient should be placed in the Trendelenburg position for the insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein. This position involves the patient lying flat on their back with the head tilted downwards and the feet elevated. This position helps to increase venous return and reduce the risk of air embolism during the procedure.

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100. When applying a cold treatment, how long should you leave it in place?

Explanation

When applying a cold treatment, it is recommended to leave it in place for 20 to 30 minutes. This duration allows the cold treatment to effectively reduce inflammation, numb the area, and provide pain relief. Leaving it for less than 20 minutes may not provide sufficient benefits, while leaving it for more than 30 minutes may cause skin damage or discomfort. Therefore, the optimal duration for a cold treatment is 20 to 30 minutes.

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Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?
When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination...
While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and...
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are...
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior...
What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality...
Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician...
What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a...
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern...
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4...
Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized...
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform...
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospiralized for what...
Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone...
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and...
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after...
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most...
What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of...
When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill...
What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
When observing and reporting on a mentally ill patients, the most...
If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take...
What affects an individuals feelings about themselves?
What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission...
Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility...
How are corneal abrasions detected?
The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible...
The first stage of dying is
Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism...
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees...
When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your...
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord...
Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a...
How yould you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a...
The amount of sleep required at night by elderly  patients is...
Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals...
What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a...
During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to
The normal adaptive mechanism used by hcildren when they loose their...
This is usually described by the patient as a jumping, pounding, or...
A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing wiolently or...
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the...
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed
With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to...
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be...
When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injuty to...
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing...
The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take...
When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure...
Damage to the epidermis with possible damange to the dermis and its...
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing...
Which surgical case would likely be performed in a same day surgery...
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given...
Who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer?
What major problem affects mental health treatment?
What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?
A patient's feet must be placed on the floor of a footstool during...
During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requring sedation, how...
When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where...
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one...
Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist...
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD...
Before performing tracheostomy care, you would first
What is the guideline for the macimum minutes of time from pick up to...
The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to
When planning activities for patients with psychological problems,...
The patient's colostomy bad shoould be changed when it is
The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of...
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to...
How is whole blood normally supplied?
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum...
Isometric exercises are activities that involve
Which technique for moving the patient up in the bed is not used for a...
During catherization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is...
How many minutes should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eye?
Care must be taken to ensure patients do not hold their breath while...
Relative to nursing process, what is a client goal?
For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful...
Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear...
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing...
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing
For what length of time in minutes should the patient retain the...
Which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is...
If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in...
What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from...
For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen...
How are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories?
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive...
What reflex actoin would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in...
For insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, in...
When applying a cold treatment, how long should you leave it in place?
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