Health care Administration: Quiz! Test
(182).jpg "Health care Administration: Quiz! Test - Quiz")
What do you know about healthcare administration? Healthcare administration is the field that relates to leadership, management, and administration of public health systems. Hospital administrators are those who become the central focus of influence within hospitals. It is the management of all the non -clinical functions involved in running a healthcare facility, which safeguards the healthcare provider or system's success. All the best of luck in testing your understanding of healthcare administration.
- 1.
The Medical Department Journal contains a chronological record of events concerning the Medical Department and should include all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Reports of personnel casualties, injuries, or deaths
- B.
Personnel entered onto or deleted from the binnacle list
- C.
Medical histories of personnel
- D.
Training lectures to stretcher bearers
Correct Answer
D. Training lectures to stretcher bearers -
- 2.
NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick, must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by what time?
- A.
0800
- B.
0900
- C.
1000
- D.
1100
Correct Answer
C. 1000Explanation
The NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by 1000 hours.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A member misses his clinical appointment. He has missed two previous appointments. What action, if any, should the Corpsman maintaining the appointment log take?
- A.
Call the member and reschedule the appointment
- B.
Notify the member's chain of command that he has missed several appointments
- C.
Do nothing; when the member is able to reschedule, he will do so
Correct Answer
B. Notify the member's chain of command that he has missed several appointments -
- 4.
A notice issued under the Navy Directive Issuance System has the same force and effect as an instruction.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
B. FALSE -
- 5.
In the process of making changes to directives, which of the following procedures should you follow?
- A.
Annotate the first page of the directive with "CH-#" (# = change number) to indicate the change has been incorporated into the directive
- B.
If the directive is removed from the binder or file, replace the directive with a locator sheet
- C.
If the directive is in the form of a publication, fill out the "Record of Changes" sheet in the front of the book
- D.
Each of the above
Correct Answer
A. Annotate the first page of the directive with "CH-#" (# = change number) to indicate the change has been incorporated into the directive -
- 6.
Routine unclassified correspondence must contain all of the following items in the identification symbol EXCEPT
- A.
Standard subject identification symbol
- B.
Date
- C.
Serial number
- D.
Organization code
Correct Answer
A. Standard subject identification symbolExplanation
Routine unclassified correspondence must contain a date, serial number, and organization code for proper identification and tracking. The standard subject identification symbol, however, is not required for routine unclassified correspondence. This symbol is typically used for classified or sensitive information and is not necessary for routine correspondence.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In what publication would you find examples of and instructions for the proper formatting of a naval message?
- A.
NTP 3
- B.
SECNAVINST 5210.11
- C.
Navy Correspondence Manual
- D.
Navy Message Manual
Correct Answer
C. Navy Correspondence Manual -
- 8.
A Navy letter carries the subject identification number 5320. What is the major subject of the letter?
- A.
Military personnel
- B.
Operations and readiness
- C.
General administration and management
- D.
Financial management
Correct Answer
C. General administration and management -
- 9.
What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?
- A.
Grouping
- B.
Coding
- C.
Classifying
- D.
Cross-referencing
Correct Answer
C. ClassifyingExplanation
The process referred to in the question is called "classifying." Classifying involves categorizing or organizing documents into specific subject groups based on their content or purpose. This helps in efficient file management and retrieval of information when needed. The other options, such as grouping, coding, and cross-referencing, may be related to organizing or managing documents but do not specifically refer to the process of determining the correct subject group for filing.Rate this question:
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- 10.
It is prudent to cross-reference a piece of correspondence under which of the following circumstances?
- A.
The basic correspondence has separate enclosures
- B.
The document has multiple subjects
- C.
There is more than one applicable SSIC
- D.
Each of the above
Correct Answer
D. Each of the aboveExplanation
Cross-referencing a piece of correspondence is prudent under each of the given circumstances. When the basic correspondence has separate enclosures, cross-referencing helps ensure that all relevant documents are accounted for. When the document has multiple subjects, cross-referencing allows for easy navigation and understanding of the different topics discussed. Lastly, when there is more than one applicable SSIC (Standard Subject Identification Code), cross-referencing helps in accurately categorizing and organizing the correspondence. Therefore, it is recommended to cross-reference under each of these circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at what time(s)?
- A.
Semi-annually, on 31 March and 30 September
- B.
Annually, at the end of the calendar year
- C.
Annually, at the end of the fiscal year
- D.
Every 3 years
Correct Answer
C. Annually, at the end of the fiscal yearExplanation
Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at the end of the fiscal year. This means that the financial records and budget plans are closed and new ones are started at the end of the fiscal year, which is typically different from the calendar year. This allows for a clear separation of financial data and ensures accurate reporting and planning for the upcoming fiscal year.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Tickler files are used to determine all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
When reports are due
- B.
Ship’s movement/port schedule
- C.
When physical examinations are required
- D.
Immunization schedules
Correct Answer
B. Ship’s movement/port scheduleExplanation
Tickler files are used to keep track of important dates and deadlines. They are typically used to remind individuals of upcoming events or tasks that need to be completed. The purpose of a tickler file is to ensure that nothing is forgotten or overlooked. In this case, the tickler file would be used to determine when reports are due, when physical examinations are required, and immunization schedules. However, it would not be used to track a ship's movement or port schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is ship's movement/port schedule.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The Marine Corps specially assigns members to the Fleet Marine Force to serve as medical and dental personnel
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
B. FALSE -
- 14.
All of the following are considered part of the primary mission of the medical battalion EXCEPT
- A.
Emergency treatment
- B.
Evacuation
- C.
Immunization
- D.
Temporary hospitalization
Correct Answer
C. Immunization -
- 15.
Which of the following could be considered accurate attributes of a fleet hospital?
- A.
Non-deployable, permanent station for high-intensity situations
- B.
Transportable, with 100 to 500 beds, providing moderately sophisticated care
- C.
Designed for short-term (less than 60 days) operations involving large numbers of ground forces
- D.
Mostly self-supporting and relocatable, with less than 100 beds
Correct Answer
B. Transportable, with 100 to 500 beds, providing moderately sophisticated care -
- 16.
A fleet hospital has what number of directorates?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
A fleet hospital has five directorates. This suggests that a fleet hospital is a complex organization with multiple departments or divisions. Each directorate likely has its own specific responsibilities and functions within the hospital. Having five directorates indicates a high level of organization and specialization within the fleet hospital, allowing for efficient management and coordination of various aspects of healthcare delivery.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Through use of the Medical Augmentation Program (MAP), it is possible to do all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Monitor wartime manning readiness
- B.
Augment operational medical personnel, as necessary
- C.
Train medical personnel
- D.
Develop a readiness reporting system
Correct Answer
A. Monitor wartime manning readiness -
- 18.
Detailed information concerning MMART can be found in what directive or manual?
- A.
NAVMED P-5010
- B.
BUMEDINST 6440.6
- C.
NAVSUP P-485
- D.
NAVSUP P-437
Correct Answer
C. NAVSUP P-485 -
- 19.
Before an accurate determination of the number of personnel and amount of material are needed for a particular military operation, the staff surgeon and dental surgeon must know about enemy and friendly capabilities, as well as environmental factors. What is this information, taken as a whole, called?
- A.
Medical estimate
- B.
Planning factors
- C.
Medical intelligence
- D.
Command mission
Correct Answer
A. Medical estimate -
- 20.
Who establishes patient evacuation policy?
- A.
Secretary of the Navy
- B.
Joint Chiefs of Staff
- C.
Chief of Naval Medicine
- D.
Secretary of Defense
Correct Answer
D. Secretary of Defense -
- 21.
Eligibility for medical care at a military medical treatment facility is established by the ___________ and verified by the _____________?
- A.
Personnel office, medical treatment facility
- B.
Military treatment facility, personnel office
- C.
Commanding officer, physician on duty
- D.
Commanding officer, personnel officer
Correct Answer
D. Commanding officer, personnel officer -
- 22.
Which of the following beneficiaries can receive medical care and can also be enrolled in the DEERS system?
- A.
Red Cross workers
- B.
Secretary of the Navy designees
- C.
Secret Service agents
- D.
Newborns
Correct Answer
D. NewbornsExplanation
Newborns can receive medical care and be enrolled in the DEERS system because they are eligible dependents of active duty service members or retirees. The DEERS system is the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System, which is used to verify eligibility for military benefits, including healthcare. Therefore, newborns born to military personnel are eligible for medical care and can be enrolled in the DEERS system.Rate this question:
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- 23.
BUMED and OPNAV both have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs?
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
Both BUMED (Bureau of Medicine and Surgery) and OPNAV (Office of the Chief of Naval Operations) are entities within the United States Navy that have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs. These instructions provide guidance and regulations for healthcare practices and quality control measures within the Navy's medical system. Therefore, it is true that both BUMED and OPNAV have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs.Rate this question:
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- 24.
It is the primary function of which of the following programs to provide a good communication and rapport between the patient and medical department staff?
- A.
The Patient Contact Program
- B.
The FOIA
- C.
The Patient Relations Program
- D.
The Family Advocacy Program
Correct Answer
C. The Patient Relations Program -
- 25.
What authority has the responsibility of the Family Advocacy Program?
- A.
BUMED
- B.
NMPC
- C.
Family Service Center
- D.
BUPERS
Correct Answer
B. NMPCExplanation
(NAVY MILITARY PERSONNEL COMMAND)Rate this question:
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- 26.
A committee consisting of members from what professional areas of the Navy reviews abuse cases?
- A.
Medical, line, chaplain, security
- B.
Medical, chaplain, security, Family Service Center
- C.
Medical, line, chaplain, Family Service Center
- D.
Medical, line, security, Family Service Center
Correct Answer
C. Medical, line, chaplain, Family Service Center -
- 27.
The Navy hopes to achieve its drug free "zero tolerance" goal by the use of which of the following methods?
- A.
Detection
- B.
Education
- C.
Deterrence
- D.
Treatment
Correct Answer
B. Education -
- 28.
What training prevention program is specifically aimed at the junior Sailor?
- A.
ADAMS
- B.
PREVENT 2000
- C.
Alcoholics Anonymous
- D.
IMPACT
Correct Answer
B. PREVENT 2000 -
- 29.
What is the primary function of a DAPA?
- A.
To facilitate shipboard Alcoholics Anonymous meetings
- B.
To coordinate on-site training for the crew
- C.
To act as the liaison between civilian authorities and the Commanding Officer
- D.
To arrange for inpatient treatment
Correct Answer
C. To act as the liaison between civilian authorities and the Commanding Officer -
- 30.
Which of the following is a true statement concerning competence for duty exams?
- A.
The Executive Officer can fill out blocks 1 through 13 of NAVMED 6120/1
- B.
An Independent Duty Corpsman can fill out blocks 12 - 49 of NAVMED 6120/1
- C.
The patient must give his written consent before a sample of blood can be obtained
- D.
A search authorization is required only if the patient refuses to cooperate
Correct Answer
C. The patient must give his written consent before a sample of blood can be obtainedExplanation
In order to obtain a sample of blood from a patient, their written consent is required. This ensures that the patient is fully aware and agrees to the procedure, respecting their autonomy and right to make decisions about their own body. Without their consent, it would be considered a violation of their rights and medical ethics.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Medical has responsibility for which aspects of the Physical Readiness Program?
- A.
Testing
- B.
Education and training
- C.
Legal
- D.
Obesity research
Correct Answer
D. Obesity researchExplanation
Medical has responsibility for obesity research in the Physical Readiness Program. This means that they are in charge of conducting research and gathering information related to obesity and its impact on physical readiness. This research helps in developing strategies and interventions to address obesity and improve the overall physical readiness of individuals.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies ONLY with the medical provider.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies solely with the medical provider. This means that it is the duty of the healthcare professional to explain to the patient the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure, and to ensure that the patient fully understands and agrees to proceed. Other individuals involved in the patient's care, such as nurses or assistants, may assist in the process but ultimately, the responsibility lies with the medical provider.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Of the following, who would be the best choice to witness a patient’s consent to a medical procedure?
- A.
A stranger
- B.
An immediate family member
- C.
A member of the medical team
- D.
A relative
Correct Answer
C. A member of the medical team -
- 34.
Which is NOT a true statement about an incident report?
- A.
They are confidential but if misused or mishandled, they can become public
- B.
The reports must be limited to only facts and a logical conclusion
- C.
Copies must be limited
- D.
They must be forwarded only to the quality assurance coordinator
Correct Answer
A. They are confidential but if misused or mishandled, they can become public -
- 35.
The Privacy Act governs the disclosure of documents compiled and maintained by government agencies.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
B. FALSE -
- 36.
BUMEDINST 6320.70.
- A.
Risk Management Program
- B.
Physical Readiness Program
- C.
Patient Relations Program
- D.
Family Advocacy Program
Correct Answer
D. Family Advocacy ProgramExplanation
The correct answer is the Family Advocacy Program. This program is likely to be mentioned in BUMEDINST 6320.70 as it is a comprehensive program that addresses the prevention, identification, and treatment of child and domestic abuse. It provides support and resources for families in the military community, ensuring their safety and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 37.
NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.18.
- A.
Patient Relations Program
- B.
Family Advocacy Program
- C.
CHAMPUS
- D.
Quality Assurance Program
Correct Answer
C. CHAMPUSExplanation
CHAMPUS stands for Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services. It is a health care program for active duty and retired members of the uniformed services, as well as their dependents. This program provides comprehensive coverage for medical services and supplies, including hospitalization, surgery, and preventive care. It is administered by the Department of Defense and is an important component of the military health care system.Rate this question:
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- 38.
BUMEDINST 6010.21.
- A.
Risk Management Program
- B.
Physical Readiness Program
- C.
Patient Relations Program
- D.
Family Advocacy Program
Correct Answer
A. Risk Management ProgramExplanation
The correct answer is the Risk Management Program. This program is designed to identify and assess potential risks and develop strategies to mitigate them in order to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and organizations. It involves systematically analyzing and evaluating potential hazards, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these measures. By implementing a risk management program, organizations can proactively address potential risks and minimize their impact on operations and individuals.Rate this question:
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- 39.
BUMEDINST 6010.13.
- A.
Patient Relations Program
- B.
Family Advocacy Program
- C.
CHAMPUS
- D.
Quality Assurance Program
Correct Answer
D. Quality Assurance Program -
- 40.
Which statement is true concerning the release of an active duty patient under arrest?
- A.
No official action by hospital personnel is required before local authorities can take custody
- B.
No patient may be released from treatment before it is medically reasonable to do so
- C.
The patient must be transported directly to his parent command
- D.
A federal warrant must be presented before the patient can be released to civilian authority
Correct Answer
B. No patient may be released from treatment before it is medically reasonable to do so -
- 41.
The Commanding Officer is authorized to deliver an active duty patient to civilian authorities when a proper warrant is presented under all of the circumstances listed EXCEPT when
- A.
The ship is within the territorial waters of the requesting jurisdiction
- B.
The patient refuses to leave and requests a lawyer
- C.
The patient is outside the jurisdiction if the civilian authority
- D.
Cognizant JAG office has not been contacted
Correct Answer
C. The patient is outside the jurisdiction if the civilian authority -
- 42.
All of the following are categories of eligible prisoner beneficiaries EXCEPT
- A.
Military prisoners
- B.
Nonmilitary federal prisoners
- C.
Prisoners of war and other detained personnel
- D.
Illegal aliens awaiting deporation or processing
Correct Answer
D. Illegal aliens awaiting deporation or processingExplanation
The given answer is "illegal aliens awaiting deportation or processing." This means that all of the categories mentioned in the question - military prisoners, nonmilitary federal prisoners, and prisoners of war and other detained personnel - are eligible prisoner beneficiaries. However, illegal aliens awaiting deportation or processing are not included in the eligible categories.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following personnel is authorized emergency care ONLY?
- A.
Enemy prisoners of war
- B.
Nonmilitary federal prisoners
- C.
A previously active duty person past his EAOS released from a foreign prison
- D.
Personnel detained by the US government but not yet charged with a crime or arrested
Correct Answer
B. Nonmilitary federal prisonersExplanation
Nonmilitary federal prisoners are authorized emergency care only because they are not active duty personnel or detainees of the US government. They are individuals who have been convicted of federal crimes and are serving their sentences in federal prisons. As such, their medical care is limited to emergency situations, and they do not receive the same level of healthcare as active duty personnel or detainees.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Military prisoners are authorized care under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when
- A.
Their discharge has been executed but their sentence has not expired
- B.
They are on leave, awaiting discharge
- C.
They require continued hospitalization after their discharge
- D.
They have been sentenced under the UCMJ only
Correct Answer
C. They require continued hospitalization after their discharge -
- 45.
Child abuse and spouse neglect is covered in what program?
- A.
SAVI
- B.
Family Advocacy
- C.
Risk Management
- D.
Child and Spouse Protective Services
Correct Answer
B. Family AdvocacyExplanation
Family Advocacy is the program that covers child abuse and spouse neglect. This program is specifically designed to provide support and intervention for families experiencing these issues. It focuses on prevention, education, and treatment to ensure the safety and well-being of both children and spouses. By addressing the root causes and providing resources, Family Advocacy aims to protect and support those affected by abuse and neglect within the family unit.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The Decedent Affairs Program consists of the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased personnel for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
A. TRUE -
- 47.
The Casualty Assistance Calls program is administered by the which of the following commands?
- A.
Commander, Naval Medical Command
- B.
Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command
- C.
Office of Medical Affairs
- D.
Commanding Officer, Naval Hospital
Correct Answer
B. Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command -
- 48.
The Casualty Assistance Calls offier assists the next of kin (NOK) with which of the following item(s)?
- A.
Disposition of remains
- B.
Survivor benefits
- C.
Obtaining the rights and privileges that the NOK is entitle to
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 49.
Which of the following programs can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation?
- A.
Return of Remains Program
- B.
Concurrent Return Program
- C.
Graves Registration Program
- D.
Current Decedent Affairs Program
Correct Answer
A. Return of Remains ProgramExplanation
The Return of Remains Program can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation because it involves the repatriation of the remains of deceased military personnel. This program requires specific legal authorization in order to be implemented, as it deals with the sensitive and solemn task of returning fallen service members to their home country. The enactment of special legislation ensures that the necessary resources, procedures, and protocols are in place to carry out this program effectively and with the utmost respect for the deceased and their families.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, and burial in temporary cemeteries when tactical situation does not permit concurrent return.
- A.
Current Decedent Affairs Program
- B.
Casualty Assistance Calls Program
- C.
Concurrent Return Program
- D.
Graves Registration Program
Correct Answer
D. Graves Registration Program -
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 27, 2009Quiz Created by
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