Assignment 9

68 Questions | Total Attempts: 119

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Assignment Quizzes & Trivia

“Administration,” chapter 14, pages 14-1 to 14-14; "Health Care Administration," chapter 15, pages 15-1 to 15-13; and "Decedent Affairs," chapter 16, pages 16-1 to 16-15.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The Medical Department Journal contains a chronological record of events concerning the Medical Department and should include all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Reports of personnel casualties, injuries, or deaths

    • B. 

      Personnel entered onto or deleted from the binnacle list

    • C. 

      Medical histories of personnel

    • D. 

      Training lectures to stretcher bearers

  • 2. 
    NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick, must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by what time?
    • A. 

      0800

    • B. 

      0900

    • C. 

      1000

    • D. 

      1100

  • 3. 
    A member misses his clinical appointment. He has missed two previous appointments. What action, if any, should the Corpsman maintaining the appointment log take?
    • A. 

      Call the member and reschedule the appointment

    • B. 

      Notify the member's chain of command that he has missed several appointments

    • C. 

      Do nothing; when the member is able to reschedule, he will do so

  • 4. 
    A notice issued under the Navy Directive Issuance System has the same force and effect as an instruction.
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 5. 
    In the process of making changes to directives, which of the following procedures should you follow?
    • A. 

      Annotate the first page of the directive with "CH-#" (# = change number) to indicate the change has been incorporated into the directive

    • B. 

      If the directive is removed from the binder or file, replace the directive with a locator sheet

    • C. 

      If the directive is in the form of a publication, fill out the "Record of Changes" sheet in the front of the book

    • D. 

      Each of the above

  • 6. 
    Routine unclassified correspondence must contain all of the following items in the identification symbol EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Standard subject identification symbol

    • B. 

      Date

    • C. 

      Serial number

    • D. 

      Organization code

  • 7. 
    In what publication would you find examples of and instructions for the proper formatting of a naval message?
    • A. 

      NTP 3

    • B. 

      SECNAVINST 5210.11

    • C. 

      Navy Correspondence Manual

    • D. 

      Navy Message Manual

  • 8. 
    A Navy letter carries the subject identification number 5320. What is the major subject of the letter?
    • A. 

      Military personnel

    • B. 

      Operations and readiness

    • C. 

      General administration and management

    • D. 

      Financial management

  • 9. 
    What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?
    • A. 

      Grouping

    • B. 

      Coding

    • C. 

      Classifying

    • D. 

      Cross-referencing

  • 10. 
    It is prudent to cross-reference a piece of correspondence under which of the following circumstances?
    • A. 

      The basic correspondence has separate enclosures

    • B. 

      The document has multiple subjects

    • C. 

      There is more than one applicable SSIC

    • D. 

      Each of the above

  • 11. 
    Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at what time(s)?
    • A. 

      Semi-annually, on 31 March and 30 September

    • B. 

      Annually, at the end of the calendar year

    • C. 

      Annually, at the end of the fiscal year

    • D. 

      Every 3 years

  • 12. 
    Tickler files are used to determine all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      When reports are due

    • B. 

      Ship’s movement/port schedule

    • C. 

      When physical examinations are required

    • D. 

      Immunization schedules

  • 13. 
    The Marine Corps specially assigns members to the Fleet Marine Force to serve as medical and dental personnel
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 14. 
    All of the following are considered part of the primary mission of the medical battalion EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Emergency treatment

    • B. 

      Evacuation

    • C. 

      Immunization

    • D. 

      Temporary hospitalization

  • 15. 
    Which of the following could be considered accurate attributes of a fleet hospital?
    • A. 

      Non-deployable, permanent station for high-intensity situations

    • B. 

      Transportable, with 100 to 500 beds, providing moderately sophisticated care

    • C. 

      Designed for short-term (less than 60 days) operations involving large numbers of ground forces

    • D. 

      Mostly self-supporting and relocatable, with less than 100 beds

  • 16. 
    A fleet hospital has what number of directorates?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 17. 
    Through use of the Medical Augmentation Program (MAP), it is possible to do all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Monitor wartime manning readiness

    • B. 

      Augment operational medical personnel, as necessary

    • C. 

      Train medical personnel

    • D. 

      Develop a readiness reporting system

  • 18. 
    Detailed information concerning MMART can be found in what directive or manual?
    • A. 

      NAVMED P-5010

    • B. 

      BUMEDINST 6440.6

    • C. 

      NAVSUP P-485

    • D. 

      NAVSUP P-437

  • 19. 
    Before an accurate determination of the number of personnel and amount of material are needed for a particular military operation, the staff surgeon and dental surgeon must know about enemy and friendly capabilities, as well as environmental factors. What is this information, taken as a whole, called?
    • A. 

      Medical estimate

    • B. 

      Planning factors

    • C. 

      Medical intelligence

    • D. 

      Command mission

  • 20. 
    Who establishes patient evacuation policy?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Navy

    • B. 

      Joint Chiefs of Staff

    • C. 

      Chief of Naval Medicine

    • D. 

      Secretary of Defense

  • 21. 
    Eligibility for medical care at a military medical treatment facility is established by the ___________ and verified by the _____________?
    • A. 

      Personnel office, medical treatment facility

    • B. 

      Military treatment facility, personnel office

    • C. 

      Commanding officer, physician on duty

    • D. 

      Commanding officer, personnel officer

  • 22. 
    Which of the following beneficiaries can receive medical care and can also be enrolled in the DEERS system?
    • A. 

      Red Cross workers

    • B. 

      Secretary of the Navy designees

    • C. 

      Secret Service agents

    • D. 

      Newborns

  • 23. 
    BUMED and OPNAV both have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs?
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 24. 
    It is the primary function of which of the following programs to provide a good communication and rapport between the patient and medical department staff?
    • A. 

      The Patient Contact Program

    • B. 

      The FOIA

    • C. 

      The Patient Relations Program

    • D. 

      The Family Advocacy Program

  • 25. 
    What authority has the responsibility of the Family Advocacy Program?
    • A. 

      BUMED

    • B. 

      NMPC

    • C. 

      Family Service Center

    • D. 

      BUPERS

  • 26. 
    A committee consisting of members from what professional areas of the Navy reviews abuse cases?
    • A. 

      Medical, line, chaplain, security

    • B. 

      Medical, chaplain, security, Family Service Center

    • C. 

      Medical, line, chaplain, Family Service Center

    • D. 

      Medical, line, security, Family Service Center

  • 27. 
    The Navy hopes to achieve its drug free "zero tolerance" goal by the use of which of the following methods?
    • A. 

      Detection

    • B. 

      Education

    • C. 

      Deterrence

    • D. 

      Treatment

  • 28. 
    What training prevention program is specifically aimed at the junior Sailor?
    • A. 

      ADAMS

    • B. 

      PREVENT 2000

    • C. 

      Alcoholics Anonymous

    • D. 

      IMPACT

  • 29. 
    What is the primary function of a DAPA?
    • A. 

      To facilitate shipboard Alcoholics Anonymous meetings

    • B. 

      To coordinate on-site training for the crew

    • C. 

      To act as the liaison between civilian authorities and the Commanding Officer

    • D. 

      To arrange for inpatient treatment

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is a true statement concerning competence for duty exams?
    • A. 

      The Executive Officer can fill out blocks 1 through 13 of NAVMED 6120/1

    • B. 

      An Independent Duty Corpsman can fill out blocks 12 - 49 of NAVMED 6120/1

    • C. 

      The patient must give his written consent before a sample of blood can be obtained

    • D. 

      A search authorization is required only if the patient refuses to cooperate

  • 31. 
    Medical has responsibility for which aspects of the Physical Readiness Program?
    • A. 

      Testing

    • B. 

      Education and training

    • C. 

      Legal

    • D. 

      Obesity research

  • 32. 
    The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies ONLY with the medical provider.
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 33. 
    Of the following, who would be the best choice to witness a patient’s consent to a medical procedure?
    • A. 

      A stranger

    • B. 

      An immediate family member

    • C. 

      A member of the medical team

    • D. 

      A relative

  • 34. 
    Which is NOT a true statement about an incident report?
    • A. 

      They are confidential but if misused or mishandled, they can become public

    • B. 

      The reports must be limited to only facts and a logical conclusion

    • C. 

      Copies must be limited

    • D. 

      They must be forwarded only to the quality assurance coordinator

  • 35. 
    The Privacy Act governs the disclosure of documents compiled and maintained by government agencies.
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 36. 
    BUMEDINST 6320.70.
    • A. 

      Risk Management Program

    • B. 

      Physical Readiness Program

    • C. 

      Patient Relations Program

    • D. 

      Family Advocacy Program

  • 37. 
    NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.18.
    • A. 

      Patient Relations Program

    • B. 

      Family Advocacy Program

    • C. 

      CHAMPUS

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance Program

  • 38. 
    BUMEDINST 6010.21.
    • A. 

      Risk Management Program

    • B. 

      Physical Readiness Program

    • C. 

      Patient Relations Program

    • D. 

      Family Advocacy Program

  • 39. 
    BUMEDINST 6010.13.
    • A. 

      Patient Relations Program

    • B. 

      Family Advocacy Program

    • C. 

      CHAMPUS

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance Program

  • 40. 
    Which statement is true concerning the release of an active duty patient under arrest?
    • A. 

      No official action by hospital personnel is required before local authorities can take custody

    • B. 

      No patient may be released from treatment before it is medically reasonable to do so

    • C. 

      The patient must be transported directly to his parent command

    • D. 

      A federal warrant must be presented before the patient can be released to civilian authority

  • 41. 
    The Commanding Officer is authorized to deliver an active duty patient to civilian authorities when a proper warrant is presented under all of the circumstances listed EXCEPT when
    • A. 

      The ship is within the territorial waters of the requesting jurisdiction

    • B. 

      The patient refuses to leave and requests a lawyer

    • C. 

      The patient is outside the jurisdiction if the civilian authority

    • D. 

      Cognizant JAG office has not been contacted

  • 42. 
    All of the following are categories of eligible prisoner beneficiaries EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Military prisoners

    • B. 

      Nonmilitary federal prisoners

    • C. 

      Prisoners of war and other detained personnel

    • D. 

      Illegal aliens awaiting deporation or processing

  • 43. 
    Which of the following personnel is authorized emergency care ONLY?
    • A. 

      Enemy prisoners of war

    • B. 

      Nonmilitary federal prisoners

    • C. 

      A previously active duty person past his EAOS released from a foreign prison

    • D. 

      Personnel detained by the US government but not yet charged with a crime or arrested

  • 44. 
    Military prisoners are authorized care under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when
    • A. 

      Their discharge has been executed but their sentence has not expired

    • B. 

      They are on leave, awaiting discharge

    • C. 

      They require continued hospitalization after their discharge

    • D. 

      They have been sentenced under the UCMJ only

  • 45. 
    Child abuse and spouse neglect is covered in what program?
    • A. 

      SAVI

    • B. 

      Family Advocacy

    • C. 

      Risk Management

    • D. 

      Child and Spouse Protective Services

  • 46. 
    The Decedent Affairs Program consists of the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased personnel for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible.
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 47. 
    The Casualty Assistance Calls program is administered by the which of the following commands?
    • A. 

      Commander, Naval Medical Command

    • B. 

      Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command

    • C. 

      Office of Medical Affairs

    • D. 

      Commanding Officer, Naval Hospital

  • 48. 
    The Casualty Assistance Calls offier assists the next of kin (NOK) with which of the following item(s)?
    • A. 

      Disposition of remains

    • B. 

      Survivor benefits

    • C. 

      Obtaining the rights and privileges that the NOK is entitle to

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 49. 
    Which of the following programs can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation?
    • A. 

      Return of Remains Program

    • B. 

      Concurrent Return Program

    • C. 

      Graves Registration Program

    • D. 

      Current Decedent Affairs Program

  • 50. 
    Provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, and burial in temporary cemeteries when tactical situation does not permit concurrent return.
    • A. 

      Current Decedent Affairs Program

    • B. 

      Casualty Assistance Calls Program

    • C. 

      Concurrent Return Program

    • D. 

      Graves Registration Program

  • 51. 
    Is not identified as part of the Decedent Affairs Program.
    • A. 

      Current Decedent Affairs Program

    • B. 

      Casualty Assistance Calls Program

    • C. 

      Concurrent Return Program

    • D. 

      Graves Registration Program

  • 52. 
    May be activated to support large numbers of military personnel committed to a strategic area.
    • A. 

      Current Decedent Affairs Program

    • B. 

      Casualty Assistance Calls Program

    • C. 

      Concurrent Return Program

    • D. 

      Graves Registration Program

  • 53. 
    The personnel casualty report of an active duty Navy member shall be submitted by
    • A. 

      Telegram

    • B. 

      Routine precedence message

    • C. 

      Speedletter

    • D. 

      Priority message

  • 54. 
    Within CONUS, who is responsible for ensuring the next of kin is notified of a member’s death?
    • A. 

      Office of Medical Affairs

    • B. 

      The member’s commanding officer

    • C. 

      Naval Military Personnel Command

    • D. 

      Commander, Naval Medical Command

  • 55. 
    The commanding officer will write a condolence letter to the NOK within _____ hours of the death.
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 56. 
    When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every _____ hours.
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      36

  • 57. 
    After serving all identification purposes, the personal effects of a deceased naval member are disposed of as directed in the
    • A. 

      NAVSUP Manual

    • B. 

      Manual of the Medical Department

    • C. 

      Naval Military Personnel Manual

    • D. 

      Jagman

  • 58. 
    Who will be requested to provide an identification specialist to examine unidentified remains?
    • A. 

      Naval Military Personnel Command

    • B. 

      Commander, Naval Medical Command

    • C. 

      Geographic command

    • D. 

      Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs

  • 59. 
    What is the minimum number of projected deaths per year required for awarding contracts by naval activities for procuring mortuary services within CONUS?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      5

  • 60. 
    To minimize cellular deterioration, remains should be refrigerated at _____ C.
    • A. 

      0° to 2.2°

    • B. 

      2.2° to 4.4°

    • C. 

      4.4° to 6.6°

    • D. 

      6.6° to 8.8°

  • 61. 
    How many copies of DD 2064 must accompany remains being transferred from an overseas activity to a CONUS point of entry?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 62. 
    Once authorization has been obtained for burial at sea, who coordinates the arrangements?
    • A. 

      Commander, Naval Medical Command

    • B. 

      Chief of Naval Operations

    • C. 

      Office of Medical Affairs

    • D. 

      Appropriate fleet commanders in chief

  • 63. 
    If it is desired to transport the uncremated remains by the Air Mobility Command (AMC) within CONUS, prior approval must be obtained from the
    • A. 

      Commander, Naval Medical Command

    • B. 

      Chief of Naval Operations

    • C. 

      Secretary of the Navy

    • D. 

      Naval Military Personnel Commander

  • 64. 
    Problems concerning arrangements for a Navy escort within CONUS should be referred to the
    • A. 

      Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs

    • B. 

      Decedent Affairs Officer

    • C. 

      Commandant of the Marine Corps

    • D. 

      Area commander

  • 65. 
    A request by the primary next of kin (PNOK) for a special escort must be referred to
    • A. 

      Chief of Naval Operations

    • B. 

      Naval Military Personnel Command

    • C. 

      Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs

    • D. 

      Commander, Naval Medical Command

  • 66. 
    The maximum authorized Government allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery can be found in which of the following publications?
    • A. 

      NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

    • B. 

      NAVPERS 15955

    • C. 

      NAVSUP P-485

    • D. 

      NAVMED P-5016/NAVMC 2509A

  • 67. 
    Who has jurisdiction at the Arlington National Cemetery?
    • A. 

      State government

    • B. 

      Department of the Army

    • C. 

      Department of the Interior

    • D. 

      Office of Medical

  • 68. 
    When group burials are necessary, roundtrip transportation at government expense to the place of burial is provided for
    • A. 

      The PNOK

    • B. 

      All members of the immediate family

    • C. 

      The PNOK and two blood relatives

    • D. 

      The PNOK and one other close relative