4N051 B Volume 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which statement would be the responsibility of the Medical technnician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit
- A.
Evaluate patient
- B.
Obtain patients history
- C.
Transcribe doctors orders
- D.
Obtain patients vital signs, height and weight
Correct Answer
D. Obtain patients vital signs, height and weightExplanation
The responsibility of the Medical Technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is an important step in assessing the patient's overall health and determining any potential risks or abnormalities. By obtaining these measurements, the Medical Technician can provide valuable information to the healthcare team and ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
- A.
Patients condition and the cost of admissions per day
- B.
Facility policy and the patients distance from home
- C.
Patients condition and the facility policy
- D.
Facility policy and the patients request
Correct Answer
C. Patients condition and the facility policyExplanation
The steps in the routine admission process are determined by two main considerations: the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important to assess the level of care and resources needed for their admission. The facility policy outlines the guidelines and procedures that need to be followed for admissions. Both factors play a crucial role in determining the appropriate steps to be taken in the routine admission process.Rate this question:
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- 3.
While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?
- A.
Call the doctor to order restraints
- B.
Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling.
- C.
Look at the patients medications; it could be a side effect
- D.
Put restraints on the patient until the physician can be notified
Correct Answer
B. Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling.Explanation
If a patient appears dizzy and unstable, it is important to inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling. This is because dizziness and instability can increase the likelihood of a fall, which can lead to further injury or complications. By notifying the nurse, appropriate precautions can be taken to ensure the patient's safety, such as providing assistance when moving or walking, using mobility aids, or implementing fall prevention strategies. Checking the patient's medications for potential side effects is also important, but immediate action should be taken to prevent falls. Restraints should only be used as a last resort and under the guidance of a physician.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer?
- A.
Chief nurse
- B.
Both service chiefs
- C.
Receiving physician
- D.
Chief of hospital services
Correct Answer
B. Both service chiefsExplanation
Both service chiefs authorize the transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer. This means that the transfer of care requires approval from the chiefs of both the sending and receiving services. This ensures that the transfer is coordinated and agreed upon by both parties involved in the transfer. The involvement of both service chiefs helps to maintain continuity of care and ensure the smooth transition of the patient from one service to another.Rate this question:
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- 5.
During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are the patients valuables safeguarded?
- A.
Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
- B.
Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by overnight mail.
- C.
An aeromedical evacuation technician signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient
- D.
An aeromedical evacuation flight nurse signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient
Correct Answer
A. Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mailExplanation
During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, the patients' valuables are safeguarded by having a designated custodian sign for the property and forwarding the items by registered mail. This ensures that the valuables are securely transferred and accounted for, minimizing the risk of loss or theft during the transfer process.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
- A.
Pass
- B.
Discharge
- C.
Subsisting elsewhere
- D.
Absent without leave
Correct Answer
A. PassExplanation
The correct answer is "pass". This statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within
- A.
4 hours
- B.
8 hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
Correct Answer
D. 24 hoursExplanation
Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within 24 hours to ensure accuracy and accountability. This timeframe allows the physician to review and validate the order, providing an opportunity for any necessary adjustments or clarifications. It also ensures that the order is properly documented in the patient's medical record, promoting continuity of care and reducing the risk of errors or miscommunication. Timely countersigning of verbal orders is essential for maintaining patient safety and ensuring appropriate medical treatment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, intake and output worksheet?
- A.
No documentation is required at shift change
- B.
Document all totals in the remarks section
- C.
Document the grand total block
- D.
Circle the last accumulated total
Correct Answer
D. Circle the last accumulated totalExplanation
The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, intake and output worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This indicates that the total has been verified and serves as a reference point for the next shift. No additional documentation is required at shift change, and there is no need to document all totals in the remarks section or the grand total block. Circle the last accumulated total simplifies the process and ensures clarity for the next shift.Rate this question:
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- 9.
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
- A.
Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed
- B.
Patient is doing well and no problems were noted
- C.
Doctor probably changed the orders verbally
- D.
Vital signs were not completed
Correct Answer
D. Vital signs were not completedExplanation
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as a busy schedule, lack of staff, or oversight. It is important to ensure that vital signs are regularly monitored to track the patient's condition and detect any potential problems.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the
- A.
Intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs record
- B.
Blood transfusion record and doctors orders
- C.
Vital signs record and progress notes
- D.
Progress notes and doctors orders
Correct Answer
A. Intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs recordExplanation
A medical technician is responsible for completing various forms in their role. The two most common forms they are responsible for are the intake and output flow sheet and the vital signs record. The intake and output flow sheet is used to document the amount of fluids a patient is taking in and the amount they are excreting. This helps track the patient's hydration status. The vital signs record is used to document the patient's vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory rate. This helps monitor the patient's overall health and detect any changes or abnormalities.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which nursing activity s the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
- A.
Planning
- B.
Assessing
- C.
Evaluating
- D.
Implementing
Correct Answer
A. PlanningExplanation
Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a comprehensive care plan based on the assessment data and identified nursing diagnoses. It includes setting goals, prioritizing interventions, and creating a roadmap for providing effective and individualized care to patients. Through planning, nurses can determine the appropriate interventions and strategies to address the identified nursing diagnoses and promote positive patient outcomes. This step ensures that the care provided is systematic, organized, and tailored to meet the unique needs of each patient.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
- A.
An observable change in patient behavior
- B.
A measurable change in the patients condition
- C.
A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning
- D.
A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change patient behavior
Correct Answer
D. A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change patient behaviorExplanation
A client goal, relative to the nursing process, refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be specific, achievable, and can be observed and measured to determine if it has been successfully achieved. It serves as a guide for the care planning process and helps healthcare professionals track the progress and effectiveness of their interventions in improving the patient's behavior and overall condition.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively?
- A.
Nursing interventions
- B.
Nursing diagnosis
- C.
Nursing skills
- D.
Charting
Correct Answer
A. Nursing interventionsExplanation
Nursing interventions are actions taken by nurses to help patients achieve their goals effectively. These interventions are based on the nursing diagnosis, which is a clinical judgment about the patient's response to health problems. Nursing skills are the abilities and knowledge possessed by nurses to provide care, while charting is the process of documenting patient information. However, nursing interventions specifically focus on implementing strategies and interventions to support the patient in reaching their desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is a way to help relieve most of the patients concerns prior to surgery?
- A.
Sedation
- B.
Back massage
- C.
Oxygen therapy
- D.
Preoperative teaching
Correct Answer
D. Preoperative teachingExplanation
Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patients' concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, potential risks and complications, and what to expect during the recovery process, patients can feel more prepared and confident. This helps to alleviate anxiety and uncertainty, allowing patients to actively participate in their care and make informed decisions. Additionally, preoperative teaching can address any misconceptions or fears, ensuring that patients have realistic expectations and feel more comfortable going into surgery.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to
- A.
Reduce recover time
- B.
Dry mucous membranes
- C.
Produce an unconscious state
- D.
Prevent aspiration during surgery
Correct Answer
B. Dry mucous membranesExplanation
The correct answer is "dry mucous membranes" because preoperative medications are often given to help reduce the production of mucus and secretions in the body. This is important because dry mucous membranes can help prevent complications such as aspiration during surgery. Additionally, dry mucous membranes can also make it easier for the healthcare team to manage the airway and ensure proper oxygenation during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What has a significant impact on the patients perceived quality of care and treatment?
- A.
Credentials of the surgeon
- B.
Availability of a smoking lounge
- C.
Professionalism and caring attitude
- D.
Number of nurses and technicians on staff
Correct Answer
C. Professionalism and caring attitudeExplanation
The professionalism and caring attitude of healthcare providers can greatly influence a patient's perception of the quality of care and treatment they receive. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism by being knowledgeable, competent, and respectful, and show a caring attitude by being empathetic, compassionate, and attentive to the patient's needs, it creates a positive and trusting patient-provider relationship. This, in turn, enhances the patient's overall experience and satisfaction with their care, leading to a higher perceived quality of care and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which surgical case would likely be performed in a same day surgery clinic?
- A.
Hip replacement
- B.
Hysterectomy
- C.
Appendectomy
- D.
Odonectomy
Correct Answer
D. OdonectomyExplanation
An odonectomy, which refers to the surgical extraction of a tooth, is a relatively minor and routine procedure that can typically be performed in a same day surgery clinic. This type of surgery is usually straightforward and does not require an overnight stay in a hospital. In contrast, hip replacement, hysterectomy, and appendectomy are more complex surgeries that often require a longer recovery period and are typically performed in a hospital setting.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When preforming a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patients eyes?
- A.
Onset Provoke Quality Radiation Severity and Time (OPQRST)
- B.
Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA)
- C.
Evaluating extraocular movements (EOM)
- D.
Range of motion (ROM)
Correct Answer
B. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA)Explanation
The examination that would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes is Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA). This examination assesses the size, shape, and reaction of the pupils to light, as well as their ability to accommodate and constrict when focusing on near objects. A normal response would be equal-sized and round pupils that constrict when exposed to light and dilate when focusing on near objects. This examination helps evaluate the integrity of the cranial nerves and the overall neurological function of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What precaution is taking for a post operative patient who recieved a radioisotope implant?
- A.
No precautions are necessary
- B.
A lead apron is placed over the patient
- C.
Isolation is necessary
- D.
Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients
Correct Answer
C. Isolation is necessaryExplanation
After receiving a radioisotope implant, isolation is necessary for a post-operative patient. This is because radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to others if they come in close contact with the patient. By isolating the patient, the risk of radiation exposure to others is minimized. This precaution ensures the safety of both the patient and those around them.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
Antiembolism stockings are compression stockings that are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. They are typically worn by patients who are bedridden or have limited mobility. These stockings should be worn continuously to provide the necessary compression and prevent blood clots from forming. However, in some cases, they may need to be temporarily removed for various reasons, such as personal hygiene or wound care. Without provider approval, the maximum amount of time that antiembolism stockings may be removed is 30 minutes. This ensures that the stockings are not removed for an extended period, which could increase the risk of blood clot formation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patients transfusion on
- A.
Standard form 518
- B.
Standard form 3066
- C.
Af form 2019
- D.
Af form 3066
Correct Answer
A. Standard form 518Explanation
The correct answer is standard form 518. When it comes to blood transfusions, it is important to document the procedure accurately and thoroughly. Standard form 518 is specifically designed for documenting blood transfusions, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded properly. This form helps in maintaining a comprehensive record of the transfusion, including details such as the patient's information, the blood product used, any adverse reactions, and the healthcare provider's signature. By using standard form 518, healthcare professionals can ensure proper documentation and maintain a complete history of the patient's transfusions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?
- A.
Platelets
- B.
Leukocytes
- C.
Packed cells
- D.
Anticoagulants
Correct Answer
A. PlateletsExplanation
Platelets are involved in the clotting process of blood. When there is an injury, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of the injury to prevent excessive bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a blood clot. Platelets also help in the repair of damaged blood vessels by releasing growth factors. Leukocytes, packed cells, and anticoagulants are not directly involved in the clotting process.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How is whole blood normally supplied?
- A.
100cc units
- B.
250cc units
- C.
450cc units
- D.
500cc units
Correct Answer
C. 450cc unitsExplanation
Whole blood is normally supplied in 450cc units. This means that when blood is collected from a donor, it is typically collected in 450cc volumes. This standardized unit size allows for easier handling, storage, and transfusion of blood products. By using 450cc units, healthcare providers can ensure that an adequate amount of blood is available for transfusion when needed, while also minimizing waste and maximizing efficiency in the blood supply chain.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
90
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products is 30 minutes. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you noticed distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
- A.
Continue to monitor, this is a normal side effect.
- B.
Place the patient on his or her left side.
- C.
Administer 100 percent oxygen
- D.
Stop the transfusion
Correct Answer
D. Stop the transfusionExplanation
If a patient receiving a blood transfusion is experiencing distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called circulatory overload. This occurs when the volume of blood being transfused is too much for the patient's cardiovascular system to handle. Therefore, the first action to take in this situation is to stop the transfusion immediately. This will prevent further overload and potential harm to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A post -operative patient who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing
- A.
Extreme pain
- B.
Hyperthermia
- C.
Emergence delirium
- D.
Electrolyte imbalances
Correct Answer
C. Emergence deliriumExplanation
Emergence delirium refers to a state of confusion and agitation that can occur as a side effect of anesthesia as the patient wakes up from surgery. This can manifest as restlessness, thrashing, or crying. It is important to manage this condition promptly to ensure the patient's safety and comfort. Extreme pain, hyperthermia, and electrolyte imbalances can also cause agitation, but emergence delirium is specifically associated with the post-operative period.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
- A.
Modified lateral
- B.
Trendelenberg
- C.
Semisitting
- D.
Supine
Correct Answer
C. SemisittingExplanation
Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, a patient is ideally placed in a semisitting position. This position allows for better access to the patient's airway and facilitates the removal of secretions or foreign objects. It also helps to prevent aspiration and allows for proper drainage during the suctioning procedure. The semisitting position involves the patient sitting at a 30-45 degree angle with the head slightly elevated.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called,
- A.
Hairline
- B.
Pathologic
- C.
Congenital
- D.
Traumatic
Correct Answer
B. PathologicExplanation
A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by a disease process, making it more susceptible to breaking. Unlike traumatic fractures, which are caused by external forces like accidents or falls, pathologic fractures are caused by underlying diseases. These fractures can be more difficult to treat and may require additional medical interventions to address the underlying condition causing the bone weakness.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Orthopedic deformities such as a club foot or wryneck are categorized as
- A.
Infectious
- B.
Congenital
- C.
Pathologic
- D.
Temporary
Correct Answer
B. CongenitalExplanation
Orthopedic deformities such as a club foot or wryneck are categorized as congenital because they are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development in the womb. These deformities are not caused by an infection or disease, but rather by genetic or environmental factors that affect the development of the fetus. Therefore, the correct answer is congenital.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems?
- A.
Inflammatory disease
- B.
Congenital problems
- C.
Traumatic injuries
- D.
Infectious disease.
Correct Answer
C. Traumatic injuriesExplanation
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and combat, which can result in fractures, dislocations, sprains, and other orthopedic injuries. These injuries can be caused by explosions, falls, direct impact, or repetitive stress. Prompt medical attention and treatment are crucial to ensure proper healing and to minimize long-term complications.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it
- A.
Causes drop foot
- B.
Causes venous stasis
- C.
Causes external hip rotation
- D.
Promotes flexion deformities of the hip
Correct Answer
D. Promotes flexion deformities of the hipExplanation
The semi-recumbent position, where the patient is partially reclined, can promote flexion deformities of the hip over long periods of time. This position can cause the hip to remain in a flexed position, leading to muscle imbalances and contractures that result in a flexion deformity. This can be particularly problematic for patients with orthopedic disorders, as it can further exacerbate their existing hip issues and limit their range of motion.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching?
- A.
Muscular pain
- B.
Bone infection
- C.
Malignant tumor
- D.
Psychosomatic issues
Correct Answer
A. Muscular painExplanation
If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem to suspect would be muscular pain. Muscular pain can occur due to muscle strain, overuse, or injury. It is a common cause of soreness or aching in the musculoskeletal system. Bone infection and malignant tumors are less likely to cause these symptoms, although they can cause pain in certain cases. Psychosomatic issues may also cause physical symptoms, but muscular pain is a more probable explanation in this context.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?
- A.
Age
- B.
Gender
- C.
Extent of injury
- D.
Circulation to the area
Correct Answer
B. GenderExplanation
The healing time of a bone fracture is not determined by gender. Age, extent of injury, and circulation to the area are all factors that can affect the healing time of a bone fracture. However, gender does not play a significant role in determining the healing time.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The cramping, burning or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
- A.
Phantom limb pain
- B.
Phantom limb sensation
- C.
Physiological phenomena
- D.
Psychological phenomena
Correct Answer
A. Phantom limb painExplanation
Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This pain is a result of the brain still receiving signals from the nerves that used to be connected to the amputated limb. The brain continues to interpret these signals as pain, even though the limb is no longer there. This phenomenon is not simply a sensation, but a specific type of pain experienced by amputees. It is considered a physiological phenomenon rather than a psychological one, as it is caused by the body's physiological response to the amputation.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
- A.
Suction
- B.
Oxygen
- C.
NG tube
- D.
Tourniquet
Correct Answer
D. TourniquetExplanation
A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to control bleeding by compressing the blood vessels. It is commonly used during amputations to prevent excessive bleeding. By applying pressure to the limb, the tourniquet helps to stop the blood flow, allowing the surgeon to safely remove the limb. Therefore, having a tourniquet readily available at the postoperative bedside is crucial in case there is any unexpected bleeding or complications.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
- A.
A life long process
- B.
Of no use because they do not fully recover
- C.
Continued for 6 months after the injury occurred
- D.
Continued for up to 2 years after the final surgery
Correct Answer
A. A life long processExplanation
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life long process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage, leading to long-term disabilities. Rehabilitation aims to maximize the patient's functional abilities, improve their quality of life, and help them adapt to their new circumstances. Since complete recovery is usually not possible, ongoing rehabilitation interventions and support are necessary throughout the patient's life to manage and minimize the impact of their injury.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
- A.
Aspiration
- B.
Cardiac arrest
- C.
Disorientation
- D.
Respiratory arrest
Correct Answer
B. Cardiac arrestExplanation
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because rapid movement or manipulation of the patient's body can lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure and heart rate, which can be detrimental to someone with a spinal cord injury. The sudden change in position can also disrupt blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart, potentially causing a cardiac arrest. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid sudden movements to prevent such complications.Rate this question:
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- 38.
During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to
- A.
Sustain life
- B.
Stop ischemia
- C.
Maintain mobility
- D.
Monitor vital signs
Correct Answer
A. Sustain lifeExplanation
During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to sustain life. This means that the immediate focus is on ensuring that the person's vital functions, such as breathing and circulation, are supported and maintained. This is crucial because a stroke can lead to severe complications and even death if not addressed promptly. Sustaining life involves providing necessary medical interventions, such as administering oxygen, stabilizing blood pressure, and monitoring the patient's condition closely. Once the person's life is stabilized, further interventions can be implemented to address other aspects of stroke management, such as stopping ischemia and maintaining mobility.Rate this question:
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- 39.
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?
- A.
Early infancy
- B.
Preschool
- C.
School age
- D.
Adolescence
Correct Answer
B. PreschoolExplanation
During the preschool stage, separation anxiety tends to be the most stressful for children. This is because preschool-aged children are still developing a sense of independence and are often experiencing their first significant separations from their primary caregivers. They may struggle with feelings of fear and distress when separated from their parents or familiar caregivers, which can make this stage particularly challenging for both the child and their parents.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?
- A.
Strictly enforced rules
- B.
Use of safety restraints
- C.
Changes in daily routine
- D.
Established daily rituals and routines
Correct Answer
D. Established daily rituals and routinesExplanation
Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control because they offer predictability and familiarity in an otherwise unfamiliar and unpredictable environment. These rituals and routines can include activities such as mealtimes, playtimes, and bedtime routines, which help the child feel more secure and in control of their daily experiences. By having a structured schedule, the child can anticipate what will happen next, which can reduce anxiety and provide a sense of stability during their hospital stay.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose thier sense of control is
- A.
Fantasy
- B.
Projection
- C.
Regression
- D.
Displacement
Correct Answer
C. RegressionExplanation
Regression is a normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control. When faced with stressful situations or feelings of helplessness, children may revert to behaviors and attitudes that are more typical of an earlier stage of development. This regression allows them to seek comfort and support from others, as well as regain a sense of security and control. By temporarily returning to a previous stage of development, children can cope with stress and gradually regain their sense of control before moving forward again.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
- A.
Hypermatremia
- B.
Hyperkalemia
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Aspiration
Correct Answer
C. DehydrationExplanation
When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, dehydration becomes a primary concern. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous and may lead to further complications if not addressed promptly. Therefore, it is essential to focus on preventing and treating dehydration when caring for a child with these symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
- A.
The physician needs to suture the childs face
- B.
The child continues to climb out of bed in the night
- C.
To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair
- D.
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
Correct Answer
D. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the childExplanation
The reason "you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it does not prioritize the child's safety or well-being. Restraining a child should only be done when necessary, such as when the physician needs to suture the child's face, the child continues to climb out of bed in the night, or to prevent the child from falling out of a highchair. However, being busy with other tasks is not a valid reason to restrain a child as it neglects their needs and may lead to harm or neglect.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally
- A.
Less because of frequent daytime naps
- B.
More because of insufficient activity
- C.
The same as required by all ages
- D.
More than for youthful patients
Correct Answer
A. Less because of frequent daytime napsExplanation
Elderly patients tend to require less sleep at night because they often take frequent daytime naps. These naps can help compensate for any sleep deficits and reduce the overall amount of sleep needed during nighttime hours. Therefore, the amount of sleep required at night for elderly patients is generally less than for other age groups.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient
- A.
Explain the importance of nutrition
- B.
Ask the patient to try new foods
- C.
Cater to the patients customs
- D.
Bring a tray full of choices
Correct Answer
C. Cater to the patients customsExplanation
Catering to the patient's customs is important in stimulating the appetite of an elderly patient because it ensures that the food provided aligns with their preferences and cultural background. By offering meals that are familiar and comforting to the patient, they are more likely to have an increased interest in eating. This approach also shows respect for the patient's individuality and can help create a positive dining experience, which in turn can enhance their overall appetite and enjoyment of meals.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The first stage of dying is
- A.
Bargaining
- B.
Depression
- C.
Anger
- D.
Denial
Correct Answer
D. DenialExplanation
In the first stage of dying, individuals often experience denial. This is a defense mechanism where they refuse to accept the reality of their impending death or the loss of a loved one. Denial allows them to temporarily avoid the emotional pain and overwhelming thoughts associated with death. It is a common reaction as people struggle to come to terms with the harsh reality and may need time to process their emotions before moving on to other stages such as anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues
- A.
Infiltration
- B.
Embolism
- C.
Phlebitis
- D.
Extravasation
Correct Answer
D. ExtravasationExplanation
Extravasation is the correct answer because it refers to the leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues. This can lead to serious side effects such as tissue damage, necrosis, and pain. Infiltration refers to the unintentional administration of a solution or medication into the surrounding tissue instead of the intended vein. Embolism is the obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot or foreign substance. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein.Rate this question:
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- 48.
All that a person is, feels, and does it generally termed
- A.
Environment
- B.
Personality
- C.
Character
- D.
Heredity
Correct Answer
B. PersonalityExplanation
Personality refers to the unique set of traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses how a person thinks, feels, and behaves in various situations. It is influenced by a combination of genetic factors (heredity) and environmental factors, such as upbringing, culture, and life experiences. Personality is distinct from character, which refers to a person's moral and ethical qualities. Therefore, personality is the most fitting term to describe all that a person is, feels, and does.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What affects an individuals feelings about themselves?
- A.
Socioeconomic status
- B.
Opinions of others
- C.
Self perception
- D.
Job title
Correct Answer
C. Self perceptionExplanation
An individual's feelings about themselves are influenced by their self-perception. This refers to how they perceive and evaluate themselves, including their self-esteem, self-worth, and self-image. Self-perception is shaped by various factors such as personal experiences, beliefs, values, and attitudes. It is an internal process that can be influenced by external factors like societal norms, media, and interpersonal relationships. Socioeconomic status, opinions of others, and job title can also have an impact on one's self-perception, but ultimately it is the individual's own perception of themselves that plays a significant role in shaping their feelings about themselves.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
- A.
Compulsion
- B.
Delusion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Conflict
Correct Answer
A. CompulsionExplanation
A compulsion is a psychiatric term that refers to an irresistible urge to perform seemingly meaningless actions. These actions are often repetitive and are performed in response to obsessive thoughts or to alleviate anxiety. Compulsions are a key feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors. Individuals with OCD feel compelled to engage in these actions, even though they may recognize that they are unnecessary or excessive. Therefore, the correct answer is compulsion.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
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Current Version
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Feb 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 13, 2013Quiz Created by
Awalk521
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