CDC 4N051: Trivia Quiz On Aerospace Medical Technician Test
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While commanders's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, Health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
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Physicians
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Supervisors
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Every airman
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Heath and wellness staff
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If you are taking up the CDC 4N051: course on Aerospace Medical Technician you are in luck as the quiz below is designed to see just how skilled you are before the main exam that will end up with you being certified. Would you be able to score over half the marks? Take up this test and get to find out!
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- 2.
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
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Cancel the order
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Complain to the commander
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Wait another 15 days and then follow up
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Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
Correct Answer
A. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the orderExplanation
If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This implies that the individual should reach out to the relevant personnel who handle orders and inquire about the status of the backordered item. This step is recommended as it allows for a proactive approach to resolving the issue and obtaining updated information on the order's progress.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service
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Prevent lawsuits
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Develop job satisfaction
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Ensure promotion below-the-zone
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Positively influence the patient's visit
Correct Answer
A. Positively influence the patient's visitExplanation
Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it helps to positively influence the patient's visit. By providing exceptional customer service, the 4N0XX can enhance the overall experience for the patient, making them feel valued and cared for. This can lead to increased patient satisfaction, improved patient outcomes, and a positive reputation for the healthcare facility. Additionally, satisfied patients are more likely to recommend the facility to others, resulting in increased referrals and potential business growth.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is considered the patient advocate?
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Clinic representative only
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Officer-in-charge only
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Facility representative only
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Every staff member
Correct Answer
A. Every staff memberExplanation
Every staff member is considered the patient advocate because they all have a responsibility to ensure the well-being and rights of the patients. Patient advocacy involves advocating for the patients' needs, concerns, and rights, and this responsibility extends to all staff members in a healthcare setting. Regardless of their specific roles or positions, every staff member should prioritize the best interests of the patients and work towards providing them with the highest quality of care and support.Rate this question:
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- 5.
It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure:
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Each team member enjoys going to work each day
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Each member can take leave on the requested days
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The best care is provided to our customers
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The team learns new medical technology
Correct Answer
A. The best care is provided to our customersExplanation
It is important for a healthcare team to work in harmony to ensure that the best care is provided to their customers. When team members work together effectively and communicate well, they can collaborate and coordinate their efforts to deliver high-quality care. This includes sharing knowledge, skills, and expertise to ensure that patients receive the best possible treatment and outcomes. By working in harmony, the team can also create a positive and supportive work environment, which can contribute to job satisfaction and a sense of fulfillment for each team member.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When patient care is not documented, what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?
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No care or treatment was accomplished
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There is no follow up care required
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There were no complications
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The outcome was positive
Correct Answer
A. No care or treatment was accomplishedExplanation
If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is an essential part of healthcare as it provides a record of the care provided to the patient. Without proper documentation, there is no evidence of any care or treatment being given to the patient. This could be a result of negligence or oversight, but it indicates that the patient did not receive any medical attention.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the purpose of documenting training?
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Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness
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Document the number of personnel and the hours they work
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Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board
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Establish patient care guidelines for civilian practice
Correct Answer
A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weaknessExplanation
The purpose of documenting training is to keep a record of an individual's capability, scope of practice, and strengths and weaknesses. This documentation allows for tracking and assessing the progress and development of personnel, as well as identifying areas that may require improvement or further training. It also serves as a reference for supervisors and managers when making decisions about assigning tasks and responsibilities to individuals. Overall, documenting training helps to ensure that personnel are appropriately trained and competent in their roles.Rate this question:
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- 8.
By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
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Equipment damage and injury to patient
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Unjury to a patient and buying new technology
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Reporting damage and buying new technology
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Reporting damage to the commander a logistics
Correct Answer
A. Equipment damage and injury to patientExplanation
By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to the patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, it ensures that they are aware of safety protocols, minimizing the chances of injury to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?
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District sales and maintenance representative
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Base supply and equipment maintenance
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Biomedical equipment repair technician
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Original epuipment manufacturer
Correct Answer
A. Biomedical equipment repair technicianExplanation
To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment and are knowledgeable about the specific procedures and policies related to equipment problems. They are likely to have the most up-to-date information and expertise in addressing any concerns or issues with the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Wach medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
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Administrative
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Chaperone
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Supervisory
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Appointing
Correct Answer
A. ChaperoneExplanation
A medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. This means that the facility needs to have guidelines in place for situations where a third party, such as a nurse or another healthcare professional, needs to be present during the examination or treatment to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient. The chaperone's role is to provide support and assistance during these procedures, acting as a witness and ensuring appropriate conduct.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?
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Collect patient demographic information
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Determine the health of the local population
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Aid manpower in the determining allocation requests
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Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients
Correct Answer
A. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patientsExplanation
Customer service surveys used in a medical treatment facility serve the purpose of collecting feedback from patients. By gathering this feedback, the facility can identify areas where they can improve their services and better serve their patients. This information can help them make necessary adjustments and enhancements to meet the needs and expectations of their patients, ultimately leading to a higher level of patient satisfaction and improved quality of care.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What actions should the property custodian take if a back order item is no longer needed?
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None. once an item is ordered you must recieve it when it arrives
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Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
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Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it
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None, it is always better to have extra supplies on hand
Correct Answer
A. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMOExplanation
The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a back order item is no longer needed. This implies that once the item is ordered, it is not necessary to receive it when it arrives. Instead, the custodian should take proactive steps to cancel the order through MEMO, indicating that the item is no longer needed. This ensures that unnecessary expenses are avoided and the inventory is managed efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must
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Recieving a briefing on responsibilities
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Conduct a physical inventory of equipment
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document his/her experience for commander review
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Review the files to establish when equipment was procured
Correct Answer
A. Conduct a physical inventory of equipmentExplanation
Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is necessary to ensure that all equipment is present and accounted for, and to identify any discrepancies or missing items. By conducting a physical inventory, the new custodian can establish a baseline of the equipment's condition and quantity, which will be useful for future audits and tracking purposes. This step is crucial in maintaining accountability and preventing any potential loss or misuse of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective comminication?
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Smiling
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Laughing
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Talking too much
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Identifying commonalities
Correct Answer
A. Talking too muchExplanation
Talking too much is considered a barrier to effective communication because it can prevent others from expressing their thoughts and ideas. When one person dominates the conversation, it hinders the exchange of information and inhibits active listening. It can also lead to misunderstandings and misinterpretations as important details may get lost in the excessive amount of information being shared. Effective communication involves a balance of speaking and listening, allowing all participants to contribute and engage in meaningful dialogue.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base refurral services?
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Family practice clinic
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Internal medicine clinic
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The MTF commander
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The patient advocate
Correct Answer
A. The patient advocateExplanation
The patient advocate is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services. They are trained to assist patients in navigating the healthcare system, providing support, and advocating for their rights and needs. They can help clarify any confusion or concerns the patient may have, ensuring they receive the necessary information and access to appropriate services.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When a PCM team is successful in acheiving the team goal, what must each member do?
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No team member will work extra hours
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Be able to do the job of every other team member
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Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice
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Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested
Correct Answer
A. Contribute at their highest level of scope of practiceExplanation
Each member of the PCM team must contribute at their highest level of scope of practice when the team is successful in achieving the team goal. This means that each team member should utilize their skills, knowledge, and expertise to the fullest extent to ensure that they are making the most valuable contribution possible towards the team's objective. This not only helps in maximizing the team's overall performance but also ensures that each individual is working at their full potential and utilizing their specialized skills effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care you should:
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Provide the patient care and then determine eligibility
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Determine eligibility first and provide treatment only if they are eligible
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Inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay
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Have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them at the end of scheduled patients
Correct Answer
A. Provide the patient care and then determine eligibilityExplanation
The correct answer is to provide the patient care and then determine eligibility. This approach prioritizes the patient's immediate needs and ensures that they receive necessary treatment in an emergency situation. Once the patient's condition is stabilized, their eligibility for care can be assessed and appropriate billing or payment arrangements can be made. This approach aligns with the principle of providing timely and necessary care to patients in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Wo is responsible for comleting the graduate assessment survey?
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Commander
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Supervisor
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3-level
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5-level
Correct Answer
A. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the graduate assessment survey.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the air force?
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Each individual
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Unit supervisor
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Group commander
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Account custodian
Correct Answer
A. Each individualExplanation
Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the air force. This means that every person within the air force has a personal responsibility to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This includes being accountable for the proper use and maintenance of the property, as well as taking necessary measures to safeguard it from loss, damage, or theft. By assigning this responsibility to each individual, it creates a culture of accountability and encourages everyone to actively participate in the care of public property.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which category of personnel does the health insurance protability and accountability act affect?
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Patients handling their information
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Anyone handling patient information
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Medical staff handling patient in formation
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Administrative staff handling patient information
Correct Answer
A. Anyone handling patient informationExplanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also any other individuals or entities that come into contact with patient information, such as insurance companies, billing companies, and even contractors or vendors who may have access to patient data. HIPAA sets standards for the privacy and security of patient information, and imposes strict penalties for any unauthorized disclosure or misuse of this information. Therefore, it is crucial for anyone who handles patient information to comply with HIPAA regulations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?
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Preinteractive
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Introductory
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Working
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Termination
Correct Answer
A. IntroductoryExplanation
The correct answer is "introductory". In the introductory phase of a patient relationship, the identity and role of the patient and healthcare worker are established. This phase also involves clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization. It is the initial stage where the patient and healthcare worker get to know each other and establish a foundation for further interactions and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How should you handle a non-emergant telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?
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Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity
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Inform the caller the doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later
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Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours
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Knock on the door and inform the physician he or she has a telephone call
Correct Answer
A. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunityExplanation
When the provider is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold, the best course of action is to take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity. This ensures that the caller's message is delivered to the provider without interrupting the ongoing appointment. It also shows professionalism and respect for both the patient and the caller.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?
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Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness
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Remain honest an din control to decrease the patient's anxiety
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Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider
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Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patients fear
Correct Answer
A. Remain honest an din control to decrease the patient's anxietyExplanation
Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress because it creates a sense of trust and security. When healthcare providers are honest and transparent with their patients, it helps to alleviate anxiety and uncertainty. Being in control and maintaining a calm demeanor also reassures the patient that they are in capable hands, which can help to decrease their anxiety levels.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by whisch of the following examples?
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The environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulations such as fuel economy
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An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind
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An automobile designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.
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A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
A. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
The best example to explain Tactical Doctrine is a car buyer because they have the ability to choose specific qualities that align with their individual needs, such as speed or safety factors. Tactical Doctrine refers to the strategic decision-making process that involves selecting the best course of action based on specific circumstances and objectives. In this case, the car buyer's decision to prioritize certain qualities over others demonstrates their application of tactical thinking in selecting a vehicle that best suits their needs.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
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Telling the truth
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Respect for others
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The duty to do no harm
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Being faithful to do good
Correct Answer
A. The duty to do no harmExplanation
Nonmaleficence is a principle in ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm or injury to others. It is a duty to prioritize the well-being and safety of individuals, ensuring that no harm is inflicted upon them. This principle is particularly important in medical and healthcare professions, where practitioners are expected to prioritize the best interests of their patients and avoid any actions that may cause harm or worsen their condition.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the purpose of the patient advocacy program?
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Reduce the number of lawsuits
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Provide an unbiased third party
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To determine the correct treatment plan
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To approve funding for off-base treatment
Correct Answer
A. Provide an unbiased third partyExplanation
The purpose of the patient advocacy program is to provide an unbiased third party. This means that the program aims to have someone who is not involved in the patient's care or the healthcare system to advocate for the patient's rights and ensure that their needs and concerns are addressed. This can help to ensure that the patient's voice is heard and that they receive fair and equitable treatment. It does not specifically mention reducing lawsuits or approving funding for off-base treatment, so these options are not the main purpose of the program.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How is doctrine applied?
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Authoritative but not directive
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Not authoritative or directive
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Directive but not authoritative
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Directive and authoritative
Correct Answer
A. Authoritative but not directiveExplanation
Doctrine is applied in a way that is authoritative but not directive. This means that while it carries weight and is considered to be a reliable and trusted source, it does not provide specific instructions or commands on how to act or behave. Instead, it serves as a guiding principle or framework that individuals can interpret and apply in their own unique situations, allowing for some flexibility and adaptability.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Why is Medical Doctrine neccessary?
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Recommends step by step actions
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Directs the actions of commanders
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Guides commander in using assets
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Changes faster than Air Force guidance
Correct Answer
A. Guides commander in using assetsExplanation
Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. It provides a framework and set of principles for commanders to make informed decisions regarding the allocation and utilization of medical resources. By following the guidance provided in medical doctrine, commanders can effectively and efficiently utilize the available assets to support medical operations and provide the best possible care to their personnel.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What percentaage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operater error?
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20%
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50%
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70%
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90%
Correct Answer
A. 70%Explanation
70% of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This means that the majority of malfunctions in medical equipment occur due to mistakes made by the operators. This could be due to lack of training, negligence, or human error. It is crucial for operators to be properly trained and follow protocols to minimize the occurrence of such errors and ensure the safe and effective use of medical equipment.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?
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Inspect, store, and remove
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Inspect, remove, and report
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Report, remove, and repair
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Remove, store, and repair
Correct Answer
A. Inspect, remove, and reportExplanation
When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the first action is to inspect the equipment thoroughly to identify any issues or discrepancies. The second action is to remove the equipment from service or use, ensuring that it is not further used until the discrepancy is resolved. Lastly, the third action is to report the discrepancy to the appropriate personnel or department, providing all necessary details and information. This allows for proper documentation and prompt resolution of the issue.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What type of doctrine guides organizations and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
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Basic
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Tactical
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Operational
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Foundational
Correct Answer
A. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine refers to the type of doctrine that guides organizations and the employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. Operational doctrine focuses on the overall planning and execution of military operations, including the coordination of different units and resources. It provides guidance on how to achieve strategic objectives through the tactical employment of forces. Operational doctrine is essential for ensuring effective and efficient military operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following in not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?
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Competency
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Use of force
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Force health protection
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Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service
Correct Answer
A. Use of forceExplanation
The question asks for the answer that is not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with. The options "competency," "Force health protection," and "Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service" all seem to be related to the Air Force and its operations. However, "Use of force" does not directly relate to doctrine statements but rather refers to the application of force in certain situations. Therefore, "Use of force" is the correct answer as it does not fit the criteria of being a foundational doctrine statement.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?
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First
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Second
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Third
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Fourth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure in an Air Force Specialty Code that identifies career grouping is the first figure.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When may the AETC form 156, student training report be removed from the individual training record?
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When the airman arrives at the first duty station
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When the rank of master sergeant has been attained
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When the airman is upgraded form the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level
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When the airman is upgraded from 5-skill level to the 7-skill level
Correct Answer
A. When the airman is upgraded form the 3-skill level to the 5-skill levelExplanation
The AETC form 156, student training report may be removed from the individual training record when the airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that the form is no longer necessary once the airman has progressed to a higher skill level, indicating that they have completed the required training and are now qualified at a higher level of proficiency.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who approves or disapproves an authorization change request?
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USAFMS
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MAJCOM
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Squadron commander
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Medical group commander
Correct Answer
A. MAJCOMExplanation
The MAJCOM (Major Command) approves or disapproves an authorization change request. MAJCOM is a level of command in the United States Air Force that is responsible for specific operations or functions. They have the authority to review and make decisions on authorization change requests, which could involve changes in personnel, equipment, or resources within their command.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Diring which stage of the the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?
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Depression
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Acceptance
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Denial
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Anger
Correct Answer
A. DepressionExplanation
During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because depression is characterized by feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and isolation. By allowing the patient to express their thoughts and emotions, they can release their pent-up feelings and find some relief. Moreover, talking can help them process their grief, gain a sense of control, and begin to heal emotionally. It also provides an opportunity for healthcare professionals to offer support and reassurance, which can be crucial during this stage.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?
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15 days
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30 days
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45 days
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60 days
Correct Answer
A. 30 daysExplanation
Patients who are treated without initial proof of eligibility are required to sign a statement stating that they will provide eligibility documentation within 30 days. This means that they have a month to provide the necessary documentation to prove their eligibility for the treatment they received. It is important for patients to provide this documentation within the given time frame to ensure that they are eligible for the treatment and to avoid any issues or complications in the future.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How many parts make up the Career field Education and Training plan?
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One
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Two
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Three
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Four
Correct Answer
A. TwoExplanation
The Career field Education and Training plan is made up of two parts.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What four components make up the PCM team?
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Provider, Nurse, Medical Technician, and Mental Health Technician
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Provider, Nurse, Medical Technician, Health Services Management Technician
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Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician, and mental health technician
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Nurse, medical technician, dental technician, mental health technician
Correct Answer
A. Provider, Nurse, Medical Technician, Health Services Management TechnicianExplanation
The correct answer is Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician, and mental health technician. These four components make up the PCM team. The nurse provides medical care and assistance to patients. The medical technician assists with various medical procedures and tests. The health services management technician handles administrative tasks and ensures smooth operation of the healthcare facility. The mental health technician provides support and care to patients with mental health conditions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When a patient reqeusts care but has questionable eligibility you should:
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Make them an appointment and worry about the details later
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Tell the patient that you will not see them until they can prove eligibility
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Tell the patient to have a seat and have them seen on a space available basis
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Have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assesment
Correct Answer
A. Have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assesmentExplanation
Having a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment is the correct answer because it allows for an evaluation of the patient's condition and the urgency of their need for care. This assessment can help determine if immediate treatment is necessary or if the patient can wait until their eligibility is confirmed. It ensures that the patient's health is prioritized while also addressing any concerns about eligibility.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined what specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine is accomplished?
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Competency
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Prevention
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Force health Pretection
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Roles and Responsibilities
Correct Answer
A. CompetencyExplanation
When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine that is accomplished is Competency. Competency refers to the ability to effectively apply knowledge, skills, and abilities in a specific field or profession. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency would involve the proficiency and expertise of medical professionals in providing healthcare services, utilizing advanced technologies, and adhering to established protocols and standards.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Where would yop find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
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Individual training record
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Master training plan
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AF form 1098
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AF form 797
Correct Answer
A. Master training planExplanation
The master training plan is where you would find the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area. It provides a comprehensive overview of the training requirements and objectives, ensuring that all members receive the necessary training to fulfill their roles effectively. The individual training record, AF form 1098, and AF form 797 may contain specific information about an individual's training history or documentation, but they do not provide the overall plan for training in a specific area.Rate this question:
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- 43.
When does a new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?
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Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list
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When they have completed phase II supply training
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Upon being assigned as property custodian
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The first day of the new fiscal year
Correct Answer
A. Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator listExplanation
A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that the custodian has acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed on the document. It is a formal process that marks the transfer of accountability from the previous custodian to the new custodian.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish thier mission?
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AFDD 1, basic doctrine
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AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development
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AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
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AFDD 2-8, Command and Control
Correct Answer
A. AFDD 2-4.2, Health ServicesExplanation
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services is the correct answer because it is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission. This document specifically focuses on health services, providing guidance on how to organize, train, equip, and employ medical forces to support the Air Force mission. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the principles and concepts that guide their operations. By following the guidance in AFDD 2-4.2, commanders can effectively plan and execute medical operations to ensure the health and well-being of Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is identified by a special experience identifier?
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Aerospace medical technician
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Aeromedical evacuation technician
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Squadron medical element technician
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Independant duty medical technician
Correct Answer
A. Aeromedical evacuation technicianExplanation
Aeromedical evacuation technician is identified by a special experience identifier.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
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Six months
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Year
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Three years
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Five years
Correct Answer
A. Three yearsExplanation
The 4N0XX job inventory is typically completed every three years. This means that a comprehensive assessment and review of the job inventory is conducted once every three years to ensure accuracy and update any necessary information. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather relevant data and make any necessary adjustments to the inventory.Rate this question:
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- 47.
How oftern are equipment inspections usually conducted?
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Daily
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Weekly
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Monthly
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Quarterly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the equipment. Daily inspections allow for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular daily inspections also help in maintaining the equipment's performance and extending its lifespan.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How are activities grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system?
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Hours and section
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Type and section
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Hours and AFSC
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Type and AFSC
Correct Answer
A. Type and sectionExplanation
Activities are grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system based on their type and section. This means that similar activities are categorized together based on their nature or purpose, and also based on the specific section or department they belong to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, making it easier to track and assess medical expenses and performance within different sections of the system.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When may the AF form 601 be destroyed/
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When the new fiscal year begins
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When MEMO personnel gove permission
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When a new property custodian takes over
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When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL
Correct Answer
A. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRLExplanation
The AF form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This is because the CRL (Controlled Inventory Item Listing) is a document that tracks all the items that are authorized for use or issued by a unit. When an item is added to or taken off the CRL, it means that the status or availability of the item has changed, and therefore, the corresponding AF form 601 can be destroyed as it is no longer needed for tracking purposes.Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 20, 2012Quiz Created by
Jgroat7
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