CDC 4N051: Trivia Quiz On Aerospace Medical Technician Test

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1. While commanders's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, Health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

Explanation

Every airman is responsible for maintaining their own health and fitness. While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale and the overall health and wellness of their personnel, it is ultimately up to each individual airman to take care of their own physical health and fitness. This includes following proper exercise routines, eating a balanced diet, and taking necessary precautions to maintain their overall well-being.

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CDC 4N051: Trivia Quiz On Aerospace Medical Technician Test - Quiz

If you are taking up the CDC 4N051: course on Aerospace Medical Technician you are in luck as the quiz below is designed to see just how skilled... see moreyou are before the main exam that will end up with you being certified. Would you be able to score over half the marks? Take up this test and get to find out! see less

2. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Explanation

If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This implies that the individual should reach out to the relevant personnel who handle orders and inquire about the status of the backordered item. This step is recommended as it allows for a proactive approach to resolving the issue and obtaining updated information on the order's progress.

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3. Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service

Explanation

Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it helps to positively influence the patient's visit. By providing exceptional customer service, the 4N0XX can enhance the overall experience for the patient, making them feel valued and cared for. This can lead to increased patient satisfaction, improved patient outcomes, and a positive reputation for the healthcare facility. Additionally, satisfied patients are more likely to recommend the facility to others, resulting in increased referrals and potential business growth.

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4. Who is considered the patient advocate?

Explanation

Every staff member is considered the patient advocate because they all have a responsibility to ensure the well-being and rights of the patients. Patient advocacy involves advocating for the patients' needs, concerns, and rights, and this responsibility extends to all staff members in a healthcare setting. Regardless of their specific roles or positions, every staff member should prioritize the best interests of the patients and work towards providing them with the highest quality of care and support.

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5. It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure:

Explanation

It is important for a healthcare team to work in harmony to ensure that the best care is provided to their customers. When team members work together effectively and communicate well, they can collaborate and coordinate their efforts to deliver high-quality care. This includes sharing knowledge, skills, and expertise to ensure that patients receive the best possible treatment and outcomes. By working in harmony, the team can also create a positive and supportive work environment, which can contribute to job satisfaction and a sense of fulfillment for each team member.

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6. When patient care is not documented, what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

Explanation

If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is an essential part of healthcare as it provides a record of the care provided to the patient. Without proper documentation, there is no evidence of any care or treatment being given to the patient. This could be a result of negligence or oversight, but it indicates that the patient did not receive any medical attention.

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7. What is the purpose of documenting training?

Explanation

The purpose of documenting training is to keep a record of an individual's capability, scope of practice, and strengths and weaknesses. This documentation allows for tracking and assessing the progress and development of personnel, as well as identifying areas that may require improvement or further training. It also serves as a reference for supervisors and managers when making decisions about assigning tasks and responsibilities to individuals. Overall, documenting training helps to ensure that personnel are appropriately trained and competent in their roles.

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8. By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

Explanation

By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to the patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, it ensures that they are aware of safety protocols, minimizing the chances of injury to the patient.

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9. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

Explanation

To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment and are knowledgeable about the specific procedures and policies related to equipment problems. They are likely to have the most up-to-date information and expertise in addressing any concerns or issues with the equipment.

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10. Wach medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

Explanation

A medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. This means that the facility needs to have guidelines in place for situations where a third party, such as a nurse or another healthcare professional, needs to be present during the examination or treatment to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient. The chaperone's role is to provide support and assistance during these procedures, acting as a witness and ensuring appropriate conduct.

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11. What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

Explanation

Customer service surveys used in a medical treatment facility serve the purpose of collecting feedback from patients. By gathering this feedback, the facility can identify areas where they can improve their services and better serve their patients. This information can help them make necessary adjustments and enhancements to meet the needs and expectations of their patients, ultimately leading to a higher level of patient satisfaction and improved quality of care.

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12. What actions should the property custodian take if a back order item is no longer needed?

Explanation

The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a back order item is no longer needed. This implies that once the item is ordered, it is not necessary to receive it when it arrives. Instead, the custodian should take proactive steps to cancel the order through MEMO, indicating that the item is no longer needed. This ensures that unnecessary expenses are avoided and the inventory is managed efficiently.

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13. Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must

Explanation

Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is necessary to ensure that all equipment is present and accounted for, and to identify any discrepancies or missing items. By conducting a physical inventory, the new custodian can establish a baseline of the equipment's condition and quantity, which will be useful for future audits and tracking purposes. This step is crucial in maintaining accountability and preventing any potential loss or misuse of equipment.

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14. Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective comminication?

Explanation

Talking too much is considered a barrier to effective communication because it can prevent others from expressing their thoughts and ideas. When one person dominates the conversation, it hinders the exchange of information and inhibits active listening. It can also lead to misunderstandings and misinterpretations as important details may get lost in the excessive amount of information being shared. Effective communication involves a balance of speaking and listening, allowing all participants to contribute and engage in meaningful dialogue.

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15. Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base refurral services?

Explanation

The patient advocate is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services. They are trained to assist patients in navigating the healthcare system, providing support, and advocating for their rights and needs. They can help clarify any confusion or concerns the patient may have, ensuring they receive the necessary information and access to appropriate services.

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16. When a PCM team is successful in acheiving the team goal, what must each member do?

Explanation

Each member of the PCM team must contribute at their highest level of scope of practice when the team is successful in achieving the team goal. This means that each team member should utilize their skills, knowledge, and expertise to the fullest extent to ensure that they are making the most valuable contribution possible towards the team's objective. This not only helps in maximizing the team's overall performance but also ensures that each individual is working at their full potential and utilizing their specialized skills effectively.

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17. If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care you should:

Explanation

The correct answer is to provide the patient care and then determine eligibility. This approach prioritizes the patient's immediate needs and ensures that they receive necessary treatment in an emergency situation. Once the patient's condition is stabilized, their eligibility for care can be assessed and appropriate billing or payment arrangements can be made. This approach aligns with the principle of providing timely and necessary care to patients in emergency situations.

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18. Wo is responsible for comleting the graduate assessment survey?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for completing the graduate assessment survey.

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19. Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the air force?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the air force. This means that every person within the air force has a personal responsibility to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This includes being accountable for the proper use and maintenance of the property, as well as taking necessary measures to safeguard it from loss, damage, or theft. By assigning this responsibility to each individual, it creates a culture of accountability and encourages everyone to actively participate in the care of public property.

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20. Which category of personnel does the health insurance protability and accountability act affect?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also any other individuals or entities that come into contact with patient information, such as insurance companies, billing companies, and even contractors or vendors who may have access to patient data. HIPAA sets standards for the privacy and security of patient information, and imposes strict penalties for any unauthorized disclosure or misuse of this information. Therefore, it is crucial for anyone who handles patient information to comply with HIPAA regulations.

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21. Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?

Explanation

The correct answer is "introductory". In the introductory phase of a patient relationship, the identity and role of the patient and healthcare worker are established. This phase also involves clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization. It is the initial stage where the patient and healthcare worker get to know each other and establish a foundation for further interactions and treatment.

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22. How should you handle a non-emergant telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold? 

Explanation

When the provider is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold, the best course of action is to take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity. This ensures that the caller's message is delivered to the provider without interrupting the ongoing appointment. It also shows professionalism and respect for both the patient and the caller.

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23. Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

Explanation

Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress because it creates a sense of trust and security. When healthcare providers are honest and transparent with their patients, it helps to alleviate anxiety and uncertainty. Being in control and maintaining a calm demeanor also reassures the patient that they are in capable hands, which can help to decrease their anxiety levels.

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24. Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by whisch of the following examples?

Explanation

The best example to explain Tactical Doctrine is a car buyer because they have the ability to choose specific qualities that align with their individual needs, such as speed or safety factors. Tactical Doctrine refers to the strategic decision-making process that involves selecting the best course of action based on specific circumstances and objectives. In this case, the car buyer's decision to prioritize certain qualities over others demonstrates their application of tactical thinking in selecting a vehicle that best suits their needs.

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25. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Explanation

Nonmaleficence is a principle in ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm or injury to others. It is a duty to prioritize the well-being and safety of individuals, ensuring that no harm is inflicted upon them. This principle is particularly important in medical and healthcare professions, where practitioners are expected to prioritize the best interests of their patients and avoid any actions that may cause harm or worsen their condition.

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26. What is the purpose of the patient advocacy program?

Explanation

The purpose of the patient advocacy program is to provide an unbiased third party. This means that the program aims to have someone who is not involved in the patient's care or the healthcare system to advocate for the patient's rights and ensure that their needs and concerns are addressed. This can help to ensure that the patient's voice is heard and that they receive fair and equitable treatment. It does not specifically mention reducing lawsuits or approving funding for off-base treatment, so these options are not the main purpose of the program.

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27. How is doctrine applied?

Explanation

Doctrine is applied in a way that is authoritative but not directive. This means that while it carries weight and is considered to be a reliable and trusted source, it does not provide specific instructions or commands on how to act or behave. Instead, it serves as a guiding principle or framework that individuals can interpret and apply in their own unique situations, allowing for some flexibility and adaptability.

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28. Why is Medical Doctrine neccessary?

Explanation

Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. It provides a framework and set of principles for commanders to make informed decisions regarding the allocation and utilization of medical resources. By following the guidance provided in medical doctrine, commanders can effectively and efficiently utilize the available assets to support medical operations and provide the best possible care to their personnel.

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29. What percentaage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operater error?

Explanation

70% of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This means that the majority of malfunctions in medical equipment occur due to mistakes made by the operators. This could be due to lack of training, negligence, or human error. It is crucial for operators to be properly trained and follow protocols to minimize the occurrence of such errors and ensure the safe and effective use of medical equipment.

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30. What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

Explanation

When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the first action is to inspect the equipment thoroughly to identify any issues or discrepancies. The second action is to remove the equipment from service or use, ensuring that it is not further used until the discrepancy is resolved. Lastly, the third action is to report the discrepancy to the appropriate personnel or department, providing all necessary details and information. This allows for proper documentation and prompt resolution of the issue.

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31. What type of doctrine guides organizations and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Explanation

Operational doctrine refers to the type of doctrine that guides organizations and the employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. Operational doctrine focuses on the overall planning and execution of military operations, including the coordination of different units and resources. It provides guidance on how to achieve strategic objectives through the tactical employment of forces. Operational doctrine is essential for ensuring effective and efficient military operations.

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32. Which of the following in not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?

Explanation

The question asks for the answer that is not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with. The options "competency," "Force health protection," and "Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service" all seem to be related to the Air Force and its operations. However, "Use of force" does not directly relate to doctrine statements but rather refers to the application of force in certain situations. Therefore, "Use of force" is the correct answer as it does not fit the criteria of being a foundational doctrine statement.

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33. What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping? 

Explanation

The figure in an Air Force Specialty Code that identifies career grouping is the first figure.

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34. When may the AETC form 156, student training report be removed from the individual training record? 

Explanation

The AETC form 156, student training report may be removed from the individual training record when the airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that the form is no longer necessary once the airman has progressed to a higher skill level, indicating that they have completed the required training and are now qualified at a higher level of proficiency.

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35. Who approves or disapproves an authorization change request?

Explanation

The MAJCOM (Major Command) approves or disapproves an authorization change request. MAJCOM is a level of command in the United States Air Force that is responsible for specific operations or functions. They have the authority to review and make decisions on authorization change requests, which could involve changes in personnel, equipment, or resources within their command.

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36. Diring which stage of the the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?

Explanation

During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because depression is characterized by feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and isolation. By allowing the patient to express their thoughts and emotions, they can release their pent-up feelings and find some relief. Moreover, talking can help them process their grief, gain a sense of control, and begin to heal emotionally. It also provides an opportunity for healthcare professionals to offer support and reassurance, which can be crucial during this stage.

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37. Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

Explanation

Patients who are treated without initial proof of eligibility are required to sign a statement stating that they will provide eligibility documentation within 30 days. This means that they have a month to provide the necessary documentation to prove their eligibility for the treatment they received. It is important for patients to provide this documentation within the given time frame to ensure that they are eligible for the treatment and to avoid any issues or complications in the future.

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38. How many parts make up the Career field Education and Training plan?

Explanation

The Career field Education and Training plan is made up of two parts.

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39. What four components make up the PCM team?

Explanation

The correct answer is Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician, and mental health technician. These four components make up the PCM team. The nurse provides medical care and assistance to patients. The medical technician assists with various medical procedures and tests. The health services management technician handles administrative tasks and ensures smooth operation of the healthcare facility. The mental health technician provides support and care to patients with mental health conditions.

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40. When a patient reqeusts care but has questionable eligibility you should:

Explanation

Having a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment is the correct answer because it allows for an evaluation of the patient's condition and the urgency of their need for care. This assessment can help determine if immediate treatment is necessary or if the patient can wait until their eligibility is confirmed. It ensures that the patient's health is prioritized while also addressing any concerns about eligibility.

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41. When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined what specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine is accomplished?

Explanation

When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine that is accomplished is Competency. Competency refers to the ability to effectively apply knowledge, skills, and abilities in a specific field or profession. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency would involve the proficiency and expertise of medical professionals in providing healthcare services, utilizing advanced technologies, and adhering to established protocols and standards.

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42. Where would yop find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

Explanation

The master training plan is where you would find the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area. It provides a comprehensive overview of the training requirements and objectives, ensuring that all members receive the necessary training to fulfill their roles effectively. The individual training record, AF form 1098, and AF form 797 may contain specific information about an individual's training history or documentation, but they do not provide the overall plan for training in a specific area.

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43. When does a new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?

Explanation

A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that the custodian has acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed on the document. It is a formal process that marks the transfer of accountability from the previous custodian to the new custodian.

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44. Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish thier mission?

Explanation

AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services is the correct answer because it is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission. This document specifically focuses on health services, providing guidance on how to organize, train, equip, and employ medical forces to support the Air Force mission. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the principles and concepts that guide their operations. By following the guidance in AFDD 2-4.2, commanders can effectively plan and execute medical operations to ensure the health and well-being of Air Force personnel.

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45. Which of the following is identified by a special experience identifier?

Explanation

Aeromedical evacuation technician is identified by a special experience identifier.

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46. How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?

Explanation

The 4N0XX job inventory is typically completed every three years. This means that a comprehensive assessment and review of the job inventory is conducted once every three years to ensure accuracy and update any necessary information. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather relevant data and make any necessary adjustments to the inventory.

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47. How oftern are equipment inspections usually conducted?

Explanation

Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the equipment. Daily inspections allow for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular daily inspections also help in maintaining the equipment's performance and extending its lifespan.

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48. How are activities grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system?

Explanation

Activities are grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system based on their type and section. This means that similar activities are categorized together based on their nature or purpose, and also based on the specific section or department they belong to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, making it easier to track and assess medical expenses and performance within different sections of the system.

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49. When may the AF form 601 be destroyed/

Explanation

The AF form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This is because the CRL (Controlled Inventory Item Listing) is a document that tracks all the items that are authorized for use or issued by a unit. When an item is added to or taken off the CRL, it means that the status or availability of the item has changed, and therefore, the corresponding AF form 601 can be destroyed as it is no longer needed for tracking purposes.

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50. Why is the DD form 2005, privacy act statement-health care records used when providing medical care?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the DD form 2005, privacy act statement-health care records, is used when providing medical care because it eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document. This form serves as a blanket statement, informing patients about the privacy and confidentiality of their medical records, and by signing it, patients acknowledge their understanding and agreement. This saves time and paperwork by not requiring a separate privacy act statement for each individual document.

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51. Should technicians give medical advice over the phone?

Explanation

Technicians should not give medical advice over the phone because it can lead to inaccurate self-treatment. Without proper examination and diagnosis, it is difficult to accurately assess the condition of the patient and provide appropriate advice. Only doctors, who have the necessary expertise and knowledge, are legally allowed to give medical advice over the telephone. Additionally, many medical problems require a thorough examination by a doctor to ensure proper treatment and care.

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52. At what age are children required to have their own ID card?

Explanation

Children are required to have their own ID card at the age of 10. This is likely because by this age, children are considered to be more independent and responsible, and having their own ID card can help in various situations such as identification purposes, travel, and accessing certain services. It also ensures that children have a form of official identification as they grow older and become more involved in activities that may require proof of identity.

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53. Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibilty for follow up care?

Explanation

Before managed care, the responsibility for follow-up care was primarily shouldered by the patient. This means that it was the patient's responsibility to schedule and attend any necessary follow-up appointments, adhere to treatment plans, and communicate with healthcare providers about their progress or any concerns. Managed care systems have since evolved to involve healthcare providers and nurses in coordinating and managing follow-up care, but prior to this, it was largely the patient's responsibility to take care of their own follow-up care.

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54. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?

Explanation

The abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified" when used in ICD-9. This term is used to categorize medical conditions or procedures that do not fit into any other specific category. It serves as a catch-all code for conditions that are not easily classified under a more specific code.

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55. Who is generallly the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

Explanation

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56.
  1. when a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the

Explanation

The trainee is in the process of transitioning from being an apprentice to becoming a journeyman. This means that they have already acquired basic skills and knowledge in patient care and customer service, and are now starting to develop leadership and management skills. The journeyman stage is characterized by a higher level of expertise and independence, where the trainee is able to perform tasks and make decisions with less supervision.

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57. Where would the NREMT certificate and the CPR card be filed in the individual trraining record?

Explanation

The NREMT certificate and the CPR card would be filed in part 6, section B of the individual training record.

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58. What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?

Explanation

The correct answer is STS. STS stands for Specialty Training Standard, which is a document that outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that individuals in the 4N0X1 career field are authorized to perform. It defines the scope of practice and helps ensure that individuals are properly trained and qualified to carry out their duties in healthcare settings. UMD, MTF, and UPMR are not related to the scope of practice in the 4N0X1 career field.

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59. Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?

Explanation

DD form 2005 is used to inform the patient about the purpose and uses of the information collected in their medical record. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that the patient is aware of how their information will be used and protected. It helps to establish transparency and trust between the healthcare provider and the patient, ensuring that the patient is well-informed and involved in their own healthcare decisions.

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60. On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the specialty training standard?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF form 797, job qualification standard continuation/command JQS. This form would be used to document specific duty position training that is not listed on the specialty training standard. The job qualification standard continuation/command JQS is a document that outlines the required qualifications and training for a specific job position. It is used to ensure that individuals are properly trained and qualified for their assigned duties. By using this form, any additional training that is not covered in the specialty training standard can be documented and tracked.

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61. For general guidance regarding the health insurance portability and accountability act, use

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD regulation 6025.18-R. This regulation provides general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). It outlines the policies and procedures that the Department of Defense (DOD) must follow to ensure the privacy and security of individually identifiable health information. It also addresses the requirements for the electronic exchange of health information and the implementation of safeguards to protect against unauthorized access. This regulation is specifically applicable to the DOD and provides comprehensive guidance on HIPAA compliance.

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62. When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?

Explanation

DEERS, which stands for Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System, is the information system that would be relied on to capture, edit, and maintain sponsor/family demographics. DEERS is a database that stores information about military personnel, their dependents, and other eligible individuals. It is used to verify eligibility for military benefits and services. Therefore, it is the most appropriate information system to rely on for capturing, editing, and maintaining sponsor/family demographics.

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63. In what part of the career field Education and Training Plan will you locate the specialty training standard?

Explanation

In the career field Education and Training Plan, the specialty training standard can be found in the second part.

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64. Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least:

Explanation

Enrollment information from DEERS, the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System, is sent to the MTF, or Military Treatment Facility, on a quarterly basis. This means that the information is updated and sent every three months. This regular updating ensures that the MTF has the most accurate and up-to-date enrollment information for its patients, allowing for efficient and effective healthcare management and planning.

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65. If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?

Explanation

If you are working in CHCS (Composite Health Care System), the function that would not be available for you to use is outpatient coding data. CHCS is a software system used by the Department of Defense to manage healthcare information, including appointment scheduling, results reporting, and entry of lab requests. However, outpatient coding data refers to the process of assigning specific codes to medical procedures and diagnoses for billing purposes, which may be handled by a separate department or system.

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66. What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Explanation

The correct answer is "activity issue/turn-in summary." This report generated through DMLSS lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section. It provides a summary of the activity related to issuing and turning in items, allowing for better tracking and management of supplies and equipment.

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67. Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?

Explanation

The nurse is responsible for analyzing the performance and health status of patients in a primary care setting. They are trained to assess and monitor patients, collect data, and make informed decisions about their care. Nurses have a holistic approach to patient care, considering not only their physical health but also their emotional and social well-being. They work closely with other members of the primary care management team, such as providers, to ensure comprehensive and effective care for patients.

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68. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support force health protection, population health, and MHS optimization?

Explanation

AHLTA is the correct answer because it is a system that supports force health protection, population health, and MHS optimization. AHLTA stands for the Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application and it is a comprehensive electronic health record system used by the military. It allows for the tracking and monitoring of the health status of military personnel, supports population health management initiatives, and helps optimize the Military Health System by providing a centralized and standardized platform for health data management.

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69.
  1. what is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

Explanation

When conducting in-service training, it is important to evaluate learning through tests or performance. This allows trainers to assess the effectiveness of the training and determine if the participants have gained the necessary knowledge and skills. By evaluating learning, trainers can identify any gaps or areas that need improvement, and make necessary adjustments for future training sessions. This ensures that the training is effective and contributes to the overall development of the participants.

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70. Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?

Explanation

Being punctual is not a habit of successful PCM teams because it implies simply showing up on time, which is a basic expectation in any professional setting. While being punctual is important, successful PCM teams go beyond this and exhibit habits such as being proactive, managing a panel, and effective communication. These habits involve taking initiative, coordinating and collaborating with team members, and ensuring clear and efficient communication, all of which are crucial for the success of a PCM team.

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71. What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

Explanation

The tool used to list the personnel assigned to a work center is UPMR.

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72. Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and other characteristics needed to clearly dine the position?

Explanation

Manpower authorization refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade, and other characteristics. It specifies the number of personnel needed for a particular position and ensures that the necessary resources are allocated to fulfill the requirements of the position. This authorization helps in effectively managing and organizing the workforce by providing a clear outline of the position's responsibilities and qualifications.

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73. What system is the primary tool uused to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Explanation

MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. This system allows healthcare organizations to track and analyze their expenses, measure performance, and allocate resources effectively. By using MEPRS, medical personnel can make informed decisions regarding manpower allocation, budget planning, and resource management to ensure efficient and effective healthcare delivery.

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74. What are patient responsibilities designed to do?

Explanation

Patient responsibilities are designed to protect other patients and healthcare workers. By following their responsibilities, patients can help prevent the spread of infections and diseases within a healthcare setting. This includes practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly, covering their mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and following any specific instructions given by healthcare providers. By doing so, patients can minimize the risk of transmitting illnesses to others, including fellow patients and healthcare workers who may be more vulnerable to infections.

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75. Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?

Explanation

A career field manager may request a 4N0X1 job inventory. This implies that the 4N0X1 job inventory is related to a specific career field, and the career field manager has the authority to request it. The other options, such as the chief nurse, command chief, and medical group commander, may have their own specific roles and responsibilities within the organization, but they do not have the authority to request a 4N0X1 job inventory.

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76. Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and descipline of supply use?

Explanation

The commanders are the designated individuals responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and disciplining supply use. They have the authority and oversight to manage these aspects and ensure that everything is properly stored, accounted for, and used according to regulations and protocols.

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77. Which of the following defines fidelity?

Explanation

Fidelity refers to acting in a responsible manner. This means being reliable, trustworthy, and accountable for one's actions. It involves fulfilling commitments, following through on promises, and maintaining loyalty and faithfulness in relationships or duties. Fidelity requires individuals to be conscientious and dependable, ensuring that they act responsibly and ethically in all aspects of their lives.

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78. What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?

Explanation

The primary source for recording equipment repair is the AF Form 1297, temporary issue receipt or custodian actions. This form is used to document any temporary issues or actions taken by the custodian regarding the repair of equipment. It provides a record of the repair process, including any temporary replacements or actions taken by the custodian to address the repair needs. This form is essential for tracking and documenting the repair history of equipment.

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79. The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?

Explanation

The ICD-9 is divided into four sections. These sections categorize and organize different types of medical conditions and procedures. This division helps in the efficient management and retrieval of medical information.

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80. Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the defense enrollment eligibility reporting system?

Explanation

The MPF (Military Personnel Flight) is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the defense enrollment eligibility reporting system. They handle the administrative tasks related to personnel and ensure that individuals meet the requirements for medical care within the system.

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When patient care is not documented, what can be assumed about the...
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What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies...
What type of doctrine guides organizations and employment of forces...
Which of the following in not one of the three foundational doctrine...
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When may the AETC form 156, student training report be removed from...
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Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a...
How many parts make up the Career field Education and Training plan?
What four components make up the PCM team?
When a patient reqeusts care but has questionable eligibility you...
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological...
Where would yop find the specific outline of training goals,...
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How oftern are equipment inspections usually conducted?
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When may the AF form 601 be destroyed/
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When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily...
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What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career...
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of...
On what form would you document specific duty position training that...
For general guidance regarding the health insurance portability and...
When confirming a patient's information, which of the following...
In what part of the career field Education and Training Plan will you...
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What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and...
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Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines...
What system is the primary tool uused to make manpower, budget, and...
What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure...
Which of the following defines fidelity?
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?
Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's...
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