CDC 4N051: Trivia Quiz On Aerospace Medical Technician Test

80 Questions

Settings
CDC 4N051: Trivia Quiz On Aerospace Medical Technician Test

If you are taking up the CDC 4N051: course on Aerospace Medical Technician you are in luck as the quiz below is designed to see just how skilled you are before the main exam that will end up with you being certified. Would you be able to score over half the marks? Take up this test and get to find out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    How is doctrine applied?
    • A. 

      Authoritative but not directive

    • B. 

      Not authoritative or directive

    • C. 

      Directive but not authoritative

    • D. 

      Directive and authoritative

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish thier mission?
    • A. 

      AFDD 1, basic doctrine

    • B. 

      AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development

    • C. 

      AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services

    • D. 

      AFDD 2-8, Command and Control

  • 3. 
    Why is Medical Doctrine neccessary?
    • A. 

      Recommends step by step actions

    • B. 

      Directs the actions of commanders

    • C. 

      Guides commander in using assets

    • D. 

      Changes faster than Air Force guidance

  • 4. 
    What type of doctrine guides organizations and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
    • A. 

      Basic

    • B. 

      Tactical

    • C. 

      Operational

    • D. 

      Foundational

  • 5. 
    Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by whisch of the following examples?
    • A. 

      The environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulations such as fuel economy

    • B. 

      An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind

    • C. 

      An automobile designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.

    • D. 

      A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors

  • 6. 
    Which of the following in not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?
    • A. 

      Competency

    • B. 

      Use of force

    • C. 

      Force health protection

    • D. 

      Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service

  • 7. 
    While commanders's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, Health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
    • A. 

      Physicians

    • B. 

      Supervisors

    • C. 

      Every airman

    • D. 

      Heath and wellness staff

  • 8. 
    When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined what specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine is accomplished?
    • A. 

      Competency

    • B. 

      Prevention

    • C. 

      Force health Pretection

    • D. 

      Roles and Responsibilities

  • 9. 
    What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping? 
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 10. 
    How many parts make up the Career field Education and Training plan?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 11. 
    In what part of the career field Education and Training Plan will you locate the specialty training standard?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 12. 
    Where would yop find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
    • A. 

      Individual training record

    • B. 

      Master training plan

    • C. 

      AF form 1098

    • D. 

      AF form 797

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is identified by a special experience identifier?
    • A. 

      Aerospace medical technician

    • B. 

      Aeromedical evacuation technician

    • C. 

      Squadron medical element technician

    • D. 

      Independant duty medical technician

  • 14. 
    Who is generallly the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?
    • A. 

      Nurse

    • B. 

      Administrative technician

    • C. 

      Aerospace medical service craftsman

    • D. 

      Aerospace medical service journeyman

  • 15. 
    1. when a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the
    • A. 

      Novice to the apprentice

    • B. 

      Apprentice to journeyman

    • C. 

      Journeyman to craftsman

    • D. 

      Craftsman to technician

  • 16. 
    Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service
    • A. 

      Prevent lawsuits

    • B. 

      Develop job satisfaction

    • C. 

      Ensure promotion below-the-zone

    • D. 

      Positively influence the patient's visit

  • 17. 
    Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
    • A. 

      Cheif nurse

    • B. 

      Command cheif

    • C. 

      Career field manager

    • D. 

      Medical group commamder

  • 18. 
    How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
    • A. 

      Six months

    • B. 

      Year

    • C. 

      Three years

    • D. 

      Five years

  • 19. 
    Wo is responsible for comleting the graduate assessment survey?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      3-level

    • D. 

      5-level

  • 20. 
    What is the purpose of documenting training?
    • A. 

      Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness

    • B. 

      Document the number of personnel and the hours they work

    • C. 

      Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board

    • D. 

      Establish patient care guidelines for civilian practice

  • 21. 
    On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the specialty training standard?
    • A. 

      AF form 803, report of task evaluations

    • B. 

      AF form 1098, special task certification and recurring training

    • C. 

      AF form 797, job qualification standard continuation/command JQS

    • D. 

      AF form 2096, classification/on-the-job training action, military personnel data system (MILPDS)product

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      When the airman arrives at the first duty station

    • B. 

      When the rank of master sergeant has been attained

    • C. 

      When the airman is upgraded form the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level

    • D. 

      When the airman is upgraded from 5-skill level to the 7-skill level

  • 23. 
    Where would the NREMT certificate and the CPR card be filed in the individual trraining record?
    • A. 

      Part 2, section A

    • B. 

      Part 3, section C

    • C. 

      Part 5, section A

    • D. 

      Part 6, section B

  • 24. 
    1. what is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
    • A. 

      Ensure there are refreshments available

    • B. 

      Ask how many people will be attending

    • C. 

      Evaluate learning through tests or performance

    • D. 

      Confirm whether or not the commander will be attending

  • 25. 
    What system is the primary tool uused to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
    • A. 

      UMD

    • B. 

      UMPR

    • C. 

      CFETP

    • D. 

      MEPRS

  • 26. 
    How are activities grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system?
    • A. 

      Hours and section

    • B. 

      Type and section

    • C. 

      Hours and AFSC

    • D. 

      Type and AFSC

  • 27. 
    What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
    • A. 

      UMD

    • B. 

      ACR

    • C. 

      UPMR

    • D. 

      MEPRS

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and other characteristics needed to clearly dine the position?
    • A. 

      Manpower standard

    • B. 

      Manning assistance

    • C. 

      Manpower requirement

    • D. 

      Manpower authorization

  • 29. 
    Who approves or disapproves an authorization change request?
    • A. 

      USAFMS

    • B. 

      MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Medical group commander

  • 30. 
    Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the air force?
    • A. 

      Each individual

    • B. 

      Unit supervisor

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Account custodian

  • 31. 
    Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and descipline of supply use?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commanders

    • C. 

      Property custodians

    • D. 

      Medical equipment managment office personnel

  • 32. 
    By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
    • A. 

      Equipment damage and injury to patient

    • B. 

      Unjury to a patient and buying new technology

    • C. 

      Reporting damage and buying new technology

    • D. 

      Reporting damage to the commander a logistics

  • 33. 
    What percentaage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operater error?
    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      70%

    • D. 

      90%

  • 34. 
    What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
    • A. 

      Backorder report

    • B. 

      Activity issue/turn-in summary

    • C. 

      Custodian action/custodian report listing

    • D. 

      Medical equipment review and authorization activity

  • 35. 
    What actions should the property custodian take if a back order item is no longer needed?
    • A. 

      None. once an item is ordered you must recieve it when it arrives

    • B. 

      Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO

    • C. 

      Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it

    • D. 

      None, it is always better to have extra supplies on hand

  • 36. 
    What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
    • A. 

      Cancel the order

    • B. 

      Complain to the commander

    • C. 

      Wait another 15 days and then follow up

    • D. 

      Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order

  • 37. 
    When does a new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?
    • A. 

      Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list

    • B. 

      When they have completed phase II supply training

    • C. 

      Upon being assigned as property custodian

    • D. 

      The first day of the new fiscal year

  • 38. 
    Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must
    • A. 

      Recieving a briefing on responsibilities

    • B. 

      Conduct a physical inventory of equipment

    • C. 

      document his/her experience for commander review

    • D. 

      Review the files to establish when equipment was procured

  • 39. 
    When may the AF form 601 be destroyed/
    • A. 

      When the new fiscal year begins

    • B. 

      When MEMO personnel gove permission

    • C. 

      When a new property custodian takes over

    • D. 

      When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL

  • 40. 
    How oftern are equipment inspections usually conducted?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 41. 
    What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?
    • A. 

      Inspect, store, and remove

    • B. 

      Inspect, remove, and report

    • C. 

      Report, remove, and repair

    • D. 

      Remove, store, and repair

  • 42. 
    What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
    • A. 

      AF form 1297, temporary issue reciept only

    • B. 

      Af form 1297, temporary issue reciept or custodian actions?

    • C. 

      Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report

    • D. 

      Activity issue/turn-in summary only

  • 43. 
    Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?
    • A. 

      District sales and maintenance representative

    • B. 

      Base supply and equipment maintenance

    • C. 

      Biomedical equipment repair technician

    • D. 

      Original epuipment manufacturer

  • 44. 
    Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
    • A. 

      Telling the truth

    • B. 

      Respect for others

    • C. 

      The duty to do no harm

    • D. 

      Being faithful to do good

  • 45. 
    Which of the following defines fidelity?
    • A. 

      Fairness

    • B. 

      Telling the truth

    • C. 

      The duty to do no harm

    • D. 

      Acting in a responsible manner

  • 46. 
    What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?
    • A. 

      UMD

    • B. 

      STS

    • C. 

      MTF

    • D. 

      UPMR

  • 47. 
    What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
    • A. 

      Protect the patient

    • B. 

      Protect other patients

    • C. 

      Protect the patient and health care workers

    • D. 

      Protect other patients and health care workers

  • 48. 
    Wach medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Administrative

    • B. 

      Chaperone

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Appointing

  • 49. 
    Diring which stage of the the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?
    • A. 

      Depression

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Denial

    • D. 

      Anger

  • 50. 
    Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?
    • A. 

      DD form 2500

    • B. 

      DD form 2005

    • C. 

      DD form 93-975

    • D. 

      DD form 93-552a

  • 51. 
    Why is the DD form 2005, privacy act statement-health care records used when providing medical care?
    • A. 

      Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document

    • B. 

      A required document that the patient must sign recieving treatment

    • C. 

      Prevents a patient from filing a malpractice suit against the government

    • D. 

      Is a military substitute for a patient consent form

  • 52. 
    Which category of personnel does the health insurance protability and accountability act affect?
    • A. 

      Patients handling their information

    • B. 

      Anyone handling patient information

    • C. 

      Medical staff handling patient in formation

    • D. 

      Administrative staff handling patient information

  • 53. 
    For general guidance regarding the health insurance portability and accountability act, use
    • A. 

      DOD regulation 6025.18-R

    • B. 

      AFJI 44-17

    • C. 

      AFI 44-210

    • D. 

      AFI 33-332

  • 54. 
    Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?
    • A. 

      Preinteractive

    • B. 

      Introductory

    • C. 

      Working

    • D. 

      Termination

  • 55. 
    Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective comminication?
    • A. 

      Smiling

    • B. 

      Laughing

    • C. 

      Talking too much

    • D. 

      Identifying commonalities

  • 56. 
    Who is considered the patient advocate?
    • A. 

      Clinic representative only

    • B. 

      Officer-in-charge only

    • C. 

      Facility representative only

    • D. 

      Every staff member

  • 57. 
    Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base refurral services?
    • A. 

      Family practice clinic

    • B. 

      Internal medicine clinic

    • C. 

      The MTF commander

    • D. 

      The patient advocate

  • 58. 
    What is the purpose of the patient advocacy program?
    • A. 

      Reduce the number of lawsuits

    • B. 

      Provide an unbiased third party

    • C. 

      To determine the correct treatment plan

    • D. 

      To approve funding for off-base treatment

  • 59. 
    What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?
    • A. 

      Collect patient demographic information

    • B. 

      Determine the health of the local population

    • C. 

      Aid manpower in the determining allocation requests

    • D. 

      Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients

  • 60. 
    Should technicians give medical advice over the phone?
    • A. 

      No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment

    • B. 

      Yes; the problem may be somple and the patient could treat themselves

    • C. 

      No; only doctors can legally give medical advice over the telephone

    • D. 

      Yes; many medical problems do not require a doctors examination

  • 61. 
    How should you handle a non-emergant telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold? 
    • A. 

      Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity

    • B. 

      Inform the caller the doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later

    • C. 

      Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours

    • D. 

      Knock on the door and inform the physician he or she has a telephone call

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?
    • A. 

      Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness

    • B. 

      Remain honest an din control to decrease the patient's anxiety

    • C. 

      Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider

    • D. 

      Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patients fear

  • 63. 
    Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?
    • A. 

      4N0

    • B. 

      Nurse

    • C. 

      Provider

    • D. 

      4A0

  • 64. 
    What four components make up the PCM team?
    • A. 

      Provider, Nurse, Medical Technician, and Mental Health Technician

    • B. 

      Provider, Nurse, Medical Technician, Health Services Management Technician

    • C. 

      Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician, and mental health technician

    • D. 

      Nurse, medical technician, dental technician, mental health technician

  • 65. 
    When a PCM team is successful in acheiving the team goal, what must each member do?
    • A. 

      No team member will work extra hours

    • B. 

      Be able to do the job of every other team member

    • C. 

      Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice

    • D. 

      Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested

  • 66. 
    It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure:
    • A. 

      Each team member enjoys going to work each day

    • B. 

      Each member can take leave on the requested days

    • C. 

      The best care is provided to our customers

    • D. 

      The team learns new medical technology

  • 67. 
    Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?
    • A. 

      Being proactive

    • B. 

      Managing a panel

    • C. 

      Communicating

    • D. 

      Being punctual

  • 68. 
    Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the defense enrollment eligibility reporting system?
    • A. 

      MTF

    • B. 

      PCM

    • C. 

      MPF

    • D. 

      MHS

  • 69. 
    At what age are children required to have their own ID card?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      11

  • 70. 
    When a patient reqeusts care but has questionable eligibility you should:
    • A. 

      Make them an appointment and worry about the details later

    • B. 

      Tell the patient that you will not see them until they can prove eligibility

    • C. 

      Tell the patient to have a seat and have them seen on a space available basis

    • D. 

      Have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assesment

  • 71. 
    If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care you should:
    • A. 

      Provide the patient care and then determine eligibility

    • B. 

      Determine eligibility first and provide treatment only if they are eligible

    • C. 

      Inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay

    • D. 

      Have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them at the end of scheduled patients

  • 72. 
    Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 73. 
    When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?
    • A. 

      AHLTA

    • B. 

      DEERS

    • C. 

      CHCS

    • D. 

      MHS

  • 74. 
    Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least:
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 75. 
    If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?
    • A. 

      Appointment scheduling

    • B. 

      Results reporting

    • C. 

      Entry of lab requests

    • D. 

      Outpatient coding data

  • 76. 
    If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support force health protection, population health, and MHS optimization?
    • A. 

      CHCS

    • B. 

      AHLTA

    • C. 

      DEERS

    • D. 

      DMLS

  • 77. 
    When patient care is not documented, what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?
    • A. 

      No care or treatment was accomplished

    • B. 

      There is no follow up care required

    • C. 

      There were no complications

    • D. 

      The outcome was positive

  • 78. 
    Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibilty for follow up care?
    • A. 

      Provider

    • B. 

      Nurse

    • C. 

      Patient

    • D. 

      Aerospace Medical Service Technician

  • 79. 
    The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 80. 
    What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?
    • A. 

      Not elsewhere classified

    • B. 

      Next event cancelled

    • C. 

      Not elsewhere coded

    • D. 

      New event code