CDC 4N051: Trivia Quiz On Aerospace Medical Technician Test
If you are taking up the CDC 4N051: course on Aerospace Medical Technician you are in luck as the quiz below is designed to see just how skilled you are before the main exam that will end up with you being certified. Would you be able to score over half the marks? Take up this test and get to find out!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
How is doctrine applied?
- A.
Authoritative but not directive
- B.
Not authoritative or directive
- C.
Directive but not authoritative
- D.
Directive and authoritative
Correct Answer
A. Authoritative but not directiveExplanation
Doctrine is applied in a way that is authoritative but not directive. This means that while it carries weight and is considered to be a reliable and trusted source, it does not provide specific instructions or commands on how to act or behave. Instead, it serves as a guiding principle or framework that individuals can interpret and apply in their own unique situations, allowing for some flexibility and adaptability.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish thier mission?
- A.
AFDD 1, basic doctrine
- B.
AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development
- C.
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
- D.
AFDD 2-8, Command and Control
Correct Answer
C. AFDD 2-4.2, Health ServicesExplanation
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services is the correct answer because it is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission. This document specifically focuses on health services, providing guidance on how to organize, train, equip, and employ medical forces to support the Air Force mission. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the principles and concepts that guide their operations. By following the guidance in AFDD 2-4.2, commanders can effectively plan and execute medical operations to ensure the health and well-being of Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Why is Medical Doctrine neccessary?
- A.
Recommends step by step actions
- B.
Directs the actions of commanders
- C.
Guides commander in using assets
- D.
Changes faster than Air Force guidance
Correct Answer
C. Guides commander in using assetsExplanation
Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. It provides a framework and set of principles for commanders to make informed decisions regarding the allocation and utilization of medical resources. By following the guidance provided in medical doctrine, commanders can effectively and efficiently utilize the available assets to support medical operations and provide the best possible care to their personnel.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What type of doctrine guides organizations and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
- A.
Basic
- B.
Tactical
- C.
Operational
- D.
Foundational
Correct Answer
C. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine refers to the type of doctrine that guides organizations and the employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. Operational doctrine focuses on the overall planning and execution of military operations, including the coordination of different units and resources. It provides guidance on how to achieve strategic objectives through the tactical employment of forces. Operational doctrine is essential for ensuring effective and efficient military operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by whisch of the following examples?
- A.
The environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulations such as fuel economy
- B.
An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind
- C.
An automobile designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.
- D.
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
The best example to explain Tactical Doctrine is a car buyer because they have the ability to choose specific qualities that align with their individual needs, such as speed or safety factors. Tactical Doctrine refers to the strategic decision-making process that involves selecting the best course of action based on specific circumstances and objectives. In this case, the car buyer's decision to prioritize certain qualities over others demonstrates their application of tactical thinking in selecting a vehicle that best suits their needs.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following in not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?
- A.
Competency
- B.
Use of force
- C.
Force health protection
- D.
Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service
Correct Answer
B. Use of forceExplanation
The question asks for the answer that is not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with. The options "competency," "Force health protection," and "Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service" all seem to be related to the Air Force and its operations. However, "Use of force" does not directly relate to doctrine statements but rather refers to the application of force in certain situations. Therefore, "Use of force" is the correct answer as it does not fit the criteria of being a foundational doctrine statement.Rate this question:
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- 7.
While commanders's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, Health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
- A.
Physicians
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Every airman
- D.
Heath and wellness staff
Correct Answer
C. Every airmanExplanation
Every airman is responsible for maintaining their own health and fitness. While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale and the overall health and wellness of their personnel, it is ultimately up to each individual airman to take care of their own physical health and fitness. This includes following proper exercise routines, eating a balanced diet, and taking necessary precautions to maintain their overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined what specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine is accomplished?
- A.
Competency
- B.
Prevention
- C.
Force health Pretection
- D.
Roles and Responsibilities
Correct Answer
A. CompetencyExplanation
When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service foundation Doctrine that is accomplished is Competency. Competency refers to the ability to effectively apply knowledge, skills, and abilities in a specific field or profession. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency would involve the proficiency and expertise of medical professionals in providing healthcare services, utilizing advanced technologies, and adhering to established protocols and standards.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fourth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure in an Air Force Specialty Code that identifies career grouping is the first figure.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many parts make up the Career field Education and Training plan?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The Career field Education and Training plan is made up of two parts.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In what part of the career field Education and Training Plan will you locate the specialty training standard?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
In the career field Education and Training Plan, the specialty training standard can be found in the second part.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Where would yop find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
- A.
Individual training record
- B.
Master training plan
- C.
AF form 1098
- D.
AF form 797
Correct Answer
B. Master training planExplanation
The master training plan is where you would find the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area. It provides a comprehensive overview of the training requirements and objectives, ensuring that all members receive the necessary training to fulfill their roles effectively. The individual training record, AF form 1098, and AF form 797 may contain specific information about an individual's training history or documentation, but they do not provide the overall plan for training in a specific area.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is identified by a special experience identifier?
- A.
Aerospace medical technician
- B.
Aeromedical evacuation technician
- C.
Squadron medical element technician
- D.
Independant duty medical technician
Correct Answer
B. Aeromedical evacuation technicianExplanation
Aeromedical evacuation technician is identified by a special experience identifier.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who is generallly the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?
- A.
Nurse
- B.
Administrative technician
- C.
Aerospace medical service craftsman
- D.
Aerospace medical service journeyman
Correct Answer
D. Aerospace medical service journeyman -
- 15.
- when a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the
- A.
Novice to the apprentice
- B.
Apprentice to journeyman
- C.
Journeyman to craftsman
- D.
Craftsman to technician
Correct Answer
B. Apprentice to journeymanExplanation
The trainee is in the process of transitioning from being an apprentice to becoming a journeyman. This means that they have already acquired basic skills and knowledge in patient care and customer service, and are now starting to develop leadership and management skills. The journeyman stage is characterized by a higher level of expertise and independence, where the trainee is able to perform tasks and make decisions with less supervision.Rate this question:
- 16.
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service
- A.
Prevent lawsuits
- B.
Develop job satisfaction
- C.
Ensure promotion below-the-zone
- D.
Positively influence the patient's visit
Correct Answer
D. Positively influence the patient's visitExplanation
Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it helps to positively influence the patient's visit. By providing exceptional customer service, the 4N0XX can enhance the overall experience for the patient, making them feel valued and cared for. This can lead to increased patient satisfaction, improved patient outcomes, and a positive reputation for the healthcare facility. Additionally, satisfied patients are more likely to recommend the facility to others, resulting in increased referrals and potential business growth.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
- A.
Cheif nurse
- B.
Command cheif
- C.
Career field manager
- D.
Medical group commamder
Correct Answer
C. Career field managerExplanation
A career field manager may request a 4N0X1 job inventory. This implies that the 4N0X1 job inventory is related to a specific career field, and the career field manager has the authority to request it. The other options, such as the chief nurse, command chief, and medical group commander, may have their own specific roles and responsibilities within the organization, but they do not have the authority to request a 4N0X1 job inventory.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
- A.
Six months
- B.
Year
- C.
Three years
- D.
Five years
Correct Answer
C. Three yearsExplanation
The 4N0XX job inventory is typically completed every three years. This means that a comprehensive assessment and review of the job inventory is conducted once every three years to ensure accuracy and update any necessary information. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather relevant data and make any necessary adjustments to the inventory.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Wo is responsible for comleting the graduate assessment survey?
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
3-level
- D.
5-level
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the graduate assessment survey.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the purpose of documenting training?
- A.
Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness
- B.
Document the number of personnel and the hours they work
- C.
Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board
- D.
Establish patient care guidelines for civilian practice
Correct Answer
A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weaknessExplanation
The purpose of documenting training is to keep a record of an individual's capability, scope of practice, and strengths and weaknesses. This documentation allows for tracking and assessing the progress and development of personnel, as well as identifying areas that may require improvement or further training. It also serves as a reference for supervisors and managers when making decisions about assigning tasks and responsibilities to individuals. Overall, documenting training helps to ensure that personnel are appropriately trained and competent in their roles.Rate this question:
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- 21.
On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the specialty training standard?
- A.
AF form 803, report of task evaluations
- B.
AF form 1098, special task certification and recurring training
- C.
AF form 797, job qualification standard continuation/command JQS
- D.
AF form 2096, classification/on-the-job training action, military personnel data system (MILPDS)product
Correct Answer
C. AF form 797, job qualification standard continuation/command JQSExplanation
The correct answer is AF form 797, job qualification standard continuation/command JQS. This form would be used to document specific duty position training that is not listed on the specialty training standard. The job qualification standard continuation/command JQS is a document that outlines the required qualifications and training for a specific job position. It is used to ensure that individuals are properly trained and qualified for their assigned duties. By using this form, any additional training that is not covered in the specialty training standard can be documented and tracked.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When may the AETC form 156, student training report be removed from the individual training record?
- A.
When the airman arrives at the first duty station
- B.
When the rank of master sergeant has been attained
- C.
When the airman is upgraded form the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level
- D.
When the airman is upgraded from 5-skill level to the 7-skill level
Correct Answer
C. When the airman is upgraded form the 3-skill level to the 5-skill levelExplanation
The AETC form 156, student training report may be removed from the individual training record when the airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that the form is no longer necessary once the airman has progressed to a higher skill level, indicating that they have completed the required training and are now qualified at a higher level of proficiency.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Where would the NREMT certificate and the CPR card be filed in the individual trraining record?
- A.
Part 2, section A
- B.
Part 3, section C
- C.
Part 5, section A
- D.
Part 6, section B
Correct Answer
D. Part 6, section BExplanation
The NREMT certificate and the CPR card would be filed in part 6, section B of the individual training record.Rate this question:
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- 24.
- what is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
- A.
Ensure there are refreshments available
- B.
Ask how many people will be attending
- C.
Evaluate learning through tests or performance
- D.
Confirm whether or not the commander will be attending
Correct Answer
C. Evaluate learning through tests or performanceExplanation
When conducting in-service training, it is important to evaluate learning through tests or performance. This allows trainers to assess the effectiveness of the training and determine if the participants have gained the necessary knowledge and skills. By evaluating learning, trainers can identify any gaps or areas that need improvement, and make necessary adjustments for future training sessions. This ensures that the training is effective and contributes to the overall development of the participants.Rate this question:
- 25.
What system is the primary tool uused to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
- A.
UMD
- B.
UMPR
- C.
CFETP
- D.
MEPRS
Correct Answer
D. MEPRSExplanation
MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. This system allows healthcare organizations to track and analyze their expenses, measure performance, and allocate resources effectively. By using MEPRS, medical personnel can make informed decisions regarding manpower allocation, budget planning, and resource management to ensure efficient and effective healthcare delivery.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How are activities grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system?
- A.
Hours and section
- B.
Type and section
- C.
Hours and AFSC
- D.
Type and AFSC
Correct Answer
B. Type and sectionExplanation
Activities are grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system based on their type and section. This means that similar activities are categorized together based on their nature or purpose, and also based on the specific section or department they belong to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, making it easier to track and assess medical expenses and performance within different sections of the system.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
- A.
UMD
- B.
ACR
- C.
UPMR
- D.
MEPRS
Correct Answer
C. UPMRExplanation
The tool used to list the personnel assigned to a work center is UPMR.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and other characteristics needed to clearly dine the position?
- A.
Manpower standard
- B.
Manning assistance
- C.
Manpower requirement
- D.
Manpower authorization
Correct Answer
D. Manpower authorizationExplanation
Manpower authorization refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade, and other characteristics. It specifies the number of personnel needed for a particular position and ensures that the necessary resources are allocated to fulfill the requirements of the position. This authorization helps in effectively managing and organizing the workforce by providing a clear outline of the position's responsibilities and qualifications.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who approves or disapproves an authorization change request?
- A.
USAFMS
- B.
MAJCOM
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Medical group commander
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOMExplanation
The MAJCOM (Major Command) approves or disapproves an authorization change request. MAJCOM is a level of command in the United States Air Force that is responsible for specific operations or functions. They have the authority to review and make decisions on authorization change requests, which could involve changes in personnel, equipment, or resources within their command.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the air force?
- A.
Each individual
- B.
Unit supervisor
- C.
Group commander
- D.
Account custodian
Correct Answer
A. Each individualExplanation
Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the air force. This means that every person within the air force has a personal responsibility to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This includes being accountable for the proper use and maintenance of the property, as well as taking necessary measures to safeguard it from loss, damage, or theft. By assigning this responsibility to each individual, it creates a culture of accountability and encourages everyone to actively participate in the care of public property.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and descipline of supply use?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Commanders
- C.
Property custodians
- D.
Medical equipment managment office personnel
Correct Answer
B. CommandersExplanation
The commanders are the designated individuals responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and disciplining supply use. They have the authority and oversight to manage these aspects and ensure that everything is properly stored, accounted for, and used according to regulations and protocols.Rate this question:
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- 32.
By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
- A.
Equipment damage and injury to patient
- B.
Unjury to a patient and buying new technology
- C.
Reporting damage and buying new technology
- D.
Reporting damage to the commander a logistics
Correct Answer
A. Equipment damage and injury to patientExplanation
By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to the patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, it ensures that they are aware of safety protocols, minimizing the chances of injury to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What percentaage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operater error?
- A.
20%
- B.
50%
- C.
70%
- D.
90%
Correct Answer
C. 70%Explanation
70% of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This means that the majority of malfunctions in medical equipment occur due to mistakes made by the operators. This could be due to lack of training, negligence, or human error. It is crucial for operators to be properly trained and follow protocols to minimize the occurrence of such errors and ensure the safe and effective use of medical equipment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
- A.
Backorder report
- B.
Activity issue/turn-in summary
- C.
Custodian action/custodian report listing
- D.
Medical equipment review and authorization activity
Correct Answer
B. Activity issue/turn-in summaryExplanation
The correct answer is "activity issue/turn-in summary." This report generated through DMLSS lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section. It provides a summary of the activity related to issuing and turning in items, allowing for better tracking and management of supplies and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What actions should the property custodian take if a back order item is no longer needed?
- A.
None. once an item is ordered you must recieve it when it arrives
- B.
Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
- C.
Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it
- D.
None, it is always better to have extra supplies on hand
Correct Answer
B. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMOExplanation
The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a back order item is no longer needed. This implies that once the item is ordered, it is not necessary to receive it when it arrives. Instead, the custodian should take proactive steps to cancel the order through MEMO, indicating that the item is no longer needed. This ensures that unnecessary expenses are avoided and the inventory is managed efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
- A.
Cancel the order
- B.
Complain to the commander
- C.
Wait another 15 days and then follow up
- D.
Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
Correct Answer
D. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the orderExplanation
If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This implies that the individual should reach out to the relevant personnel who handle orders and inquire about the status of the backordered item. This step is recommended as it allows for a proactive approach to resolving the issue and obtaining updated information on the order's progress.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When does a new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?
- A.
Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list
- B.
When they have completed phase II supply training
- C.
Upon being assigned as property custodian
- D.
The first day of the new fiscal year
Correct Answer
A. Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator listExplanation
A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that the custodian has acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed on the document. It is a formal process that marks the transfer of accountability from the previous custodian to the new custodian.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must
- A.
Recieving a briefing on responsibilities
- B.
Conduct a physical inventory of equipment
- C.
document his/her experience for commander review
- D.
Review the files to establish when equipment was procured
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a physical inventory of equipmentExplanation
Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is necessary to ensure that all equipment is present and accounted for, and to identify any discrepancies or missing items. By conducting a physical inventory, the new custodian can establish a baseline of the equipment's condition and quantity, which will be useful for future audits and tracking purposes. This step is crucial in maintaining accountability and preventing any potential loss or misuse of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When may the AF form 601 be destroyed/
- A.
When the new fiscal year begins
- B.
When MEMO personnel gove permission
- C.
When a new property custodian takes over
- D.
When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL
Correct Answer
D. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRLExplanation
The AF form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This is because the CRL (Controlled Inventory Item Listing) is a document that tracks all the items that are authorized for use or issued by a unit. When an item is added to or taken off the CRL, it means that the status or availability of the item has changed, and therefore, the corresponding AF form 601 can be destroyed as it is no longer needed for tracking purposes.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How oftern are equipment inspections usually conducted?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the equipment. Daily inspections allow for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular daily inspections also help in maintaining the equipment's performance and extending its lifespan.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?
- A.
Inspect, store, and remove
- B.
Inspect, remove, and report
- C.
Report, remove, and repair
- D.
Remove, store, and repair
Correct Answer
B. Inspect, remove, and reportExplanation
When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the first action is to inspect the equipment thoroughly to identify any issues or discrepancies. The second action is to remove the equipment from service or use, ensuring that it is not further used until the discrepancy is resolved. Lastly, the third action is to report the discrepancy to the appropriate personnel or department, providing all necessary details and information. This allows for proper documentation and prompt resolution of the issue.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
- A.
AF form 1297, temporary issue reciept only
- B.
Af form 1297, temporary issue reciept or custodian actions?
- C.
Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report
- D.
Activity issue/turn-in summary only
Correct Answer
B. Af form 1297, temporary issue reciept or custodian actions?Explanation
The primary source for recording equipment repair is the AF Form 1297, temporary issue receipt or custodian actions. This form is used to document any temporary issues or actions taken by the custodian regarding the repair of equipment. It provides a record of the repair process, including any temporary replacements or actions taken by the custodian to address the repair needs. This form is essential for tracking and documenting the repair history of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?
- A.
District sales and maintenance representative
- B.
Base supply and equipment maintenance
- C.
Biomedical equipment repair technician
- D.
Original epuipment manufacturer
Correct Answer
C. Biomedical equipment repair technicianExplanation
To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment and are knowledgeable about the specific procedures and policies related to equipment problems. They are likely to have the most up-to-date information and expertise in addressing any concerns or issues with the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
- A.
Telling the truth
- B.
Respect for others
- C.
The duty to do no harm
- D.
Being faithful to do good
Correct Answer
C. The duty to do no harmExplanation
Nonmaleficence is a principle in ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm or injury to others. It is a duty to prioritize the well-being and safety of individuals, ensuring that no harm is inflicted upon them. This principle is particularly important in medical and healthcare professions, where practitioners are expected to prioritize the best interests of their patients and avoid any actions that may cause harm or worsen their condition.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following defines fidelity?
- A.
Fairness
- B.
Telling the truth
- C.
The duty to do no harm
- D.
Acting in a responsible manner
Correct Answer
D. Acting in a responsible mannerExplanation
Fidelity refers to acting in a responsible manner. This means being reliable, trustworthy, and accountable for one's actions. It involves fulfilling commitments, following through on promises, and maintaining loyalty and faithfulness in relationships or duties. Fidelity requires individuals to be conscientious and dependable, ensuring that they act responsibly and ethically in all aspects of their lives.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?
- A.
UMD
- B.
STS
- C.
MTF
- D.
UPMR
Correct Answer
B. STSExplanation
The correct answer is STS. STS stands for Specialty Training Standard, which is a document that outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that individuals in the 4N0X1 career field are authorized to perform. It defines the scope of practice and helps ensure that individuals are properly trained and qualified to carry out their duties in healthcare settings. UMD, MTF, and UPMR are not related to the scope of practice in the 4N0X1 career field.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
- A.
Protect the patient
- B.
Protect other patients
- C.
Protect the patient and health care workers
- D.
Protect other patients and health care workers
Correct Answer
D. Protect other patients and health care workersExplanation
Patient responsibilities are designed to protect other patients and healthcare workers. By following their responsibilities, patients can help prevent the spread of infections and diseases within a healthcare setting. This includes practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly, covering their mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and following any specific instructions given by healthcare providers. By doing so, patients can minimize the risk of transmitting illnesses to others, including fellow patients and healthcare workers who may be more vulnerable to infections.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Wach medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
- A.
Administrative
- B.
Chaperone
- C.
Supervisory
- D.
Appointing
Correct Answer
B. ChaperoneExplanation
A medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. This means that the facility needs to have guidelines in place for situations where a third party, such as a nurse or another healthcare professional, needs to be present during the examination or treatment to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient. The chaperone's role is to provide support and assistance during these procedures, acting as a witness and ensuring appropriate conduct.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Diring which stage of the the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?
- A.
Depression
- B.
Acceptance
- C.
Denial
- D.
Anger
Correct Answer
A. DepressionExplanation
During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because depression is characterized by feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and isolation. By allowing the patient to express their thoughts and emotions, they can release their pent-up feelings and find some relief. Moreover, talking can help them process their grief, gain a sense of control, and begin to heal emotionally. It also provides an opportunity for healthcare professionals to offer support and reassurance, which can be crucial during this stage.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?
- A.
DD form 2500
- B.
DD form 2005
- C.
DD form 93-975
- D.
DD form 93-552a
Correct Answer
B. DD form 2005Explanation
DD form 2005 is used to inform the patient about the purpose and uses of the information collected in their medical record. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that the patient is aware of how their information will be used and protected. It helps to establish transparency and trust between the healthcare provider and the patient, ensuring that the patient is well-informed and involved in their own healthcare decisions.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 20, 2012Quiz Created by
Jgroat7
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