4N051 Set A Vol 3

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 2,269
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Technician Quizzes & Trivia

Upgrade training for Aerospace medical technician; from 3 level to 5 level


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following mishap investigation responsibilities qould reside with the flightsurgeon and not the MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Assess blame

    • B.

      Calculate total dollars lost

    • C.

      Identify and prevent future mishaps

    • D.

      Appropriately administer nonjudicial punishment

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify and prevent future mishaps
    Explanation
    The flight surgeon is responsible for identifying and preventing future mishaps because they have the medical expertise to analyze the physical and mental conditions of the personnel involved in the mishap. They can assess if there were any underlying health issues or human factors that contributed to the mishap and provide recommendations to prevent similar incidents in the future. This responsibility does not fall under the jurisdiction of the MAJCOM, which is primarily responsible for command and control functions.

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  • 2. 

    Locally, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?

    • A.

      Each individual

    • B.

      Unit commanders

    • C.

      Base safety officer

    • D.

      Wing safety officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Each individual
    Explanation
    Each individual is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps locally. This means that every person, regardless of their position or role, has a personal duty to follow and promote safety guidelines and protocols. It emphasizes the importance of individual accountability and awareness in maintaining a safe environment. While unit commanders, base safety officers, and wing safety officers may provide guidance and support, the ultimate responsibility lies with each individual to actively contribute to the prevention of mishaps.

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  • 3. 

    Specifically, who makes the final dermination on return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics?

    • A.

      Any flight surgeon

    • B.

      Health care provider

    • C.

      Flight management office

    • D.

      Cheif, aeromedical services

    Correct Answer
    A. Any flight surgeon
    Explanation
    Any flight surgeon can make the final determination on the return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics. Flight surgeons are medical professionals who specialize in aviation medicine and are responsible for evaluating the medical fitness of aircrew. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the health condition of the aircrew and determine whether they are fit to resume flying duties. This decision is crucial to ensure the safety of the aircrew and the passengers on board.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missile system?

    • A.

      The exhaust fumes are highly toxic

    • B.

      It is not a stable fuel source until ignited

    • C.

      Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished.

    • D.

      It is responsible for maneuvering the weapon system while in space

    Correct Answer
    C. Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished.
    Explanation
    The unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missile systems is that once ignited, it cannot be extinguished. Unlike other fuel sources, solid propellant continues to burn until it is completely consumed, making it a reliable and efficient choice for missile propulsion. This characteristic allows the missile to maintain its trajectory and reach its target without the need for continuous ignition or fuel supply.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following concerns would be considered primary physical hazards for personnell assigned to Missile Alert Facilities?

    • A.

      Sanitation, food, water and facility safety

    • B.

      Physical fitness, long hours and facility safety

    • C.

      Poisonous bites and sting, long hours and sanitation

    • D.

      Food and water safety, physical fitness and long hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Sanitation, food, water and facility safety
    Explanation
    The primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missile Alert Facilities would include sanitation, food, water, and facility safety. These concerns are important for ensuring the well-being and health of the personnel working in these facilities. Poor sanitation can lead to the spread of diseases, while unsafe food and water can cause illness. Additionally, facility safety is crucial to prevent accidents and injuries. Overall, addressing these concerns is essential for maintaining a safe and healthy working environment for personnel in Missile Alert Facilities.

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  • 6. 

    What are the primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility?

    • A.

      Boredom and personnel issues

    • B.

      Toxic chemicals and computer failure

    • C.

      Confined spaces and nuclear weapons

    • D.

      Motor vehicle accidents and the environment

    Correct Answer
    D. Motor vehicle accidents and the environment
    Explanation
    Personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility are primarily at risk of motor vehicle accidents and environmental hazards. These facilities are often located in remote areas, requiring personnel to commute long distances on sometimes hazardous roads. This increases the likelihood of motor vehicle accidents. Additionally, these facilities deal with nuclear weapons, which pose a significant risk to the environment if mishandled or improperly maintained. Therefore, personnel need to be cautious about both road safety and environmental protection while working at these facilities.

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  • 7. 

    Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when:

    • A.

      The pilot declares it

    • B.

      They occur off the ground

    • C.

      They occur on the taxiway

    • D.

      There is an intent for flight

    Correct Answer
    D. There is an intent for flight
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "There is an intent for flight." This means that record mishaps should be classified as aircraft flight mishaps when there is a clear intention to take off and fly. This could include situations where the pilot has declared their intention to fly, or when the mishap occurs off the ground or on the taxiway, indicating that the aircraft was preparing for or in the process of taking off.

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  • 8. 

    Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of a million dollars or more, you must report it as what class of mishap?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of a million dollars or more, it must be reported as a Class A mishap.

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  • 9. 

    If an unmanned aerial vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is reportable as an unmaned aerial vehicle mishap?

    • A.

      Determine the dollar amount of damage

    • B.

      Determine if the crash was due to pilot error

    • C.

      Determine if another DOD aircraft was involved

    • D.

      Determine if the crash was due to weather conditions

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine if another DOD aircraft was involved
    Explanation
    The procedure for determining whether an unmanned aerial vehicle crash is reportable as a mishap involves checking if another DOD aircraft was involved. This suggests that the reportability of the crash is dependent on whether there was any involvement or interaction with another DOD aircraft during the incident.

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  • 10. 

    When responding to a mishap, you should approach the scene from what direction?

    • A.

      Upwind

    • B.

      Downwind

    • C.

      Most direct

    • D.

      Most accessible

    Correct Answer
    A. Upwind
    Explanation
    When responding to a mishap, it is recommended to approach the scene from the upwind direction. This is because approaching from upwind helps to prevent exposure to any hazardous gases, fumes, or smoke that may be present at the scene. By approaching from upwind, emergency responders can minimize the risk of inhaling harmful substances and ensure their own safety while carrying out their duties effectively.

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  • 11. 

    What action should you take prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap?

    • A.

      Photograph the site

    • B.

      Draw blood on all deceased

    • C.

      Complete the 72 hour report from surviving members

    • D.

      Obtain permission from the medical group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Photograph the site
    Explanation
    Prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap, it is important to photograph the site. This is crucial for documentation purposes and to preserve the integrity of the scene. The photographs can provide valuable evidence and information that can aid in the investigation and analysis of the mishap. Additionally, they can be used for reference and to support any subsequent reports or legal proceedings. Therefore, it is necessary to take photographs before removing the human remains from the scene.

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  • 12. 

    What solution should you use when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis?

    • A.

      Tapwater

    • B.

      Betadine

    • C.

      Normal saline

    • D.

      Isopropyl Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    B. Betadine
    Explanation
    Betadine is the recommended solution for preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis. Betadine is an antiseptic solution that contains iodine, which helps to kill and prevent the growth of microorganisms on the samples. This is important in order to maintain the integrity of the samples and prevent contamination during analysis. Using betadine ensures that the samples are properly disinfected and ready for examination.

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  • 13. 

    What steps need to be completed before completing an aircraft mishap report?

    • A.

      Compile all necessary data

    • B.

      Obtain the cost of the aircraft

    • C.

      Compile character statements for the pilot

    • D.

      Obtain the results of the investigation board

    Correct Answer
    A. Compile all necessary data
    Explanation
    Before completing an aircraft mishap report, it is important to compile all necessary data. This includes gathering all relevant information and evidence related to the incident, such as flight data, maintenance records, witness statements, and any other documentation that can provide insights into the causes and circumstances of the mishap. This step ensures that the report is comprehensive and based on accurate and complete information, allowing for a thorough analysis and understanding of the incident.

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  • 14. 

    How should you report an event that is categorized as a physiological episode?

    • A.

      Class A mishap

    • B.

      Class B mishap

    • C.

      Class D mishap

    • D.

      Class E mishap

    Correct Answer
    D. Class E mishap
    Explanation
    A physiological episode refers to an event or incident that involves a medical condition or reaction in an individual. Class E mishap is the appropriate category to report such an event because it specifically includes mishaps related to illness, disease, or other physiological conditions. This classification helps to ensure that the incident is properly documented and addressed, allowing for appropriate measures to be taken to prevent similar occurrences in the future.

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  • 15. 

    Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in:

    • A.

      AFI 91-202, The USAF Mishap Prevention Program

    • B.

      AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports

    • C.

      AFI 91-205, Nonnuclear Munitions Safety Board

    • D.

      AFPAM 91-211, USAF Guide to Aviation Safety Investigation

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports
    Explanation
    Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports. This document provides guidelines and procedures for conducting safety investigations and reporting incidents in the USAF. It outlines the specific format and information required for reporting physiological events, which are events related to the human body's response to the environment or equipment. By following the format provided in AFI 91-204, accurate and consistent reporting of Class E physiological events can be ensured.

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  • 16. 

    The overall purpose of flightline visits is to:

    • A.

      Promote flying safety

    • B.

      Establish a good rapport with all air crew members

    • C.

      Establish a close working relationship with every unit

    • D.

      Ensure all working environments are properly lighted

    Correct Answer
    A. Promote flying safety
    Explanation
    Flightline visits are conducted to promote flying safety. This involves inspecting and ensuring that all necessary safety protocols and procedures are being followed on the flightline. By conducting these visits, the aim is to identify any potential hazards or risks that could compromise the safety of the flight operations. Additionally, flightline visits also provide an opportunity to address any safety concerns or issues that may have been raised by the air crew members or units. The ultimate goal is to create a safe and secure working environment for all personnel involved in flight operations.

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  • 17. 

    What is your specific responsibility to the Life Support Section?

    • A.

      Inspect for food and water sanitation

    • B.

      Schedule the flight surgeons flying time

    • C.

      Make weekly shop visits to assess the working environment

    • D.

      Provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs
    Explanation
    The specific responsibility of the individual to the Life Support Section is to provide advice to unit personnel regarding protective equipment programs. This means that they are responsible for offering guidance and recommendations to the members of the unit on matters related to protective equipment, such as its proper usage, maintenance, and any necessary updates or improvements. This role ensures that the unit personnel are well-informed and equipped with the necessary knowledge to effectively use protective equipment in their work.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following are all rated officers?

    • A.

      Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons

    • B.

      Wapons controllers, pilots, and navigators

    • C.

      Pilots, missile launch officers, and astronauts

    • D.

      Air traffic controllers, flight surgeons, and pilots

    Correct Answer
    A. Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons. These three professions are all rated officers in the military. Navigators are responsible for planning and directing the course of aircraft, pilots are responsible for operating and flying the aircraft, and flight surgeons are responsible for providing medical care to the flight crew.

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  • 19. 

    What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it is completed?

    • A.

      Place it in a permanent office file

    • B.

      File it in the individual's health record

    • C.

      Send it to a local flight management office

    • D.

      Send it to the individual's squadron operations section

    Correct Answer
    B. File it in the individual's health record
    Explanation
    After completing the AF Form 1042, it should be filed in the individual's health record. This is important because the form contains relevant information related to the individual's health, and therefore it should be stored in their health record for future reference and easy accessibility.

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  • 20. 

    How many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file?

    • A.

      2 years

    • B.

      3 Years

    • C.

      4 Years

    • D.

      5 Years

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 years
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1041 must be kept on file for 2 years. This is likely because after 2 years, the information on the form may become outdated or no longer relevant. Additionally, keeping the form for a shorter period of time helps to ensure that records are not unnecessarily cluttered or taking up space.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible to train air crew in emergency removal of soft contact lenses?

    • A.

      Optometry

    • B.

      Family practice

    • C.

      Flight medicine office

    • D.

      Force health protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Optometry
    Explanation
    Optometry is responsible for training air crew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses. Optometrists are healthcare professionals who specialize in eye care and vision correction. They have the knowledge and expertise to train air crew members on how to safely and effectively remove their soft contact lenses in emergency situations. This is important to ensure the safety and well-being of the air crew and to prevent any potential complications that may arise from wearing contact lenses during emergencies.

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  • 22. 

    What steps are necessary to a safe and productive soft contact lens program?

    • A.

      Identification, documentation and evaluation

    • B.

      Identification, ordering and issuing prescriptions

    • C.

      Evaluation, documentation, and issuing prescriptions

    • D.

      Documentation, training and ordering prescriptions

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification, documentation and evaluation
    Explanation
    The steps necessary to a safe and productive soft contact lens program include identification, documentation, and evaluation. Identification involves identifying patients who are suitable candidates for soft contact lenses. Documentation is important for keeping records of the patient's eye health and contact lens prescription. Evaluation involves assessing the patient's eye health and determining the appropriate type of contact lens. These steps ensure that the program is safe and effective for the patients.

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  • 23. 

    What is the primary device a computer uses to store information?

    • A.

      Zip drive

    • B.

      Hard disk drive

    • C.

      Floppy disk drive

    • D.

      Compact disc read only memory

    Correct Answer
    B. Hard disk drive
    Explanation
    The primary device a computer uses to store information is a hard disk drive. This is because a hard disk drive provides a large amount of storage space and is capable of storing and retrieving data quickly. Unlike other options like a zip drive, floppy disk drive, or compact disc read-only memory, a hard disk drive is a permanent storage device that is typically installed inside the computer.

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  • 24. 

    What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force Information Systems

    • A.

      SATE

    • B.

      LINK

    • C.

      FOUA

    • D.

      AECP

    Correct Answer
    A. SATE
    Explanation
    SATE stands for Security Awareness Training and Education. It is a program that focuses on promoting information protection principles and ensuring consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force Information Systems. SATE aims to educate and train personnel on security practices, policies, and procedures to enhance the overall security posture of the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    What administrative tool contains every record series maintained for an office of record?

    • A.

      UMD

    • B.

      MFR

    • C.

      Files plan

    • D.

      Staff Summary Sheet

    Correct Answer
    C. Files plan
    Explanation
    A files plan is an administrative tool that contains every record series maintained for an office of record. It is a systematic way of organizing and categorizing records based on their content and function. A files plan helps in efficient record-keeping, retrieval, and disposition of records. It ensures that all records are properly managed and preserved according to legal and regulatory requirements.

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  • 26. 

    What is the purpose of the physical examinations processing program?

    • A.

      Track physical exams for all military personnel

    • B.

      Identify military personell who are overdue for dental exams

    • C.

      Track physical exams for flying and special operations personnel

    • D.

      Identify next annual exam for military and non military members

    Correct Answer
    C. Track physical exams for flying and special operations personnel
    Explanation
    The purpose of the physical examinations processing program is to track physical exams specifically for flying and special operations personnel. This program is designed to ensure that these personnel receive their required physical exams on time and to keep track of their medical records. By tracking these exams, the program helps to ensure the health and readiness of these personnel for their specific roles and responsibilities.

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  • 27. 

    Once you arrive at the knowledge exchange web page what should be the next step to begin training on the physical examinations processing program database?

    • A.

      Enter your login and password

    • B.

      Complete the user's guide training

    • C.

      Click on the aerospace medicine tab

    • D.

      Click on the frequently asked questions tab

    Correct Answer
    C. Click on the aerospace medicine tab
    Explanation
    After arriving at the knowledge exchange web page, the next step to begin training on the physical examinations processing program database is to click on the aerospace medicine tab.

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  • 28. 

    What step must you take before you can use the physical examinations processing program database?

    • A.

      Complete 5-level upgrade training

    • B.

      Setup and account through the Air Force portal

    • C.

      Complete the user's guide training

    • D.

      Obtain permission from the force health management office

    Correct Answer
    B. Setup and account through the Air Force portal
    Explanation
    Before using the physical examinations processing program database, the step that must be taken is to set up an account through the Air Force portal. This is necessary in order to access and utilize the database effectively.

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  • 29. 

    When you input medical information on military members into preventative health assessment individual medical readiness program, to what system does it connect?

    • A.

      PEPP

    • B.

      DEERS

    • C.

      AFCHIPS

    • D.

      AIMWTS

    Correct Answer
    C. AFCHIPS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFCHIPS. AFCHIPS stands for Air Force Comprehensive Health Information Portal System. It is a system that connects and stores medical information of military members in the Preventative Health Assessment Individual Medical Readiness Program. This system helps in managing and tracking the medical readiness of Air Force personnel.

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  • 30. 

    What can you determine when you review a military member's individual medical readiness status is yellow?

    • A.

      There is no duty limiting condition

    • B.

      The member is in dental class 3 or 4

    • C.

      Laboratory requirements are missing

    • D.

      Items are otdated or need attention

    Correct Answer
    D. Items are otdated or need attention
    Explanation
    When reviewing a military member's individual medical readiness status and it is yellow, it indicates that items are outdated or need attention. This means that there are certain medical items or requirements that are not up to date or need to be addressed. It does not necessarily mean that there is a duty limiting condition or that the member is in dental class 3 or 4, nor does it indicate missing laboratory requirements. The yellow status specifically refers to outdated or attention-worthy items.

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  • 31. 

    A supervisor has access to what additional tabs in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA)?

    • A.

      Units and personnel

    • B.

      Multiple entry and set up

    • C.

      Family inquire and bar code

    • D.

      Set up and Data Management

    Correct Answer
    D. Set up and Data Management
    Explanation
    A supervisor in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA) has access to the additional tabs of "Set up" and "Data Management". These tabs allow the supervisor to configure and customize the application according to their needs, as well as manage and analyze the immunization data of personnel. The supervisor can use the "Set up" tab to define various settings and parameters, while the "Data Management" tab enables them to view, edit, and organize the immunization records efficiently.

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  • 32. 

    What step should you take if you have a patient that experiences an adverse reaction?

    • A.

      Go to the menu bar to acceSs the VAERS

    • B.

      Make an entry in the Personnel screen

    • C.

      Make an entry in the Units screen

    • D.

      Go to the Vax History site

    Correct Answer
    A. Go to the menu bar to acceSs the VAERS
    Explanation
    If a patient experiences an adverse reaction, the appropriate step to take is to go to the menu bar to access the VAERS. VAERS stands for Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System, which is a national system for monitoring the safety of vaccines. By accessing the VAERS, healthcare professionals can report and track any adverse reactions or side effects experienced by patients after receiving a vaccine. This step is crucial in ensuring the safety and efficacy of vaccines and allows for timely investigation and response to any potential issues.

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  • 33. 

    What steps might you need to take before you can access AFCITA?

    • A.

      You must see your local AFCITA program manager

    • B.

      Your training record must have documentation that you are trained to give vaccinations

    • C.

      You must see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established and be trained to give vaccinations

    • D.

      You must see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established, and have the program loaded on your computer

    Correct Answer
    D. You must see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established, and have the program loaded on your computer
    Explanation
    Before being able to access AFCITA, you need to take the following steps: see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established, and have the program loaded on your computer. This implies that you must first meet with the program manager, then create an account, and finally install the AFCITA program on your computer. Only after completing these steps will you have access to AFCITA.

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  • 34. 

    What function does the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serve?

    • A.

      Tracks and manages annual physical exams

    • B.

      Tracks medical eligibility of military and dependents

    • C.

      Tracks personnel who are exempt from immunizations

    • D.

      Tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status

    Correct Answer
    D. Tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status
    Explanation
    The Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serves to track waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status. This system helps to keep a record of individuals who have been granted waivers for certain medical conditions or circumstances that would otherwise prevent them from participating in flying or special operations activities. By tracking these waivers, the system ensures that the appropriate personnel are aware of any restrictions or accommodations that need to be made for these individuals.

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  • 35. 

    What step must you complete first to complete initial waivers within AIMWTS?

    • A.

      Download DEERS information

    • B.

      Print the daily roster of waivers

    • C.

      Enter the patient's demographics

    • D.

      Load your supervisor's information

    Correct Answer
    C. Enter the patient's demographics
    Explanation
    To complete initial waivers within AIMWTS, the first step that needs to be completed is entering the patient's demographics. This involves inputting the patient's personal information such as name, date of birth, address, and contact details into the system. This step is crucial as it establishes the patient's identity and ensures accurate record-keeping throughout the waiver process.

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  • 36. 

    What do you do once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed?

    • A.

      Notify your supervisor

    • B.

      Notify the flight surgeon

    • C.

      Place information in patient record

    • D.

      Send the documents to the force health management office

    Correct Answer
    C. Place information in patient record
    Explanation
    Once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed, the information obtained during the process should be placed in the patient record. This is important for maintaining accurate and up-to-date medical records for the patient, which can be useful for future reference and for providing appropriate medical care.

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  • 37. 

    The medical standards, the frequency, the scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in:

    • A.

      AFI 48-123

    • B.

      AFI 48-133

    • C.

      AFM 36-2108

    • D.

      AFPAM 48-133

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 48-123
    Explanation
    AFI 48-123 specifies the medical standards, frequency, scope, and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly. This document serves as a guide for medical professionals in conducting physical examinations in accordance with the established standards and procedures. It ensures that the examinations are performed consistently and accurately, resulting in reliable and valid assessments of an individual's medical fitness.

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  • 38. 

    During the physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on the:

    • A.

      Availability of equipment

    • B.

      Specialty service available

    • C.

      Type of medical examination

    • D.

      Medical history of examinee

    Correct Answer
    C. Type of medical examination
    Explanation
    The depth of evaluation of any body system during a physical examination depends primarily on the type of medical examination being conducted. Different types of examinations may require different levels of evaluation for each body system. For example, a routine check-up may only require a basic evaluation of each system, while a more specialized examination for a specific condition may require a more in-depth evaluation. The availability of equipment, specialty services, and medical history of the examinee may also play a role in the depth of evaluation, but the type of medical examination is the primary determining factor.

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  • 39. 

    During the physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on:

    • A.

      Availability of equipment

    • B.

      Specialty services available

    • C.

      Type of medical examination

    • D.

      Medical history of the examinee

    Correct Answer
    C. Type of medical examination
    Explanation
    The depth of evaluation of any body system during a physical examination depends primarily on the type of medical examination being conducted. Different types of medical examinations require different levels of evaluation for each body system. For example, a routine check-up may only require a basic evaluation of each body system, while a specialized examination for a specific condition may require a more thorough evaluation. Therefore, the type of medical examination being conducted determines the depth of evaluation for each body system.

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  • 40. 

    The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in:

    • A.

      AFI 44-113

    • B.

      AFI 48-123

    • C.

      AFM 36-2108

    • D.

      AFPAM 48-133

    Correct Answer
    D. AFPAM 48-133
    Explanation
    AFPAM 48-133 is the correct answer because it is a publication that contains the format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination. AFI 44-113 is a publication that covers medical examinations and standards, AFI 48-123 covers medical examinations and standards for flying personnel, and AFM 36-2108 covers enlisted classification. Therefore, AFPAM 48-133 is the most appropriate publication for finding the information needed for conducting and recording a physical examination.

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  • 41. 

    Where if the AF Form 422 established on officers entering the Air Force?

    • A.

      ROTC Detachment

    • B.

      First Permanent duty station

    • C.

      OTS At lackland AFB Texas

    • D.

      First training base after leaving OTS

    Correct Answer
    B. First Permanent duty station
    Explanation
    The AF Form 422 is established on officers entering the Air Force at their first permanent duty station. This form is used to document an officer's medical history and any physical limitations or conditions that may affect their ability to perform their duties. It is important to establish this form at the officer's first permanent duty station to ensure that their medical information is accurately recorded and readily available for reference throughout their career in the Air Force.

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  • 42. 

    Members with 4T Profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every:

    • A.

      10 days

    • B.

      15 days

    • C.

      30 days

    • D.

      45 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 days
    Explanation
    Members with 4T Profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every 30 days. This suggests that individuals with 4T Profiles require regular monitoring and assessment of their medical condition or limitations. By reviewing the AF Form 422 every 30 days, medical professionals can ensure that the member's profile accurately reflects their current medical status and any necessary adjustments or updates can be made in a timely manner. Regular reviews also help in tracking any changes in the member's condition and determining if further medical evaluation or treatment is required.

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  • 43. 

    How many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    D. 6
    Explanation
    The physical profile serial considers six human function factors.

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  • 44. 

    Which factor would apply to an idividual who has organic defects of the ears?

    • A.

      H--hearing

    • B.

      E--ear defects

    • C.

      S--sensory defects

    • D.

      P--physical condition

    Correct Answer
    D. P--physical condition
    Explanation
    An individual with organic defects of the ears would likely have a physical condition that affects their ability to hear. The organic defects in their ears would directly impact their hearing ability, making it a physical condition.

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  • 45. 

    What is the main consideration under the E physical profile factor?

    • A.

      Near vision only

    • B.

      Organic eye diseases

    • C.

      Distant visual acuity only

    • D.

      Distant and near visual acuity

    Correct Answer
    C. Distant visual acuity only
    Explanation
    The main consideration under the E physical profile factor is distant visual acuity only. This means that the individual's ability to see objects clearly at a distance is the primary focus when determining their physical profile. This factor does not take into account near vision or organic eye diseases.

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  • 46. 

    A strength aptitude test is rated in which profile factor?

    • A.

      P

    • B.

      U

    • C.

      L

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    D. X
    Explanation
    The correct answer is X. This suggests that a strength aptitude test is rated in the X profile factor. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation for what the X profile factor represents in this context. It could refer to a specific personality trait, skill, or characteristic that is assessed in the strength aptitude test. Without more information, it is not possible to provide a conclusive explanation.

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  • 47. 

    What organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422?

    • A.

      Local MEB

    • B.

      MAJCOMM

    • C.

      HQ USAF

    • D.

      HQ AFPC

    Correct Answer
    D. HQ AFPC
    Explanation
    HQ AFPC is the organization that authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422. The L suffix is used to indicate that an Airman is on a limited assignment status due to medical reasons. This designation is typically given by the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) at the headquarters level.

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  • 48. 

    Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for no more than:

    • A.

      12 months

    • B.

      18 months

    • C.

      3 years

    • D.

      5 years

    Correct Answer
    D. 5 years
    Explanation
    Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for a maximum period of 5 years. This means that if a member is temporarily disabled and unable to perform their duties, they can be placed on the temporary disability retired list for up to 5 years. During this time, they may receive medical treatment and other benefits while their condition is being evaluated. After the 5-year period, the member may be either returned to active duty, separated from service, or placed on the permanent disability retired list.

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  • 49. 

    What is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process?

    • A.

      Initiate a PEB

    • B.

      Initiate a MEB

    • C.

      Establish LOD

    • D.

      Appoint a PEBLO

    Correct Answer
    B. Initiate a MEB
    Explanation
    The first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process is to initiate a MEB (Medical Evaluation Board). This involves starting the process of evaluating the service member's medical condition to determine if they meet the criteria for disability. The MEB will assess the individual's medical records, conduct medical examinations, and gather any necessary documentation to make a determination. This step is crucial in determining if the service member is eligible for disability benefits.

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  • 50. 

    When would disability compensation not be authorized?

    • A.

      Injury occured off base

    • B.

      Accident occurred off duty

    • C.

      Individual is retirement eligible

    • D.

      Injury occurred during an unauthorized absence

    Correct Answer
    D. Injury occurred during an unauthorized absence
    Explanation
    Disability compensation would not be authorized if the injury occurred during an unauthorized absence. This means that if an individual was not where they were supposed to be at the time of the injury, such as being absent without permission, they would not be eligible for compensation. This is because the injury would be considered to have occurred due to their own actions or negligence, rather than in the line of duty or during authorized activities.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 20, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jgroat7
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