4N051 Set A Vol 3

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1. What is the primary device a computer uses to store information?

Explanation

The primary device a computer uses to store information is a hard disk drive. This is because a hard disk drive provides a large amount of storage space and is capable of storing and retrieving data quickly. Unlike other options like a zip drive, floppy disk drive, or compact disc read-only memory, a hard disk drive is a permanent storage device that is typically installed inside the computer.

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About This Quiz
Spacecraft Quizzes & Trivia

Upgrade training for Aerospace medical technician; from 3 level to 5 level

2. What steps need to be completed before completing an aircraft mishap report?

Explanation

Before completing an aircraft mishap report, it is important to compile all necessary data. This includes gathering all relevant information and evidence related to the incident, such as flight data, maintenance records, witness statements, and any other documentation that can provide insights into the causes and circumstances of the mishap. This step ensures that the report is comprehensive and based on accurate and complete information, allowing for a thorough analysis and understanding of the incident.

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3. Specifically, who makes the final dermination on return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics?

Explanation

Any flight surgeon can make the final determination on the return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics. Flight surgeons are medical professionals who specialize in aviation medicine and are responsible for evaluating the medical fitness of aircrew. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the health condition of the aircrew and determine whether they are fit to resume flying duties. This decision is crucial to ensure the safety of the aircrew and the passengers on board.

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4. Locally, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps locally. This means that every person, regardless of their position or role, has a personal duty to follow and promote safety guidelines and protocols. It emphasizes the importance of individual accountability and awareness in maintaining a safe environment. While unit commanders, base safety officers, and wing safety officers may provide guidance and support, the ultimate responsibility lies with each individual to actively contribute to the prevention of mishaps.

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5. Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when:

Explanation

The correct answer is "There is an intent for flight." This means that record mishaps should be classified as aircraft flight mishaps when there is a clear intention to take off and fly. This could include situations where the pilot has declared their intention to fly, or when the mishap occurs off the ground or on the taxiway, indicating that the aircraft was preparing for or in the process of taking off.

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6. Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of a million dollars or more, you must report it as what class of mishap?

Explanation

Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of a million dollars or more, it must be reported as a Class A mishap.

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7. What action should you take prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap?

Explanation

Prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap, it is important to photograph the site. This is crucial for documentation purposes and to preserve the integrity of the scene. The photographs can provide valuable evidence and information that can aid in the investigation and analysis of the mishap. Additionally, they can be used for reference and to support any subsequent reports or legal proceedings. Therefore, it is necessary to take photographs before removing the human remains from the scene.

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8. What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it is completed?

Explanation

After completing the AF Form 1042, it should be filed in the individual's health record. This is important because the form contains relevant information related to the individual's health, and therefore it should be stored in their health record for future reference and easy accessibility.

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9. Who is responsible to train air crew in emergency removal of soft contact lenses?

Explanation

Optometry is responsible for training air crew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses. Optometrists are healthcare professionals who specialize in eye care and vision correction. They have the knowledge and expertise to train air crew members on how to safely and effectively remove their soft contact lenses in emergency situations. This is important to ensure the safety and well-being of the air crew and to prevent any potential complications that may arise from wearing contact lenses during emergencies.

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10. What can you determine when you review a military member's individual medical readiness status is yellow?

Explanation

When reviewing a military member's individual medical readiness status and it is yellow, it indicates that items are outdated or need attention. This means that there are certain medical items or requirements that are not up to date or need to be addressed. It does not necessarily mean that there is a duty limiting condition or that the member is in dental class 3 or 4, nor does it indicate missing laboratory requirements. The yellow status specifically refers to outdated or attention-worthy items.

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11. During the physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on:

Explanation

The depth of evaluation of any body system during a physical examination depends primarily on the type of medical examination being conducted. Different types of medical examinations require different levels of evaluation for each body system. For example, a routine check-up may only require a basic evaluation of each body system, while a specialized examination for a specific condition may require a more thorough evaluation. Therefore, the type of medical examination being conducted determines the depth of evaluation for each body system.

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12. Members with 4T Profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every:

Explanation

Members with 4T Profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every 30 days. This suggests that individuals with 4T Profiles require regular monitoring and assessment of their medical condition or limitations. By reviewing the AF Form 422 every 30 days, medical professionals can ensure that the member's profile accurately reflects their current medical status and any necessary adjustments or updates can be made in a timely manner. Regular reviews also help in tracking any changes in the member's condition and determining if further medical evaluation or treatment is required.

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13. Who owns the health records?

Explanation

The United States government owns the health records. This is because health records of individuals in the United States are considered to be a part of their personal information, and the government has the authority and responsibility to regulate and protect this information. The government may have access to these records for various purposes, such as public health monitoring, research, or legal requirements.

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14. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missile system?

Explanation

The unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missile systems is that once ignited, it cannot be extinguished. Unlike other fuel sources, solid propellant continues to burn until it is completely consumed, making it a reliable and efficient choice for missile propulsion. This characteristic allows the missile to maintain its trajectory and reach its target without the need for continuous ignition or fuel supply.

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15. When responding to a mishap, you should approach the scene from what direction?

Explanation

When responding to a mishap, it is recommended to approach the scene from the upwind direction. This is because approaching from upwind helps to prevent exposure to any hazardous gases, fumes, or smoke that may be present at the scene. By approaching from upwind, emergency responders can minimize the risk of inhaling harmful substances and ensure their own safety while carrying out their duties effectively.

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16. What solution should you use when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis?

Explanation

Betadine is the recommended solution for preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis. Betadine is an antiseptic solution that contains iodine, which helps to kill and prevent the growth of microorganisms on the samples. This is important in order to maintain the integrity of the samples and prevent contamination during analysis. Using betadine ensures that the samples are properly disinfected and ready for examination.

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17. Which of the following are all rated officers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons. These three professions are all rated officers in the military. Navigators are responsible for planning and directing the course of aircraft, pilots are responsible for operating and flying the aircraft, and flight surgeons are responsible for providing medical care to the flight crew.

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18. During the physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on the:

Explanation

The depth of evaluation of any body system during a physical examination depends primarily on the type of medical examination being conducted. Different types of examinations may require different levels of evaluation for each body system. For example, a routine check-up may only require a basic evaluation of each system, while a more specialized examination for a specific condition may require a more in-depth evaluation. The availability of equipment, specialty services, and medical history of the examinee may also play a role in the depth of evaluation, but the type of medical examination is the primary determining factor.

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19. When would disability compensation not be authorized?

Explanation

Disability compensation would not be authorized if the injury occurred during an unauthorized absence. This means that if an individual was not where they were supposed to be at the time of the injury, such as being absent without permission, they would not be eligible for compensation. This is because the injury would be considered to have occurred due to their own actions or negligence, rather than in the line of duty or during authorized activities.

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20. Special diet control is important to many air crew members because it:

Explanation

Special diet control is important to many air crew members because it reduces the incidence of gas pains. This means that by following a specific diet, air crew members can prevent or minimize the discomfort caused by gas pains during flights. This is crucial for their well-being and ability to perform their duties effectively. By avoiding foods that can cause gas and bloating, air crew members can ensure a more comfortable and pain-free flying experience.

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21. How are occurrences of decompression sickness symptoms relative to age?

Explanation

The occurrence of decompression sickness symptoms increases with age. This means that as individuals get older, they are more likely to experience symptoms of decompression sickness.

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22. If an unmanned aerial vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is reportable as an unmaned aerial vehicle mishap?

Explanation

The procedure for determining whether an unmanned aerial vehicle crash is reportable as a mishap involves checking if another DOD aircraft was involved. This suggests that the reportability of the crash is dependent on whether there was any involvement or interaction with another DOD aircraft during the incident.

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23. The overall purpose of flightline visits is to:

Explanation

Flightline visits are conducted to promote flying safety. This involves inspecting and ensuring that all necessary safety protocols and procedures are being followed on the flightline. By conducting these visits, the aim is to identify any potential hazards or risks that could compromise the safety of the flight operations. Additionally, flightline visits also provide an opportunity to address any safety concerns or issues that may have been raised by the air crew members or units. The ultimate goal is to create a safe and secure working environment for all personnel involved in flight operations.

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24. What steps are necessary to a safe and productive soft contact lens program?

Explanation

The steps necessary to a safe and productive soft contact lens program include identification, documentation, and evaluation. Identification involves identifying patients who are suitable candidates for soft contact lenses. Documentation is important for keeping records of the patient's eye health and contact lens prescription. Evaluation involves assessing the patient's eye health and determining the appropriate type of contact lens. These steps ensure that the program is safe and effective for the patients.

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25. What function does the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serve?

Explanation

The Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serves to track waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status. This system helps to keep a record of individuals who have been granted waivers for certain medical conditions or circumstances that would otherwise prevent them from participating in flying or special operations activities. By tracking these waivers, the system ensures that the appropriate personnel are aware of any restrictions or accommodations that need to be made for these individuals.

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26. What causes an aircrew member's circadian rhythm to be affected on a cross-country flight?

Explanation

When an aircrew member crosses time zones during a flight, their circadian rhythm, also known as their internal body clock, is affected. This is because the body's natural sleep-wake cycle is disrupted when they rapidly move from one time zone to another. The body needs time to adjust to the new time zone, resulting in feelings of jet lag and fatigue. This can lead to difficulties in sleeping, decreased alertness, and impaired performance during the flight. Therefore, the crossing of time zones is the main cause of an aircrew member's circadian rhythm being affected on a cross-country flight.

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27. Which of the following mishap investigation responsibilities qould reside with the flightsurgeon and not the MAJCOM?

Explanation

The flight surgeon is responsible for identifying and preventing future mishaps because they have the medical expertise to analyze the physical and mental conditions of the personnel involved in the mishap. They can assess if there were any underlying health issues or human factors that contributed to the mishap and provide recommendations to prevent similar incidents in the future. This responsibility does not fall under the jurisdiction of the MAJCOM, which is primarily responsible for command and control functions.

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28. You encounter a record of a membewr on flying status that has not been identified correctly. What steps should you take to make the record identifiable as a member on Flying Status?

Explanation

To make the record identifiable as a member on Flying Status, the correct step is to stamp the word "fly" in 2 inch block letters in the upper left corner of the front cover. This will clearly indicate the status of the member and make it easily identifiable.

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29. What is the main contributing factor to in flight noise?

Explanation

Air rushing over the canopy is the main contributing factor to in-flight noise. As an aircraft moves through the air, the airflow over the canopy creates turbulence and generates noise. This noise can be further amplified by the design of the aircraft and the speed at which it is flying. While engines also contribute to overall aircraft noise, the airflow over the canopy is the primary factor responsible for in-flight noise. Heating and air conditioners and radio communication devices do not have a significant impact on in-flight noise.

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30. How should you report an event that is categorized as a physiological episode?

Explanation

A physiological episode refers to an event or incident that involves a medical condition or reaction in an individual. Class E mishap is the appropriate category to report such an event because it specifically includes mishaps related to illness, disease, or other physiological conditions. This classification helps to ensure that the incident is properly documented and addressed, allowing for appropriate measures to be taken to prevent similar occurrences in the future.

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31. What step must you complete first to complete initial waivers within AIMWTS?

Explanation

To complete initial waivers within AIMWTS, the first step that needs to be completed is entering the patient's demographics. This involves inputting the patient's personal information such as name, date of birth, address, and contact details into the system. This step is crucial as it establishes the patient's identity and ensures accurate record-keeping throughout the waiver process.

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32. What is the best way to administer oxygen while treating deompression sickness?

Explanation

The best way to administer oxygen while treating decompression sickness is through an aviator's mask. This type of mask is specifically designed for high altitude conditions and can deliver oxygen at a higher flow rate, ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen. The aviator's mask covers the nose and mouth, providing a tight seal and preventing the escape of oxygen. This is crucial in treating decompression sickness, as oxygen therapy helps to alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Nasal cannulas, bag-valve masks, and high-pressure ambu-bags are not as effective in delivering oxygen in this specific scenario.

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33. What is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process?

Explanation

The first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process is to initiate a MEB (Medical Evaluation Board). This involves starting the process of evaluating the service member's medical condition to determine if they meet the criteria for disability. The MEB will assess the individual's medical records, conduct medical examinations, and gather any necessary documentation to make a determination. This step is crucial in determining if the service member is eligible for disability benefits.

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34. Where is the original medical record maintained on deployed active duty and ARC personnel?

Explanation

The original medical record is maintained at the home base Medical Treatment Facility (MTF). This is where the individual's primary care provider (PCM) is located, and it is responsible for keeping and updating the medical records of deployed active duty and ARC personnel. The home base MTF ensures that the medical records are accessible and available for reference and treatment purposes when needed.

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35. As altitude increases barometric pressure will:

Explanation

As altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases. This is because the higher you go, the less air there is above you, resulting in a decrease in the weight of the air pressing down on you. Therefore, the barometric pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

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36. Airsickness during pilot training is usually due to

Explanation

The correct answer is lack of adaptation. Airsickness during pilot training is often caused by a lack of adaptation to the motion and sensations experienced during flight. When individuals are not accustomed to the movements and forces associated with flying, it can lead to feelings of nausea and discomfort. As pilots undergo training and gain more experience, they gradually adapt to these sensations, reducing the likelihood of airsickness.

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37. What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force Information Systems

Explanation

SATE stands for Security Awareness Training and Education. It is a program that focuses on promoting information protection principles and ensuring consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force Information Systems. SATE aims to educate and train personnel on security practices, policies, and procedures to enhance the overall security posture of the Air Force.

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38. What type of hypoxia may be caused by alcohol abuse?

Explanation

Alcohol abuse can lead to histotoxic hypoxia. This type of hypoxia occurs when the body's cells are unable to effectively use oxygen due to damage to the tissues. Alcohol abuse can cause damage to the liver, which is responsible for metabolizing alcohol. This can result in the accumulation of toxic byproducts in the blood, impairing the ability of cells to use oxygen. As a result, histotoxic hypoxia can occur, leading to a decrease in oxygen supply to the body's tissues and organs.

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39. What is the prime consideration when treating hypoxia?

Explanation

The prime consideration when treating hypoxia is providing the aircrew members with adequate oxygen. Hypoxia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of oxygen in the body, and the most effective way to address this is by supplying the individual with sufficient oxygen. This can be done through various means such as oxygen masks or oxygen tanks. Increasing ambient oxygen pressure by descent to a lower altitude may also help, but the immediate priority is to ensure that the aircrew members receive enough oxygen to alleviate the hypoxia symptoms. Decreasing the aircrew members' elevated nitrogen level and controlling their rate of breathing by the paper bag method are not relevant to treating hypoxia.

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40. Where if the AF Form 422 established on officers entering the Air Force?

Explanation

The AF Form 422 is established on officers entering the Air Force at their first permanent duty station. This form is used to document an officer's medical history and any physical limitations or conditions that may affect their ability to perform their duties. It is important to establish this form at the officer's first permanent duty station to ensure that their medical information is accurately recorded and readily available for reference throughout their career in the Air Force.

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41. What must occur to ensure health records are maintained according to Air Force and joint commission on accreditation of health care organizations standards?

Explanation

To ensure health records are maintained according to Air Force and joint commission on accreditation of health care organizations standards, MTF reviews must occur. MTF stands for Medical Treatment Facility, and these reviews involve a thorough assessment of the health records to ensure they meet the required standards. This includes reviewing the accuracy, completeness, and confidentiality of the records. MTF reviews are essential in maintaining the quality and compliance of health records in accordance with the established standards.

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42. In what division of the atmosphere will the phenomena of weather mostly occur?

Explanation

Weather mostly occurs in the troposphere. This is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 10-15 kilometers. The troposphere is where most of the Earth's weather phenomena, such as clouds, precipitation, and storms, take place. It is also where temperature decreases with increasing altitude, creating the conditions for weather patterns to develop. The other options, stratosphere, ionosphere, and exosphere, are higher layers of the atmosphere and are not primarily associated with weather phenomena.

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43. One method of protecting aircrew members against decompression sickness is by restricting aerial flight to what maximum cabin altitude?

Explanation

One method of protecting aircrew members against decompression sickness is by restricting aerial flight to a maximum cabin altitude of FL 250. This means that the cabin altitude should not exceed 25,000 feet above sea level. By maintaining a lower cabin altitude, the risk of decompression sickness, also known as "the bends," can be minimized. Decompression sickness occurs when there is a rapid decrease in pressure, causing nitrogen bubbles to form in the body. Restricting the cabin altitude helps to prevent the formation of these bubbles and reduces the risk of decompression sickness for aircrew members.

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44. Which of the following concerns would be considered primary physical hazards for personnell assigned to Missile Alert Facilities?

Explanation

The primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missile Alert Facilities would include sanitation, food, water, and facility safety. These concerns are important for ensuring the well-being and health of the personnel working in these facilities. Poor sanitation can lead to the spread of diseases, while unsafe food and water can cause illness. Additionally, facility safety is crucial to prevent accidents and injuries. Overall, addressing these concerns is essential for maintaining a safe and healthy working environment for personnel in Missile Alert Facilities.

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45. What are the primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility?

Explanation

Personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility are primarily at risk of motor vehicle accidents and environmental hazards. These facilities are often located in remote areas, requiring personnel to commute long distances on sometimes hazardous roads. This increases the likelihood of motor vehicle accidents. Additionally, these facilities deal with nuclear weapons, which pose a significant risk to the environment if mishandled or improperly maintained. Therefore, personnel need to be cautious about both road safety and environmental protection while working at these facilities.

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46. What should you do if potentially disqualifying information is discovered during a records review?

Explanation

If potentially disqualifying information is discovered during a records review, it is important to refer the case to a flight surgeon. This is because a flight surgeon is a medical professional who is trained to assess the medical fitness of individuals for flying duties. By referring the case to a flight surgeon, they can thoroughly evaluate the information and determine if any disqualifications or restrictions are necessary for the individual's safety and the safety of others. This ensures that the appropriate actions are taken and the individual's medical condition is properly addressed.

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47. What environmental stress has the greatest influence on G intolerance?

Explanation

Heat has the greatest influence on G intolerance because high temperatures can cause dehydration and heat exhaustion, leading to a decrease in physical performance and an increased risk of heat-related illnesses. Heat stress can also affect the body's ability to regulate its temperature, leading to overheating and potentially life-threatening conditions such as heat stroke. Therefore, individuals with low tolerance to heat may experience significant discomfort and negative health effects when exposed to high temperatures.

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48. What is the most effective treatment for hyperventilation?

Explanation

The most effective treatment for hyperventilation is reducing the rate and depth of breathing. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which leads to an imbalance of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body. By consciously slowing down the breathing and taking shallow breaths, the person can restore the proper balance of gases and alleviate the symptoms of hyperventilation. This technique helps to normalize the levels of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream and reduces the sensation of shortness of breath and dizziness.

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49. Once you arrive at the knowledge exchange web page what should be the next step to begin training on the physical examinations processing program database?

Explanation

After arriving at the knowledge exchange web page, the next step to begin training on the physical examinations processing program database is to click on the aerospace medicine tab.

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50. How many hours should an individual wait to fly following diving activities?

Explanation

After diving activities, it is recommended to wait for 24 hours before flying. This is because diving can cause nitrogen to dissolve in the body tissues, and flying can increase the risk of decompression sickness. Waiting for 24 hours allows the body to eliminate the excess nitrogen and reduces the chances of experiencing any complications during the flight.

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51. How many hours must an individual not fly flollowing complete resolution of symptoms of the bends?

Explanation

Following complete resolution of symptoms of the bends, an individual must not fly for 72 hours. This is because the bends, also known as decompression sickness, is caused by a rapid decrease in pressure during ascent from a dive or flight. It occurs when dissolved gases, particularly nitrogen, come out of solution and form bubbles in the bloodstream and tissues. Waiting for 72 hours allows the body to eliminate the excess nitrogen and reduces the risk of further complications during flying.

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52. A strength aptitude test is rated in which profile factor?

Explanation

The correct answer is X. This suggests that a strength aptitude test is rated in the X profile factor. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation for what the X profile factor represents in this context. It could refer to a specific personality trait, skill, or characteristic that is assessed in the strength aptitude test. Without more information, it is not possible to provide a conclusive explanation.

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53. In what direction are negative G forces applied?

Explanation

Negative G forces are applied in the direction from foot to head. This means that when experiencing negative G forces, the body feels a downward force, as if being pulled towards the feet. This can happen during activities such as rapid deceleration or when going downhill. The force is felt from the feet towards the head because the head is the highest point of the body in an upright position.

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54. Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in:

Explanation

Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports. This document provides guidelines and procedures for conducting safety investigations and reporting incidents in the USAF. It outlines the specific format and information required for reporting physiological events, which are events related to the human body's response to the environment or equipment. By following the format provided in AFI 91-204, accurate and consistent reporting of Class E physiological events can be ensured.

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55. What step must you take before you can use the physical examinations processing program database?

Explanation

Before using the physical examinations processing program database, the step that must be taken is to set up an account through the Air Force portal. This is necessary in order to access and utilize the database effectively.

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56. A supervisor has access to what additional tabs in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA)?

Explanation

A supervisor in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA) has access to the additional tabs of "Set up" and "Data Management". These tabs allow the supervisor to configure and customize the application according to their needs, as well as manage and analyze the immunization data of personnel. The supervisor can use the "Set up" tab to define various settings and parameters, while the "Data Management" tab enables them to view, edit, and organize the immunization records efficiently.

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57. What step should you take if you have a patient that experiences an adverse reaction?

Explanation

If a patient experiences an adverse reaction, the appropriate step to take is to go to the menu bar to access the VAERS. VAERS stands for Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System, which is a national system for monitoring the safety of vaccines. By accessing the VAERS, healthcare professionals can report and track any adverse reactions or side effects experienced by patients after receiving a vaccine. This step is crucial in ensuring the safety and efficacy of vaccines and allows for timely investigation and response to any potential issues.

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58. How many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?

Explanation

The physical profile serial considers six human function factors.

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59. In which section of the outpatient record is every completed SF 600 filed?

Explanation

Every completed SF 600 is filed in section 2 of the outpatient record.

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60. The cardiovascular and respiratory systems may compensate for hypoxia at altitudes up to how many feet?

Explanation

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems can compensate for hypoxia up to 10,000 feet. At higher altitudes, the air pressure decreases, resulting in lower oxygen levels. To compensate for this, the body increases heart rate and breathing rate to deliver more oxygen to the tissues. However, beyond 10,000 feet, the body may struggle to maintain adequate oxygen levels, leading to symptoms of altitude sickness.

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61. What is the purpose of the physical examinations processing program?

Explanation

The purpose of the physical examinations processing program is to track physical exams specifically for flying and special operations personnel. This program is designed to ensure that these personnel receive their required physical exams on time and to keep track of their medical records. By tracking these exams, the program helps to ensure the health and readiness of these personnel for their specific roles and responsibilities.

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62. What steps might you need to take before you can access AFCITA?

Explanation

Before being able to access AFCITA, you need to take the following steps: see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established, and have the program loaded on your computer. This implies that you must first meet with the program manager, then create an account, and finally install the AFCITA program on your computer. Only after completing these steps will you have access to AFCITA.

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63. What do you do once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed?

Explanation

Once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed, the information obtained during the process should be placed in the patient record. This is important for maintaining accurate and up-to-date medical records for the patient, which can be useful for future reference and for providing appropriate medical care.

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64. What gas law explains the way in which ascent to altitude induces hypoxia?

Explanation

Dalton's law of partial pressures explains the way in which ascent to altitude induces hypoxia. According to this law, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each individual gas. As altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases, leading to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen. This decrease in oxygen partial pressure can result in hypoxia, a condition characterized by a reduced supply of oxygen to the body's tissues. Therefore, Dalton's law is the most appropriate gas law to explain the relationship between altitude and hypoxia.

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65. The best  description of in flight noise is it

Explanation

In flight noise refers to the level of noise experienced inside an aircraft during a flight. The given answer states that the noise increases with air speed and decreases with altitude. This explanation is correct because as the airspeed of an aircraft increases, the noise produced by the engines, air movement, and other factors also increases. On the other hand, as the aircraft gains altitude, it moves away from the ground and other sources of noise, resulting in a decrease in overall noise levels.

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66. What are the usual sites for bends pain?

Explanation

The usual sites for bends pain are shoulders, elbows, knees, and ankles. This means that these are the common areas where a person may experience pain or discomfort when bending their body. It is likely that these joints are more prone to strain or injury during movements that involve bending.

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67. Which of the senses of orientation is considered to be reliable in flight?

Explanation

Visual orientation is considered to be reliable in flight because it relies on the pilot's ability to see and interpret visual cues such as landmarks, horizon, and other aircraft. Visual cues provide important information about the aircraft's position, altitude, and speed, allowing the pilot to maintain proper orientation and make necessary adjustments during flight. Additionally, visual orientation can help pilots avoid obstacles and navigate safely through various weather conditions.

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68. What administrative tool contains every record series maintained for an office of record?

Explanation

A files plan is an administrative tool that contains every record series maintained for an office of record. It is a systematic way of organizing and categorizing records based on their content and function. A files plan helps in efficient record-keeping, retrieval, and disposition of records. It ensures that all records are properly managed and preserved according to legal and regulatory requirements.

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69. What step must be taken if a military member has been discharged after being admitted to a hospital?

Explanation

If a military member has been discharged after being admitted to a hospital, the step that must be taken is to review the records in order to identify the correct profile actions. This is important to ensure that the member's medical condition and any necessary restrictions or accommodations are properly documented and updated in their profile. It allows for appropriate follow-up care and ensures that the member is aware of any limitations or requirements they may have as a result of their hospitalization.

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70. When you input medical information on military members into preventative health assessment individual medical readiness program, to what system does it connect?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFCHIPS. AFCHIPS stands for Air Force Comprehensive Health Information Portal System. It is a system that connects and stores medical information of military members in the Preventative Health Assessment Individual Medical Readiness Program. This system helps in managing and tracking the medical readiness of Air Force personnel.

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71. The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in:

Explanation

AFPAM 48-133 is the correct answer because it is a publication that contains the format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination. AFI 44-113 is a publication that covers medical examinations and standards, AFI 48-123 covers medical examinations and standards for flying personnel, and AFM 36-2108 covers enlisted classification. Therefore, AFPAM 48-133 is the most appropriate publication for finding the information needed for conducting and recording a physical examination.

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72. Which factor would apply to an idividual who has organic defects of the ears?

Explanation

An individual with organic defects of the ears would likely have a physical condition that affects their ability to hear. The organic defects in their ears would directly impact their hearing ability, making it a physical condition.

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73. Where is the greatest barometric pressure found?

Explanation

The correct answer is Troposphere. The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 8-15 kilometers. It is where weather occurs and where most of Earth's air mass is located. The barometric pressure, or atmospheric pressure, is highest at the surface and decreases with altitude. Therefore, the greatest barometric pressure is found in the troposphere, closer to the Earth's surface.

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74. What is the most common sensory illusion resulting from stimulatoin of the semicircular canals?

Explanation

The most common sensory illusion resulting from stimulation of the semicircular canals is "the leans." When the semicircular canals are stimulated, such as during sudden acceleration or deceleration, the brain may incorrectly perceive that the body is tilting or leaning in a certain direction. This can cause a false sensation of leaning, even though the body is actually upright.

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75. What is your specific responsibility to the Life Support Section?

Explanation

The specific responsibility of the individual to the Life Support Section is to provide advice to unit personnel regarding protective equipment programs. This means that they are responsible for offering guidance and recommendations to the members of the unit on matters related to protective equipment, such as its proper usage, maintenance, and any necessary updates or improvements. This role ensures that the unit personnel are well-informed and equipped with the necessary knowledge to effectively use protective equipment in their work.

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76. The medical standards, the frequency, the scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in:

Explanation

AFI 48-123 specifies the medical standards, frequency, scope, and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly. This document serves as a guide for medical professionals in conducting physical examinations in accordance with the established standards and procedures. It ensures that the examinations are performed consistently and accurately, resulting in reliable and valid assessments of an individual's medical fitness.

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77. Which synptoms is the most specific early symptoms of the chokes?

Explanation

Substernal pain is the most specific early symptom of the chokes. This pain is felt behind the breastbone and is often described as a squeezing or pressure-like sensation. It is a distinct symptom that is commonly associated with respiratory conditions such as choking or airway obstruction. Dyspnea, dry nonproductive cough, and anxiety and hyperventilation can also be symptoms of the chokes, but substernal pain is the most specific early symptom.

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78. Which sentation is not associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness?

Explanation

Numbness is not typically associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness. Decompression sickness, also known as "the bends," is caused by nitrogen bubbles forming in the blood and tissues due to rapid changes in pressure. This condition commonly presents with symptoms such as itching, tingling, and hot and cold sensations. However, numbness is not a typical skin manifestation of decompression sickness.

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79. How many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file?

Explanation

The AF Form 1041 must be kept on file for 2 years. This is likely because after 2 years, the information on the form may become outdated or no longer relevant. Additionally, keeping the form for a shorter period of time helps to ensure that records are not unnecessarily cluttered or taking up space.

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80. What is the main consideration under the E physical profile factor?

Explanation

The main consideration under the E physical profile factor is distant visual acuity only. This means that the individual's ability to see objects clearly at a distance is the primary focus when determining their physical profile. This factor does not take into account near vision or organic eye diseases.

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81. Hypoxia is most frequently caused by

Explanation

Hypoxia is most frequently caused by equipment malfunction because if the oxygen supply in a closed environment, such as an airplane or a submarine, fails or malfunctions, it can lead to a decrease in oxygen levels and result in hypoxia. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening situation, as the body's tissues and organs require an adequate supply of oxygen to function properly.

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82. What sensory sytem is often referred to as the "seat of the pants" sense?

Explanation

Proprioceptive refers to the sense of body position and movement. It provides information about the position and movement of our limbs and body in space, allowing us to have a sense of where our body parts are without needing to look at them. This sense is often referred to as the "seat of the pants" sense because it helps us maintain balance and coordination, especially during activities that require quick reflexes and adjustments, such as riding a bike or playing sports.

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83. What method of measuring altitude is used to measure the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it?

Explanation

Absolute altitude is the method of measuring altitude that directly measures the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it. This measurement is independent of atmospheric pressure and is therefore more accurate than other methods such as flight level or pressurized altitude, which rely on pressure readings. True altitude, on the other hand, refers to the actual height above mean sea level, which may not necessarily be the same as the distance to the ground directly below the aircraft.

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84. Which of the following is not a factor of decompression sickness? 

Explanation

Rate of descent is not a factor of decompression sickness. Decompression sickness, also known as "the bends," is caused by the formation of nitrogen bubbles in the body due to rapid changes in pressure, typically during ascent. Altitude, rate of ascent, and physical activity can all contribute to decompression sickness by affecting the rate at which pressure changes occur. However, rate of descent does not directly impact the formation of nitrogen bubbles and therefore is not a factor in the development of decompression sickness.

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85. Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for no more than:

Explanation

Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for a maximum period of 5 years. This means that if a member is temporarily disabled and unable to perform their duties, they can be placed on the temporary disability retired list for up to 5 years. During this time, they may receive medical treatment and other benefits while their condition is being evaluated. After the 5-year period, the member may be either returned to active duty, separated from service, or placed on the permanent disability retired list.

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86. What is the maximum flying flying altitude ofr unpressurized aircraft when transporting a patient suffering decompression sickness?

Explanation

When transporting a patient suffering from decompression sickness, the maximum flying altitude for unpressurized aircraft is limited to 1,000 ft. This is because decompression sickness is caused by a rapid decrease in pressure, and flying at higher altitudes can worsen the condition. By keeping the altitude below 1,000 ft, the aircraft can maintain a lower pressure environment, reducing the risk of further harm to the patient.

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87. Positive G forces  affect the diaphragm by doing what to the viscera?

Explanation

Positive G forces affect the diaphragm by pushing the viscera down. When experiencing positive G forces, such as during acceleration or upward movement, the organs in the body tend to be pushed downwards due to the force acting on them. This downward pressure on the viscera can cause discomfort or even lead to physiological effects, such as decreased lung capacity or impaired digestion.

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88. The anti-G straining maneuver is performed during the

Explanation

The anti-G straining maneuver is performed during the expiratory phase against a completely closed glottis. This means that the individual exhales forcefully while keeping their airway completely closed. This maneuver helps to increase the pressure in the chest and abdomen, which in turn helps to prevent blood from pooling in the lower body during high G-force maneuvers. By keeping the glottis completely closed, the individual is able to create a higher pressure in the chest and abdomen, providing better protection against the effects of high G-forces.

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89. What organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422?

Explanation

HQ AFPC is the organization that authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422. The L suffix is used to indicate that an Airman is on a limited assignment status due to medical reasons. This designation is typically given by the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) at the headquarters level.

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90. What is the most common type of hypoxia seen in aircrew members and is often referred to as altitude hypoxia?

Explanation

Stagnant hypoxia is the most common type of hypoxia seen in aircrew members and is often referred to as altitude hypoxia. Stagnant hypoxia occurs when there is a decrease in the blood flow to the body tissues, leading to a reduced supply of oxygen. This can happen at high altitudes due to the lower atmospheric pressure, which results in decreased oxygen availability. The term "stagnant" refers to the reduced blood flow, which can be caused by factors such as G-forces, constrictive clothing, or sitting in a fixed position for an extended period. This type of hypoxia can impair cognitive function and physical performance.

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