4N051 Set A (Code 05)

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| By Erica Funke
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Erica Funke
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1. 002- Why is medical Doctrine necessary?

Explanation

Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. This means that it provides a framework and set of guidelines for commanders to effectively utilize medical resources and personnel in their decision-making processes. By following medical doctrine, commanders can ensure that they are making informed decisions about the allocation and utilization of medical assets, ultimately leading to more efficient and effective medical support for their units.

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4N051 Set A (Code 05) - Quiz

This quiz titled '4N051 SET A (CODE 05)' assesses knowledge in Air Force Medical Service operations, focusing on doctrines like AFDD 4-02 and tactical medical support. It evaluates understanding of medical asset utilization, operational and tactical doctrines, and the impact of Aeromedical Evacuation on casualty survival rates.

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2. 018- What timeframe is best to conduct in-service training within your unit?  

Explanation

In-service training is best conducted on training days because it allows for dedicated time and focus on the training activities. Conducting training during shift change may disrupt the flow of work and cause distractions. Afternoons and mornings may also not be ideal as employees may be more fatigued or less focused during these times. Therefore, scheduling training on designated training days ensures that employees can fully engage in the training without any interruptions or distractions.

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3. 085- Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient`s stress?

Explanation

Remaining honest and in control can help relieve a patient's stress because it creates a sense of trust and reassurance. Patients often feel anxious and stressed when they are uncertain or feel out of control. By being honest and transparent with the patient, healthcare providers can help alleviate their anxiety and build a trusting relationship. Additionally, remaining in control and maintaining a calm demeanor can help create a sense of stability and security for the patient, further reducing their stress levels.

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4. 073- What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Explanation

If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. This is because MEMO personnel are responsible for managing medical equipment and supplies, and they would have the necessary information and resources to follow up on the backordered item. Canceling the order or complaining to the commander may not be productive, as they may not have the specific knowledge or authority to resolve the issue. Waiting another 15 days and then following up could further delay the resolution of the problem.

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5. 031- What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee?

Explanation

The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective cover for the knee joint and helps to increase the leverage of the quadriceps muscles during movements such as walking, running, and jumping.

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6. 054- What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Training (OJT) if a task already has a start date?

Explanation

Trainees use the first step of selecting a task and clicking the TRAINEE button to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Training (OJT) if the task already has a start date. This action indicates that the trainee has completed the task and is ready to move on to the next step in the training process.

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7. 092- when patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient`s treatment?

Explanation

When patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is an essential part of healthcare as it helps in tracking the progress of the patient, ensuring continuity of care, and providing a record for future reference. Without proper documentation, it becomes difficult to ascertain the actions taken or treatments provided to the patient. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was carried out.

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8. 074- What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

Explanation

The liver produces bile, which is a liquid that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. Bile is then stored in the gallbladder until it is needed for digestion. It is released into the small intestine to break down fats into smaller molecules, making it easier for the body to absorb and utilize them.

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9. 021- Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?

Explanation

To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the option "Create/Edit MTP" from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows the user to create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. The other options listed, such as "Edit MTP," "View MTP," and "Delete MTP," are not the first steps in the process of creating and editing an MTP.

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10. 026- Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?

Explanation

The correct answer is that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements and other factors that drive the need for training that must also be taken into account. These additional factors are important in order to ensure that the training provided is comprehensive and meets all the necessary requirements for the specific situation.

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11. 082- Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?  

Explanation

Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. This means that the correct answer is "Chaperone." A chaperone is a person who is present during an examination or treatment to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient. They may also provide support and assistance to the healthcare provider. This policy is important to protect both the patient and the healthcare provider and to maintain professionalism and ethical standards in medical settings.

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12. 083- Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also patients themselves who handle their own information. HIPAA sets standards for the privacy and security of protected health information (PHI) and applies to healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses, as well as their business associates. It is important for all individuals who handle patient information to comply with HIPAA regulations to ensure the confidentiality and security of sensitive medical data.

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13. 008- Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?

Explanation

EMEDS Basic requires routine AE support within 24 hours of notification and urgent AE support within 12 hours of notification.

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14. 061- When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?  

Explanation

Category A is used to assign an urgent priority when setting priorities. This category is likely reserved for tasks or issues that require immediate attention and cannot be delayed. It signifies that the task or issue is of utmost importance and needs to be addressed urgently.

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15. 068- Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria

Explanation

Performance can be measured and evaluated based on two types of criteria: qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative criteria refer to subjective measures that cannot be easily quantified, such as customer satisfaction or employee morale. On the other hand, quantitative criteria involve objective and measurable factors, such as sales numbers or production output. By considering both qualitative and quantitative criteria, a comprehensive assessment of performance can be made, taking into account both the tangible and intangible aspects of an individual, team, or organization's performance.

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16. 016- Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?

Explanation

It is required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. Sustainment training helps them stay up-to-date with the latest practices, procedures, and technologies in their field. By regularly refreshing their knowledge and skills, they can provide the best possible care to patients and ensure that they are competent and proficient in their job. This also helps to enhance the overall quality of healthcare services provided by 4N0X1 personnel.

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17. 005- You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. how you document this information correctly?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient complaints of blurred vision- right eye." This is the most accurate and specific way to document the patient's complaint of blurred vision in the right eye. It clearly identifies the affected eye and provides relevant information for further evaluation and treatment.

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18. 008- What part of the c ell provides the PRIMARY source of cellular energy?

Explanation

Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of cellular energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through a process called cellular respiration. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, lysosomes contain enzymes for breaking down waste materials, and peroxisomes are involved in lipid metabolism and detoxification. However, none of these organelles play a primary role in providing cellular energy compared to mitochondria.

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19. 004- Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

Explanation

The best example to explain tactical doctrine is a car buyer because they have the ability to choose specific qualities that align with their individual needs, such as speed or safety factors. Tactical doctrine refers to the decision-making process that involves selecting the most effective means to achieve specific objectives. In this case, the car buyer's ability to choose specific qualities demonstrates their understanding of their own needs and their strategic decision-making in selecting a car that best fits those needs.

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20. 095- what does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9) ?

Explanation

The abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified" when used in the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9). This term is used to categorize diseases or medical conditions that do not fit into any other specified category within the classification system.

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21. 027- Pigmentation is attributed to

Explanation

Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from harmful UV radiation by absorbing and scattering the rays. The amount and type of melanin present in the skin determine its color, with more melanin resulting in darker skin. The other options mentioned, dermal cells, subcutaneous cells, and sebaceous glands secretions, do not play a direct role in pigmentation.

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22. 012- What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career grouping?

Explanation

The figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that identifies the career grouping is the first figure.

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23. 069- Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air force?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility extends to all levels of the organization, from individual airmen to unit supervisors, group commanders, and account custodians. By holding each individual accountable, the Air Force ensures that the proper care and use of public property is a collective effort.

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24. 070- By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

Explanation

By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the new personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel are aware of safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.

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25. 011- Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field, ensuring that they are up to date and relevant. This includes identifying any necessary updates or changes to the CFETP and working with other stakeholders to implement them. The career field manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that individuals in the career field receive the necessary education and training to perform their duties effectively.

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26. 016- What nerve is the pathway to vision?

Explanation

The optic nerve is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. It is the pathway through which visual signals travel, allowing us to perceive and interpret the world around us. The other options mentioned (posterior, anterior, and sclera) are not nerves and do not play a direct role in the pathway to vision.

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27. 013- Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both cardiac and skeletal muscles have alternating light and dark bands, known as striations, which are caused by the arrangement of contractile proteins within the muscle cells. This striated appearance allows for coordinated and efficient muscle contractions, making both cardiac and skeletal muscles capable of strong and controlled movements.

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28. 0003 - What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Explanation

Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. It focuses on the planning and execution of military operations in a specific theater or area of responsibility. Operational doctrine provides guidance on how to employ forces effectively and efficiently to achieve strategic objectives. It is a key component in military planning and decision-making processes at the operational level of warfare.

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29. 017- Required specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location?

Explanation

The Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in a deployment setting. This means that the program is specifically intended to ensure that individuals in the Air Force receive the necessary training and qualifications for their specific job while deployed in a foreign or combat zone. The program helps maintain readiness and proficiency in AFSCs even in challenging and high-stress environments.

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30. 005- What kind of change to casualty survival rates occur when Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) is available?

Explanation

When Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This means that the presence of AE allows for more effective and efficient transportation of injured individuals to medical facilities, resulting in higher chances of survival. AE provides specialized medical care during transport, ensuring that patients receive the necessary treatment and support during critical moments.

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31. 048- What is the largest lymphatic organ?

Explanation

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is located in the upper left side of the abdomen and plays a crucial role in the immune system. The spleen filters the blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, and helps to fight off infections by producing and storing white blood cells. It also acts as a reservoir for blood, releasing it back into circulation when needed. Therefore, the spleen is an essential organ for maintaining a healthy immune system.

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32. 039- If training is effective, what should trainees remember?

Explanation

Trainees should remember the requirements to successfully complete the job if the training is effective. This means that they should have a clear understanding of what is expected of them in order to perform their job successfully. Remembering the advanced requirements or a certain percentage of their training information is not as important as knowing the basic requirements to complete the job.

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33. 003 - Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of

Explanation

Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion is the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, bending the elbow brings the forearm closer to the head, reducing the angle between the upper arm and the forearm.

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34. 012- What type of tissue can change its shape?

Explanation

Muscle tissue is capable of changing its shape, making it the correct answer. Muscle tissue is composed of cells that have the ability to contract and relax, allowing for movement and changes in shape. This type of tissue is found throughout the body and is responsible for various functions, such as allowing us to move our limbs, pump blood, and even control our facial expressions.

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35. 042- What cells are responsible for the clotting action in the blood?

Explanation

Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in the blood. When there is an injury or damage to blood vessels, platelets are activated and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and also help in the formation of a fibrin mesh, which strengthens the clot. This process, known as coagulation, is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not play a direct role in clotting.

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36. 025 - What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?

Explanation

Sebum is the correct answer because it is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. Sebum is an oily, waxy substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair. It also helps to protect the skin from drying out and provides a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances. Sweat, follicle, and adipose are not substances secreted by the sebaceous gland.

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37. 025- The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) is your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the

Explanation

When creating or editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the "Create/Edit DTL" option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu. This option allows the user to access the necessary tools and features to create or make changes to the DTL. The other options listed, such as "Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu" or "AFTR Data/Duty position menu" do not specify the exact action needed to create or edit the DTL. The "AFTR duty position menu" is not mentioned as a step in the process.

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38. 050- What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the immune system's response to infections. Lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses. Macrophages, another type of white blood cell, help in the process by engulfing and destroying pathogens. Therefore, lymphocytes and macrophages are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes.

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39. 046- The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the

Explanation

The correct answer is to balance the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed. This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure that there is a balanced distribution of personnel across different AFSCs in order to meet the needs and demands of the Air Force. This helps to ensure that there are enough personnel with the necessary skills and expertise in each AFSC to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities.

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40. 009- What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 ?

Explanation

The total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 is 86.

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41. 010- The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4N000. This skill level indicates that the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has no specific skill level assigned. It suggests that the individual is at the entry-level or initial stage of their career in the Air Force.

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42. 087- Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

Explanation

The correct answer is the team-based model. In a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH), healthcare is provided by a team of professionals, including physicians, nurses, and other healthcare providers. This model emphasizes collaboration and coordination among team members to deliver comprehensive and coordinated care to patients. The team-based model ensures that patients receive holistic and patient-centered care, with each team member contributing their unique skills and expertise to meet the individual needs of patients.

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43. 028- The total training program leads to

Explanation

The total training program leads to a higher skill level because training programs are designed to enhance the knowledge, abilities, and expertise of individuals. By participating in a comprehensive training program, individuals can acquire new skills, improve existing ones, and gain a deeper understanding of their field. This increased skill level can then lead to various benefits such as career advancement, increased job opportunities, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.

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44. 058- the small spaces between neurons are called the

Explanation

Synapses are the small spaces between neurons where communication occurs. They allow for the transmission of electrical or chemical signals from one neuron to another. This transfer of information is essential for the functioning of the nervous system. Axons are the long, slender projections of neurons that transmit signals away from the cell body. Nerve cells, also known as neurons, are the basic building blocks of the nervous system. Trigger zones are regions of neurons where action potentials are initiated.

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45. 064- What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?

Explanation

The cranial nerve responsible for the sensation of sight is the optic nerve. This nerve carries visual information from the retina of the eye to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. The optic nerve plays a crucial role in our ability to see and is essential for visual perception and processing.

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46. 001- Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish the mission?

Explanation

AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations, is the correct answer as it is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission. This doctrine document provides guidance and principles for medical operations, including planning, organizing, and executing medical support in various operational environments. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the integration of medical capabilities with other Air Force functions. By following this doctrine, commanders can ensure effective and efficient medical support to enable the overall mission success of the Air Force.

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47. 037- What fluid act as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?  

Explanation

Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the bones, allowing smooth movement, and also provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the joints.

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48. 043- The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the

Explanation

Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. This is the time when the heart is relaxed and filling with blood. It represents the lowest pressure in the arteries and is typically measured as the second number in a blood pressure reading.

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49. 024- The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the

Explanation

The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the lunula. The lunula is a crescent-shaped area that appears white because it is the visible part of the nail matrix, which is responsible for producing new nail cells. It is located at the proximal end of the nail, near the cuticle, and is often more visible on the thumb and big toe. The lunula is an important indicator of nail health and can provide information about underlying conditions or diseases.

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50. 006- Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has NO impatient beds?

Explanation

EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that states there are no impatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10, EMEDS +25, and All EMEDS have impatient beds, imply that there are impatient beds included in those increments. Therefore, EMEDS Basic is the only option that aligns with the statement that there are no impatient beds.

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51. 007- Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief (CISD)?

Explanation

Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training are qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief (CISD). This indicates that both mental health professionals and aerospace medical specialists who have received extra training are deemed suitable for conducting a CISD. The involvement of both specialties suggests that a comprehensive approach, addressing both psychological and medical aspects, is necessary for effective debriefing in critical incidents. The other options either do not include both specialties or do not mention the requirement of additional training.

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52. 033- To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include

Explanation

To fully understand subject knowledge, it is important to analyze the facts and principles related to the subject and draw conclusions based on them. This involves critically examining the information and determining its significance and implications. By doing so, one can gain a deeper understanding of the subject and make informed judgments and decisions. This step helps in consolidating knowledge and developing a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.

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53. 081- Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Explanation

Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that requires healthcare professionals to avoid causing harm to patients. It is the duty of healthcare providers to prioritize the well-being of their patients and ensure that their actions do not result in any harm or injury. This principle emphasizes the importance of providing safe and effective care and avoiding any actions or decisions that could potentially cause harm to the patient.

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54. 059- Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Charge Request?

Explanation

The correct answer is Major Command (MAJCOM). In the United States Air Force Medical Service (AFAFMS), the Major Command is responsible for approving or disapproving an Authorization Charge Request. This means that the decision to authorize or deny a charge request lies with the higher command level rather than individual commanders within the squadron or medical group.

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55. 045- What is the criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airman applying for retraining?

Explanation

The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board ranks Airmen applying for retraining based on their last three EPRs. EPRs, or Enlisted Performance Reports, provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their job performance, leadership abilities, and overall contributions to the Air Force. By considering the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's consistency and sustained performance over a period of time, which helps in determining their suitability for retraining opportunities.

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56. 064- What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic?

Explanation

The scheduler uses Air Force instruction (AFI), operating instruction (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic. These references and guidance provide the necessary rules, regulations, and procedures that need to be followed in order to create an effective and efficient duty schedule. By utilizing AFI, OI, and local guidance, the scheduler ensures that the duty schedule is in compliance with the Air Force's standards and meets the specific needs of the unit or clinic.

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57. 006- You should NOT find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?

Explanation

The nucleus is not found in the cytoplasm of a cell. It is a separate organelle that is enclosed within the nuclear membrane. The cytoplasm, on the other hand, is the gel-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the organelles. Therefore, the correct answer is nucleus.

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58. 084- Where are sperm cells produced?

Explanation

Sperm cells are produced in the testes. The testes are male reproductive organs that are responsible for the production of sperm and the hormone testosterone. They are located outside the body in the scrotum, which helps maintain a lower temperature necessary for sperm production. The testes contain tiny coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules, where sperm cells are produced through a process called spermatogenesis. Once produced, the sperm cells then travel through the epididymis, where they mature and are stored until ejaculation. Therefore, the correct answer is Testes.

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59. 084- For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD Regulation 6025.18-R. This regulation provides general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). It is a Department of Defense (DOD) regulation that outlines the policies and procedures for protecting the privacy and security of individually identifiable health information. It establishes the responsibilities and requirements for DOD personnel and organizations to ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations.

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60. 019- The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area. This means that the MTP is a comprehensive plan that sets out the specific training objectives and milestones that need to be achieved by enlisted personnel in a particular area. It helps to ensure that training is structured and organized, and that enlisted personnel are progressing towards their goals in a systematic manner. By providing a clear roadmap for training, the MTP helps to ensure that enlisted personnel are prepared and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties effectively.

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61. 060- Who is responsible to lead their teams and stablish clear standards for the workcenter ?

Explanation

Supervisors are responsible for leading their teams and establishing clear standards for the workcenter. They have the authority to guide and direct their team members, ensuring that everyone understands their roles and responsibilities. Supervisors are responsible for setting expectations, providing feedback, and holding their team members accountable for their performance. They play a crucial role in maintaining productivity and ensuring that work is carried out efficiently and effectively.

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62. 046- What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?

Explanation

The pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood. It is responsible for carrying oxygen-rich blood from the lungs back to the heart. This is in contrast to other veins, such as the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava, which carry deoxygenated blood from the body tissues back to the heart. The aorta, on the other hand, is an artery that carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the rest of the body.

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63. 035- Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfer from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform

Explanation

When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor must perform an initial evaluation. This evaluation is necessary to assess the Airman's skills, knowledge, and performance in their new position. It helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths and areas for improvement, and allows them to provide appropriate guidance and support. The initial evaluation is crucial in ensuring that the Airman is properly integrated into their new role and can effectively contribute to the team's mission.

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64. 067- What mandatory formation do you keep in mind when making a schedule?

Explanation

When making a schedule, it is important to keep in mind mobility exercises. This suggests that the person should prioritize incorporating physical activities or exercises that promote movement and flexibility into their schedule. This is likely because mobility exercises are essential for maintaining and improving physical health and preventing injuries. By including mobility exercises in the schedule, one can ensure that they allocate time for staying active and taking care of their body.

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65. 036- After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?

Explanation

The first question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level is "Can I do simple parts of the task?" This question helps assess your ability to handle the basic and fundamental aspects of the task. By evaluating your proficiency in performing simple parts, you can gauge your overall skill level and identify areas that may require improvement or further training.

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66. 015- Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS) ?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS). This indicates that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that the survey is filled out and submitted. The commander, 3-Level, and 5-Level are not mentioned as being responsible for this task, so they are not the correct answers.

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67. 072- What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

Explanation

The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This is because canceling the order is the appropriate action to take when the item is not required anymore, rather than accepting it or building extra supply inventory. Informing MEMO about the situation is necessary to ensure proper handling of the cancellation process.

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68. 088- What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

Explanation

Team Huddles within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) occur daily and are intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan. These huddles provide an opportunity for the team to address any issues or challenges that may arise and to ensure that everyone is on the same page regarding the work plan. It allows for effective communication, collaboration, and coordination within the team to provide the best possible care for patients.

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69. 029- The step to evaluate a 4N0X1`s competency on a task involve reviewing the

Explanation

The step to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involves reviewing the behavior exhibited while completing the task, the conditions where the task was performed, and the standards that fall under each task. This comprehensive evaluation allows for a thorough assessment of the individual's performance and ensures that they are meeting the required standards for their role. By considering all these factors, a more accurate evaluation can be made regarding the individual's competency and areas for improvement can be identified.

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70. 065- What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility?

Explanation

A cyclical duty schedule provides a continual rotation of shifts, typically in a fixed pattern such as a week or month. This schedule offers the least amount of flexibility as employees have predetermined shifts and little control over their work hours. Unlike flextime, where employees have more control over when they start and end their workday, a cyclical schedule follows a set pattern that may not accommodate personal preferences or individual needs. Therefore, a cyclical duty schedule is the option that provides the least amount of flexibility.

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71. 076-Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?

Explanation

A biomedical equipment repair technician would be the most appropriate contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge and expertise regarding procedures and policies related to equipment issues. District sales and maintenance representatives may not have the specific technical knowledge required, while base supply and equipment maintenance may not have the specialized expertise in biomedical equipment. The original equipment manufacturer may provide general information, but the biomedical equipment repair technician would be better equipped to provide specific procedures and policies.

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72. 015- What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

Explanation

Rods are responsible for viewing dimly lit images in the eye. Unlike cones, which are responsible for color vision and visual acuity, rods are more sensitive to low levels of light and are therefore better suited for seeing in dim lighting conditions. The high concentration of rods in the peripheral areas of the retina allows for better detection of dimly lit objects in the visual field.

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73. 041- What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Explanation

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is called the mitral valve. This valve allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle during the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. It prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium when the ventricle contracts. The mitral valve consists of two leaflets that open and close in response to changes in pressure, ensuring efficient blood flow through the heart.

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74. 019- In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the

Explanation

The cochlea is a spiral-shaped, fluid-filled structure in the inner ear. It is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. When the stapes, one of the three small bones in the middle ear, moves, it causes a chain reaction that ultimately stimulates the fluid within the cochlea. This stimulation triggers the hair cells in the organ of Corti, which are responsible for detecting different frequencies of sound. Therefore, the correct answer is Cochlea.

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75. 043- What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?

Explanation

To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, as well as the Qualification Training Packages (QTP) for the assigned position. Additionally, they must fulfill all duty position training requirements.

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76. 052- Once excess fluid from  the body tissues enters lymphatic capillaries, it is knowns as

Explanation

When excess fluid from the body tissues enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as lymph. Lymph is a clear fluid that contains white blood cells, proteins, and waste products. It is formed from the interstitial fluid that surrounds the body's cells. Lymph plays a crucial role in the immune system, carrying immune cells and substances to fight infections and remove toxins from the body.

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77. 004- Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately and legibly?

Explanation

It is important to ensure that medical abbreviations, documentation, and terminology are written accurately and legibly in order to provide clear and concise patient information and ensure patient safety. Accurate and legible documentation helps to avoid ambiguity and prevent expensive lawsuits. It also prevents the need to re-write notes in a patient's medical chart, saving time and effort. Additionally, clear and concise documentation allows inspectors to easily critique the document, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards. Ultimately, accurate and legible documentation is essential for effective communication and the overall well-being of the patient.

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78. 055- What part of the lower respiratory system does the air travel to and from the lungs through a cyclical tube composed of cartilage?

Explanation

The air travels to and from the lungs through a cyclical tube composed of cartilage called the trachea. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, connects the larynx (voice box) to the bronchi in the lungs. It is a flexible tube that allows air to pass through, ensuring that oxygen reaches the lungs and carbon dioxide is expelled. The cartilage in the trachea provides structural support and prevents collapse of the airway during breathing.

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79. 056- During INHALATION, the intercostal muscular contractions permits the ribs to move

Explanation

During inhalation, the intercostal muscles contract, which allows the ribs to move forward and slightly upward. This movement of the ribs helps to expand the chest cavity, creating more space for the lungs to expand and fill with air. This upward and forward movement of the ribs is essential for proper breathing and the intake of oxygen into the lungs.

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80. 010- The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is know as

Explanation

Cell differentiation refers to the process by which cells become specialized and acquire specific functions. During cell differentiation, cells undergo various changes in gene expression, morphology, and function, which allow them to perform specific tasks in the body. This process is crucial for the development and maintenance of multicellular organisms, as it ensures that different cell types perform their specific roles in the body. Interphase, metaphase, and cytoplasmic division are not directly related to the process of cell differentiation.

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81. 071- What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number of permanent a person will develop?

Explanation

The difference in the number of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develop is 12. This means that there are 12 more permanent teeth that will develop compared to the number of primary teeth.

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82. 038- What is the process that forms blood cells called?

Explanation

Hematopoiesis is the process by which new blood cells are formed in the body. It occurs in the bone marrow and involves the differentiation and maturation of stem cells into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This process is essential for maintaining a healthy blood supply and ensuring the proper functioning of the immune system. Hemoptosis, Erythrocyte, and Thrombocytes are not the correct answers as they do not refer to the process of blood cell formation.

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83. 040- What is the term for the thick muscular portion of the heart?

Explanation

The term for the thick muscular portion of the heart is myocardium. The myocardium is responsible for the contraction of the heart, pumping blood throughout the body. It is composed of specialized cardiac muscle tissue that is thicker in the ventricles compared to the atria. The myocardium is essential for the heart's function and plays a crucial role in maintaining circulation.

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84. 026- In which function of the integumentary system would the blood vessels constrict?

Explanation

The blood vessels in the integumentary system constrict during body temperature regulation. When the body is too hot, the blood vessels narrow or constrict, reducing blood flow to the skin and minimizing heat loss. This helps to conserve heat and maintain a stable internal body temperature. Conversely, when the body is too cold, the blood vessels dilate or expand, increasing blood flow to the skin and promoting heat loss through radiation. This process helps to cool down the body and bring it back to a normal temperature range.

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85. 014- How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?

Explanation

The 4N0XX job inventory is normally completed every 3 years. This suggests that the job inventory is conducted on a triennial basis, meaning it is done once every three years.

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86. 022- What are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity?

Explanation

The olfactory bulbs are the correct answer because they are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity. They are located at the base of the brain and receive signals from the cilia, which are hair-like structures in the nasal cavity that detect odors. The olfactory bulbs then transmit these signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret different smells.

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87. 041- Name one of three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field

Explanation

One of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field is the Neurology technician. This means that within the 4N0X1 career field, individuals can specialize in working as technicians in the field of neurology. They would be responsible for assisting in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders, performing tests and procedures related to the nervous system, and providing care to patients with neurological conditions.

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88. 079- The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when bladder contains APROXIMATELY how many millimeters of urine?

Explanation

The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately 250 millimeters of urine. This is because the bladder has stretch receptors that send signals to the brain when it reaches a certain level of fullness. The brain then interprets these signals as the need to urinate.

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89. 037- After achieving training and knowledge what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?

Explanation

The last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately, and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task, but also your level of understanding and ability to teach others. It indicates a high level of proficiency and mastery in the subject matter.

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90. 002 - A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion BEST describes which of the following?

Explanation

The term "axis of joint rotation" refers to a line that runs through the center of a joint and around which movement occurs. This line is perpendicular to the plane of motion, allowing for rotation and movement in multiple directions. "Circumduction" refers to a circular movement, "range of motion" refers to the extent of movement possible at a joint, and "longitudinal axis" refers to a line that runs parallel to the length of a structure.

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91. 059- What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other end?

Explanation

A bipolar neuron is a type of neuron that has one axon extending from one end of the soma (cell body) and one dendrite extending from the other end. This type of neuron is commonly found in sensory organs such as the retina of the eye, where it helps in transmitting visual information. The bipolar structure allows for a more focused and direct transmission of signals, making it well-suited for sensory processing.

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92. 034- What attaches skeletal muscle to the bone?

Explanation

Tendons attach skeletal muscles to bones. They are strong, fibrous connective tissues that are responsible for transmitting the force generated by the muscles to the bones, allowing movement to occur. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones, providing stability and support to joints. Aponeuroses are broad, flat tendons that attach muscles to other muscles or to structures such as bone or skin. Visceral muscles are found in the walls of organs and are not involved in attaching skeletal muscles to bones.

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93. 055- Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items?

Explanation

AF Form 797 is the correct answer because it is the form used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items. The JQS is a document that outlines the qualifications and requirements for a specific job or position in the Air Force. The continuation items on the JQS provide additional information or updates to the standard qualifications. Therefore, if someone needs to access these continuation items, they would use AF Form 797.

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94. 086- The LOWER third of the uterus is called

Explanation

The lower third of the uterus is called the cervix. The cervix is the narrow, cylindrical lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. It functions as a passage for menstrual blood to flow out of the uterus and for sperm to enter during sexual intercourse. It also plays a crucial role during childbirth by dilating and effacing to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. Therefore, the correct answer is cervix.

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95. 042- Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins

Explanation

The correct answer is to meet the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626. This means that in order to successfully recommend formal training, one must ensure that they fulfill the requirements stated in these documents. These documents likely outline the necessary qualifications, prerequisites, and procedures for enrolling in formal training programs. By meeting these requirements, individuals can ensure that they are eligible and prepared to pursue the recommended formal training.

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96. 076- Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?

Explanation

Each kidney contains approximately 1 million nephrons. Nephrons are the basic functional units of the kidneys responsible for filtering waste products and excess water from the blood. The large number of nephrons in each kidney allows for efficient filtration and regulation of the body's fluid and electrolyte balance.

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97. 031- What does task knowledge identify?

Explanation

Task knowledge refers to the understanding and proficiency in a specific task or subject. It involves being able to identify relevant facts, state underlying principles, analyze information, and evaluate the subject matter critically. This includes the ability to gather and interpret data, apply logical reasoning, and make informed judgments. Therefore, the correct answer suggests that task knowledge identifies an individual's capability to perform all these cognitive processes in relation to a particular task or subject.

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98. 062- What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within the unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered?

Explanation

The scheduler within the unit or clinic is responsible for making sure that all shifts are adequately covered. To fulfill this responsibility, they should use all Air Force instructions, OIs (Operating Instructions), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule. This means that they should follow the guidelines and regulations set by the Air Force, as well as any specific instructions or protocols provided by the unit or clinic. By using all relevant instructions and guidance, the scheduler can ensure that the duty schedule is prepared in accordance with the appropriate standards and requirements.

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99. 013- Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?

Explanation

The career field manager may request a 4N0X1 job inventory. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, including the allocation of job positions within that field. As such, they have the authority to request a job inventory for the 4N0X1 job, which is likely a specific job within the medical field. The other options, such as the Chief Nurse, Command Chief, and Medical Group commander, may have authority and influence within the medical field, but they do not have the specific role of managing the career field and requesting job inventories.

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100. 040- What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness ?

Explanation

One of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness is to analyze if everyone actively participated in the training process. This means assessing whether all individuals who were supposed to be involved in the training actually took part and engaged in the activities. By evaluating the level of participation, trainers can determine if the training was effective in reaching and involving all the necessary individuals. This method helps in identifying any gaps or issues in participation, which can be addressed to improve the overall effectiveness of the training program.

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101. 021- Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?

Explanation

Odors are described as belonging to seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them. This means that there are seven main categories of odors, and any given odor can be a combination of two or more of these categories.

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102. 082- What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body? 

Explanation

The urethra is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body. It serves as a passage for urine to be eliminated from the body. The other options listed are not correct because the epididymis is a structure in the male reproductive system, the ejaculation duct is not a recognized anatomical term, and the seminal vesicles are glands that produce seminal fluid, but they do not lead to the exterior of the body.

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103. 067- What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for involuntary body functions?

Explanation

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling involuntary body functions. This includes activities such as heart rate, digestion, breathing, and regulation of body temperature. Unlike the somatic nervous system, which controls voluntary actions, the autonomic nervous system operates without conscious control. It consists of two main divisions: the sympathetic nervous system, which prepares the body for fight or flight responses, and the parasympathetic nervous system, which promotes relaxation and restorative processes. Therefore, the autonomic nervous system is the correct answer to this question.

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104. 057- What button do you click to add new file information to the Air force Training Record (AFTR) User File?

Explanation

To add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File, you would click on the "ADD FILE" button. This button allows you to input and save new file information into the system.

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105. 089- What is the term used to describe the FIRST menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached?

Explanation

Menarche is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached. It marks the beginning of a girl's reproductive years and is characterized by the shedding of the uterine lining, resulting in bleeding. Menarche typically occurs between the ages of 9 and 15, although it can vary.

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106. 032- To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?

Explanation

To fully understand task knowledge, one step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This step involves being able to identify and describe the various components and tools involved in the task, as well as having a basic understanding of the key facts and information related to the task. By being able to name these parts, tools, and facts, you demonstrate a foundational level of knowledge and comprehension of the task at hand.

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107. 078- Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month`s base pay of

Explanation

The correct answer is an individual who, through negligence or willful misconduct, damaged assigned living quarters. This is because the question is asking about the pecuniary liability, which refers to the financial responsibility or compensation that someone has to bear for their actions. In this case, the liability is limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay for a person who lost or damaged property, specifically assigned living quarters. This implies that if someone negligently or intentionally damages the living quarters, they will be held financially accountable up to the specified limit.

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108. 022- What is the Fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?

Explanation

The fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks is for the user to enter in the start month, end month, training days, training method, evaluation method, and training aid. This step is necessary to provide specific details and instructions for the training task.

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109. 080- What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment?

Explanation

DD Form 1131 is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment. This form is specifically designed for individuals to acknowledge their financial responsibility and make payments in cash. It serves as a record of the payment made and helps in maintaining accurate financial records.

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110. 024- The edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited?

Explanation

The correct answer is MTL tasks 5 and 7. The MTL menu option allows for editing certification level requirements. Specifically, tasks 5 and 7 within the MTL can be edited using this option.

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111. 045- What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?

Explanation

The correct answer is the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It receives blood from the legs, pelvis, and abdominal organs, and delivers it to the right atrium of the heart. The other options, such as capillaries, pulmonary vein, and superior vena cava, are not responsible for returning blood from the lower body to the heart.

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112. 063- Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic?

Explanation

Nurse managers and NCOICs are responsible for the final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic. This means that both the nurse managers and the NCOICs have the authority to review and approve the duty schedule, ensuring that it is in line with the needs of the unit or clinic and the availability of the enlisted personnel. By involving both nurse managers and NCOICs in the approval process, it ensures that there is a collaborative effort between the nursing leadership and the military leadership in managing the duty schedule effectively.

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113. 047- To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), click on

Explanation

To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), you need to log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS) and navigate to the "Training records" section. This is where you can view and manage your training records within the AFTR system.

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114. 099- What is the purpose of case management?

Explanation

The purpose of case management is to promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care. This means that case management aims to ensure that patients receive high-quality care that is safe and effective, while also being mindful of cost considerations. Case managers work to coordinate and manage the care of patients, ensuring that they receive the appropriate treatments and services in a timely manner. By promoting quality, safe, and cost-effective care, case management contributes to improved patient outcomes and overall healthcare efficiency.

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115. 048- the procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or WorkCentre is performed by clicking

Explanation

The correct answer is "My profile and editing root and sub Organizations." To update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or WorkCentre, the procedure involves accessing "My profile" and then making changes to the root and sub Organizations within the profile. This allows for accurate and up-to-date information to be reflected in the User Location section.

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116. 086- Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airman and their family are communicating online?

Explanation

Not taking any precautions while off duty is not a useful social media tip when Airman and their family are communicating online. It is important to always exercise caution and be mindful of the information shared online, even when off duty, to protect personal privacy and maintain a professional image.

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117. 038- The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and train critiques or surveys are used to document

Explanation

The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and train critiques or surveys are used to document training effectiveness. These documents are utilized to track and record the effectiveness of the training programs in the Air Force. They provide a means to evaluate the success of the training procedures and make any necessary improvements or adjustments.

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118. 027- Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?

Explanation

If there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier, you would contact the Base Training Office. They would be responsible for coordinating and organizing training within the base and would be able to assist in finding a suitable trainer or certifier for the specific requirement.

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119. 032- What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is a type of muscle that is under voluntary control, meaning that it can be consciously controlled by the individual. Additionally, skeletal muscle is characterized by its striated appearance, which is due to the organized arrangement of the muscle fibers. Therefore, the correct answer is "Voluntary: Striated".

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120. 057- The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible EXHALATION is known as

Explanation

Residual air refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs even after the strongest possible exhalation. This air is essential for maintaining lung function and preventing collapse of the lungs. Tidal air refers to the normal amount of air that is inhaled and exhaled during regular breathing. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. Expiratory reserve refers to the additional amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation.

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121. 074- How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted?

Explanation

Medical and nonmedical equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure the safety and functionality of the equipment. Daily inspections allow for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of accidents or equipment failure. Regular inspections also help to maintain compliance with safety regulations and standards.

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122. 009- Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is ACTUALLY dividing?

Explanation

Anaphase is the phase of mitosis where the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing. During anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This division of the nucleus is a crucial step in mitosis, as it ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. In contrast, prophase is the phase where the chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Telophase is the phase where the nuclear envelope reforms and the chromosomes decondense. Metaphase is the phase where the chromosomes align at the center of the cell.

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123. 066- The fight-or-flight reaction is controlled by the

Explanation

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight reaction. When faced with a threatening or stressful situation, this system activates, causing an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and the release of stress hormones like adrenaline. This response prepares the body to either fight the threat or flee from it. The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, the meninges are protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, and the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for rest and digestion.

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124. 014- Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the

Explanation

The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil, allowing light to enter the eye. The aqueous humor helps maintain the shape of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens. It also helps to remove waste products from the eye. Therefore, the iris is the correct answer as it is the structure that is in direct contact with the aqueous humor.

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125. 080- What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentration?

Explanation

The nephron is the correct answer because it is the functional unit of the kidney that filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentration. Each kidney contains millions of nephrons, which consist of a glomerulus and a tubule. The glomerulus filters the blood, while the tubule reabsorbs necessary substances and excretes waste products. This process helps maintain the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body.

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126. 023- What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?

Explanation

The correct answer is STS on the left and MTL on the right. This means that the Master Training List (MTL) section is divided into two parts, with the STS (which stands for Specialized Training Standards) on the left and the MTL on the right.

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127. 044- Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the

Explanation

Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the pulmonary vein. The pulmonary vein carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. From there, the blood is pumped into the left ventricle and then distributed to the rest of the body through the aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood to all parts of the body except the lungs. The pulmonary artery, on the other hand, carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The right subclavian vein is not involved in the transport of oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart.

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128. 071- what is the name of the product that is generated though the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Activity issue/turn-in summary". This report is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and it lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section. It provides a summary of the activity's transactions related to issuing and returning supplies and equipment.

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129. 030- What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?  

Explanation

Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied. These bones are small and round, resembling a sesame seed, hence the name. They are found in areas where tendons wrap around joints, such as the hands, feet, and knees. Sesamoid bones help to reduce friction, increase leverage, and protect the tendons from excessive wear and tear.

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130. 087- What happens to the ovum after sperm fertilizes it?

Explanation

After fertilization, the ovum travels to the uterus and attaches to the endometrium. This is the process of implantation, where the fertilized egg embeds itself into the lining of the uterus. This is a crucial step in pregnancy as it allows for the development and nourishment of the embryo. The endometrium provides a suitable environment for the embryo to grow and receive nutrients from the mother's body.

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131. 075- Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Thoracic to the lumbar spinal region." The kidneys are located in the posterior abdominal cavity and are positioned between the thoracic and lumbar spinal regions. This means that they are situated in the upper abdomen, just below the diaphragm, and extend down towards the lower back.

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132. 001- What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum?

Explanation

The correct anatomical position of the spine in relation to the sternum is posterior. This means that the spine is located at the back of the body, while the sternum is located at the front.

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133. 028- Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

Explanation

Bone ends would have very little compact bone because they are primarily composed of spongy bone. Spongy bone contains a network of trabeculae, which are thin, branching structures that provide support and help with bone marrow production. Compact bone, on the other hand, is found in the outer layer of bones and provides strength and protection. Therefore, the bone ends would have less compact bone compared to the outermost part of the bone.

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134. 060- What is the PRIMARY function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements?

Explanation

The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordinating muscular movements, but it also plays a role in controlling the activity of the brain itself. This includes regulating and fine-tuning the timing and intensity of neural impulses, as well as maintaining overall brain function. The cerebellum does not interpret sensations, govern all conscious functions, or control heart rate and blood pressure.

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135. 090- Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is set to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least

Explanation

Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is set to the medical treatment facility (MTF) on a quarterly basis. This means that the enrollment data is updated and transmitted to the MTF every three months. This frequency allows for regular updates and ensures that the MTF has the most current and accurate information regarding the eligibility and enrollment status of beneficiaries.

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136. 090- The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called

Explanation

The correct answer is "anterior lobe and the posterior lobe." The pituitary gland, also known as the master gland, is divided into two main sections: the anterior lobe and the posterior lobe. The anterior lobe produces and releases several hormones that regulate various bodily functions, such as growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and adrenocorticotropic hormone. The posterior lobe stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus, such as oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.

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137. 092- Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormone?

Explanation

Thyroxine is the correct answer because it is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormone in the body. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands and is not directly related to thyroid function. Triiodothyronine is another thyroid hormone, but it is produced in smaller amounts compared to thyroxine. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the production of thyroxine and triiodothyronine, but it is not the majority hormone itself.

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138. 073- Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?

Explanation

The colon is responsible for absorbing water from the remaining indigestible food matter that passes through the small intestine. It plays a crucial role in reabsorbing water and electrolytes, which are then used by the body for various functions. This process helps in maintaining the body's hydration levels and ensures that the body receives the necessary amount of water for its proper functioning.

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139. 096- When do the Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member`s status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)?

Explanation

When the Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turns yellow in the Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS), it indicates that the PHA is due within 3 months. This means that the member needs to undergo a health assessment within the next three months to ensure their medical fitness. The yellow status serves as a reminder for the member and the system to schedule and complete the PHA within the specified timeframe.

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140. 079- Report of Survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when 

Explanation

The Report of Survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when financial responsibility is assessed. This means that if there is a need to determine who is responsible for the financial loss or damage, the ROS will be reviewed by the legal office. This could involve assessing the actions or negligence of individuals or organizations involved in the incident to determine who should be held financially accountable.

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141. 051- Where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?

Explanation

The lymph from the right lymphatic duct empties into the right subclavian vein. The lymphatic system is responsible for draining excess fluid, waste products, and foreign substances from the tissues. Lymph vessels carry this fluid, called lymph, towards the heart. The right lymphatic duct is a major lymphatic vessel that collects lymph from the right upper body, including the right arm, right side of the head, and right side of the chest. It then empties this lymph into the right subclavian vein, which is located near the collarbone. From there, the lymph is returned to the bloodstream.

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142. 049- If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit training manager. When the training status code changes, the person responsible for updating the code in the user training information is the Unit training manager. They are in charge of managing the training of individuals within the unit and ensuring that all training records are accurate and up to date. They have the authority to make changes to the training code and ensure that the appropriate training is assigned to each individual.

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143. 053- The superior portion of the of the pharynx that contains the eutherian tubes is the

Explanation

The nasopharynx is the correct answer because it is the superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes. The eustachian tubes connect the middle ear to the nasopharynx and help equalize pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. The adenoid is a lymphoid tissue located in the nasopharynx, but it is not the superior portion of the pharynx. The oropharynx and laryngopharynx are inferior to the nasopharynx and do not contain the eustachian tubes.

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144. 029- Where are the nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?

Explanation

The medullary cavity is the central cavity within the bone that contains nerves and blood vessels. It is surrounded by the cancellous bone, which is a spongy bone tissue. The periosteum is a fibrous membrane that covers the outer surface of the bone, and the articular refers to the joint surface of the bone. However, neither the periosteum nor the articular contains nerves and blood vessels, making the medullary cavity the correct answer.

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145. 033- The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the

Explanation

The perimysium is the correct answer because it is the connective tissue layer that surrounds and separates muscle fibers into bundles called fascicles. It lies just below the epimysium, which is the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding the entire muscle. The fascia is a layer of connective tissue that covers muscles and other structures, but it is not specifically located just below the epimysium. The tendon is a tough band of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone and is not located within the muscle itself. The endomysium is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual muscle fibers, not the layer just below the epimysium.

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146. 036- What type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib?

Explanation

A synchondrosis is a type of joint that connects bones with hyaline cartilage. In the case of the sternum and the first rib, they are connected by a synchondrosis joint called the costal cartilage. This type of joint allows for limited movement and provides stability to the ribcage. The other options listed, condyloid, gomphosis, and syndesmosis, are different types of joints that do not connect the sternum and the first rib.

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147. 085- Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the

Explanation

The fluid secreted from the seminal vesicles helps carry sperm through the ejaculatory duct. The seminal vesicles are responsible for producing a significant portion of the fluid that makes up semen. This fluid contains nutrients and substances that help nourish and protect the sperm. The ejaculatory duct is a short tube that connects the vas deferens (which carries sperm from the epididymis) to the urethra. It is during ejaculation that the fluid from the seminal vesicles, along with sperm from the vas deferens, is propelled through the ejaculatory duct and into the urethra, ultimately being expelled from the body.

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148. 069- The ileocecal valve in the small intestine is connected to the

Explanation

The ileocecal valve in the small intestine is connected to the cecum. The ileocecal valve acts as a one-way valve, regulating the flow of digested food from the small intestine into the large intestine. It prevents the backflow of fecal matter into the small intestine and helps in the absorption of nutrients. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine and is located at the junction between the small and large intestines. Hence, the cecum is the correct answer.

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149. 070- what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

Explanation

The correct answer is Frenulum. The frenulum is a mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth. It helps to stabilize and control the movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

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150. 091- If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization?

Explanation

The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) is the system that should be used to determine the deployment status of a unit. AHLTA supports force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization. It is a comprehensive electronic health record system that allows for the management and tracking of medical information for military personnel. By using AHLTA, deployment status can be accurately assessed and appropriate health measures can be taken to ensure the well-being of the unit.

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151. 049- What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?

Explanation

Nodes in the lymph system act as filters. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that contain immune cells. They filter lymph fluid, trapping and removing bacteria, viruses, and other harmful substances. Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the body's immune response, helping to prevent the spread of infections and diseases.

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152. 023- The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Stratum spinosum. The stratum spinosum is the layer of the epidermis that is located just above the stratum basale, which is the deepest layer. The stratum spinosum is responsible for providing strength and support to the skin, as well as assisting in the production of keratinocytes. It contains desmosomes, which are intercellular connections that help to hold the cells together.

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153. 063- What is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves?

Explanation

A plexus is a large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves. It is a network of nerves that come together and branch off to supply different regions of the body. The other options, trigeminal, autonomic, and brachial, do not refer to large intersections of spinal nerves, making them incorrect answers.

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154. 052- What`s the first button trainee`s click to sign off 623 entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?

Explanation

The first button trainees click to sign off 623 entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is "USER". This suggests that trainees need to be logged in as a user in order to access and sign off on the entries in the AFTR.

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155. 095- Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to secrete?

Explanation

The Islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas that are responsible for producing and releasing hormones. Insulin is one of the main hormones secreted by the Islets of Langerhans. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. Insulin also helps to store excess glucose in the liver for later use. Therefore, it is expected that the Islets of Langerhans would secrete insulin.

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156. 044- What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?

Explanation

Prior to applying for retraining, one must meet the eligibility requirements. This means that there are certain criteria or qualifications that an individual must fulfill in order to be eligible for retraining. These requirements could include factors such as job performance, length of service, or specific skills and qualifications needed for the retraining program. Meeting these eligibility requirements is necessary to ensure that the individual is suitable and qualified for the retraining opportunity.

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157. 030- Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?

Explanation

Your OJT trainer or supervisor is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge. They have the expertise and experience to guide and train individuals in their specific job roles. They can provide hands-on training, instructions, and feedback to ensure that trainees acquire the necessary skills and knowledge required for their job responsibilities.

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158. 011- What type of tissue is the MAJOR components of glands?

Explanation

Epithelial tissue is the correct answer because glands are primarily composed of this type of tissue. Epithelial tissue is responsible for forming the lining of various organs and structures in the body, including glands. It is specialized to perform functions such as secretion, absorption, and protection. Glands, which produce and secrete substances, rely on epithelial tissue to carry out these functions effectively. Therefore, epithelial tissue is the major component of glands.

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159. 039- The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is the valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle. It is called the tricuspid valve because it has three leaflets or cusps that open and close to allow blood to flow from the atrium to the ventricle and prevent backflow. This valve ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the atrium to the ventricle, and prevents any regurgitation of blood back into the atrium.

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160. 058- What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Explanation

The Medical Expense and Performance Reporting system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. This system provides data on medical expenses and performance, allowing decision-makers to assess the needs and effectiveness of medical personnel. It helps in determining the allocation of manpower and budget resources in order to optimize the delivery of medical services.

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161. 075- What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair?

Explanation

The primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial reporting list. This form allows for the documentation of temporary equipment issues and repairs, as well as any actions taken by the custodian or reporting list. It serves as a comprehensive record of all repairs and actions related to the equipment, ensuring accountability and proper maintenance.

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162. 061- The part of the brain stem that connects the spinal cord is the

Explanation

The medulla oblongata is the part of the brain stem that connects the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. It also helps regulate reflexes and involuntary movements. The pons, midbrain, and cerebrum are other parts of the brain, but they do not directly connect the spinal cord.

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163. 050- What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?

Explanation

AF 623 Part II is the correct answer because this section of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is specifically used to update the start and complete dates of career development courses (CDCs). The AF 623 Part II section focuses on the individual's training and education, including CDCs, and allows for the documentation of start and completion dates to track the progress and completion of these courses.

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164. 017- What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?

Explanation

The vitreous humor is a gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina in the eyeball. It helps to maintain the round shape of the eyeball and provides support to the delicate structures within the eye. Tears, ciliary, and aqueous humor do not play a role in maintaining the round shape of the eyeball.

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165. 066- What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules?

Explanation

The correct answer provides a comprehensive list of information that can be provided to new personnel on the preparation of duty schedules. It includes important factors such as authority, responsibility, and delegation, the length and direction of cycle rotation, deadlines for posting, guidelines for changes and exchanging hours, and reporting schedule changes. This information is crucial for new personnel to understand their role in the duty scheduling process and to ensure smooth operations within the unit.

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166. 007- What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?

Explanation

Microfilaments are responsible for cell contraction. They are composed of actin proteins and play a crucial role in maintaining the shape of the cell, cell division, and muscle contraction. They are involved in the process of cell contraction by interacting with myosin proteins, which generate the force required for contraction. Microfilaments are also involved in other cellular processes such as cell movement and the formation of cellular extensions like microvilli.

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167. 083- Growth of body hair on a male is a

Explanation

Growth of body hair on a male is considered a secondary sex characteristic. Secondary sex characteristics are physical features that develop during puberty and distinguish males from females, such as facial hair, deepening voice, and increased muscle mass. These characteristics are not directly involved in reproduction but are influenced by sex hormones, such as testosterone. Primary sex characteristics, on the other hand, are directly related to reproduction, such as the development of the male reproductive system. The pituitary gland, although involved in the production of sex hormones, is not directly responsible for the growth of body hair.

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168. 051- the Training Type drop down menu is used to view the Entire Training Record and

Explanation

The correct answer is "Qualification Training" because the Training Type drop-down menu is used to view different types of training records. Out of the options provided, "Qualification Training" is one of the types that can be selected from the menu. This suggests that the Training Type drop-down menu allows users to filter and view only the records related to qualification training.

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169. 094- What hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on blood sugar level?

Explanation

Norepinephrine is a hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla that has little effect on blood sugar levels. It primarily functions as a neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, where it helps regulate heart rate, blood pressure, and the body's response to stress. Unlike epinephrine, which is also secreted by the adrenal medulla, norepinephrine does not significantly affect blood sugar levels. Instead, it primarily acts as a vasoconstrictor, narrowing blood vessels and increasing blood pressure.

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170. 081- The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of

Explanation

The correct answer is connective tissue because the testes are composed of various types of connective tissue, including dense connective tissue and loose connective tissue. Connective tissue provides support and structure to organs and helps in the formation of blood vessels, nerves, and other components of the testes. Additionally, connective tissue also plays a role in the production and development of sperm cells within the testes.

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171. 018- The auditory ossicles  are located in the

Explanation

The correct answer is middle ear. The auditory ossicles, which include the malleus, incus, and stapes, are located in the middle ear. These small bones are responsible for transmitting sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.

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172. 020- Which of the following is a nasal air passageway ?

Explanation

The middle meatus is a nasal air passageway located in the middle of the nasal cavity. It is one of the three meatuses (the other two being the superior and inferior meatuses) that help to regulate the flow of air through the nose. The middle meatus is important for the drainage of the frontal, maxillary, and anterior ethmoid sinuses, as well as for the passage of the middle nasal concha.

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173. 054- The Larynx is composed of how many cartilages?

Explanation

The larynx is composed of three single cartilages (thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottis) and three paired cartilages (arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform). These cartilages work together to control the vocal cords and regulate airflow during speech and swallowing.

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174. 035- What type of joint joints the distal end of the tibia and fibula?

Explanation

A syndesmosis joint is a type of joint that connects two bones with the help of ligaments. In this case, the distal end of the tibia and fibula are joined together by a syndesmosis joint. This joint allows for a small amount of movement between the tibia and fibula, providing stability and support to the lower leg. Condyloid, gomphosis, and synchondrosis are different types of joints that do not specifically describe the joint between the tibia and fibula.

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175. 094- Whos starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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176. 078- Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by

Explanation

The correct answer is "flap of mucous membrane". The flap of mucous membrane, known as the ureterovesical valve or the vesicoureteral valve, prevents the backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureters. This valve is located at the junction where the ureters enter the bladder and acts as a one-way valve, allowing urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder but preventing it from flowing back into the ureters. This helps maintain the flow of urine in the correct direction and prevents urinary reflux, which can lead to urinary tract infections and other complications.

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177. 020- Duty section job description an the upgrade training plan is kept in the

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the correct answer because it is the document that contains the duty section job description and the upgrade training plan. The MTP outlines the training requirements and objectives for a specific career field and provides a roadmap for career progression. It includes information on job responsibilities, required training courses, and timelines for completion. The MTP is an important tool for supervisors and trainees to ensure that all necessary training is completed and that individuals are prepared for their assigned duties.

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178. 098- What are the principles of population health management?

Explanation

The principles of population health management include supporting the Department of Defense (DOD) and our nation's security. This means that population health management strategies aim to prioritize the health and well-being of the military population, ensuring that they are fit for duty and able to support national security interests. By focusing on the health of the military population, population health management can help maintain a strong and capable military force.

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179. 089- What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?

Explanation

CarePoint completes updates to both action lists and patient counts for lab and screening tests nightly. This means that any changes or updates to lab results and screening tests are reflected in the action lists and patient counts on a daily basis. This ensures that the information is up to date and accurate, allowing for timely and effective patient care.

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180. 077- How many inches long would you expect the ureter to the in a 30 year old male?

Explanation

The ureter is a tube that connects the kidneys to the bladder. In a 30-year-old male, the ureter is expected to be around ten inches long. This length allows for the proper transport of urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

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181. 053- What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098?

Explanation

The first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098 is to click the SEARCH RECORD button.

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182. 097- When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turn red what items may be overdue?

Explanation

When a Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red, it indicates that the member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental exams, and deployment health assessments (DHAs). This status is triggered on day 46, suggesting that the member has not completed these health requirements within the specified timeframe.

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183. 047- Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called

Explanation

Efferent lymphatic vessels are the correct answer because they are the vessels that carry lymph away from the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are small bean-shaped structures that filter lymph and help fight infections. Afferent lymphatic vessels bring lymph into the lymph nodes, while efferent lymphatic vessels carry lymph out of the lymph nodes and back into circulation.

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184. 062- What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?

Explanation

The interior of the cerebrum is responsible for storing knowledge. This is because the cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is involved in higher cognitive functions such as memory, learning, and processing information. It contains structures like the hippocampus and the cerebral cortex, which play a crucial role in the storage and retrieval of information. Therefore, the function of storing knowledge is one of the important roles of the interior of the cerebrum.

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185. 088- The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when

Explanation

The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when an ovum is released from one of the ovaries. This phase is known as the ovulatory phase and typically occurs around day 14 of a 28-day cycle. During this phase, the ovary releases a mature egg, which then travels through the fallopian tube towards the uterus. If fertilization does not occur, the egg will disintegrate and the menstrual cycle will continue with the shedding of the uterine lining.

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186. 093- What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?

Explanation

The majority of the adrenal gland is made up of the adrenal cortex. The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the gland and is responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol, aldosterone, and androgens. These hormones play important roles in regulating metabolism, blood pressure, and the body's response to stress. The adrenal medulla, on the other hand, is the inner layer of the gland and is responsible for producing adrenaline and noradrenaline, which are involved in the body's fight or flight response.

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187. 100- What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)?

Explanation

The purpose of utilization management (UM) is to identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues that may result in inefficient healthcare delivery or have an impact on resources and services. This involves actively identifying any problems or inefficiencies in the healthcare system, closely monitoring them to understand their impact, evaluating the issues to determine their root causes and potential solutions, and taking necessary actions to resolve them. UM aims to improve the overall efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare delivery by addressing and resolving any issues that may hinder optimal resource utilization and service delivery.

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188. 034- What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) ?

Explanation

When each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the information that is updated includes the start and complete date of the task, as well as the initials of the trainee, trainer, and certifier (if applicable). This information helps to track the progress and completion of the training, ensuring that all necessary tasks have been successfully learned and demonstrated.

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189. 072- Where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum?

Explanation

After leaving the ileum, undigested chyme will enter the cecum. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine and serves as a receiving pouch for the undigested food material. From the cecum, the chyme will continue its journey through the colon, where water and electrolytes are absorbed, and eventually reach the rectum and anal canal for elimination as feces. The duodenum, on the other hand, is the first part of the small intestine and is responsible for receiving partially digested food from the stomach.

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190. 077- Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged or destroyed?

Explanation

The correct answer is supply system stocks and property record items. When items are lost, damaged, or destroyed, a report of survey (ROS) documentation is required for supply system stocks, which are items held in inventory for distribution, and property record items, which are items that are accountable and tracked in a property management system. This documentation helps to determine the circumstances surrounding the loss, damage, or destruction and to assess any financial or administrative liability.

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191. 091- Which organ secrets the adrenocorticotropic hormone?

Explanation

The correct answer is adrenal cortex. The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting the adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH is produced in response to the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. It stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol, which plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, immune response, and stress response. Therefore, the adrenal cortex is the organ that secretes ACTH.

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192. 065- What cranial nerve control the lateral rectus eye muscle?

Explanation

The cranial nerve that controls the lateral rectus eye muscle is the Abducent nerve. This nerve is responsible for the abduction of the eye, which means it moves the eye away from the midline of the body. The lateral rectus muscle specifically controls the outward movement of the eye, allowing it to look towards the side. Therefore, the Abducent nerve is the correct answer in this case.

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193. 093- What step does the medical technician provide in the workflow process?

Explanation

The medical technician provides the step of using a common Alternative Input Method (AIM) form to enter data into AHLTA.

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194. 068- the layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the

Explanation

The muscular layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for the movement of substances through the canal. This layer contains smooth muscle tissue that contracts and relaxes to propel food and other substances through the digestive system. The contractions, known as peristalsis, help to mix and push the contents along the digestive tract, allowing for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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195. 056- the purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps?

Explanation

The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves conducting and documenting the completion of task evaluation during training. This form is used to assess and evaluate the performance of individuals during training exercises. It helps to ensure that trainees have successfully completed the required tasks and have met the necessary standards. By documenting this evaluation, it provides a record of the trainee's performance and can be used for future reference or as evidence of completion. The other options mentioned, such as job evaluation training and completion of the Master Training Plan evaluation, are not directly related to the purpose of the AF Form 803.

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002- Why is medical Doctrine necessary?
018- What timeframe is best to conduct in-service training within your...
085- Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient`s stress?
073- What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than...
031- What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the...
054- What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a...
092- when patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the...
074- What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the...
021- Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan...
026- Some additional factors must be considered when determining...
082- Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy...
083- Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability...
008- Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine...
061- When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an...
068- Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria
016- Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment...
005- You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment...
008- What part of the c ell provides the PRIMARY source of cellular...
004- Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following...
095- what does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in...
027- Pigmentation is attributed to
012- What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the...
069- Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding...
070- By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the...
011- Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education...
016- What nerve is the pathway to vision?
013- Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to...
0003 - What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of...
017- Required specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to...
005- What kind of change to casualty survival rates occur when...
048- What is the largest lymphatic organ?
039- If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
003 - Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an...
012- What type of tissue can change its shape?
042- What cells are responsible for the clotting action in the blood?
025 - What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
025- The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) is...
050- What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the...
046- The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining...
009- What is the total number of personnel assigned to the...
010- The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
087- Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home...
028- The total training program leads to
058- the small spaces between neurons are called the
064- What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?
001- Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary...
037- What fluid act as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for...
043- The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest...
024- The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the
006- Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has NO...
007- Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief...
033- To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your...
081- Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
059- Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Charge Request?
045- What is the criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program...
064- What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a...
006- You should NOT find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?
084- Where are sperm cells produced?
084- For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability...
019- The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline
060- Who is responsible to lead their teams and stablish clear...
046- What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?
035- Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfer from another...
067- What mandatory formation do you keep in mind when making a...
036- After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question...
015- Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey...
072- What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder...
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029- The step to evaluate a 4N0X1`s competency on a task involve...
065- What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least...
076-Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and...
015- What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit...
041- What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?
019- In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid...
043- What educational and training steps must be completed to apply...
052- Once excess fluid from  the body tissues enters lymphatic...
004- Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations,...
055- What part of the lower respiratory system does the air travel to...
056- During INHALATION, the intercostal muscular contractions permits...
010- The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell...
071- What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the...
038- What is the process that forms blood cells called?
040- What is the term for the thick muscular portion of the heart?
026- In which function of the integumentary system would the blood...
014- How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
022- What are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal...
041- Name one of three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field
079- The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when bladder...
037- After achieving training and knowledge what is the last question...
002 - A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion BEST...
059- What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the...
034- What attaches skeletal muscle to the bone?
055- Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS)...
086- The LOWER third of the uterus is called
042- Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training...
076- Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?
031- What does task knowledge identify?
062- What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within the unit or...
013- Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
040- What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training...
021- Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?
082- What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the...
067- What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for...
057- What button do you click to add new file information to the Air...
089- What is the term used to describe the FIRST menstrual cycle that...
032- To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess...
078- Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of...
022- What is the Fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for...
080- What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability...
024- The edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which...
045- What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?
063- Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty...
047- To access your electronic training record in the Air Force...
099- What is the purpose of case management?
048- the procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM,...
086- Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airman and...
038- The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803,...
027- Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement...
032- What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?
057- The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest...
074- How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections...
009- Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell...
066- The fight-or-flight reaction is controlled by the
014- Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the
080- What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and...
023- What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL)...
044- Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through...
071- what is the name of the product that is generated though the...
030- What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is...
087- What happens to the ovum after sperm fertilizes it?
075- Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the
001- What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it...
028- Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal...
060- What is the PRIMARY function of the cerebellum other than...
090- Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and...
090- The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called
092- Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormone?
073- Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?
096- When do the Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member`s status...
079- Report of Survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review...
051- Where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?
049- If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update...
053- The superior portion of the of the pharynx that contains the...
029- Where are the nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?
033- The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the
036- What type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib?
085- Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm...
069- The ileocecal valve in the small intestine is connected to the
070- what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor...
091- If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a...
049- What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?
023- The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is...
063- What is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal...
052- What`s the first button trainee`s click to sign off 623 entries...
095- Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to...
044- What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
030- Which personnel provide specific training information for...
011- What type of tissue is the MAJOR components of glands?
039- The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle...
058- What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget,...
075- What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical...
061- The part of the brain stem that connects the spinal cord is the
050- What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to...
017- What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?
066- What type of information can you provide all new personnel on...
007- What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?
083- Growth of body hair on a male is a
051- the Training Type drop down menu is used to view the Entire...
094- What hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little...
081- The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of
018- The auditory ossicles  are located in the
020- Which of the following is a nasal air passageway ?
054- The Larynx is composed of how many cartilages?
035- What type of joint joints the distal end of the tibia and fibula?
094- Whos starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation?
078- Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by
020- Duty section job description an the upgrade training plan is kept...
098- What are the principles of population health management?
089- What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?
077- How many inches long would you expect the ureter to the in a 30...
053- What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items...
097- When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turn red what...
047- Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called
062- What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?
088- The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when
093- What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?
100- What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)?
034- What information is updated when each task is successfully...
072- Where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum?
077- Which are the two primary categories of items that require report...
091- Which organ secrets the adrenocorticotropic hormone?
065- What cranial nerve control the lateral rectus eye muscle?
093- What step does the medical technician provide in the workflow...
068- the layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for...
056- the purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps?
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