4N051 Set A (Code 05)
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002- Why is medical Doctrine necessary?
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Recommends step by step actions.
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Directs the actions of commanders.
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Guides commanders in using assets.
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Changes faster than Air Force guidance.
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This quiz titled '4N051 SET A (CODE 05)' assesses knowledge in Air Force Medical Service operations, focusing on doctrines like AFDD 4-02 and tactical medical support. It evaluates understanding of medical asset utilization, operational and tactical doctrines, and the impact of Aeromedical Evacuation on casualty survival rates.
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- 2.
018- What timeframe is best to conduct in-service training within your unit?
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During shift change
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On training days
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In the afternoons
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In the morning
Correct Answer
A. On training daysExplanation
In-service training is best conducted on training days because it allows for dedicated time and focus on the training activities. Conducting training during shift change may disrupt the flow of work and cause distractions. Afternoons and mornings may also not be ideal as employees may be more fatigued or less focused during these times. Therefore, scheduling training on designated training days ensures that employees can fully engage in the training without any interruptions or distractions.Rate this question:
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- 3.
054- What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Training (OJT) if a task already has a start date?
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Select a task and click the CERTIFIER button
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Select a task and click the TRAINEE button
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Select a task and click the TRAINER button
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Click the UTM button
Correct Answer
A. Select a task and click the TRAINEE buttonExplanation
Trainees use the first step of selecting a task and clicking the TRAINEE button to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Training (OJT) if the task already has a start date. This action indicates that the trainee has completed the task and is ready to move on to the next step in the training process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
073- What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
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Cancel the order
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Complaint to the commander
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Wait another 15 days and then follow up
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Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order
Correct Answer
A. Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the orderExplanation
If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. This is because MEMO personnel are responsible for managing medical equipment and supplies, and they would have the necessary information and resources to follow up on the backordered item. Canceling the order or complaining to the commander may not be productive, as they may not have the specific knowledge or authority to resolve the issue. Waiting another 15 days and then following up could further delay the resolution of the problem.Rate this question:
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- 5.
085- Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient`s stress?
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Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness
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Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient`s anxiety
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Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider
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Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patient`s fear
Correct Answer
A. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient`s anxietyExplanation
Remaining honest and in control can help relieve a patient's stress because it creates a sense of trust and reassurance. Patients often feel anxious and stressed when they are uncertain or feel out of control. By being honest and transparent with the patient, healthcare providers can help alleviate their anxiety and build a trusting relationship. Additionally, remaining in control and maintaining a calm demeanor can help create a sense of stability and security for the patient, further reducing their stress levels.Rate this question:
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- 6.
031- What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee?
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Patella
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Fibula
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Femur
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Tibia
Correct Answer
A. PatellaExplanation
The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective cover for the knee joint and helps to increase the leverage of the quadriceps muscles during movements such as walking, running, and jumping.Rate this question:
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- 7.
008- Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
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12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support.
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12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support.
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24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.
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36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support.
Correct Answer
A. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.Explanation
EMEDS Basic requires routine AE support within 24 hours of notification and urgent AE support within 12 hours of notification.Rate this question:
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- 8.
016- Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
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Maintain skills.
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Prevent lawsuits.
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Ensure promotion.
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To complete formal training course.
Correct Answer
A. Maintain skills.Explanation
It is required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. Sustainment training helps them stay up-to-date with the latest practices, procedures, and technologies in their field. By regularly refreshing their knowledge and skills, they can provide the best possible care to patients and ensure that they are competent and proficient in their job. This also helps to enhance the overall quality of healthcare services provided by 4N0X1 personnel.Rate this question:
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- 9.
021- Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
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Edit MTP
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View MTP
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Delete MTP
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Create/Edit MTP
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit MTPExplanation
To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the option "Create/Edit MTP" from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows the user to create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. The other options listed, such as "Edit MTP," "View MTP," and "Delete MTP," are not the first steps in the process of creating and editing an MTP.Rate this question:
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- 10.
026- Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?
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Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) tasks.
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No other factors are considered.
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AEF tasks and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements
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Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements.Explanation
The correct answer is that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements and other factors that drive the need for training that must also be taken into account. These additional factors are important in order to ensure that the training provided is comprehensive and meets all the necessary requirements for the specific situation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
061- When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?
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Category A
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Category B
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Category C
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Category D
Correct Answer
A. Category AExplanation
Category A is used to assign an urgent priority when setting priorities. This category is likely reserved for tasks or issues that require immediate attention and cannot be delayed. It signifies that the task or issue is of utmost importance and needs to be addressed urgently.Rate this question:
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- 12.
068- Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria
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Visible and qualitative
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Visible and quantitative
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Qualitative and understood
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Qualitative and quantitative
Correct Answer
A. Qualitative and quantitativeExplanation
Performance can be measured and evaluated based on two types of criteria: qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative criteria refer to subjective measures that cannot be easily quantified, such as customer satisfaction or employee morale. On the other hand, quantitative criteria involve objective and measurable factors, such as sales numbers or production output. By considering both qualitative and quantitative criteria, a comprehensive assessment of performance can be made, taking into account both the tangible and intangible aspects of an individual, team, or organization's performance.Rate this question:
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- 13.
082- Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
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Administrative
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Chaperone
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Supervisory
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Appointing
Correct Answer
A. ChaperoneExplanation
Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. This means that the correct answer is "Chaperone." A chaperone is a person who is present during an examination or treatment to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient. They may also provide support and assistance to the healthcare provider. This policy is important to protect both the patient and the healthcare provider and to maintain professionalism and ethical standards in medical settings.Rate this question:
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- 14.
083- Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?
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Patients handling their information
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Anyone handling patient information
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Medical staff handling patient information
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Administrative staff handling patient information
Correct Answer
A. Anyone handling patient informationExplanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also patients themselves who handle their own information. HIPAA sets standards for the privacy and security of protected health information (PHI) and applies to healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses, as well as their business associates. It is important for all individuals who handle patient information to comply with HIPAA regulations to ensure the confidentiality and security of sensitive medical data.Rate this question:
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- 15.
092- when patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient`s treatment?
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No care of treatment was accomplished
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There is no follow up care required
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There were no complications
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The outcome was positive
Correct Answer
A. No care of treatment was accomplishedExplanation
When patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is an essential part of healthcare as it helps in tracking the progress of the patient, ensuring continuity of care, and providing a record for future reference. Without proper documentation, it becomes difficult to ascertain the actions taken or treatments provided to the patient. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was carried out.Rate this question:
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- 16.
005- You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. how you document this information correctly?
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Patient complaints of blurred vision- OD
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Patient complaints of blurred vision- AD
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Patient complaints of blurred vision- right eye
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The technician informs the provides. but does not document
Correct Answer
A. Patient complaints of blurred vision- right eyeExplanation
The correct answer is "Patient complaints of blurred vision- right eye." This is the most accurate and specific way to document the patient's complaint of blurred vision in the right eye. It clearly identifies the affected eye and provides relevant information for further evaluation and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 17.
008- What part of the c ell provides the PRIMARY source of cellular energy?
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Ribosomes
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Lysosomes
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Peroxisomes
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Mitochondria
Correct Answer
A. MitochondriaExplanation
Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of cellular energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through a process called cellular respiration. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, lysosomes contain enzymes for breaking down waste materials, and peroxisomes are involved in lipid metabolism and detoxification. However, none of these organelles play a primary role in providing cellular energy compared to mitochondria.Rate this question:
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- 18.
074- What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?
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Bile
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Blood
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Saliva
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Chyme
Correct Answer
A. BileExplanation
The liver produces bile, which is a liquid that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. Bile is then stored in the gallbladder until it is needed for digestion. It is released into the small intestine to break down fats into smaller molecules, making it easier for the body to absorb and utilize them.Rate this question:
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- 19.
004- Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
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The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulations such as fuel economy
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An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.
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An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure
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A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
A. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
The best example to explain tactical doctrine is a car buyer because they have the ability to choose specific qualities that align with their individual needs, such as speed or safety factors. Tactical doctrine refers to the decision-making process that involves selecting the most effective means to achieve specific objectives. In this case, the car buyer's ability to choose specific qualities demonstrates their understanding of their own needs and their strategic decision-making in selecting a car that best fits those needs.Rate this question:
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- 20.
011- Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
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Group Superintendent
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Surgeon general
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Air Force career field manager
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Career development course writer
Correct Answer
A. Air Force career field managerExplanation
The Air Force career field manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field, ensuring that they are up to date and relevant. This includes identifying any necessary updates or changes to the CFETP and working with other stakeholders to implement them. The career field manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that individuals in the career field receive the necessary education and training to perform their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 21.
012- What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career grouping?
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First
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Second
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Third
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Fifth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that identifies the career grouping is the first figure.Rate this question:
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- 22.
069- Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air force?
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Each individual
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Unit supervisor
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Group commander
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Account custodian
Correct Answer
A. Each individualExplanation
Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility extends to all levels of the organization, from individual airmen to unit supervisors, group commanders, and account custodians. By holding each individual accountable, the Air Force ensures that the proper care and use of public property is a collective effort.Rate this question:
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- 23.
070- By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
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Equipment damage and injury to a patient
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Injury to a patient and buying new technology
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Reporting damage and buying new technology
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Reporting damage to the commander and logistics
Correct Answer
A. Equipment damage and injury to a patientExplanation
By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the new personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel are aware of safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.Rate this question:
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- 24.
095- what does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9) ?
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Not elsewhere classified
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Next event cancelled
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Not elsewhere coded
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New event code
Correct Answer
A. Not elsewhere classifiedExplanation
The abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified" when used in the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9). This term is used to categorize diseases or medical conditions that do not fit into any other specified category within the classification system.Rate this question:
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- 25.
016- What nerve is the pathway to vision?
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Posterior
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Anterior
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Sclera
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Optic
Correct Answer
A. OpticExplanation
The optic nerve is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. It is the pathway through which visual signals travel, allowing us to perceive and interpret the world around us. The other options mentioned (posterior, anterior, and sclera) are not nerves and do not play a direct role in the pathway to vision.Rate this question:
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- 26.
027- Pigmentation is attributed to
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Melanin
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Dermal cells
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Subcutaneous cells
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Sebaceous glands secretions
Correct Answer
A. MelaninExplanation
Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from harmful UV radiation by absorbing and scattering the rays. The amount and type of melanin present in the skin determine its color, with more melanin resulting in darker skin. The other options mentioned, dermal cells, subcutaneous cells, and sebaceous glands secretions, do not play a direct role in pigmentation.Rate this question:
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- 27.
0003 - What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
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Basic.
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Tactical
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Operational
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Foundational
Correct Answer
A. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. It focuses on the planning and execution of military operations in a specific theater or area of responsibility. Operational doctrine provides guidance on how to employ forces effectively and efficiently to achieve strategic objectives. It is a key component in military planning and decision-making processes at the operational level of warfare.Rate this question:
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- 28.
005- What kind of change to casualty survival rates occur when Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) is available?
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Significantly increase.
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Significantly decrease.
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Increase by only 10 percent.
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Decrease by only 10 percent
Correct Answer
A. Significantly increase.Explanation
When Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This means that the presence of AE allows for more effective and efficient transportation of injured individuals to medical facilities, resulting in higher chances of survival. AE provides specialized medical care during transport, ensuring that patients receive the necessary treatment and support during critical moments.Rate this question:
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- 29.
017- Required specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location?
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Stateside base
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Deployment setting
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Reserve duty station
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Air National Guard base
Correct Answer
A. Deployment settingExplanation
The Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in a deployment setting. This means that the program is specifically intended to ensure that individuals in the Air Force receive the necessary training and qualifications for their specific job while deployed in a foreign or combat zone. The program helps maintain readiness and proficiency in AFSCs even in challenging and high-stress environments.Rate this question:
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- 30.
039- If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
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The requirements to successfully complete the job
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Advanced requirements to complete the job
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50% of their training information
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80% of their training information
Correct Answer
A. The requirements to successfully complete the jobExplanation
Trainees should remember the requirements to successfully complete the job if the training is effective. This means that they should have a clear understanding of what is expected of them in order to perform their job successfully. Remembering the advanced requirements or a certain percentage of their training information is not as important as knowing the basic requirements to complete the job.Rate this question:
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- 31.
003 - Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of
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Flexion
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Extension
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Dorsiflexion
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Hyperextension
Correct Answer
A. FlexionExplanation
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion is the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, bending the elbow brings the forearm closer to the head, reducing the angle between the upper arm and the forearm.Rate this question:
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- 32.
013- Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?
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Nervous
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Epithelial
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Smooth muscle
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Cardiac muscle
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac muscleExplanation
Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both cardiac and skeletal muscles have alternating light and dark bands, known as striations, which are caused by the arrangement of contractile proteins within the muscle cells. This striated appearance allows for coordinated and efficient muscle contractions, making both cardiac and skeletal muscles capable of strong and controlled movements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
048- What is the largest lymphatic organ?
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Heart
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Spleen
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Thymus
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Right lymphatic duct
Correct Answer
A. SpleenExplanation
The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is located in the upper left side of the abdomen and plays a crucial role in the immune system. The spleen filters the blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, and helps to fight off infections by producing and storing white blood cells. It also acts as a reservoir for blood, releasing it back into circulation when needed. Therefore, the spleen is an essential organ for maintaining a healthy immune system.Rate this question:
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- 34.
001- Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish the mission?
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AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine
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AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development
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AFDD 2-8, Command and Control
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AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations
Correct Answer
A. AFDD 4-02, Medical OperationsExplanation
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations, is the correct answer as it is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission. This doctrine document provides guidance and principles for medical operations, including planning, organizing, and executing medical support in various operational environments. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the integration of medical capabilities with other Air Force functions. By following this doctrine, commanders can ensure effective and efficient medical support to enable the overall mission success of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 35.
009- What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 ?
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32
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51
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86
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94
Correct Answer
A. 86Explanation
The total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 is 86.Rate this question:
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- 36.
010- The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
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4N000
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4N031
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N051
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4N071
Correct Answer
A. 4N000Explanation
The correct answer is 4N000. This skill level indicates that the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has no specific skill level assigned. It suggests that the individual is at the entry-level or initial stage of their career in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 37.
025- The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) is your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
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Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu
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Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu
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AFTR Data/Duty position menu
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AFTR duty position menu
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menuExplanation
When creating or editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the "Create/Edit DTL" option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu. This option allows the user to access the necessary tools and features to create or make changes to the DTL. The other options listed, such as "Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu" or "AFTR Data/Duty position menu" do not specify the exact action needed to create or edit the DTL. The "AFTR duty position menu" is not mentioned as a step in the process.Rate this question:
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- 38.
028- The total training program leads to
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Lower pay levels
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Higher pay levels
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Higher skill level
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Promotion
Correct Answer
A. Higher skill levelExplanation
The total training program leads to a higher skill level because training programs are designed to enhance the knowledge, abilities, and expertise of individuals. By participating in a comprehensive training program, individuals can acquire new skills, improve existing ones, and gain a deeper understanding of their field. This increased skill level can then lead to various benefits such as career advancement, increased job opportunities, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.Rate this question:
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- 39.
046- The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
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Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed
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Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed
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Unit force of each AF shredout as needed
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Career force of the AF squadron
Correct Answer
A. Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as neededExplanation
The correct answer is to balance the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed. This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure that there is a balanced distribution of personnel across different AFSCs in order to meet the needs and demands of the Air Force. This helps to ensure that there are enough personnel with the necessary skills and expertise in each AFSC to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 40.
087- Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?
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Physician-led model
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Nurse-led model
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Air Force-led model
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Team-based model
Correct Answer
A. Team-based modelExplanation
The correct answer is the team-based model. In a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH), healthcare is provided by a team of professionals, including physicians, nurses, and other healthcare providers. This model emphasizes collaboration and coordination among team members to deliver comprehensive and coordinated care to patients. The team-based model ensures that patients receive holistic and patient-centered care, with each team member contributing their unique skills and expertise to meet the individual needs of patients.Rate this question:
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- 41.
012- What type of tissue can change its shape?
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Muscle
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Nervous
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Epithelial
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Connective
Correct Answer
A. MuscleExplanation
Muscle tissue is capable of changing its shape, making it the correct answer. Muscle tissue is composed of cells that have the ability to contract and relax, allowing for movement and changes in shape. This type of tissue is found throughout the body and is responsible for various functions, such as allowing us to move our limbs, pump blood, and even control our facial expressions.Rate this question:
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- 42.
025 - What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
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Sebum
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Sweat
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Follicle
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Adipose
Correct Answer
A. SebumExplanation
Sebum is the correct answer because it is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. Sebum is an oily, waxy substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair. It also helps to protect the skin from drying out and provides a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances. Sweat, follicle, and adipose are not substances secreted by the sebaceous gland.Rate this question:
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- 43.
037- What fluid act as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?
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Gomphosis
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Synovial
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Mucosal
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Blood
Correct Answer
A. SynovialExplanation
Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the bones, allowing smooth movement, and also provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the joints.Rate this question:
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- 44.
042- What cells are responsible for the clotting action in the blood?
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Plasma
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Platelets
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Leukocytes
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Erythrocytes
Correct Answer
A. PlateletsExplanation
Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in the blood. When there is an injury or damage to blood vessels, platelets are activated and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and also help in the formation of a fibrin mesh, which strengthens the clot. This process, known as coagulation, is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not play a direct role in clotting.Rate this question:
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- 45.
050- What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?
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Thymus and Spleen
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Lymph ducts and trunks
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Afferent and efferent vessels
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Lymphocytes and macrophages
Correct Answer
A. Lymphocytes and macrophagesExplanation
Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the immune system's response to infections. Lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses. Macrophages, another type of white blood cell, help in the process by engulfing and destroying pathogens. Therefore, lymphocytes and macrophages are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes.Rate this question:
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- 46.
058- the small spaces between neurons are called the
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Axons
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Synapses
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Nerve cells
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Trigger zones
Correct Answer
A. SynapsesExplanation
Synapses are the small spaces between neurons where communication occurs. They allow for the transmission of electrical or chemical signals from one neuron to another. This transfer of information is essential for the functioning of the nervous system. Axons are the long, slender projections of neurons that transmit signals away from the cell body. Nerve cells, also known as neurons, are the basic building blocks of the nervous system. Trigger zones are regions of neurons where action potentials are initiated.Rate this question:
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- 47.
064- What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?
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Optic
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Facial
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Trigeminal
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Oculomotor
Correct Answer
A. OpticExplanation
The cranial nerve responsible for the sensation of sight is the optic nerve. This nerve carries visual information from the retina of the eye to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. The optic nerve plays a crucial role in our ability to see and is essential for visual perception and processing.Rate this question:
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- 48.
006- Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has NO impatient beds?
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EMEDS Basic.
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EMEDS +10
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EMEDS +25
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All EMEDS have impatient beds
Correct Answer
A. EMEDS Basic.Explanation
EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that states there are no impatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10, EMEDS +25, and All EMEDS have impatient beds, imply that there are impatient beds included in those increments. Therefore, EMEDS Basic is the only option that aligns with the statement that there are no impatient beds.Rate this question:
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- 49.
007- Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief (CISD)?
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Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander.
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Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commanders.
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Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.
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The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training.
Correct Answer
A. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.Explanation
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training are qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief (CISD). This indicates that both mental health professionals and aerospace medical specialists who have received extra training are deemed suitable for conducting a CISD. The involvement of both specialties suggests that a comprehensive approach, addressing both psychological and medical aspects, is necessary for effective debriefing in critical incidents. The other options either do not include both specialties or do not mention the requirement of additional training.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 24, 2018Quiz Created by
Erica Funke
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