4N051 B Volume 3

83 Questions | Total Attempts: 233

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a 
    • A. 

      Pharmacist

    • B. 

      Clinical provider

    • C. 

      Clinical pharmacist

    • D. 

      Pharmaccutical technician

  • 2. 
    Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?
    • A. 

      Trade name

    • B. 

      Official name

    • C. 

      Generic name

    • D. 

      Chemical name

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Technicians are not trained to prepare medications for administration

    • B. 

      A nurse or physician must directly observe technicians when they are administering medication

    • C. 

      Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician

    • D. 

      Nurses can always allow technicians to decide on their own to administer a medication if the decision is in the patient's best interest

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Be informed of a drug's name

    • B. 

      Be informed of a drug's purpose

    • C. 

      Choose the method of administration

    • D. 

      Receive clearly labeled medication containers

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Right time

    • B. 

      Right dose

    • C. 

      Right route

    • D. 

      Right documentation

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Stat

    • B. 

      Single

    • C. 

      Standing

    • D. 

      As needed (PRN)

  • 7. 
    A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 8. 
    Drug administration is controlled primarily by 
    • A. 

      State amendments

    • B. 

      Facility mandate

    • C. 

      Federal law

    • D. 

      State law

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule II

    • C. 

      Schedule III

    • D. 

      Schedule IV

  • 10. 
    Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as 
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule II

    • C. 

      Schedule III

    • D. 

      Schedule IV

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Drug Regulatory Act

    • B. 

      Drug control Regulation

    • C. 

      Controlled Substance Act

    • D. 

      Attorney General Mandate of 1974

  • 12. 
    Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
    • A. 

      Chemotherapeutic

    • B. 

      Substitutive

    • C. 

      Supportive

    • D. 

      Curative

  • 13. 
    The purpose of most drug therapy is to 
    • A. 

      Maintain a low level of drug in the body

    • B. 

      Maintain a constant level of drug in the body

    • C. 

      Cause the level of the drug in the body to increase rapidly

    • D. 

      Cause the level of drug in the body to decrease repidly

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Slower circulation level

    • B. 

      Higher body metabolism

    • C. 

      Lower body metabolism

    • D. 

      Lower digestive system content

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action

    • B. 

      Warmer temperatures decrease circulation and cause slow drug action

    • C. 

      Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to dilate cause slow drug action

    • D. 

      Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to constrict cause rapid drug action

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Internet search

    • B. 

      Physician Desk Reference

    • C. 

      Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook

    • D. 

      Technicians Pharmacy Handbook

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Nurse's Drug Reference

    • B. 

      Local facility formulary

    • C. 

      Physicians Desk Reference

    • D. 

      Technicians Pharmacy Handbook

  • 18. 
    An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medicaiton preparation called a 
    • A. 

      Spirit

    • B. 

      Paste

    • C. 

      Tincture

    • D. 

      Liniment

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      Antiarrhythmics

    • B. 

      Antiemetics

    • C. 

      Cathartics

    • D. 

      Antacids

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Antiarrhythmics

    • B. 

      Antiemetics

    • C. 

      Cathartics

    • D. 

      Antacids

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Patient's age

    • B. 

      Patient's name

    • C. 

      Specified time

    • D. 

      Providers signature

  • 22. 
    Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except
    • A. 

      For ensuring A!C Jones is available for work the next day

    • B. 

      Performing all steps in the modified six medication rights

    • C. 

      Being knowledgable of the side effects of the medication

    • D. 

      Verifying any possible interactions agains current medications

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      130

    • B. 

      143

    • C. 

      152

    • D. 

      170

  • 24. 
    Dr. Young has ordered Mrs.Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50mg/mL. How many milligrams of medication will be given twice a day?
    • A. 

      250

    • B. 

      325

    • C. 

      350

    • D. 

      600

  • 25. 
    LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mL's would you administer?
    • A. 

      0.25

    • B. 

      0.50

    • C. 

      2.5

    • D. 

      5.0

  • 26. 
    Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg The medicaiton Ancef is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL. How many mL's of Ancef will be given for each dose?
    • A. 

      5.0

    • B. 

      0.6

    • C. 

      6.5

    • D. 

      65

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      There is no possibility of local irritation

    • B. 

      Only small amounts of a drug may be administered

    • C. 

      They are usually less expensive than oral medications

    • D. 

      Drug action is faster than intramuscular injections

  • 28. 
    The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injection a drug into a muscle is 
    • A. 

      Intravenous (IV) push

    • B. 

      Intramuscular (IM)

    • C. 

      Subcutaneous (sc)

    • D. 

      IV drip

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Ventral surface of the forearm

    • B. 

      Lateral hip area

    • C. 

      Posterior hand

    • D. 

      Upper arms

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Oral

    • B. 

      Buccal

    • C. 

      Inhalation

    • D. 

      Sublingual

  • 31. 
    To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? 
    • A. 

      In the pharmacy.

    • B. 

      At a work station

    • C. 

      At the nurses' station

    • D. 

      At the patient's bedside

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Unconscious patients cannot be treated

    • B. 

      Positive-pressure devices are sometimes used

    • C. 

      Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult

    • D. 

      Respiratory distress is not relieved through the use of an inhalation

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Document an increase in pulse or blood pressure and notify the nurse

    • B. 

      Instruct patient to inhale normally when activating the nebulizer

    • C. 

      Assess patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy

    • D. 

      Check patient's vital signs every 15 min after therapy

  • 34. 
    Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
    • A. 

      External auditory canal

    • B. 

      Internal auditory canal

    • C. 

      Lower conjunctival sac

    • D. 

      Upper conjunctival sac

  • 35. 
    To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe
    • A. 

      Down to straighten the canal

    • B. 

      Outward to expose the canal

    • C. 

      Inward to confine the canal

    • D. 

      Up to shorten the canal

  • 36. 
    When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag
    • A. 

      4 to 8 inches

    • B. 

      6 to 10 inches

    • C. 

      12 to 18 inches

    • D. 

      24 to 36 inches

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Endorphins, hypnotics and sedatives.

    • B. 

      Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics

    • C. 

      Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics

    • D. 

      Stimulant, sedatives and placebo

  • 38. 
    Opioids are contraindicated with
    • A. 

      The treatment of extremity injuries

    • B. 

      A Phenergan combination

    • C. 

      Head injury treatment

    • D. 

      Caffeine use

  • 39. 
    Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with
    • A. 

      Preventing the formation of prostaglandins

    • B. 

      The recovery of alcohol abuse

    • C. 

      Increased kidney functions

    • D. 

      Curing join dysfunctions

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Acetaminophen

    • B. 

      Salicylates

    • C. 

      Potassium

    • D. 

      Tramadol

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Alleviate pain of arthritis

    • B. 

      Raises prostaglandin levels

    • C. 

      Used of long-term treatment

    • D. 

      Increases risk of gastrointestinal problems

  • 42. 
    Contraindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except
    • A. 

      When taken with dairy

    • B. 

      For patients with asthma

    • C. 

      For patients taking anticoagulants

    • D. 

      When undergoing elective surgery

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Dexadrine

    • B. 

      Concerta

    • C. 

      Caffeine

    • D. 

      Ritalin

  • 44. 
    All of the following are contraindications of central nervous system stimulants except
    • A. 

      Alcoholism

    • B. 

      Irritability

    • C. 

      Drug dependency

    • D. 

      Eating disorders

  • 45. 
    Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter?
    • A. 

      Norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Adrenaline

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Serotonin

  • 46. 
    Side effects of tricyclics include all of the following except 
    • A. 

      Urinary retention

    • B. 

      Pupil constriction

    • C. 

      Cardiac arrhythmias

    • D. 

      Postural hypotension

  • 47. 
    Antianxiety medications are prescribed for 
    • A. 

      Suicidal tendencies treatment

    • B. 

      The treatment of withdrawals

    • C. 

      Prolonged treatment

    • D. 

      The treat of insomnia

  • 48. 
    Antipsychotic medications are categorized as 
    • A. 

      Hypnotics

    • B. 

      Major tranquilizers

    • C. 

      Seizure medications

    • D. 

      Antisynovial producers

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Phenergan

    • B. 

      Tylenol

    • C. 

      Haldol

    • D. 

      Zoloft

  • 50. 
    The effects of cardiac glycosides to 
    • A. 

      Slow vasodilation

    • B. 

      Increase respirations

    • C. 

      Lower blood pressure

    • D. 

      Strengthen the heartbeat

  • 51. 
    Before the administration of digitalis, which of the following pulse points is it important to check?
    • A. 

      Brachial

    • B. 

      Apical

    • C. 

      Radial

    • D. 

      Pedal

  • 52. 
    Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except
    • A. 

      Vertigo

    • B. 

      Diplopia

    • C. 

      Tachycardia

    • D. 

      Bradycardia

  • 53. 
    Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with
    • A. 

      Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm

    • B. 

      Heart block and congestive heart failure

    • C. 

      Renal and hepatic impairment

    • D. 

      Diabetes militeus

  • 54. 
    Calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contraction of the heart by
    • A. 

      Potentiating the actions of the potassium given concurrently

    • B. 

      Working synergistically with barbiturates to decrease heart rate

    • C. 

      Increasing the blood oxygen need of the main coronary arteries

    • D. 

      Reducing the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries

  • 55. 
    Contraindications for procainamide include persons with known 
    • A. 

      Congestive heart failure

    • B. 

      Hepatic disorders

    • C. 

      Renal disease

    • D. 

      Pregnancy

  • 56. 
    Quinidine is used primarily as prophlactic therapy to 
    • A. 

      Treat anemia

    • B. 

      Produce bradycardia

    • C. 

      Increase myocardial excitability

    • D. 

      Maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion

  • 57. 
    The most common side effect of antihypertensives is 
    • A. 

      Tinnitus

    • B. 

      Tachycardia

    • C. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • D. 

      Postural hypotension

  • 58. 
    Angiotensin-conversing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by
    • A. 

      Antagonizing myocardial excitability

    • B. 

      Producing the enzyme protease

    • C. 

      Decreasing vasoconstriction

    • D. 

      Increasing heart rate

  • 59. 
    When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or  vasodilators, what affect is produced?
    • A. 

      Antagonize hypokalemia

    • B. 

      Potentiate hypotension

    • C. 

      Potentiate depression

    • D. 

      Synergism

  • 60. 
    Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combined with 
    • A. 

      Barbiturates

    • B. 

      Stimulants

    • C. 

      Diuretics

    • D. 

      Aspirin

  • 61. 
    The antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer
    • A. 

      Protamine sulfate

    • B. 

      Vitamin B12

    • C. 

      Vitamin k

    • D. 

      Heparin

  • 62. 
    Mr.Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent
    • A. 

      Headaches post spinal anesthesia

    • B. 

      Gastrointestinal bleeding

    • C. 

      Peripheral vein collapse

    • D. 

      Deep vein thrombosis

  • 63. 
    The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is 
    • A. 

      Bleeding

    • B. 

      Arrhythmia

    • C. 

      Tachycardia

    • D. 

      Vasoconstriction

  • 64. 
    Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Excessive gas

    • B. 

      Constipation

    • C. 

      Vomiting

    • D. 

      Diarrhea

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      Kaopectate

    • B. 

      Mineral oil

    • C. 

      Imodium

    • D. 

      Lactinex

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Saline

    • B. 

      Stimulant

    • C. 

      Hyperosmotic

    • D. 

      Bulk forming

  • 67. 
    Among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal cortiocosteroids fall within?
    • A. 

      Curative

    • B. 

      Palliative

    • C. 

      Restorative

    • D. 

      Supportive

  • 68. 
    Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock and possibly death can result from 
    • A. 

      The adrenal glands over producing corticosteroids

    • B. 

      An abrupt withdrawal of adrenal corticosteroids therapy

    • C. 

      Short term treatment therapy of asthma using corticosteroids

    • D. 

      Excessive urination as a result of long term corticosteroid treatment

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Tapazole

    • C. 

      Corticosteroids

    • D. 

      Thyroid agents

  • 70. 
    Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taking concomitantly with
    • A. 

      Daypro or antacids

    • B. 

      Alcohol or salicylates

    • C. 

      Triclyclics or caffeine

    • D. 

      Procardia or anticoagulants

  • 71. 
    Some of the symptoms associates with type II diabetes are all of the following except 
    • A. 

      Polydipsia

    • B. 

      Slow healing

    • C. 

      Vision problems

    • D. 

      Excessive weight loss

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines

    • B. 

      Theophyline

    • C. 

      Gentamycin

    • D. 

      Procardia

  • 73. 
    The influenza vaccine is manufactured 
    • A. 

      From plants

    • B. 

      With an inactive virus

    • C. 

      To cure the flue strain for the year

    • D. 

      Synthetically with live viral properties

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Anthrax

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Small pox

    • D. 

      Hepatitis b

  • 75. 
    Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of 
    • A. 

      Contaminated food or water

    • B. 

      Droplets through the air

    • C. 

      Blood and body fluids

    • D. 

      Reused linen

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      Small Pox

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Anthrax

    • D. 

      Tetanus

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      Yellow fever

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Typhoid

    • D. 

      Anthrax

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Antineoplastics

    • B. 

      Antihistimines

    • C. 

      Antifungals

    • D. 

      Antivirals

  • 80. 
    When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing, what patient education would be appropriate?
    • A. 

      Take only at bedtime

    • B. 

      Take with orange juice

    • C. 

      Do not chew the capsule

    • D. 

      Do not take with food or milk

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 82. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4