4c0x1 Ure 5 Level Volume 1

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  • 1/80 Questions

    Which area is not an ethical foundation of trust? (Unit 1)

    • Respect
    • Autonamy
    • Beneficence
    • Nonmalefience
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About This Quiz

The '4C0X1 URE 5 level Volume 1' quiz assesses knowledge on ethical foundations and behaviors critical in mental health settings. It focuses on trust, duty, accountability, and professionalism, enhancing understanding of ethical conduct in healthcare.

4c0x1 Ure 5 Level Volume 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patients dignity? (Unit 1)

    • Professional Relationships

    • Individual Care

    • Role Modeling

    • Competence

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual Care
    Explanation
    Individual Care is closely related to respecting the patients dignity because it emphasizes the importance of treating each patient as a unique individual with their own needs, values, and preferences. By providing individualized care, healthcare professionals can ensure that the patient's dignity is upheld and respected, as they are involved in decision-making processes and their autonomy is valued. This ethical behavior also promotes empathy, compassion, and sensitivity towards the patient's physical, emotional, and psychological well-being, further contributing to the preservation of their dignity.

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  • 3. 

    Which aspect of 'doing all your duty' is considered extremely important?  (Unit 1)

    • Sensitivity

    • Observant

    • Reliability

    • Confidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Reliability
    Explanation
    Study this. You are nothing if not reliable.

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  • 4. 

    Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?  (Unit 1)

    • Patient

    • Technician

    • Licensed provider

    • Non-commissioned officer in charge

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician
    Explanation
    If a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, the technician is held accountable. This implies that the technician is responsible for maintaining professional boundaries and ensuring that appropriate relationships are maintained with patients.

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  • 5. 

    What is considered one of the most disruptive forces on a mental health treatment unit? (Unit 1)

    • Discussing personal problems with patients

    • Talking about religious values with patients

    • Having financial dealings with patients

    • Gossiping with patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Gossiping with patients
    Explanation
    Gossiping with patients is considered one of the most disruptive forces on a mental health treatment unit. Gossiping can create a negative and toxic environment, erode trust between staff and patients, and compromise the therapeutic relationship. It can also lead to the spreading of false information, rumors, and breaches of confidentiality, which can be detrimental to the well-being and recovery of the patients. Gossiping undermines the professionalism and integrity of the healthcare team, and it is crucial to promote a supportive and respectful environment for effective mental health treatment.

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  • 6. 

    What is considered a 'must' in developing professional relationships? (Unit 1)

    • Appearance

    • Attitude

    • Maturity

    • Empathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Maturity
    Explanation
    Maturity is considered a 'must' in developing professional relationships because it demonstrates emotional intelligence, responsibility, and the ability to handle difficult situations with grace and professionalism. Mature individuals are more likely to communicate effectively, resolve conflicts, and maintain a level-headed approach in professional settings. They are also more reliable, trustworthy, and able to make sound decisions. Overall, maturity plays a crucial role in establishing and maintaining positive and productive professional relationships.

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  • 7. 

    All of the following are examples of effective communication 'except':  (Unit 1)

    • Being conscious of nonverbal signs.

    • Looking people in their eyes.

    • Being sympathetic.

    • Being empathetic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Being sympathetic.
    Explanation
    Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy refers to feeling sorry for someone's situation or experiencing pity, whereas effective communication involves understanding and conveying messages clearly and accurately. While empathy, conscious nonverbal signs, and maintaining eye contact are all important aspects of effective communication, sympathy does not directly contribute to effective communication.

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  • 8. 

    All of the following are examples of retaliation 'except': (Unit 1)

    • Reducing the patient to a diagnosis

    • Laughing at a patients fears

    • Withholding medication

    • Avoiding the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Withholding medication
    Explanation
    Withholding medication can be seen as an act of retaliation because it involves intentionally denying or depriving a patient of necessary medical treatment as a form of punishment or revenge. Reducing the patient to a diagnosis, laughing at a patient's fears, and avoiding the patient may also be considered disrespectful or unprofessional behavior, but they do not directly involve withholding medication. Therefore, the correct answer is withholding medication.

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  • 9. 

    Which attribute allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior? (Unit 1)

    • Attitude.

    • Acceptance.

    • Consistency.

    • Show Interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consistency.
    Explanation
    Consistency allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior. When healthcare professionals consistently act in a reliable and predictable manner, patients feel more secure and confident in their care. This helps to establish trust and promotes a positive therapeutic relationship between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 10. 

    Which legal liability is considered non-punitive? (Unit 1)

    • Administrative

    • Criminal

    • Civil Tort

    • General

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative
    Explanation
    Admin is as opposed to dishonorable

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  • 11. 

    Which one is 'not' considered an intentional tort? (Unit 1)

    • False imprisonment.

    • Misrepresentation.

    • Negligence.

    • Assault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence.
    Explanation
    Negligence is not considered an intentional tort because it involves the failure to exercise reasonable care, rather than a deliberate act or intention to cause harm. Intentional torts, such as false imprisonment, misrepresentation, and assault, involve intentional acts that cause harm or injury to another person. Negligence, on the other hand, refers to a failure to fulfill a duty of care, resulting in harm or injury to another person, but without the intention to cause harm.

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  • 12. 

    You are guilty of which intentional tort if you discuss a patient's medical history with some one who does 'not' have a 'need to know'? (Unit 1)

    • Wrongful invasion of privacy.

    • Defamation of character.

    • Misrepresentation.

    • Assault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrongful invasion of privacy.
    Explanation
    Discussing a patient's medical history with someone who does not have a "need to know" violates the patient's right to privacy. This intentional tort is known as wrongful invasion of privacy. It involves the unauthorized disclosure of private information, which can harm the patient's reputation and cause emotional distress. Defamation of character involves making false statements that harm a person's reputation, misrepresentation involves making false statements or concealing important information, and assault involves intentionally causing fear of physical harm. None of these torts directly apply to the given scenario.

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  • 13. 

    All can sue the federal government 'except': (Unit 1)

    • Civilians

    • Dependants

    • Retired Military

    • Active Duty Military

    Correct Answer
    A. Active Duty Military
    Explanation
    Active Duty Military personnel cannot sue the federal government because they are considered part of the government and are subject to military law and regulations. They have limited legal rights and remedies compared to civilians, dependents, and retired military personnel who are not bound by the same restrictions.

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  • 14. 

    How long can an active duty member  be admitted for observation if he is deemed at risk for imminent dangerousness? (Unit 1)

    • 24 hours.

    • 36 hours.

    • 48 hours.

    • 72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 72 hours.
    Explanation
    An active duty member can be admitted for observation for up to 72 hours if they are deemed at risk for imminent dangerousness. This means that if there is a concern that the individual poses a threat to themselves or others, they can be held for a maximum of 72 hours to ensure their safety and the safety of those around them. During this time, the individual can be evaluated and appropriate measures can be taken to address their mental health needs.

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  • 15. 

    Congress passed what Act in 1980 that created a Mental Health Bill of Rights? (Unit 1)

    • Mental Health Systems Act

    • Mental Health Privacy Act

    • Mental Health Services Act

    • Mental Health Confidentiality Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental Health Systems Act
    Explanation
    The Mental Health Systems Act covered more than just privacy or services, it covered a large bill of rights for patients and staff regarding how files are maintained and patient care administered.

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  • 16. 

    What organization has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical medical or treatment facilities 'must' adhere to? (Unit 1)

    • Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

    • Occupational Safety and Health Administration

    • American Psychological Association

    • Health Services Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This organization sets specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical or treatment facilities 'must' adhere to. They are responsible for accrediting and certifying healthcare organizations in the United States to ensure they meet certain quality and safety standards.

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  • 17. 

    Streptococci can be transmitted through all of the following 'except': (Unit 2)

    • Sneeze

    • Coughs

    • Laughs

    • Inhales

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhales
    Explanation
    keyword is transmitted. Inhaling is receiving, but laughing, sneezing, and coughing are forms of transmission.

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  • 18. 

    How many years can HIV remain dormant before symptoms develop? (Unit 2)

    • 5

    • 8

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    HIV can remain dormant in the body for up to 10 years before symptoms develop. During this time, the virus replicates and gradually weakens the immune system. Once the immune system becomes significantly compromised, symptoms of HIV infection may start to appear. It is important to note that the length of the dormant period can vary from person to person, and some individuals may progress to AIDS faster or slower than others. Regular testing and early detection are crucial in managing HIV and preventing further transmission.

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  • 19. 

    Which organization 'must' approve all disinfectants used in the MTF? (Unit 2)

    • JCAHO

    • OSHA

    • APA

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) must approve all disinfectants used in the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility). The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants and other chemicals used in healthcare settings. They set standards and guidelines for disinfectant products, including their efficacy against various pathogens and their potential impact on human health and the environment. By requiring EPA approval, the MTF ensures that the disinfectants used meet these standards and are safe for use in healthcare settings.

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  • 20. 

    The AFOSH program guarantee's civilian employee's the right to request assistance without fear of the following 'except': (Unit 2)

    • Coercion

    • Reprisal

    • Merit raises

    • Discrimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Merit raises
    Explanation
    Even without knowing what merit raises are, we know that there is protection against the other three.

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  • 21. 

    During what period of time do the occurrence of falls and slips increase for hospitalized patients? (Unit 2)

    • Morning

    • Evening

    • Dusk

    • Noon

    Correct Answer
    A. Evening
    Explanation
    The occurrence of falls and slips increase for hospitalized patients in the evening. This could be due to various factors such as fatigue, medication effects, reduced staffing levels, and decreased visibility. Patients may be more tired and less alert in the evening, increasing the risk of falls and slips. Additionally, staffing levels may be lower during this time, leading to less supervision and assistance for patients. The decrease in natural light during the evening can also contribute to decreased visibility, making it harder for patients to navigate and increasing the chances of falls and slips.

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  • 22. 

    When lifting  or moving a bedridden patient, what part of your body should endure most of the strain? (Unit 2)

    • Arms

    • Legs

    • Back

    • Feet

    Correct Answer
    A. Legs
    Explanation
    When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, the legs should endure most of the strain. This is because the legs are the largest and strongest muscles in the body, capable of providing the necessary power and stability required for lifting heavy objects. By using the legs to bear the weight, the strain on the back and arms is minimized, reducing the risk of injury.

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  • 23. 

    Who has the primary responsibility for accident notifications? (Unit 2)

    • Technicians

    • Supervisors

    • Providers

    • Nurses

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors
    Explanation
    Supervisors have the primary responsibility for accident notifications because they are in a position of authority and have the ability to quickly and effectively communicate accidents to the appropriate individuals. They are responsible for ensuring that accidents are reported promptly and accurately, and for initiating any necessary follow-up actions or investigations. Supervisors are also responsible for ensuring that employees are aware of accident reporting procedures and for providing any necessary training or guidance. Therefore, supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring that accidents are properly documented and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 24. 

    Who should initiate the AF Form 765 when he or she discovers an accident? (Unit 2)

    • Staff member

    • Safety Officer

    • Supervisor

    • Nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff member
    Explanation
    He who found it, deals with the paperwork.

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  • 25. 

    During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously used coping mechanisms on his or her current crisis? (Unit 2)

    • Disorganization

    • Local reorganization

    • General reorganization

    • Attempts to reorganize

    Correct Answer
    A. Attempts to reorganize
    Explanation
    During the crisis stage of "Attempts to reorganize," the individual tries to use coping mechanisms that have worked for them in the past to deal with their current crisis. This stage is characterized by the individual's attempts to regain control and find a sense of stability by relying on familiar strategies and coping mechanisms. They may try to establish new routines, seek support from others, or engage in activities that have helped them cope in the past. This stage is a crucial step towards finding a resolution and moving towards a state of reorganization and stability.

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  • 26. 

    Which one is considered the final crisis stage and may last up to a year? (Unit 2)

    • Disorganization

    • Local reorganization

    • General reorganization

    • Attempts to reorganize

    Correct Answer
    A. General reorganization
    Explanation
    The final crisis stage that may last up to a year is the general reorganization. This stage refers to the period when the crisis is being addressed and efforts are being made to restore order and stability. It involves making significant changes and adjustments to overcome the crisis and establish a new state of normalcy.

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  • 27. 

    Which is 'not' considered a pre-aggressive behavior? (Unit 2)

    • Withdrawal

    • Hyperactivity

    • Hypoactivity

    • Sleep disturbance

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoactivity
    Explanation
    Pre-aggressive behaviors include hyper activity, withdrawal, sleep disturbances, pacing, changes in voice level, and similar agitations. Hypoactivity would be defined as unusually calm, not aggressive.

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  • 28. 

    What is 'not' considered a seclusion measure? (Unit 2)

    • Restraining the patient in a bed in a locked room

    • Locking a patient in a room with only a mattress on the floor

    • Limiting nutritional or medicinal access until the patient is cooperative

    • Allowing the patient privacy in his or her own room without locking the door

    Correct Answer
    A. Limiting nutritional or medicinal access until the patient is cooperative
    Explanation
    Limiting nutritional or medicinal access until the patient is cooperative is not considered a seclusion measure because it does not involve physically confining or restraining the patient. Seclusion measures typically involve physically restricting the patient's movement or isolating them in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others. However, limiting access to nutrition or medication can be considered a form of behavioral management or intervention to encourage cooperation.

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  • 29. 

    In the graded intervention process, what is the first sequence of steps? (Unit 2)

    • Body positioning

    • Verbal Intervention

    • Less restrictive physical intervention

    • More restrictive physical intervention

    Correct Answer
    A. Verbal Intervention
    Explanation
    Crisis cool-down starts with talking.

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  • 30. 

    What is the first phase of the active phases in the assualtive cycle? (Unit 2)

    • Crisis

    • Trigger

    • Escalation

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Trigger
    Explanation
    Trigger > Escalation > Crisis > Recovery would be the logical order of these answers.

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  • 31. 

    Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff? (Unit 2)

    • Crisis

    • Trigger

    • Escalation

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    The phase of recovery offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for both the patient and staff. During this phase, the patient begins to stabilize and regain control over their behavior and emotions. They may start to develop insight into their condition and work towards making positive changes in their life. Additionally, the staff can provide support, guidance, and interventions to facilitate the patient's recovery process. This phase is crucial for promoting healing, building resilience, and fostering a positive therapeutic relationship between the patient and staff.

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  • 32. 

    What type of attack do patients with real intent of doing harm to others often use? (Unit 2)

    • Kicking

    • Biting

    • Nail Scratch

    • Choke Hold

    Correct Answer
    A. Choke Hold
    Explanation
    Patients with a real intent of doing harm to others often use choke holds as a type of attack. Choke holds involve applying pressure to the neck, which can result in cutting off the air supply and causing the person being attacked to lose consciousness or even die. This type of attack can be extremely dangerous and potentially life-threatening.

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  • 33. 

    What i=is the minimum number of staff required to physically restrain a patient? (Unit 2)

    • 2

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    2 Technicians are required for a patient 'control' move, however, actual restraint requires at least 4.

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  • 34. 

    Who sets the rules for the take down when physically restraining a patient? (Unit 2)

    • Highest ranking

    • Team leader

    • Provider

    • Nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Team leader
    Explanation
    The team leader sets the rules for the take down when physically restraining a patient. As the person in charge of the team, they have the authority and responsibility to establish and communicate the guidelines for safely restraining a patient. This ensures that the process is carried out in a controlled and professional manner, minimizing the risk of harm to both the patient and the healthcare providers involved. The team leader's role is crucial in maintaining order and ensuring the safety of everyone involved in the situation.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum interval of time between checking vital signs of a restrained patient? (Unit 2)

    • 15 minutes

    • 30 minutes

    • 45 minutes

    • 60 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 minutes
    Explanation
    A restrained patient is often medicated on the spot and can get agitated easily, checking their vital signs should be a constant effort. 15 minutes is the longest a patient should go without a vital check, otherwise it could be highly dangerous.

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  • 36. 

    Cultural diversity encompasses all of the different experiences 'except': (Unit 3)

    • Rank

    • Lifestyle choices

    • Geographical origin

    • Socioeconomic status

    Correct Answer
    A. Rank
    Explanation
    Cultural diversity encompasses all of the different experiences except for rank. Rank refers to a person's social or professional position in society, which is not necessarily determined by their cultural background or identity. Cultural diversity includes aspects such as lifestyle choices, geographical origin, and socioeconomic status, which all contribute to the richness and variety of cultures within a society.

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  • 37. 

    Which is 'not' considered a hasty generalization? (Unit 3)

    • Second-hand information

    • Out-dated information

    • Unjustified inferences

    • Vividness

    Correct Answer
    A. Unjustified inferences
    Explanation
    A hasty generalization is an idea applied to an entire group. Outdated information, for instance, would be watching an old movie and seeing Arab's living in tents, and assuming that that is how that culture is. Vividness is looking at a culture's most clear trait and applying it to everyone there.

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  • 38. 

    In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common? (Unit 3)

    • American Somoan

    • Cuban American

    • American Indian

    • Alaska Native

    Correct Answer
    A. Alaska Native
    Explanation
    Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common. This could be due to cultural beliefs and values that prioritize the well-being of the family and community over individual health. Traditional healing practices, which often involve natural remedies and spiritual rituals, may be seen as more effective or culturally appropriate than seeking medical care. These factors contribute to a higher likelihood of health neglect among Alaska Native women.

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  • 39. 

    What is the first of the nine common characteristics demonstrated by culturally competent counselors? (Unit 3)

    • Counselors possess awareness

    • Counselors appreciate and respect differences

    • Counselors take time to be active in their communities

    • Counselors participate in specialized training to develop skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Counselors possess awareness
    Explanation
    Culturally competent counselors possess awareness as the first of the nine common characteristics. This means that they are knowledgeable and conscious of their own cultural beliefs, values, and biases, as well as those of their clients. They understand the impact of culture on individuals and are able to recognize and appreciate the diversity and uniqueness of each person. By possessing awareness, counselors are better equipped to provide effective and appropriate counseling services that are sensitive to the cultural backgrounds and needs of their clients.

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  • 40. 

    A patient born in 1962 is considered to be a part of what generational group? (Unit 3)

    • Veterans

    • Baby-boomers

    • Generation Xer's

    • Generation Nexters

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation Xer's
    Explanation
    Veterans born between 1922-1943
    Baby boomers 1943-1960
    Generation Xer's 1960-1980
    Generation Nexter 1980-

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  • 41. 

    Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intellegent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society? (Unit 3)

    • Veterans

    • Baby Boomers

    • Generation Xer's

    • Generation Nexters

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation Nexters
    Explanation
    Generation Nexters, also known as Generation Z, is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society. This generation grew up with technology and is highly skilled in using computers and digital devices. They are known for their ability to adapt quickly to new technology and their strong desire to succeed in the modern world.

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  • 42. 

    What significant role have women been assigned in the last 10 years? (Unit 3)

    • Fighter Pilot

    • Chief Nurse

    • Protocol Officer

    • Deputy Base Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Fighter Pilot
    Explanation
    In the last 10 years, women have been assigned the significant role of Fighter Pilot. This indicates a shift in gender stereotypes and a recognition of women's capabilities in combat roles traditionally dominated by men. It reflects the progress towards gender equality and the growing acceptance of women in previously male-dominated fields. Women serving as Fighter Pilots not only contribute to the diversity and inclusivity of the armed forces but also prove their skills, dedication, and bravery in challenging roles.

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  • 43. 

    Many of the psychological theories are based upon whom? (Unit 3)

    • Adult white male

    • Adult black male

    • Adult white female

    • Adult black female

    Correct Answer
    A. Adult white male
  • 44. 

    Which briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience? (Unit 4)

    • Formal

    • Informal

    • General

    • Key

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal
    Explanation
    A formal briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience. In a formal briefing, the presenter usually delivers information or instructions to the audience without actively seeking their input or engagement. This type of briefing is often used in professional or organizational settings where the presenter is expected to convey information in a structured and authoritative manner. The lack of verbal participation from the audience in a formal briefing allows for a more efficient and controlled dissemination of information.

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  • 45. 

    Which briefing has considerable verbal interaction with the audience? (Unit 4)

    • Formal

    • Informal

    • General

    • Key

    Correct Answer
    A. Informal
    Explanation
    An informal briefing is likely to have considerable verbal interaction with the audience. In an informal setting, there is typically more room for discussion, questions, and feedback from the audience. This type of briefing allows for a more relaxed and conversational atmosphere, encouraging active participation and engagement from the audience.

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  • 46. 

    Which is 'not' considered an advantage of a guided discussion? (Unit 4)

    • Promote student participation

    • Stimulates reflective thinking

    • Nonthreatening environment

    • Corrects misconceptions

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonthreatening environment
    Explanation
    A guided discussion is a method of teaching that encourages student participation, stimulates reflective thinking, and corrects misconceptions. However, a nonthreatening environment is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion. This means that a guided discussion may not necessarily create an environment where students feel comfortable and safe to express their thoughts and opinions.

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  • 47. 

    Which is 'not' considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion? (Unit 4)

    • It is time consuming

    • It is limited by class size

    • It is allowed for student participation

    • It is limited to class knowledge and experience

    Correct Answer
    A. It is allowed for student participation
    Explanation
    A guided discussion allows for student participation, which is considered an advantage rather than a disadvantage. Student participation promotes active learning, critical thinking, and the development of communication skills. It encourages students to engage with the topic, share their perspectives, and learn from each other. Therefore, this option is not considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion.

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  • 48. 

    How long after an E-3's PCS must he or she participate in a Newcomers Orientation? (Unit 4)

    • 15 Days

    • 30 Days

    • 45 Days

    • 60 Days

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 Days
    Explanation
    Within two months

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  • 49. 

    What is the length of the Substance Abuse Awareness Seminar? (Unit 4)

    • Two Hours

    • Four Hours

    • Six Hours

    • Eight Hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Six Hours
    Explanation
    The length of the Substance Abuse Awareness Seminar is six hours. This indicates that the seminar is designed to be a comprehensive and in-depth session on substance abuse awareness. It suggests that the organizers have allocated a significant amount of time to cover various aspects of the topic, including prevention, education, and intervention strategies. The six-hour duration allows for a thorough exploration of the subject matter and provides participants with ample opportunity to engage in discussions, activities, and learning exercises.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 06, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Malidsol

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