4c0x1 Ure 5 Level Volume 1

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Malidsol
M
Malidsol
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 224
| Attempts: 133 | Questions: 80
Please wait...
Question 1 / 80
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Who sets the rules for the take down when physically restraining a patient? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The team leader sets the rules for the take down when physically restraining a patient. As the person in charge of the team, they have the authority and responsibility to establish and communicate the guidelines for safely restraining a patient. This ensures that the process is carried out in a controlled and professional manner, minimizing the risk of harm to both the patient and the healthcare providers involved. The team leader's role is crucial in maintaining order and ensuring the safety of everyone involved in the situation.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
4c0x1 Ure 5 Level Volume 1 - Quiz

The '4C0X1 URE 5 level Volume 1' quiz assesses knowledge on ethical foundations and behaviors critical in mental health settings. It focuses on trust, duty, accountability, and professionalism, enhancing understanding of ethical conduct in healthcare.

Tell us your name to personalize your report, certificate & get on the leaderboard!
2. Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?  (Unit 1)

Explanation

If a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, the technician is held accountable. This implies that the technician is responsible for maintaining professional boundaries and ensuring that appropriate relationships are maintained with patients.

Submit
3. All of the following are examples of effective communication 'except':  (Unit 1)

Explanation

Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy refers to feeling sorry for someone's situation or experiencing pity, whereas effective communication involves understanding and conveying messages clearly and accurately. While empathy, conscious nonverbal signs, and maintaining eye contact are all important aspects of effective communication, sympathy does not directly contribute to effective communication.

Submit
4. Which attribute allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Consistency allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior. When healthcare professionals consistently act in a reliable and predictable manner, patients feel more secure and confident in their care. This helps to establish trust and promotes a positive therapeutic relationship between the healthcare provider and the patient.

Submit
5. You are guilty of which intentional tort if you discuss a patient's medical history with some one who does 'not' have a 'need to know'? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Discussing a patient's medical history with someone who does not have a "need to know" violates the patient's right to privacy. This intentional tort is known as wrongful invasion of privacy. It involves the unauthorized disclosure of private information, which can harm the patient's reputation and cause emotional distress. Defamation of character involves making false statements that harm a person's reputation, misrepresentation involves making false statements or concealing important information, and assault involves intentionally causing fear of physical harm. None of these torts directly apply to the given scenario.

Submit
6. When lifting  or moving a bedridden patient, what part of your body should endure most of the strain? (Unit 2)

Explanation

When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, the legs should endure most of the strain. This is because the legs are the largest and strongest muscles in the body, capable of providing the necessary power and stability required for lifting heavy objects. By using the legs to bear the weight, the strain on the back and arms is minimized, reducing the risk of injury.

Submit
7. Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The phase of recovery offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for both the patient and staff. During this phase, the patient begins to stabilize and regain control over their behavior and emotions. They may start to develop insight into their condition and work towards making positive changes in their life. Additionally, the staff can provide support, guidance, and interventions to facilitate the patient's recovery process. This phase is crucial for promoting healing, building resilience, and fostering a positive therapeutic relationship between the patient and staff.

Submit
8. Many of the psychological theories are based upon whom? (Unit 3)

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
9. What is considered the core of behavioral health care? (Unit 5)

Explanation

Ethical behavior is considered the core of behavioral health care because it involves adhering to professional standards and guidelines, ensuring the well-being and rights of patients, and maintaining confidentiality and trust. Ethical behavior in this context means providing care that is respectful, compassionate, and non-discriminatory, while also promoting the autonomy and self-determination of individuals. It involves making decisions that are based on the best interests of the patient, upholding the principles of beneficence and non-maleficence, and being transparent and accountable in all aspects of care. Ethical behavior forms the foundation of a therapeutic relationship and helps to create a safe and supportive environment for individuals seeking behavioral health care.

Submit
10. Which aspect of 'doing all your duty' is considered extremely important?  (Unit 1)

Explanation

Study this. You are nothing if not reliable.

Submit
11. All can sue the federal government 'except': (Unit 1)

Explanation

Active Duty Military personnel cannot sue the federal government because they are considered part of the government and are subject to military law and regulations. They have limited legal rights and remedies compared to civilians, dependents, and retired military personnel who are not bound by the same restrictions.

Submit
12. At what stage has the body depleted itself of body energy and immunity? (Unit 6)

Explanation

The stage of exhaustion is when the body has depleted itself of body energy and immunity. This stage occurs after the alarm reaction and the stage of resistance. During this stage, the body's resources have been used up, and the individual may experience physical and mental exhaustion. The immune system is weakened, making the person more susceptible to illnesses and diseases.

Submit
13. Which legal liability is considered non-punitive? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Admin is as opposed to dishonorable

Submit
14. Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intellegent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Generation Nexters, also known as Generation Z, is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society. This generation grew up with technology and is highly skilled in using computers and digital devices. They are known for their ability to adapt quickly to new technology and their strong desire to succeed in the modern world.

Submit
15. In what order are mental health records prepared for retirement shipment? (Unit 5)

Explanation

They go in the outbound box alphabetically. You wouldn't sort them any other way.

Submit
16. How many years can HIV remain dormant before symptoms develop? (Unit 2)

Explanation

HIV can remain dormant in the body for up to 10 years before symptoms develop. During this time, the virus replicates and gradually weakens the immune system. Once the immune system becomes significantly compromised, symptoms of HIV infection may start to appear. It is important to note that the length of the dormant period can vary from person to person, and some individuals may progress to AIDS faster or slower than others. Regular testing and early detection are crucial in managing HIV and preventing further transmission.

Submit
17. Which budget covers acquisitions of land and buildings? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The budget that covers acquisitions of land and buildings is the capital budget. This budget is specifically allocated for long-term investments in assets such as land and buildings. It is separate from the operating budget, which covers day-to-day expenses, and the personal budget, which focuses on individual expenses. The draft option is not relevant to budgeting.

Submit
18. What i=is the minimum number of staff required to physically restrain a patient? (Unit 2)

Explanation

2 Technicians are required for a patient 'control' move, however, actual restraint requires at least 4.

Submit
19. Cultural diversity encompasses all of the different experiences 'except': (Unit 3)

Explanation

Cultural diversity encompasses all of the different experiences except for rank. Rank refers to a person's social or professional position in society, which is not necessarily determined by their cultural background or identity. Cultural diversity includes aspects such as lifestyle choices, geographical origin, and socioeconomic status, which all contribute to the richness and variety of cultures within a society.

Submit
20. Which is 'not' considered a pre-aggressive behavior? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Pre-aggressive behaviors include hyper activity, withdrawal, sleep disturbances, pacing, changes in voice level, and similar agitations. Hypoactivity would be defined as unusually calm, not aggressive.

Submit
21. How long can an active duty member  be admitted for observation if he is deemed at risk for imminent dangerousness? (Unit 1)

Explanation

An active duty member can be admitted for observation for up to 72 hours if they are deemed at risk for imminent dangerousness. This means that if there is a concern that the individual poses a threat to themselves or others, they can be held for a maximum of 72 hours to ensure their safety and the safety of those around them. During this time, the individual can be evaluated and appropriate measures can be taken to address their mental health needs.

Submit
22. Congress passed what Act in 1980 that created a Mental Health Bill of Rights? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The Mental Health Systems Act covered more than just privacy or services, it covered a large bill of rights for patients and staff regarding how files are maintained and patient care administered.

Submit
23. In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common. This could be due to cultural beliefs and values that prioritize the well-being of the family and community over individual health. Traditional healing practices, which often involve natural remedies and spiritual rituals, may be seen as more effective or culturally appropriate than seeking medical care. These factors contribute to a higher likelihood of health neglect among Alaska Native women.

Submit
24. What organization has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical medical or treatment facilities 'must' adhere to? (Unit 1)

Explanation

The correct answer is the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This organization sets specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical or treatment facilities 'must' adhere to. They are responsible for accrediting and certifying healthcare organizations in the United States to ensure they meet certain quality and safety standards.

Submit
25. What is 'not' considered a seclusion measure? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Limiting nutritional or medicinal access until the patient is cooperative is not considered a seclusion measure because it does not involve physically confining or restraining the patient. Seclusion measures typically involve physically restricting the patient's movement or isolating them in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others. However, limiting access to nutrition or medication can be considered a form of behavioral management or intervention to encourage cooperation.

Submit
26. What is the first phase of the active phases in the assualtive cycle? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Trigger > Escalation > Crisis > Recovery would be the logical order of these answers.

Submit
27. Which briefing has considerable verbal interaction with the audience? (Unit 4)

Explanation

An informal briefing is likely to have considerable verbal interaction with the audience. In an informal setting, there is typically more room for discussion, questions, and feedback from the audience. This type of briefing allows for a more relaxed and conversational atmosphere, encouraging active participation and engagement from the audience.

Submit
28. How long are mental health records maintained after the last date of treatment? (Unit 5)

Explanation

Mental health records are typically maintained for two years after the last date of treatment. This duration allows for the necessary documentation to be kept for future reference and potential follow-up care. After two years, it is common practice to securely dispose of these records to ensure patient confidentiality.

Submit
29. Which subtype of PTSD persists beyond three months? (Unit 6)

Explanation

Acute is less than 3 months, chronic is more. The other two are separate issues.

Submit
30. In what classification of battle fatigue can a member stay in the unit and then be fully restored to duty? (Unit 6)

Explanation

In the classification of battle fatigue, a member can stay in the unit and then be fully restored to duty if they have a mild case. This suggests that their symptoms are not severe enough to require them to be removed from their unit or undergo extensive treatment. They may experience some level of fatigue or stress, but it is manageable and does not significantly impact their ability to continue their duties.

Submit
31. Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patients dignity? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Individual Care is closely related to respecting the patients dignity because it emphasizes the importance of treating each patient as a unique individual with their own needs, values, and preferences. By providing individualized care, healthcare professionals can ensure that the patient's dignity is upheld and respected, as they are involved in decision-making processes and their autonomy is valued. This ethical behavior also promotes empathy, compassion, and sensitivity towards the patient's physical, emotional, and psychological well-being, further contributing to the preservation of their dignity.

Submit
32. All of the following are examples of retaliation 'except': (Unit 1)

Explanation

Withholding medication can be seen as an act of retaliation because it involves intentionally denying or depriving a patient of necessary medical treatment as a form of punishment or revenge. Reducing the patient to a diagnosis, laughing at a patient's fears, and avoiding the patient may also be considered disrespectful or unprofessional behavior, but they do not directly involve withholding medication. Therefore, the correct answer is withholding medication.

Submit
33. Which one is 'not' considered an intentional tort? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Negligence is not considered an intentional tort because it involves the failure to exercise reasonable care, rather than a deliberate act or intention to cause harm. Intentional torts, such as false imprisonment, misrepresentation, and assault, involve intentional acts that cause harm or injury to another person. Negligence, on the other hand, refers to a failure to fulfill a duty of care, resulting in harm or injury to another person, but without the intention to cause harm.

Submit
34. What type of attack do patients with real intent of doing harm to others often use? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Patients with a real intent of doing harm to others often use choke holds as a type of attack. Choke holds involve applying pressure to the neck, which can result in cutting off the air supply and causing the person being attacked to lose consciousness or even die. This type of attack can be extremely dangerous and potentially life-threatening.

Submit
35. What is the maximum interval of time between checking vital signs of a restrained patient? (Unit 2)

Explanation

A restrained patient is often medicated on the spot and can get agitated easily, checking their vital signs should be a constant effort. 15 minutes is the longest a patient should go without a vital check, otherwise it could be highly dangerous.

Submit
36. Which briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience? (Unit 4)

Explanation

A formal briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience. In a formal briefing, the presenter usually delivers information or instructions to the audience without actively seeking their input or engagement. This type of briefing is often used in professional or organizational settings where the presenter is expected to convey information in a structured and authoritative manner. The lack of verbal participation from the audience in a formal briefing allows for a more efficient and controlled dissemination of information.

Submit
37. How long after an E-3's PCS must he or she participate in a Newcomers Orientation? (Unit 4)

Explanation

Within two months

Submit
38. Who should initiate the AF Form 765 when he or she discovers an accident? (Unit 2)

Explanation

He who found it, deals with the paperwork.

Submit
39. During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously used coping mechanisms on his or her current crisis? (Unit 2)

Explanation

During the crisis stage of "Attempts to reorganize," the individual tries to use coping mechanisms that have worked for them in the past to deal with their current crisis. This stage is characterized by the individual's attempts to regain control and find a sense of stability by relying on familiar strategies and coping mechanisms. They may try to establish new routines, seek support from others, or engage in activities that have helped them cope in the past. This stage is a crucial step towards finding a resolution and moving towards a state of reorganization and stability.

Submit
40. Which form must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of admission of a patient? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The physician must fill out the SF 506, Clinical Record -- Physical Examination form within 24 hours of admission of a patient. This form is used to document the physical examination findings of the patient. It includes information such as vital signs, general appearance, and specific examination findings. Filling out this form is important as it provides a baseline assessment of the patient's health status upon admission, which can be used for future reference and comparison.

Submit
41. Which mental health readiness team is considered the primary deployable team? (Unit 6)

Explanation

The Mental Health Rapid Response team is considered the primary deployable team because they are specifically trained and equipped to respond quickly to mental health emergencies and crises. They are able to provide immediate support and intervention in high-stress situations, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals experiencing mental health issues.

Submit
42. Which organization 'must' approve all disinfectants used in the MTF? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) must approve all disinfectants used in the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility). The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants and other chemicals used in healthcare settings. They set standards and guidelines for disinfectant products, including their efficacy against various pathogens and their potential impact on human health and the environment. By requiring EPA approval, the MTF ensures that the disinfectants used meet these standards and are safe for use in healthcare settings.

Submit
43. In the graded intervention process, what is the first sequence of steps? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Crisis cool-down starts with talking.

Submit
44. Which is 'not' considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion? (Unit 4)

Explanation

A guided discussion allows for student participation, which is considered an advantage rather than a disadvantage. Student participation promotes active learning, critical thinking, and the development of communication skills. It encourages students to engage with the topic, share their perspectives, and learn from each other. Therefore, this option is not considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion.

Submit
45. The AFOSH program guarantee's civilian employee's the right to request assistance without fear of the following 'except': (Unit 2)

Explanation

Even without knowing what merit raises are, we know that there is protection against the other three.

Submit
46. What organization's mission is to receive, shelter, process, and provide medical and nursing care to patients who enter, travel in, or leave the A/E System. (Unit 6)

Explanation

ASF- Aeromedical Staging Facility.

Submit
47. Which area is not an ethical foundation of trust? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Respect is not an ethical foundation of trust because trust is built on honesty, reliability, and integrity, whereas respect is a separate value that involves treating others with dignity and consideration. While respect is important in relationships, it is not directly related to trust. Trust is primarily based on the belief that someone will act in a trustworthy manner and fulfill their obligations. Therefore, respect is not an ethical foundation of trust.

Submit
48. What significant role have women been assigned in the last 10 years? (Unit 3)

Explanation

In the last 10 years, women have been assigned the significant role of Fighter Pilot. This indicates a shift in gender stereotypes and a recognition of women's capabilities in combat roles traditionally dominated by men. It reflects the progress towards gender equality and the growing acceptance of women in previously male-dominated fields. Women serving as Fighter Pilots not only contribute to the diversity and inclusivity of the armed forces but also prove their skills, dedication, and bravery in challenging roles.

Submit
49. Who compiles the entire budget process for the MTF? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The RMO (Resource Management Office) compiles the entire budget process for the MTF (Medical Treatment Facility). This means that they are responsible for gathering all the necessary information and data related to the budget and organizing it into a comprehensive plan. They work closely with other departments and individuals involved in the budget process to ensure accuracy and efficiency. The RMO plays a crucial role in managing the financial resources of the MTF and ensuring that the budget is allocated appropriately.

Submit
50. What type of budget is used at a MTF? (Unit 5)

Explanation

A MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) typically uses an operating budget. An operating budget is a financial plan that outlines the day-to-day expenses and income of an organization. In the case of a MTF, the operating budget would cover the costs of medical supplies, staff salaries, utilities, and other operational expenses required to provide medical services to patients. This type of budget helps the facility manage its ongoing expenses and ensure that it has the necessary resources to deliver healthcare services effectively.

Submit
51. Where does the budgeting process begin? (Unit 5)

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
52. What should be clearly marked on the front of the SNIAC program? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The SNIAC program should have its record clearly marked on the front. This ensures that the record is easily identifiable and distinguishable from other programs. By clearly marking the SNIAC record, it becomes easier for individuals to locate and access the necessary information related to the program.

Submit
53. Which AFSC is 'not' appointed by the MTF commander to serve as the FMRC? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The AFSC 4D0X1 is not appointed by the MTF commander to serve as the FMRC.

Submit
54. Which is 'not' an AE system movement precedence? (Unit 6)

Explanation

Expedite is not an AE system movement precedence. AE system movement precedence refers to the order in which items or tasks are prioritized for action. Urgent, priority, and routine are all examples of AE system movement precedences, indicating the level of urgency or importance assigned to a particular item or task. However, expedite does not fit into this categorization as it does not indicate a specific level of urgency or importance, but rather denotes the act of speeding up or accelerating a process or action.

Submit
55. What is the first of the nine common characteristics demonstrated by culturally competent counselors? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Culturally competent counselors possess awareness as the first of the nine common characteristics. This means that they are knowledgeable and conscious of their own cultural beliefs, values, and biases, as well as those of their clients. They understand the impact of culture on individuals and are able to recognize and appreciate the diversity and uniqueness of each person. By possessing awareness, counselors are better equipped to provide effective and appropriate counseling services that are sensitive to the cultural backgrounds and needs of their clients.

Submit
56. A patient born in 1962 is considered to be a part of what generational group? (Unit 3)

Explanation

Veterans born between 1922-1943
Baby boomers 1943-1960
Generation Xer's 1960-1980
Generation Nexter 1980-

Submit
57. Which is 'not' considered a hasty generalization? (Unit 3)

Explanation

A hasty generalization is an idea applied to an entire group. Outdated information, for instance, would be watching an old movie and seeing Arab's living in tents, and assuming that that is how that culture is. Vividness is looking at a culture's most clear trait and applying it to everyone there.

Submit
58. Which is 'not' considered an advantage of a guided discussion? (Unit 4)

Explanation

A guided discussion is a method of teaching that encourages student participation, stimulates reflective thinking, and corrects misconceptions. However, a nonthreatening environment is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion. This means that a guided discussion may not necessarily create an environment where students feel comfortable and safe to express their thoughts and opinions.

Submit
59. How long are FAP records maintained at the NPRC before they are destroyed? (Unit 5)

Explanation

FAP records are maintained at the NPRC for 25 years before they are destroyed. This means that the records of Family Advocacy Program (FAP) are kept for a quarter of a century before they are disposed of. This duration allows for the retention of important information and ensures that records are available for a significant period of time. After 25 years, the records are likely to be considered outdated or no longer necessary, hence the decision to destroy them.

Submit
60. How long are SNIAC programs maintained at the NPRC before they are destroyed?  (Unit 5)

Explanation

SNIAC programs are maintained at the NPRC for a period of 25 years before they are destroyed. This means that the NPRC keeps these programs for a quarter of a century before disposing of them. This ensures that the records are available for a significant amount of time, allowing for any necessary access or retrieval of information.

Submit
61. During the 1973 Yom Kipper War, what was the strongest predictive factor which distinguished between soldiers who became 'battle shock' casualties and those who where decorated for heroic acts? (Unit 6)

Explanation

Soldiers who where concerned with issues going on back home where distracted from the battle. They where more likely to be injured.

Submit
62. What is considered one of the most disruptive forces on a mental health treatment unit? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Gossiping with patients is considered one of the most disruptive forces on a mental health treatment unit. Gossiping can create a negative and toxic environment, erode trust between staff and patients, and compromise the therapeutic relationship. It can also lead to the spreading of false information, rumors, and breaches of confidentiality, which can be detrimental to the well-being and recovery of the patients. Gossiping undermines the professionalism and integrity of the healthcare team, and it is crucial to promote a supportive and respectful environment for effective mental health treatment.

Submit
63. During what period of time do the occurrence of falls and slips increase for hospitalized patients? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The occurrence of falls and slips increase for hospitalized patients in the evening. This could be due to various factors such as fatigue, medication effects, reduced staffing levels, and decreased visibility. Patients may be more tired and less alert in the evening, increasing the risk of falls and slips. Additionally, staffing levels may be lower during this time, leading to less supervision and assistance for patients. The decrease in natural light during the evening can also contribute to decreased visibility, making it harder for patients to navigate and increasing the chances of falls and slips.

Submit
64. What is the length of the Substance Abuse Awareness Seminar? (Unit 4)

Explanation

The length of the Substance Abuse Awareness Seminar is six hours. This indicates that the seminar is designed to be a comprehensive and in-depth session on substance abuse awareness. It suggests that the organizers have allocated a significant amount of time to cover various aspects of the topic, including prevention, education, and intervention strategies. The six-hour duration allows for a thorough exploration of the subject matter and provides participants with ample opportunity to engage in discussions, activities, and learning exercises.

Submit
65. Which form can only be accepted by a nurse after it is signed or counter signed? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 3066, Doctors Orders. This form can only be accepted by a nurse after it is signed or counter signed. This implies that the form requires the authorization or approval of a doctor before a nurse can accept and act upon it. The other forms mentioned in the options do not have this requirement.

Submit
66. Who is the custodian for outpatient and inpatient records? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The MTF Commander is responsible for the custody of both outpatient and inpatient records. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the records are properly maintained, stored, and accessed as needed. As the commander of the medical treatment facility, they are ultimately accountable for the security and confidentiality of the records, as well as their availability for patient care and administrative purposes.

Submit
67. What section of the FAP record is used for supportive documentation? (Unit 5)

Explanation

Need to not guess. Study section.

Submit
68. How long are mental health records maintained at the NPRC before they are destroyed? (Unit 5)

Explanation

Mental health records are maintained at the NPRC (National Personnel Records Center) for a period of 25 years before they are destroyed. This duration allows for the preservation of these records for a significant amount of time, ensuring that they are accessible for any necessary future reference or research. After 25 years, it is deemed appropriate to destroy these records, as they may no longer be relevant or necessary for ongoing administrative or medical purposes.

Submit
69. How many days of continuous combat can a military member expect to have a combat reaction? (Unit 6)

Explanation

A military member can expect to have a combat reaction for 100 days of continuous combat. This means that they are likely to experience physical and psychological effects from being in combat situations for this duration. It is important for military personnel to be prepared for the challenges and stressors that come with extended periods of combat.

Submit
70. Streptococci can be transmitted through all of the following 'except': (Unit 2)

Explanation

keyword is transmitted. Inhaling is receiving, but laughing, sneezing, and coughing are forms of transmission.

Submit
71. What emotional reaction is noted when an individual suffers from gastrointestinal problems related to combat stress? (Unit 6)

Explanation

When an individual suffers from gastrointestinal problems related to combat stress, one emotional reaction that may be noted is guilt. This could be due to a variety of factors, such as feeling guilty for not being able to perform their duties properly due to their physical condition, or feeling guilty for putting additional burden on their comrades or loved ones. The individual may also experience guilt for not being able to control their emotions or for feeling like a burden to others. Overall, guilt can be a common emotional reaction in such situations.

Submit
72. What section is the FASOR 2486 child/spouse incident report maintained? (Unit 5)

Explanation

The FASOR 2486 child/spouse incident report is maintained in Section B.

Submit
73. What is considered a 'must' in developing professional relationships? (Unit 1)

Explanation

Maturity is considered a 'must' in developing professional relationships because it demonstrates emotional intelligence, responsibility, and the ability to handle difficult situations with grace and professionalism. Mature individuals are more likely to communicate effectively, resolve conflicts, and maintain a level-headed approach in professional settings. They are also more reliable, trustworthy, and able to make sound decisions. Overall, maturity plays a crucial role in establishing and maintaining positive and productive professional relationships.

Submit
74. When do a commander and first sergeant recieve his or her annual Famly Violence and Prevention training? (Unit 5)

Explanation

180 days of the Fiscal year, ensuring training is up to date.

Submit
75. Which  aspect of managed care is 'not' listed often as part of the ethical verses legal discussion? (Unit 5)

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
76. Which one is considered the final crisis stage and may last up to a year? (Unit 2)

Explanation

The final crisis stage that may last up to a year is the general reorganization. This stage refers to the period when the crisis is being addressed and efforts are being made to restore order and stability. It involves making significant changes and adjustments to overcome the crisis and establish a new state of normalcy.

Submit
77. Who has the primary responsibility for accident notifications? (Unit 2)

Explanation

Supervisors have the primary responsibility for accident notifications because they are in a position of authority and have the ability to quickly and effectively communicate accidents to the appropriate individuals. They are responsible for ensuring that accidents are reported promptly and accurately, and for initiating any necessary follow-up actions or investigations. Supervisors are also responsible for ensuring that employees are aware of accident reporting procedures and for providing any necessary training or guidance. Therefore, supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring that accidents are properly documented and addressed in a timely manner.

Submit
78. Which team includes one psychiatrist, three mental health nurses, and two mental health technicians? (Unit 6)

Explanation

The team that includes one psychiatrist, three mental health nurses, and two mental health technicians is called Mental Health Augmentation.

Submit
79. Which echelon of treatment is designed to treat combat stress victims for seven to 30 days? (Unit 6)

Explanation

The echelon of treatment designed to treat combat stress victims for seven to 30 days is 3E. This level of treatment is typically provided at a Combat Stress Control Unit (CSCU) or a similar facility. These units are equipped to provide immediate and short-term care to combat stress victims, offering counseling, therapy, and other support services to help them recover and reintegrate back into their units.

Submit
80. Which echelon of treatment is located with a 3 to 10 mile radius from the battlefield? (Unit 6)

Explanation

The correct answer is 2E. In military terms, echelon refers to the level or stage of treatment in a medical system. The echelon of treatment located within a 3 to 10 mile radius from the battlefield is 2E. This means that medical facilities at this echelon are relatively close to the front lines and provide immediate care to injured soldiers. These facilities are equipped to stabilize patients and provide initial treatment before they are transported to higher echelons for further care.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 3, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 06, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Malidsol
Cancel
  • All
    All (80)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Who sets the rules for the take down when physically restraining a...
Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate...
All of the following are examples of effective communication...
Which attribute allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by...
You are guilty of which intentional tort if you discuss a patient's...
When lifting  or moving a bedridden patient, what part of your...
Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for...
Many of the psychological theories are based upon whom? (Unit 3)
What is considered the core of behavioral health care? (Unit 5)
Which aspect of 'doing all your duty' is considered extremely...
All can sue the federal government 'except': (Unit 1)
At what stage has the body depleted itself of body energy and...
Which legal liability is considered non-punitive? (Unit 1)
Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intellegent,...
In what order are mental health records prepared for retirement...
How many years can HIV remain dormant before symptoms develop? (Unit...
Which budget covers acquisitions of land and buildings? (Unit 5)
What i=is the minimum number of staff required to physically restrain...
Cultural diversity encompasses all of the different experiences...
Which is 'not' considered a pre-aggressive behavior? (Unit 2)
How long can an active duty member  be admitted for observation...
Congress passed what Act in 1980 that created a Mental Health Bill of...
In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in...
What organization has very specific patient's rights guidelines that...
What is 'not' considered a seclusion measure? (Unit 2)
What is the first phase of the active phases in the assualtive cycle?...
Which briefing has considerable verbal interaction with the audience?...
How long are mental health records maintained after the last date of...
Which subtype of PTSD persists beyond three months? (Unit 6)
In what classification of battle fatigue can a member stay in the unit...
Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patients...
All of the following are examples of retaliation 'except': (Unit 1)
Which one is 'not' considered an intentional tort? (Unit 1)
What type of attack do patients with real intent of doing harm to...
What is the maximum interval of time between checking vital signs of a...
Which briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by...
How long after an E-3's PCS must he or she participate in a Newcomers...
Who should initiate the AF Form 765 when he or she discovers an...
During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously...
Which form must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of...
Which mental health readiness team is considered the primary...
Which organization 'must' approve all disinfectants used in the MTF?...
In the graded intervention process, what is the first sequence of...
Which is 'not' considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion? (Unit...
The AFOSH program guarantee's civilian employee's the right to request...
What organization's mission is to receive, shelter, process, and...
Which area is not an ethical foundation of trust? (Unit 1)
What significant role have women been assigned in the last 10 years?...
Who compiles the entire budget process for the MTF? (Unit 5)
What type of budget is used at a MTF? (Unit 5)
Where does the budgeting process begin? (Unit 5)
What should be clearly marked on the front of the SNIAC program? (Unit...
Which AFSC is 'not' appointed by the MTF commander to serve as the...
Which is 'not' an AE system movement precedence? (Unit 6)
What is the first of the nine common characteristics demonstrated by...
A patient born in 1962 is considered to be a part of what generational...
Which is 'not' considered a hasty generalization? (Unit 3)
Which is 'not' considered an advantage of a guided discussion? (Unit...
How long are FAP records maintained at the NPRC before they are...
How long are SNIAC programs maintained at the NPRC before they are...
During the 1973 Yom Kipper War, what was the strongest predictive...
What is considered one of the most disruptive forces on a mental...
During what period of time do the occurrence of falls and slips...
What is the length of the Substance Abuse Awareness Seminar? (Unit 4)
Which form can only be accepted by a nurse after it is signed or...
Who is the custodian for outpatient and inpatient records? (Unit 5)
What section of the FAP record is used for supportive documentation?...
How long are mental health records maintained at the NPRC before they...
How many days of continuous combat can a military member expect to...
Streptococci can be transmitted through all of the following 'except':...
What emotional reaction is noted when an individual suffers from...
What section is the FASOR 2486 child/spouse incident report...
What is considered a 'must' in developing professional relationships?...
When do a commander and first sergeant recieve his or her annual Famly...
Which  aspect of managed care is 'not' listed often as part of...
Which one is considered the final crisis stage and may last up to a...
Who has the primary responsibility for accident notifications? (Unit...
Which team includes one psychiatrist, three mental health nurses, and...
Which echelon of treatment is designed to treat combat stress victims...
Which echelon of treatment is located with a 3 to 10 mile radius from...
Alert!

Advertisement