3P071 Volume 1
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Volume 1
- 1.When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
- A.
The first duty day following completion.
- B.
Within 30 days of completion.
- C.
72 hours after completion.
- D.
48 hours after completion.
- 2.The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight
- A.
Commander.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
SNCO.
- D.
Chief.
- 3.Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
- A.
SFS.
- B.
SFM.
- C.
SFO.
- D.
SFT.
- 4.The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
- A.
Security patrol.
- B.
Security force members.
- C.
SRT member.
- D.
ART member.
- 5.What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT.
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries
- C.
Close boundary sentry.
- D.
External SRT.
- 6.What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT.
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries.
- C.
Close boundary sentry.
- D.
External SRT.
- 7.When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person
- A.
Fire teams.
- B.
Internal SRTs.
- C.
Security patrols.
- D.
Close boundary sentries.
- 8.What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
- A.
Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.
- B.
Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.
- C.
Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area.
- D.
Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
- 9.What does SEI stand for?
- A.
Security entry identifier.
- B.
Security experience index.
- C.
Special delivery identifier.
- D.
Special experience identifier.
- 10.Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the
- A.
MSCFO.
- B.
IVA.
- C.
CCTV.
- D.
CBS.
- 11.The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
- A.
Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.
- B.
Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs.
- C.
Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.
- D.
How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron.
- 12.What are the three main branches of most SF units?
- A.
SFT, SFO and SFL.
- B.
SFO, SFOA and SFT.
- C.
SFO, SFT and SFA.
- D.
SFS, CSF and SFM.
- 13.The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?
- A.
Report of survey office of investigation.
- B.
Air Force office of investigation.
- C.
Security forces training team.
- D.
Security forces investigations.
- 14.Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?
- A.
Phoenix ravens.
- B.
Security systems operators.
- C.
Electronic security systems.
- D.
Antiterrorism/force protection.
- 15.What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
- A.
Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
- B.
Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.
- C.
Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.
- D.
Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.
- 16.Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
- A.
Investigations.
- B.
Crime prevention.
- C.
Resource protection.
- D.
Reports and analysis.
- 17.Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
- A.
AFI 36–2225.
- B.
AFI 36–2226.
- C.
AFI 36–2227.
- D.
AFI 36–2525.
- 18.What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis.
- B.
Feedback.
- C.
Evaluation.
- D.
Cross-feed.
- 19.How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
- A.
120.
- B.
90.
- C.
60.
- D.
30.
- 20.After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
- A.
30.
- B.
21.
- C.
15.
- D.
3.
- 21.The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to
- A.
Enforce military laws and regulations.
- B.
Detect classified information.
- C.
Suppress illegal drug use.
- D.
Detect explosives.
- 22.Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
- A.
OUT and IN.
- B.
SIT and STAY.
- C.
OUT and HEEL.
- D.
STAY and HEEL.
- 23.When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
- A.
Deterrence.
- B.
Detention.
- C.
Decoying.
- D.
Detection.
- 24.When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.
- C.
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
- D.
Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.
- 25.What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
- A.
Location and size of area.
- B.
Time and terrain features.
- C.
Wind speed and direction.
- D.
Experience of canine and handler.
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