3P071 Volume 1
Volume 1
- 1.
When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
- A.
The first duty day following completion.
- B.
Within 30 days of completion.
- C.
72 hours after completion.
- D.
48 hours after completion.
Correct Answer
A. The first duty day following completion. -
- 2.
The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight
- A.
Commander.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
SNCO.
- D.
Chief.
Correct Answer
D. Chief. -
- 3.
Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
- A.
SFS.
- B.
SFM.
- C.
SFO.
- D.
SFT.
Correct Answer
B. SFM. -
- 4.
The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
- A.
Security patrol.
- B.
Security force members.
- C.
SRT member.
- D.
ART member.
Correct Answer
B. Security force members. -
- 5.
What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT.
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries
- C.
Close boundary sentry.
- D.
External SRT.
Correct Answer
A. Internal SRT. -
- 6.
What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
- A.
Internal SRT.
- B.
Immediate visual assessment sentries.
- C.
Close boundary sentry.
- D.
External SRT.
Correct Answer
D. External SRT. -
- 7.
When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person
- A.
Fire teams.
- B.
Internal SRTs.
- C.
Security patrols.
- D.
Close boundary sentries.
Correct Answer
C. Security patrols. -
- 8.
What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
- A.
Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.
- B.
Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.
- C.
Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area.
- D.
Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
Correct Answer
D. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas. -
- 9.
What does SEI stand for?
- A.
Security entry identifier.
- B.
Security experience index.
- C.
Special delivery identifier.
- D.
Special experience identifier.
Correct Answer
D. Special experience identifier. -
- 10.
Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the
- A.
MSCFO.
- B.
IVA.
- C.
CCTV.
- D.
CBS.
Correct Answer
D. CBS. -
- 11.
The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
- A.
Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.
- B.
Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs.
- C.
Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.
- D.
How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron.
Correct Answer
C. Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. -
- 12.
What are the three main branches of most SF units?
- A.
SFT, SFO and SFL.
- B.
SFO, SFOA and SFT.
- C.
SFO, SFT and SFA.
- D.
SFS, CSF and SFM.
Correct Answer
C. SFO, SFT and SFA. -
- 13.
The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?
- A.
Report of survey office of investigation.
- B.
Air Force office of investigation.
- C.
Security forces training team.
- D.
Security forces investigations.
Correct Answer
D. Security forces investigations. -
- 14.
Which specialists develop guidance for security systems operations and conduct operator training?
- A.
Phoenix ravens.
- B.
Security systems operators.
- C.
Electronic security systems.
- D.
Antiterrorism/force protection.
Correct Answer
C. Electronic security systems. -
- 15.
What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
- A.
Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
- B.
Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.
- C.
Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.
- D.
Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.
Correct Answer
A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained. -
- 16.
Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
- A.
Investigations.
- B.
Crime prevention.
- C.
Resource protection.
- D.
Reports and analysis.
Correct Answer
D. Reports and analysis. -
- 17.
Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
- A.
AFI 36–2225.
- B.
AFI 36–2226.
- C.
AFI 36–2227.
- D.
AFI 36–2525.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 36–2225. -
- 18.
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
- A.
Analysis.
- B.
Feedback.
- C.
Evaluation.
- D.
Cross-feed.
Correct Answer
B. Feedback. -
- 19.
How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
- A.
120.
- B.
90.
- C.
60.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
D. 30. -
- 20.
After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
- A.
30.
- B.
21.
- C.
15.
- D.
3.
Correct Answer
C. 15. -
- 21.
The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to
- A.
Enforce military laws and regulations.
- B.
Detect classified information.
- C.
Suppress illegal drug use.
- D.
Detect explosives.
Correct Answer
B. Detect classified information. -
- 22.
Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
- A.
OUT and IN.
- B.
SIT and STAY.
- C.
OUT and HEEL.
- D.
STAY and HEEL.
Correct Answer
C. OUT and HEEL. -
- 23.
When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
- A.
Deterrence.
- B.
Detention.
- C.
Decoying.
- D.
Detection.
Correct Answer
D. Detection. -
- 24.
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?
- A.
In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.
- B.
Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.
- C.
At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
- D.
Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.
Correct Answer
C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. -
- 25.
What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
- A.
Location and size of area.
- B.
Time and terrain features.
- C.
Wind speed and direction.
- D.
Experience of canine and handler.
Correct Answer
A. Location and size of area. -
- 26.
What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
- A.
Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.
- B.
Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.
- C.
Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.
- D.
Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team.
Correct Answer
A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. -
- 27.
From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
- A.
Upwind.
- B.
Crosswind.
- C.
Downwind.
- D.
Wind direction doesn’t matter.
Correct Answer
C. Downwind. -
- 28.
When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
- A.
Danger to the canine.
- B.
Time left in patrol shift.
- C.
Type and size of building.
- D.
Weather conditions just prior to the search.
Correct Answer
C. Type and size of building. -
- 29.
When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
- A.
Physical deterrent.
- B.
Physicians deterrent.
- C.
Physiological deterrent.
- D.
Psychological deterrent.
Correct Answer
D. Psychological deterrent. -
- 30.
Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
- A.
They should be tolerant of people.
- B.
They should not be used often in daylight hours.
- C.
The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog’s usefulness.
- D.
Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.
Correct Answer
B. They should not be used often in daylight hours. -
- 31.
When is the military working dog’s detection ability more effective?
- A.
During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.
- B.
During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.
- C.
High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.
- D.
During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.
Correct Answer
B. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions. -
- 32.
While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
- A.
On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.
- B.
In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.
- C.
Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.
- D.
On leash, laying down on the back seat.
Correct Answer
C. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. -
- 33.
If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
- A.
Sit/Stay.
- B.
Guard.
- C.
Heel.
- D.
Out.
Correct Answer
B. Guard. -
- 34.
Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
- A.
AF Forms 629 and 1297.
- B.
AF Forms 629 and 1473.
- C.
AF Forms 1297 and 1473.
- D.
AF Forms 1437 and 1279.
Correct Answer
A. AF Forms 629 and 1297. -
- 35.
When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
- A.
Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.
- B.
After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
- C.
Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.
- D.
Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.
Correct Answer
B. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. -
- 36.
What installations are required to have an ISP?
- A.
Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.
- B.
The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.
- C.
All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
- D.
Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.
Correct Answer
C. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan. -
- 37.
Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?
- A.
Wing plans and programs section.
- B.
Installation security police chief.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
MAJCOM commander.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander. -
- 38.
What is not included in the ISP?
- A.
Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings.
- B.
Assessment of the installation’s vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage.
- C.
A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.
- D.
An estimate of support from friendly forces.
Correct Answer
C. A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment. -
- 39.
The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
- A.
Personnel who can demonstrate a need to know.
- B.
Personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request.
- C.
Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.
- D.
An individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question.
Correct Answer
C. Cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties. -
- 40.
What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
- A.
Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options.
- B.
Class A vault or vault-type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance.
- C.
Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door.
- D.
GSA-approved security container.
Correct Answer
C. Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door. -
- 41.
Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?
- A.
Only the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- B.
Only MAJCOM commanders.
- C.
Only wing commanders.
- D.
No one.
Correct Answer
B. Only MAJCOM commanders. -
- 42.
When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?
- A.
A NAC.
- B.
SSBI.
- C.
An ENTNAC.
- D.
NACI.
Correct Answer
C. An ENTNAC. -
- 43.
SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
- A.
Secret.
- B.
Classified.
- C.
Top Secret.
- D.
Confidential.
Correct Answer
C. Top Secret. -
- 44.
The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
- A.
Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
- B.
Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.
- C.
Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.
- D.
Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.
Correct Answer
B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year. -
- 45.
All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a
- A.
Spare tire.
- B.
Public address system.
- C.
Set of keys hidden in the dash.
- D.
NCIC computer.
Correct Answer
B. Public address system. -
- 46.
All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have
- A.
SF badges applied to both the front doors.
- B.
Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.
- C.
Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
- D.
A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.
Correct Answer
C. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. -
- 47.
Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying
- A.
Voluntarily.
- B.
Unwillingly.
- C.
Mandatorily.
- D.
Involuntarily.
Correct Answer
A. Voluntarily. -
- 48.
Which code is not an alarm response code?
- A.
4.
- B.
3.
- C.
2.
- D.
1.
Correct Answer
A. 4. -
- 49.
Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
- A.
Terminate response.
- B.
Immediately secure the area.
- C.
Search for suspicious individuals.
- D.
Search the exterior for open doors or windows.
Correct Answer
B. Immediately secure the area. -
- 50.
Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
- A.
PL1.
- B.
PL2.
- C.
PL3.
- D.
PL4.
Correct Answer
D. PL4. -
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Aug 13, 2016Quiz Edited by
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