3P071 Volume 1

99 Questions | Attempts: 110
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    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.
    • After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
    • Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.
    • Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.
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About This Quiz

Volume 1

3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a

    • Spare tire.

    • Public address system.

    • Set of keys hidden in the dash.

    • NCIC computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public address system.
  • 3. 

    Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping

    • Flight moral high.

    • Duty position assignments limited.

    • The same highly skilled person at the same post.

    • A new flight member focused on a particular duty position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight moral high.
  • 4. 

    Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene

    • Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.

    • Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.

    • Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
  • 5. 

    The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

    • Photographs to be taken.

    • Responding patrols to better piece together events.

    • The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.

    • The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene.

    Correct Answer
    A. The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.
  • 6. 

    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation

    • Interferes with the ongoing investigation.

    • Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight.

    • Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer.

    • Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
  • 7. 

    What installations are required to have an ISP?

    • Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.

    • The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.

    • All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.

    • Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
  • 8. 

    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

    • Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.

    • Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.

    • Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.
  • 9. 

    When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

    • Seek CSP advice.

    • Seek ADC advice.

    • Seek SJA advice.

    • Question them with a witness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seek SJA advice.
  • 10. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis.

    • Feedback.

    • Evaluation.

    • Cross-feed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback.
  • 11. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to

    • Enforce military laws and regulations.

    • Detect classified information.

    • Suppress illegal drug use.

    • Detect explosives.

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect classified information.
  • 12. 

    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

    • Fit for duty.

    • Prepared to present a post briefing.

    • Complying with appearance directives.

    • In possession of all required equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepared to present a post briefing.
  • 13. 

    What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

    • The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession.

    • There is no time limit set on an interview.

    • No more than 30 minutes.

    • No more than 60 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no time limit set on an interview.
  • 14. 

    What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

    • Calm, positive, and helpful.

    • Agitated, positive, and helpful.

    • Uncaring, bothered, and hurried.

    • Aggressive, hostile, and immediate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Calm, positive, and helpful.
  • 15. 

    Which code is not an alarm response code?

    • 4.

    • 3.

    • 2.

    • 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
  • 16. 

    The nuclear weapons mishap flag word “Dull Sword” identifies a nuclear weapons

    • Accident.

    • Incident.

    • Deficiency.

    • Occurrence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deficiency.
  • 17. 

    From a hostage’s standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

    • The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact.

    • Most of the traveling occurs, after the hostage is abducted.

    • The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.

    • All deals are made for the release of the hostages.

    Correct Answer
    A. The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.
  • 18. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

    • Danger to the canine.

    • Time left in patrol shift.

    • Type and size of building.

    • Weather conditions just prior to the search.

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and size of building.
  • 19. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT.

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundary sentry.

    • External SRT.

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT.
  • 20. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

    • Physical deterrent.

    • Physicians deterrent.

    • Physiological deterrent.

    • Psychological deterrent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent.
  • 21. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • AF Forms 629 and 1297.

    • AF Forms 629 and 1473.

    • AF Forms 1297 and 1473.

    • AF Forms 1437 and 1279.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297.
  • 22. 

    It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

    • Proficiency.

    • Discipline.

    • Fairness.

    • Control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency.
  • 23. 

    Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?

    • Flight commander and supervisor.

    • Flight chief and flight commander.

    • Flight chief and senior patrol officer.

    • Flight commander and operations superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight chief and flight commander.
  • 24. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT.

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries.

    • Close boundary sentry.

    • External SRT.

    Correct Answer
    A. External SRT.
  • 25. 

    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

    • Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

    • Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.

    • Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.

    • Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
  • 26. 

    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

    • In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.

    • At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    A. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
  • 27. 

    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying

    • Voluntarily.

    • Unwillingly.

    • Mandatorily.

    • Involuntarily.

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntarily.
  • 28. 

    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

    • PL1.

    • PL2.

    • PL3.

    • PL4.

    Correct Answer
    A. PL4.
  • 29. 

    Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the

    • Number of personnel available.

    • Size of the item to be found.

    • Amount of time available.

    • Area to be covered.

    Correct Answer
    A. Area to be covered.
  • 30. 

    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

    • Habitual offender.

    • First time offender.

    • Psychotic offender.

    • Professional offender.

    Correct Answer
    A. Habitual offender.
  • 31. 

    Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • OUT and IN.

    • SIT and STAY.

    • OUT and HEEL.

    • STAY and HEEL.

    Correct Answer
    A. OUT and HEEL.
  • 32. 

    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

    • Upwind.

    • Crosswind.

    • Downwind.

    • Wind direction doesn’t matter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Downwind.
  • 33. 

    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have

    • SF badges applied to both the front doors.

    • Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.

    • Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.

    • A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
  • 34. 

    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command “Open Ranks, MARCH”?

    • The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    Correct Answer
    A. The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
  • 35. 

    What is the unit flight schedule based on?

    • Deployment/operations tempo.

    • Flight TDY/leave schedule.

    • Individual needs.

    • Unit needs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit needs.
  • 36. 

    What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?

    • Let another investigator conduct the interview.

    • Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you.

    • Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down.

    • Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Let another investigator conduct the interview.
  • 37. 

    The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

    • Tact, poise, and self-assurance.

    • Tact, poise, and self-confidence.

    • Reliance, poise, and self-confidence.

    • Cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tact, poise, and self-confidence.
  • 38. 

    When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

    • Hiding drugs.

    • Looking for an escape.

    • Cold and wants a jacket.

    • Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.
  • 39. 

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • The first duty day following completion.

    • Within 30 days of completion.

    • 72 hours after completion.

    • 48 hours after completion.

    Correct Answer
    A. The first duty day following completion.
  • 40. 

    What does SEI stand for?

    • Security entry identifier.

    • Security experience index.

    • Special delivery identifier.

    • Special experience identifier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier.
  • 41. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • Investigations.

    • Crime prevention.

    • Resource protection.

    • Reports and analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports and analysis.
  • 42. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?

    • Sit/Stay.

    • Guard.

    • Heel.

    • Out.

    Correct Answer
    A. Guard.
  • 43. 

    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound

    • COMSEC practices.

    • INFOSEC practices.

    • HUMINT practices.

    • OPSEC practices.

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC practices.
  • 44. 

    When is the military working dog’s detection ability more effective?

    • During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.

    • During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.

    • High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.

    • During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.
  • 45. 

    Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

    • Unit training section.

    • Chief of security forces.

    • Senior security forces NCOs.

    • HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.
  • 46. 

    Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

    • Individual skills.

    • Collective skills.

    • Contingency skills.

    • Ground combat skills.

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual skills.
  • 47. 

    Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to

    • Leave

    • Call a lawyer.

    • Get their story straight.

    • Conceal evidence of a crime.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conceal evidence of a crime.
  • 48. 

    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office under SFO?

    • Report of survey office of investigation.

    • Air Force office of investigation.

    • Security forces training team.

    • Security forces investigations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces investigations.
  • 49. 

    How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

    • 120.

    • 90.

    • 60.

    • 30.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 13, 2016 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 13, 2016
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 13, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Kk07x
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