3M071B Readiness, Mortuary, And Protcol UREs

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3M071B Readiness, Mortuary, And Protcol UREs - Quiz

This is a test of UREs in from your 3M071B Readiness, Mortuary, and Protocol book.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401) Which publication provides more detailed guidance for near-term support forces to aid Air Force planners in developing war and contingency plans?
    • A. 

      AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • B. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • C. 

      AFH 10-247, Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning-Beddown.

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements

  • 2. 
    (401) Which publication delineates the doctrinal concept, its broad policies, and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict?
    • A. 

      AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • B. 

      Services Supplement to the War and Mobilization Plan 1.

    • C. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • D. 

      AFH 10-247, Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning-Beddown.

  • 3. 
    (402) Where will limiting factors (LIMFAC) to assess the ability to support the operation be found?
    • A. 

      AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • B. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • C. 

      The in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) part 1

    • D. 

      The IGESP part 2.

  • 4. 
    (402) Who ensures that all units operating out of a location become familiar with the existing resource allocations and key tactics, techniques, and procedures that their unit may be tasked with?
    • A. 

      The wing commander.

    • B. 

      Civil engineering plans and programs

    • C. 

      The Force Support squadron commander

    • D. 

      The in-garrison expeditionary support planning committee (IGESP).

  • 5. 
    (402) What must Services functions using automated systems in peacetime be able to convert to in wartime?
    • A. 

      Deployable Microsoft automation methods.

    • B. 

      Field automation methods of operation.

    • C. 

      Classified field automation methods of operations

    • D. 

      Classified and non-classified field automation methods of operation.

  • 6. 
    (402) Who has administrative control when Air Force Services personnel are assigned to a jointly manned activity?
    • A. 

      Army.

    • B. 

      Air Force.

    • C. 

      The activity commander

    • D. 

      The parent service.

  • 7. 
    (403) Who operates collocated and auseter bare base operations during wartime?
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Reserve (AFR).

    • B. 

      B. Air National Guard (ANG).

    • C. 

      C. Prime Readiness in Base Services (Prime RIBS) teams trained for the theater(s) of operation.

    • D. 

      D. The same personnel who operate from fixed facilites during peacetime.

  • 8. 
    (403) Who helps erect dining, lodging, recreation and fitness, field exchange, mortuary, and laundry facilities?
    • A. 

      Civil Engineers.

    • B. 

      Prime Readiness in Base Services (Prime RIBS) teams.

    • C. 

      Air Force REserve (AFR).

    • D. 

      Air National Guard (ANG).

  • 9. 
    (403) What is Services' first priority during wartime combat support?
    • A. 

      Strategic offensive and defensive missions.

    • B. 

      Humanitarian operations throughout continental United States (CONUS) and all overseas theaters of opertation.

    • C. 

      Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on Prime Readiness in Base Service (Prime RIBS) teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation.

    • D. 

      Maintaining a CONUS-sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support

  • 10. 
    (403) In a wartime environment, when will levels of service be invreased commensurate with quality of life programs where possible?
    • A. 

      After M +15.

    • B. 

      After M + 30.

    • C. 

      After M + 45.

    • D. 

      After M + 60

  • 11. 
    (404) What critical information does the time-phased force development data (TPFDD) contain?
    • A. 

      Joint plans.

    • B. 

      Air Force plans.

    • C. 

      Time-phased force data.

    • D. 

      M-dates to specific destinations.

  • 12. 
    (404) What does the standard AF unit line number (ULN) consist of?
    • A. 

      Unit type code (UTC) and a two-character fragmentation code.

    • B. 

      UTC and a three-character fragmentation code.

    • C. 

      Force requirment number (FRN) and a two-character fragmentation code.

    • D. 

      FRN and a three-character fragmentaion code.

  • 13. 
    (404) Who would a force requirement require more than one time-phased force development data (TPFDD) entry?
    • A. 

      Split sourcing of the requirement.

    • B. 

      The requirement requires multiple pallets.

    • C. 

      The requirement cannot be sent on one aircraft.

    • D. 

      The requirement requires multiple delivery dates.

  • 14. 
    (405) What essential piece of personnel deployment tasking information is in the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?
    • A. 

      Home station.

    • B. 

      Unit type code (UTC).

    • C. 

      Unit line number (ULN).

    • D. 

      Force requirement number (FRN).

  • 15. 
    (405) What cook-to-customer ratio shoud food service operations maintain?
    • A. 

      1:50

    • B. 

      1:100

    • C. 

      1:150

    • D. 

      1:200

  • 16. 
    (406) At collocated operating bases (COB), what document defines if the host base is to provide food, dining facilities, equipment, and manpower?
    • A. 

      Mission capability statement.

    • B. 

      Services supplement to war mobilization plan (WMP) 1.

    • C. 

      Joint Strategic capabilities plan.

    • D. 

      In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP).

  • 17. 
    (406) What percentage is the estimated feeding rate that all ration computation are based on?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      80.

    • D. 

      75.

  • 18. 
    (406) By what day in your food service operation should you be able to serve four meals per day, and integrate fresh foods into your menus?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      15.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      45.

  • 19. 
    (407) The unit deployment manager (UDM) ensures that squadrons's readiness through the
    • A. 

      Officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned office in charge (NCOIC) of readiness.

    • B. 

      Services commander and their leadership.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Base commander.

  • 20. 
    (408) How many tiers make up home station training (HST)?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5

  • 21. 
    (408) What is the minimum percentage of personnel on the RFSR1, RFSRB, and RFLO6 teams that need to be trained on the operation of 2 1/2 ton truck, 1 1/2 ton truck, and 10K forklift?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      35.

  • 22. 
    (408) How many days prior to deployment are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend services combat training (SCT)?
    • A. 

      90.

    • B. 

      120.

    • C. 

      90 - 120.

    • D. 

      90 - 180.

  • 23. 
    (408) When must commanders new to the Services career field attend services combat training?
    • A. 

      Within three months.

    • B. 

      Within six months.

    • C. 

      Three months prior to their first deployment.

    • D. 

      Six months prior to their first deployment.

  • 24. 
    (409) What is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DoD), functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces and certain forgein organizations?
    • A. 

      Global command and control system.

    • B. 

      Status of resources and training system.

    • C. 

      In-garrison expeditionary support system.

    • D. 

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

  • 25. 
    (409) What is a fundemental premise of status of resource and training systems (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      Integrity.

    • B. 

      Service before self.

    • C. 

      Excellence in all we do.

    • D. 

      Follow-on UTC.

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