3M071B Readiness, Mortuary, And Protcol UREs

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3M071B Readiness, Mortuary, And Protcol UREs - Quiz

This is a test of UREs in from your 3M071B Readiness, Mortuary, and Protocol book.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (401) Which publication provides more detailed guidance for near-term support forces to aid Air Force planners in developing war and contingency plans?

    • A.

      AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • B.

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • C.

      AFH 10-247, Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning-Beddown.

    • D.

      War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements

    Correct Answer
    D. War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements
    Explanation
    The correct answer is War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements. This publication provides more detailed guidance for near-term support forces to aid Air Force planners in developing war and contingency plans. AFI 10-214 focuses on the Air Force Prime RIBS Program, AFI 10-403 focuses on deployment planning and execution, and AFH 10-247, Volume 1 focuses on services contingency planning-beddown. Therefore, the most appropriate publication for detailed guidance on near-term support forces is the War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements.

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  • 2. 

    (401) Which publication delineates the doctrinal concept, its broad policies, and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict?

    • A.

      AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • B.

      Services Supplement to the War and Mobilization Plan 1.

    • C.

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • D.

      AFH 10-247, Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning-Beddown.

    Correct Answer
    B. Services Supplement to the War and Mobilization Plan 1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Services Supplement to the War and Mobilization Plan 1. This publication is likely to delineate the doctrinal concept, broad policies, and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict. The other options do not specifically address the same topic or provide the same level of comprehensive guidance.

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  • 3. 

    (402) Where will limiting factors (LIMFAC) to assess the ability to support the operation be found?

    • A.

      AFI 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • B.

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • C.

      The in-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP) part 1

    • D.

      The IGESP part 2.

    Correct Answer
    D. The IGESP part 2.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is The IGESP part 2. The IGESP (in-garrison expeditionary support plan) is a plan that outlines the support and resources needed for expeditionary operations. Part 2 of the IGESP likely contains information and assessments regarding the limiting factors (LIMFAC) that may impact the ability to support operations. This could include factors such as availability of resources, infrastructure limitations, and logistical constraints. Therefore, the IGESP part 2 would be the most likely source to find information on limiting factors for assessing operational support.

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  • 4. 

    (402) Who ensures that all units operating out of a location become familiar with the existing resource allocations and key tactics, techniques, and procedures that their unit may be tasked with?

    • A.

      The wing commander.

    • B.

      Civil engineering plans and programs

    • C.

      The Force Support squadron commander

    • D.

      The in-garrison expeditionary support planning committee (IGESP).

    Correct Answer
    D. The in-garrison expeditionary support planning committee (IGESP).
    Explanation
    The in-garrison expeditionary support planning committee (IGESP) ensures that all units operating out of a location become familiar with the existing resource allocations and key tactics, techniques, and procedures that their unit may be tasked with. This committee is responsible for coordinating and planning support for expeditionary operations, ensuring that units are prepared and equipped to carry out their missions effectively. They work closely with the wing commander, civil engineering plans and programs, and the Force Support squadron commander to ensure seamless coordination and support for all units.

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  • 5. 

    (402) What must Services functions using automated systems in peacetime be able to convert to in wartime?

    • A.

      Deployable Microsoft automation methods.

    • B.

      Field automation methods of operation.

    • C.

      Classified field automation methods of operations

    • D.

      Classified and non-classified field automation methods of operation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Field automation methods of operation.
    Explanation
    In peacetime, Services functions use automated systems, which means they rely on field automation methods of operation. These methods allow for efficient and streamlined processes within the Services functions. However, in wartime, the requirements may change, and the Services functions may need to convert to different methods of operation. Therefore, they must be able to convert from the peacetime field automation methods to new methods suitable for the wartime scenario.

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  • 6. 

    (402) Who has administrative control when Air Force Services personnel are assigned to a jointly manned activity?

    • A.

      Army.

    • B.

      Air Force.

    • C.

      The activity commander

    • D.

      The parent service.

    Correct Answer
    D. The parent service.
    Explanation
    When Air Force Services personnel are assigned to a jointly manned activity, the parent service has administrative control. This means that the parent service, which is the service branch to which the personnel belong (in this case, the Air Force), retains authority over their administrative matters such as promotions, discipline, and assignments. The parent service is responsible for managing and overseeing the personnel's administrative needs and ensuring that they are properly supported and accounted for within the jointly manned activity.

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  • 7. 

    (403) Who operates collocated and auseter bare base operations during wartime?

    • A.

      A. Air Force Reserve (AFR).

    • B.

      B. Air National Guard (ANG).

    • C.

      C. Prime Readiness in Base Services (Prime RIBS) teams trained for the theater(s) of operation.

    • D.

      D. The same personnel who operate from fixed facilites during peacetime.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Prime Readiness in Base Services (Prime RIBS) teams trained for the theater(s) of operation.
  • 8. 

    (403) Who helps erect dining, lodging, recreation and fitness, field exchange, mortuary, and laundry facilities?

    • A.

      Civil Engineers.

    • B.

      Prime Readiness in Base Services (Prime RIBS) teams.

    • C.

      Air Force REserve (AFR).

    • D.

      Air National Guard (ANG).

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil Engineers.
    Explanation
    Civil Engineers are responsible for helping to erect dining, lodging, recreation and fitness, field exchange, mortuary, and laundry facilities. They have the expertise and knowledge to design and construct these facilities to meet the needs of the base and its personnel. Their role is crucial in ensuring that these essential services are efficiently provided to support the operations and well-being of the military personnel stationed at the base.

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  • 9. 

    (403) What is Services' first priority during wartime combat support?

    • A.

      Strategic offensive and defensive missions.

    • B.

      Humanitarian operations throughout continental United States (CONUS) and all overseas theaters of opertation.

    • C.

      Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on Prime Readiness in Base Service (Prime RIBS) teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation.

    • D.

      Maintaining a CONUS-sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategic offensive and defensive missions.
    Explanation
    During wartime combat support, Services' first priority is to carry out strategic offensive and defensive missions. This means that their main focus is on supporting military operations that involve attacking and defending strategic targets. This could include activities such as providing logistical support, maintaining and repairing equipment, and coordinating transportation and communication systems. By prioritizing these missions, Services can contribute to the overall success of the military's combat operations.

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  • 10. 

    (403) In a wartime environment, when will levels of service be invreased commensurate with quality of life programs where possible?

    • A.

      After M +15.

    • B.

      After M + 30.

    • C.

      After M + 45.

    • D.

      After M + 60

    Correct Answer
    B. After M + 30.
    Explanation
    In a wartime environment, levels of service will be increased commensurate with quality of life programs where possible after M + 30. This means that after a certain period of time (M), the levels of service will be enhanced to improve the quality of life for individuals involved in the war. This could include providing better living conditions, amenities, or support services to enhance their well-being.

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  • 11. 

    (404) What critical information does the time-phased force development data (TPFDD) contain?

    • A.

      Joint plans.

    • B.

      Air Force plans.

    • C.

      Time-phased force data.

    • D.

      M-dates to specific destinations.

    Correct Answer
    C. Time-phased force data.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Time-phased force data." The time-phased force development data (TPFDD) contains information about the deployment and movement of military forces over time. It includes details such as the number of personnel, equipment, and supplies required, as well as the specific dates and destinations for deployment. This data is crucial for planning and coordinating military operations effectively.

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  • 12. 

    (404) What does the standard AF unit line number (ULN) consist of?

    • A.

      Unit type code (UTC) and a two-character fragmentation code.

    • B.

      UTC and a three-character fragmentation code.

    • C.

      Force requirment number (FRN) and a two-character fragmentation code.

    • D.

      FRN and a three-character fragmentaion code.

    Correct Answer
    C. Force requirment number (FRN) and a two-character fragmentation code.
    Explanation
    The standard AF unit line number (ULN) consists of the Force requirement number (FRN) and a two-character fragmentation code. This FRN represents the specific force requirement for a unit, while the two-character fragmentation code helps to further classify or identify the unit.

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  • 13. 

    (404) Who would a force requirement require more than one time-phased force development data (TPFDD) entry?

    • A.

      Split sourcing of the requirement.

    • B.

      The requirement requires multiple pallets.

    • C.

      The requirement cannot be sent on one aircraft.

    • D.

      The requirement requires multiple delivery dates.

    Correct Answer
    A. Split sourcing of the requirement.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is split sourcing of the requirement. When a force requirement cannot be fulfilled by a single source or location, it may require split sourcing. This means that the requirement needs to be divided among multiple sources or locations in order to be fulfilled. This could be due to various factors such as limited capacity or capability of a single source, geographical constraints, or the need for specialized resources. In such cases, multiple time-phased force development data (TPFDD) entries would be required to allocate and coordinate the resources needed to fulfill the requirement.

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  • 14. 

    (405) What essential piece of personnel deployment tasking information is in the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?

    • A.

      Home station.

    • B.

      Unit type code (UTC).

    • C.

      Unit line number (ULN).

    • D.

      Force requirement number (FRN).

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit line number (ULN).
    Explanation
    The essential piece of personnel deployment tasking information in the Deployment Requirements Manning Document (DRMD) is the Unit Line Number (ULN). The ULN is a unique identifier assigned to each unit within the military. It helps in tracking and organizing personnel for deployment purposes. The ULN provides information about the specific unit that is being deployed, including its size, composition, and capabilities. This information is crucial for effective personnel deployment planning and management.

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  • 15. 

    (405) What cook-to-customer ratio shoud food service operations maintain?

    • A.

      1:50

    • B.

      1:100

    • C.

      1:150

    • D.

      1:200

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:50
    Explanation
    Food service operations should maintain a cook-to-customer ratio of 1:50. This means that for every 50 customers, there should be one cook. This ratio ensures that there are enough cooks to efficiently prepare and serve food to the customers. It allows for a manageable workload for the cooks and helps to ensure that customers receive their meals in a timely manner.

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  • 16. 

    (406) At collocated operating bases (COB), what document defines if the host base is to provide food, dining facilities, equipment, and manpower?

    • A.

      Mission capability statement.

    • B.

      Services supplement to war mobilization plan (WMP) 1.

    • C.

      Joint Strategic capabilities plan.

    • D.

      In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP).

    Correct Answer
    D. In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP)". This document defines if the host base is responsible for providing food, dining facilities, equipment, and manpower at collocated operating bases (COB). The IGESP outlines the support and resources that will be available to the COB from the host base, ensuring that all necessary provisions and personnel are provided for the successful operation of the COB.

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  • 17. 

    (406) What percentage is the estimated feeding rate that all ration computation are based on?

    • A.

      100.

    • B.

      90.

    • C.

      80.

    • D.

      75.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100.
    Explanation
    The estimated feeding rate that all ration computations are based on is 100%. This means that the calculations for the amount of feed to be given to animals are done based on the assumption that they will consume all of the feed provided to them.

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  • 18. 

    (406) By what day in your food service operation should you be able to serve four meals per day, and integrate fresh foods into your menus?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      15.

    • C.

      30.

    • D.

      45.

    Correct Answer
    C. 30.
    Explanation
    In a food service operation, it is important to be able to serve four meals per day and integrate fresh foods into menus. This requires proper planning and preparation. By day 30, the operation should have enough time to establish a routine, train staff, and source fresh ingredients to implement this change successfully. This timeframe allows for adjustments and fine-tuning of the new system, ensuring a smooth transition and high-quality meals for customers.

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  • 19. 

    (407) The unit deployment manager (UDM) ensures that squadrons's readiness through the

    • A.

      Officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned office in charge (NCOIC) of readiness.

    • B.

      Services commander and their leadership.

    • C.

      Group commander.

    • D.

      Base commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Services commander and their leadership.
    Explanation
    The unit deployment manager (UDM) is responsible for ensuring the readiness of squadrons. This includes coordinating with the officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) of readiness. However, the UDM ultimately reports to the services commander and their leadership. The services commander and their leadership have the overall authority and responsibility for ensuring the readiness of the squadrons. Therefore, they are the correct answer in this scenario.

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  • 20. 

    (408) How many tiers make up home station training (HST)?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.
    Explanation
    The given question asks about the number of tiers in home station training (HST). The correct answer is 2. This means that there are two tiers that make up HST.

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  • 21. 

    (408) What is the minimum percentage of personnel on the RFSR1, RFSRB, and RFLO6 teams that need to be trained on the operation of 2 1/2 ton truck, 1 1/2 ton truck, and 10K forklift?

    • A.

      20.

    • B.

      25.

    • C.

      30.

    • D.

      35.

    Correct Answer
    C. 30.
    Explanation
    The minimum percentage of personnel on the RFSR1, RFSRB, and RFLO6 teams that need to be trained on the operation of 2 1/2 ton truck, 1 1/2 ton truck, and 10K forklift is 30%.

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  • 22. 

    (408) How many days prior to deployment are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend services combat training (SCT)?

    • A.

      90.

    • B.

      120.

    • C.

      90 - 120.

    • D.

      90 - 180.

    Correct Answer
    D. 90 - 180.
    Explanation
    Deployable unit type codes (UTC) are required to attend services combat training (SCT) prior to deployment. The correct answer is 90 - 180, which means that UTCs are required to attend SCT between 90 and 180 days before deployment. This range allows for flexibility in scheduling the training, ensuring that units have enough time to adequately prepare for combat operations.

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  • 23. 

    (408) When must commanders new to the Services career field attend services combat training?

    • A.

      Within three months.

    • B.

      Within six months.

    • C.

      Three months prior to their first deployment.

    • D.

      Six months prior to their first deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within three months.
    Explanation
    New commanders in the Services career field must attend services combat training within three months. This is likely because the training is essential for them to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities in the field. By attending the training within three months, commanders can acquire the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to handle combat situations and ensure the well-being of their personnel. This timeframe allows them to be adequately prepared for any potential deployments or combat scenarios they may encounter in their career.

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  • 24. 

    (409) What is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DoD), functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces and certain forgein organizations?

    • A.

      Global command and control system.

    • B.

      Status of resources and training system.

    • C.

      In-garrison expeditionary support system.

    • D.

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Status of resources and training system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Status of resources and training system. This system serves as the central registry for all operational units of the US Armed Forces and certain foreign organizations within the Department of Defense (DoD). It provides automated reporting and tracks the status of resources and training for these units. This information is crucial for effective command and control, ensuring that the necessary resources and training are available for military operations.

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  • 25. 

    (409) What is a fundemental premise of status of resource and training systems (SORTS)?

    • A.

      Integrity.

    • B.

      Service before self.

    • C.

      Excellence in all we do.

    • D.

      Follow-on UTC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity.
    Explanation
    The fundamental premise of SORTS is integrity. This means that the system is built on the principle of honesty, trustworthiness, and adherence to moral and ethical principles. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining accurate and reliable information about resources and training systems, ensuring transparency and accountability in the management of these resources. Integrity is crucial for effective decision-making, planning, and execution of military operations.

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  • 26. 

    (410) What type of unit type code (UTC) marries up with other UTCs to increase capabilities?

    • A.

      RFSR1.

    • B.

      RFSRR.

    • C.

      Lead UTC.

    • D.

      Follow-on UTC.

    Correct Answer
    D. Follow-on UTC.
    Explanation
    A follow-on UTC is a type of unit type code (UTC) that is designed to work in conjunction with other UTCs to enhance capabilities. It is meant to be used after the initial UTC has completed its mission or task, providing continuity and support to ensure the overall mission's success. By marrying up with other UTCs, the follow-on UTC can build upon the achievements of its predecessor and contribute to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the operation.

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  • 27. 

    (410) Within how many hours notice must the RFSR7 unit type code (UTC) for active forces be capable of deploying?

    • A.

      22.

    • B.

      24.

    • C.

      26.

    • D.

      28.

    Correct Answer
    A. 22.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 22. The RFSR7 unit type code (UTC) for active forces must be capable of deploying within 22 hours notice. This means that the unit must be prepared and ready to deploy within a relatively short amount of time in order to respond to any potential emergencies or operational requirements. This requirement ensures that the active forces are able to quickly and effectively respond to any situation that may arise.

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  • 28. 

    (410) Which Force module sets are being phased out?

    • A.

      Basic expeditionary airfield resources (BEAR) & Harvest Eagle.

    • B.

      BEAR & Harvest Falcon.

    • C.

      Harvest Eagle & Harvest Falcon.

    • D.

      All force module sets are being phased out and replaced with playbook options.

    Correct Answer
    C. Harvest Eagle & Harvest Falcon.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Harvest Eagle & Harvest Falcon. This means that these two Force module sets are being phased out. It implies that they will no longer be used or available in the future. The other options mentioned, BEAR and playbook options, are not being phased out according to the given information.

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  • 29. 

    (411) What concept improves the overall Air Force combat capability by providing a consistent, coherent, and readily identifiable force structure to deliver combat support?

    • A.

      Lead unit type code (UTC).

    • B.

      Force module unit type code (FM UTC).

    • C.

      In-garrison expeditionary support system (IGESS).

    • D.

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Force module unit type code (FM UTC).
    Explanation
    The concept of Force module unit type code (FM UTC) improves the overall Air Force combat capability by providing a consistent, coherent, and readily identifiable force structure to deliver combat support. This code helps in organizing and standardizing the units and resources required for combat operations. It ensures that the Air Force has the necessary personnel, equipment, and support systems in place to effectively carry out its missions. By using FM UTC, the Air Force can streamline its operations, enhance interoperability, and optimize its combat capabilities.

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  • 30. 

    (411) How many force modules (FM) does the FM concept employ?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      6.

    • C.

      7.

    • D.

      8.

    Correct Answer
    B. 6.
    Explanation
    The FM concept employs six force modules.

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  • 31. 

    (411) Which force module contains functional management teams to support the emergency operations center (EOC) and a plan Services beddown and mission establishment adn sustainment?

    • A.

      Open the base.

    • B.

      Operate the base.

    • C.

      Establish the base.

    • D.

      Command and control (C2).

    Correct Answer
    D. Command and control (C2).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Command and control (C2). This force module contains functional management teams to support the emergency operations center (EOC) and a plan services beddown and mission establishment and sustainment. This means that the Command and control (C2) force module is responsible for managing and coordinating the various functions and resources needed to establish and maintain a base during emergency operations. This includes managing the EOC and planning for the beddown of services and the establishment and sustainment of missions.

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  • 32. 

    (411) Which force module includes unit type codes (UTCs) that bring the beddown to initial operational capability and Services life-sustaining functions of food service, lodging, laundry and mortuary affairs?

    • A.

      Open the base.

    • B.

      Operate the base.

    • C.

      Establish the base.

    • D.

      Command and control (C2).

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish the base.
    Explanation
    The force module that includes unit type codes (UTCs) that bring the beddown to initial operational capability and provide life-sustaining functions is "Establish the base." This force module is responsible for setting up all the necessary infrastructure and support systems, such as food service, lodging, laundry, and mortuary affairs, to ensure the base is operational and can sustain the needs of the personnel.

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  • 33. 

    (411) Which force module introduces quality-of-life programs such as fitness, recreation, and field exchange support?

    • A.

      Open the base.

    • B.

      Operate the base.

    • C.

      Establish the base.

    • D.

      Command and control (C2).

    Correct Answer
    B. Operate the base.
    Explanation
    The force module that introduces quality-of-life programs such as fitness, recreation, and field exchange support is "Operate the base." This force module is responsible for managing and maintaining the day-to-day operations of the base, including providing support and services that contribute to the well-being and quality of life of personnel stationed there. This includes programs and facilities that promote physical fitness, recreational activities, and access to essential goods and services through field exchange support.

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  • 34. 

    (412) How often does the war fighting requirments review (WFRR) meet?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Semi-annually.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Bi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi-annually.
    Explanation
    The war fighting requirements review (WFRR) meets semi-annually, which means it occurs twice a year. This regular review allows for a comprehensive assessment of the war fighting requirements and ensures that any necessary adjustments or updates can be made in a timely manner. Meeting semi-annually also provides a balance between frequent reviews and allowing enough time for implementation and evaluation of any changes made.

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  • 35. 

    (412) To whom does the war fighting requirments review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training. and resource allocation issues?

    • A.

      Readiness, Training, Education, and Manpower (RTEAM).

    • B.

      Air Force Services Agency.

    • C.

      Air Force Services Academy.

    • D.

      Air Force Institute of Technology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Readiness, Training, Education, and Manpower (RTEAM).
    Explanation
    The war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to the Readiness, Training, Education, and Manpower (RTEAM).

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  • 36. 

    (413) In continental United States (CONUS), how many copies of a certified state death certificate are provided to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10.
    Explanation
    In the continental United States (CONUS), the person authorized direct disposition (PADD) is provided with 10 copies of a certified state death certificate. These copies are necessary for various legal and administrative purposes, such as settling the deceased person's estate, claiming life insurance benefits, and notifying government agencies and financial institutions. Having multiple copies ensures that the necessary documentation can be provided to multiple parties simultaneously, streamlining the process and avoiding delays.

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  • 37. 

    (413) For active duty members, how many escorts will accompany the remains from the shipping facility to final destination when the two places are NOT located in the same location?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    When the shipping facility and the final destination are not located in the same location, only one escort will accompany the remains.

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  • 38. 

    (413) Who furnishes an appropriate government headstone or marker at the expense of the US for the grave of a member?

    • A.

      Air Force.

    • B.

      Veteran Affairs.

    • C.

      Department of Defense.

    • D.

      State Department.

    Correct Answer
    B. Veteran Affairs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Veteran Affairs. The Department of Veteran Affairs is responsible for providing an appropriate government headstone or marker at the expense of the US for the grave of a member. This is a way to honor and recognize the service and sacrifice of veterans. The Air Force, Department of Defense, and State Department do not have the specific responsibility for providing headstones or markers for graves.

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  • 39. 

    (414) Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations?

    • A.

      Current death program.

    • B.

      Mortuary affairs program.

    • C.

      Concurrent return program.

    • D.

      Temporary interment program

    Correct Answer
    A. Current death program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mortuary affairs program." The Mortuary Affairs program provides eligible personnel with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations. The program ensures that deceased service members are treated with dignity and respect, and their remains are properly handled, identified, and transported. The program plays a crucial role in supporting military operations and providing closure to the families of fallen service members.

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  • 40. 

    (414) What is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

    • A.

      Current death program.

    • B.

      Mortuary affairs program.

    • C.

      Concurrent return program.

    • D.

      Temporary interment program.

    Correct Answer
    C. Concurrent return program.
    Explanation
    The preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict is the concurrent return program. This program ensures that the remains of fallen service members are returned to their home country as quickly as possible. It involves the coordination of various agencies and transportation methods to expedite the repatriation process. This program recognizes the importance of promptly returning the remains to their families for proper burial and grieving.

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  • 41. 

    (414) What program do we only use as a last resort to protect the health and safety of personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains?

    • A.

      Current death program.

    • B.

      Mortuary affairs program.

    • C.

      Concurrent return program.

    • D.

      Temporary interment program.

    Correct Answer
    D. Temporary interment program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Temporary interment program. This program is used as a last resort to protect the health and safety of personnel when the tactical situation prevents the return of remains. It involves temporarily burying the deceased until it is safe to recover and transport them. The program is only initiated in extreme circumstances where other options are not feasible. The other options mentioned, such as the current death program, mortuary affairs program, and concurrent return program, do not specifically address the situation described in the question.

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  • 42. 

    What programs are integral parts of the mortuary affairs program?

    • A.

      The honor guard and family support programs.

    • B.

      Survivor assistance and family support programs.

    • C.

      The honor guard and survivor assistance programs.

    • D.

      Family liason officer adn family support programs.

    Correct Answer
    C. The honor guard and survivor assistance programs.
    Explanation
    The mortuary affairs program involves various components, including the honor guard and survivor assistance programs. The honor guard is responsible for conducting military funeral honors, ensuring the deceased service member receives a dignified farewell. On the other hand, the survivor assistance program provides support and assistance to the family members of the deceased service member, helping them cope with their loss and providing necessary resources. Therefore, both the honor guard and survivor assistance programs are integral parts of the mortuary affairs program.

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  • 43. 

    (415) Why was the family liaison program created?

    • A.

      To pay funeral cost.

    • B.

      To keep track of personnel.

    • C.

      To assist the supervisor with accountabililty.

    • D.

      To assist the families of the deceased person.

    Correct Answer
    D. To assist the families of the deceased person.
    Explanation
    The family liaison program was created to assist the families of deceased persons. This program provides support, guidance, and resources to help families cope with the loss of their loved ones. It ensures that families receive the necessary assistance and information during the difficult time of grieving.

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  • 44. 

    (415) Who appoints the family liaison officer (FLO)?

    • A.

      Mortuary affairs officer.

    • B.

      Services commaner.

    • C.

      Support group commander.

    • D.

      Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander appoints the family liaison officer (FLO). The FLO is responsible for maintaining communication and providing support to the families of military personnel. They act as a liaison between the installation and the families, ensuring that they receive the necessary information and assistance during times of deployment, relocation, or other challenging situations. The installation commander, being in charge of the overall operations and welfare of the installation, has the authority to appoint the FLO to fulfill this important role.

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  • 45. 

    (415) Who acts as the family's focal point for direction to various Air Force agencies and others for assistance?

    • A.

      Family liaison officer (FLO).

    • B.

      Decedent's supervisor.

    • C.

      Decedent's first sergeant.

    • D.

      Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Family liaison officer (FLO).
    Explanation
    The family liaison officer (FLO) acts as the family's focal point for direction to various Air Force agencies and others for assistance. They serve as a point of contact for the family, providing support and guidance in accessing resources and services. The FLO is responsible for coordinating communication between the family and different agencies, ensuring that the family's needs are met and that they receive the necessary assistance during difficult times.

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  • 46. 

    (415) Who maintains close contact with medical, legal, and mentalhealth, for continued long term assistnace to family members?

    • A.

      Family liaison officer.

    • B.

      Decedent's supervisor.

    • C.

      Decedent's first sergeant.

    • D.

      Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Family liaison officer.
    Explanation
    The family liaison officer is responsible for maintaining close contact with medical, legal, and mental health professionals in order to provide continued long-term assistance to family members. This role involves coordinating support services and resources for the family, ensuring that their needs are met and that they have access to the necessary assistance. The family liaison officer serves as a point of contact and advocate for the family, helping to navigate the various systems and services available to them. This ensures that the family receives ongoing support and assistance throughout their journey.

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  • 47. 

    (416) Who or what overseas assistance provided to families by the family liaison officer (FLO)?

    • A.

      The Air Force survivor assistance program.

    • B.

      The Air Force Sergeants Association.

    • C.

      The Air Force Services Agency.

    • D.

      The wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Air Force survivor assistance program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is The Air Force survivor assistance program. The family liaison officer (FLO) oversees assistance provided to families through this program. This program is specifically designed to support and assist families who have lost a loved one in the Air Force. The FLO works closely with the survivor assistance program to ensure that families receive the necessary support, resources, and information during their time of need.

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  • 48. 

    (416) According to the Air Force survivor assistance program the information the decedent's family needs it divided into how many broad categories?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force survivor assistance program, the information that the decedent's family needs is divided into three broad categories. The answer is 3.

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  • 49. 

    (417) Air Force appointed escorts are

    • A.

      Enlisted for enlisted members and officers for officers.

    • B.

      Non-existent, the Air Force does not appoint escorts.

    • C.

      Always fromthe decedent'sorganiztion.

    • D.

      Always of equal or higher rank.

    Correct Answer
    D. Always of equal or higher rank.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "always of equal or higher rank." This means that when the Air Force appoints escorts for enlisted members or officers, the escorts will always be of equal or higher rank than the person they are escorting. This ensures that the escort is capable of providing the necessary support and guidance to the individual they are assigned to.

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  • 50. 

    (417) Which is NOT an authorized way to transport a body?

    • A.

      Commerical aircraft.

    • B.

      Government aircraft.

    • C.

      Hearse or service car.

    • D.

      Certified defense attaché.

    Correct Answer
    D. Certified defense attaché.
    Explanation
    A certified defense attaché is not an authorized way to transport a body. A certified defense attaché is a military officer assigned to a foreign country to serve as a liaison between the defense establishments of the two countries. They are not involved in the transportation of bodies. On the other hand, commercial aircraft, government aircraft, and hearse or service car are authorized ways to transport a body depending on the circumstances and regulations in place.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 24, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    ShirleyJ
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