3M071A Mix Ure/Self Test

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3M071A Mix Ure/Self Test - Quiz

09/03 Edit code 05


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (005)  Who is required to maintain task qualifications when  conducting training?

    • A.

      Trainee

    • B.

      Trainer

    • C.

      Supervisor

    • D.

      Task certifier

    Correct Answer
    B. Trainer
    Explanation
    The trainer is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training. This means that the trainer must have the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience in the specific task being trained. They are responsible for ensuring that they are up-to-date with any changes or updates in the task requirements and are able to effectively teach and assess trainees in that task. The trainer plays a crucial role in ensuring that the training is accurate, comprehensive, and meets the necessary standards.

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  • 2. 

    (001)  Who may use the hazard reporting system to report a hazard?

    • A.

      Military personnel

    • B.

      APF and NAF personnel

    • C.

      Contractors

    • D.

      Any and all personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Any and all personnel
    Explanation
    Any and all personnel may use the hazard reporting system to report a hazard. This means that not only military personnel, APF and NAF personnel, and contractors, but also any other individuals who are part of the organization or have access to the system can report a hazard. This inclusive approach ensures that all members of the organization can contribute to identifying and addressing potential hazards, promoting a safer environment for everyone involved.

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  • 3. 

    (001)  What happens with a hazard report after it is validated?

    • A.

      It’s investigated within 3 days, 1 day if imminent danger

    • B.

      The commander is advised and the squadron safety NCO must evaluate within 5 duty days

    • C.

      The Base Safety Office files the report

    • D.

      The Wing Commander is advised within 3 days, 1 day if imminent danger

    Correct Answer
    A. It’s investigated within 3 days, 1 day if imminent danger
    Explanation
    After a hazard report is validated, it is investigated within 3 days, or within 1 day if there is imminent danger. The purpose of the investigation is to assess the severity and potential impact of the hazard. The investigation helps to determine the appropriate actions that need to be taken in order to mitigate or eliminate the hazard. This prompt investigation ensures that any potential risks are addressed promptly and necessary measures are implemented to ensure the safety of personnel and assets.

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  • 4. 

    (006)  All MAJCOMs compete for the scarce manpower resources, because ________ controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions.

    • A.

      Congress

    • B.

      DoD

    • C.

      USAF

    • D.

      Joint Chiefs of Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Congress
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Congress. Congress controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions. This means that Congress has the power to determine the number of personnel that each MAJCOM can have and how those personnel are allocated. As a result, all MAJCOMs compete for the limited manpower resources available, as they must work within the constraints set by Congress.

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  • 5. 

    (201)  Which of these people is the dining facility built and operated to support?              

    • A.

      Civilians and retirees.

    • B.

      Single permanent party offices.

    • C.

      Single enlisted members living off base.

    • D.

      Enlisted members living in the dormitories.

    Correct Answer
    D. Enlisted members living in the dormitories.
    Explanation
    The dining facility is specifically built and operated to support enlisted members living in the dormitories. This suggests that the facility is designed to cater to the dining needs of these individuals who reside in the dormitories. It may not be intended for civilians, retirees, or single permanent party officers who may have other dining options available to them.

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  • 6. 

    (006)  During its recent downsizing phase, the Air force has decreased  30 percent in size, yet military operations have  _____ since Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm.

    • A.

      Quadrupled

    • B.

      Tripled

    • C.

      Doubled

    • D.

      Stayed the same

    Correct Answer
    A. Quadrupled
    Explanation
    During the downsizing phase, the Air Force decreased by 30 percent in size. However, despite this reduction, military operations have quadrupled since Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm. This means that the number or scale of military operations has increased four times compared to the past.

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  • 7. 

    (007)  The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to do the work required for its mission, which are

    • A.

      Military, contractors and NAF employees

    • B.

      Military, in-service civilians and contractors

    • C.

      Military, in-service civilians and in-service contractors

    • D.

      Military, selected service civilians and in-service contractors

    Correct Answer
    B. Military, in-service civilians and contractors
    Explanation
    The Air Force relies on three types of manpower, which are military, in-service civilians, and contractors. This means that the Air Force uses active-duty military personnel, civilian employees who are currently serving in the Air Force, and contractors who are hired externally to perform the work required for its mission. This combination of manpower allows the Air Force to utilize the skills and expertise of different individuals to effectively carry out its tasks and responsibilities.

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  • 8. 

    (217)  Thaw frozen leafy vegetables and corn on the cob before cooking.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    It is important to thaw frozen leafy vegetables and corn on the cob before cooking because this allows for even cooking and prevents them from becoming mushy. Thawing also helps to remove excess moisture, which can affect the texture and taste of the vegetables. Therefore, it is recommended to thaw these frozen vegetables before cooking to ensure the best results.

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  • 9. 

    (201)  Who may authorize permanent party officers to eat in the enlisted dining facility?

    • A.

      Their squadron commander.

    • B.

      Installation commander.

    • C.

      Dining facility manager.

    • D.

      Services commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander may authorize permanent party officers to eat in the enlisted dining facility. This means that the highest-ranking officer in charge of the overall installation has the authority to grant permission for officers to dine in the enlisted dining facility. This decision is likely made based on the specific circumstances and needs of the installation.

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  • 10. 

    (204)  ___% milk should be used as the primary milk.

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      100 or whole milk

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 because it is the lowest percentage of milk listed. This suggests that a small amount of milk should be used as the primary milk.

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  • 11. 

    (206)  What does the FSO use to rate food service operations?

    • A.

      A locally developed EXCEL spreadsheet

    • B.

      AFI 34-239, Food Service Management Program, Attachment 9

    • C.

      AETC Form 1038

    • D.

      AF Form 1038

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 1038
    Explanation
    The FSO (Food Service Officer) uses the AF Form 1038 to rate food service operations. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of evaluating and assessing food service operations. It provides a standardized method for the FSO to rate various aspects of the operations, such as food quality, cleanliness, and compliance with regulations. The use of this form ensures consistency and accuracy in evaluating food service operations across different locations.

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  • 12. 

    (009)  The product that list people assigned to the unit by either work center of functional allocation code is called the

    • A.

      UMPR

    • B.

      UPMR

    • C.

      UMD

    • D.

      UDM

    Correct Answer
    B. UPMR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UPMR. UPMR stands for Unit Manning Personnel Roster. It is a product that lists people assigned to the unit by either work center or functional allocation code. This roster helps in keeping track of the personnel assigned to different units and their respective roles or responsibilities within the unit.

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  • 13. 

    (009)  What is the key to classifying a position?

    • A.

      The personnel classifier

    • B.

      The HRO Chief

    • C.

      AFPC

    • D.

      The position description

    Correct Answer
    D. The position description
    Explanation
    The key to classifying a position is the position description. This document provides detailed information about the duties, responsibilities, qualifications, and requirements of a particular position. It helps in determining the appropriate job classification and pay grade for the position. The position description is crucial in accurately assessing the job and ensuring proper classification within an organization.

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  • 14. 

    (209)  Cook all beef products, fish, lamb, and raw eggs to order to an internal temperature of 145 degrees for how long?

    • A.

      4 minutes

    • B.

      2 minutes

    • C.

      30 seconds

    • D.

      15 seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 seconds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 seconds because cooking all beef products, fish, lamb, and raw eggs to an internal temperature of 145 degrees is sufficient to kill any harmful bacteria or pathogens present in the food. However, it is important to note that the cooking time may vary depending on the thickness and size of the food being cooked.

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  • 15. 

    (211)  To cook by dry heat in an oven, either covered or uncovered is considered

    • A.

      Broiling

    • B.

      Braising

    • C.

      Baking

    • D.

      Sealing

    Correct Answer
    C. Baking
    Explanation
    Baking is the correct answer because it involves cooking food by dry heat in an oven, whether covered or uncovered. Broiling refers to cooking food with direct heat from above, while braising involves cooking food slowly in liquid. Sealing is not a cooking method. Therefore, baking is the most appropriate option for cooking by dry heat in an oven.

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  • 16. 

    (213)  When testing for doneness in meats, where is the tip of the thermometer inserted? 

    • A.

      In the center of the meat.

    • B.

      In the center of the meat at its thickest point.

    • C.

      Nearest the center of the meat and not touching the bone.

    • D.

      Nearest the center of the meat and touching the bone.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the center of the meat at its thickest point.
    Explanation
    When testing for doneness in meats, the tip of the thermometer should be inserted in the center of the meat at its thickest point. This is because the thickest part of the meat takes the longest to cook and is therefore the best indicator of the meat's overall doneness. By inserting the thermometer in this location, it ensures that the temperature is accurately measured and helps to avoid undercooked or overcooked meat.

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  • 17. 

    (213)  How can you tell if the meat doneness is rare?

    • A.

      There are no meat juices with a temp of 150 degrees

    • B.

      Meat juices are brown with a temp of 175 degrees

    • C.

      Meat juices are light red with a temp of 130 degrees

    • D.

      Meat juices are dark red with a temp of 130 degrees

    Correct Answer
    D. Meat juices are dark red with a temp of 130 degrees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that meat juices are dark red with a temperature of 130 degrees. This indicates that the meat is rare.

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  • 18. 

    (204)  The 14 day menu cycle is developed, published and distributed _______ by _________.

    • A.

      Every 14 days, MAJCOM

    • B.

      Every 28 days, Food Service Officer

    • C.

      Annually, MAJCOM/SVOHF

    • D.

      Annually, HQ AFSVA/SVOHF

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually, HQ AFSVA/SVOHF
    Explanation
    The 14 day menu cycle is developed, published, and distributed annually by HQ AFSVA/SVOHF.

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  • 19. 

    (007)  Which form is used to document the fact that a civilian employee accepts EE conditions of employment?

    • A.

      DD Form 2365, DOD Civilian Employees Overseas EE Positions

    • B.

      AF Form 2305, Emergency Essential Civilian Declaration

    • C.

      SF 2563, DOD Civilian Employees EE Positions Declaration

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 2365, DOD Civilian Employees Overseas EE Positions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 2365, DOD Civilian Employees Overseas EE Positions. This form is used to document the fact that a civilian employee accepts EE (Emergency Essential) conditions of employment. It specifically pertains to employees who are working overseas in emergency essential positions. The form serves as a declaration of the employee's understanding and acceptance of the requirements and responsibilities associated with their position.

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  • 20. 

    (007)  Career management teams, also referred to as PALACE teams; manage which programs for their particular functional area?

    • A.

      Position progression

    • B.

      Career

    • C.

      Overseas assignments

    • D.

      Formal training

    Correct Answer
    B. Career
    Explanation
    Career management teams, also known as PALACE teams, are responsible for managing career programs for their specific functional area. This includes activities related to career development, such as providing guidance and support for employees in their career progression, identifying and facilitating opportunities for overseas assignments, coordinating formal training programs, and ensuring overall career growth and advancement within the organization. These teams play a crucial role in helping employees navigate their career paths and achieve their professional goals.

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  • 21. 

    (202)  What agency should be contacted before ordering any meals ready to eat (MRE)?

    • A.

      Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS)

    • B.

      HQ USAF Training

    • C.

      Army, Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) and the Commissary (DeCA)

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Air Force Food Service (HQ AFSVA/SVOHF)

    Correct Answer
    D. Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Air Force Food Service (HQ AFSVA/SVOHF)
    Explanation
    Before ordering any meals ready to eat (MRE), one should contact the Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Air Force Food Service (HQ AFSVA/SVOHF). This agency is responsible for providing food services to the Air Force and can provide information and assistance regarding the ordering of MREs. The other options listed (DFAS, HQ USAF Training, AAFES and DeCA) are not directly involved in the ordering of MREs.

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  • 22. 

    (217)  Be sure to thaw pre-breaded seafood no more than 72 hours before cooking them.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Thawing pre-breaded seafood should be done no more than 72 hours before cooking them. The given answer is false, suggesting that it is not necessary to follow this time limit.

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  • 23. 

    (206)  What is the purpose of AF Form 1038, Food Service Evaluation Record?

    • A.

      Gauges the level of effectiveness in your dining facility operation.

    • B.

      Gauges the level of dependable equipment and personnel.

    • C.

      Eliminates the effectiveness of the quality assurance evaluator (QAE)

    • D.

      Eliminates complaints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gauges the level of effectiveness in your dining facility operation.
    Explanation
    AF Form 1038, Food Service Evaluation Record, is used to gauge the level of effectiveness in a dining facility operation. This form allows for a thorough evaluation of various aspects of the dining facility, including food quality, cleanliness, customer service, and adherence to regulations. By using this form, the effectiveness of the dining facility can be measured and areas for improvement can be identified. This helps in maintaining high standards and ensuring the satisfaction of customers.

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  • 24. 

    (003)  The _________ or electronic equivalent is a comprehensive core training document identifying lifecycle education and training requirements, training support resources, core and home station training, and deployment/unit type code (UTC) task requirements for a specialty.

    • A.

      STEP

    • B.

      STS

    • C.

      CFETP

    • D.

      AFTR

    Correct Answer
    C. CFETP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CFETP. The CFETP, or Career Field Education and Training Plan, is a comprehensive core training document that outlines the education and training requirements for a specific specialty. It also includes information on training support resources, core and home station training, and deployment/unit type code task requirements. This document serves as a guide for individuals in the career field to ensure they receive the necessary training throughout their career.

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  • 25. 

    (003)  Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor performs an ________________ that includes a review of all previously certified tasks.

    • A.

      Initial orientation

    • B.

      Initial evaluation

    • C.

      Instructional evaluation

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Initial evaluation
    Explanation
    When an Airman changes duty positions, their supervisor conducts an initial evaluation. This evaluation involves reviewing all the tasks that the Airman was previously certified in. This is important to ensure that the Airman is still competent and capable of performing these tasks in their new position. The initial evaluation helps the supervisor assess the Airman's skills and knowledge and identify any areas that may require additional training or support. It allows for a smooth transition and ensures that the Airman is prepared to fulfill their responsibilities in their new role.

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  • 26. 

    (209)  How MUST you treat reconstituted dehydrated food?

    • A.

      As if they were fresh items.

    • B.

      No special instructions needed.

    • C.

      You must let them set for 4 hours.

    • D.

      Reconstituted items cannot be used.

    Correct Answer
    A. As if they were fresh items.
    Explanation
    When treating reconstituted dehydrated food, it must be treated as if they were fresh items. This means that they should be handled and stored in the same way as fresh food items, ensuring proper hygiene and following any necessary food safety guidelines. This is important to maintain the quality and safety of the reconstituted food.

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  • 27. 

    (217)  Which systems is designed to automate all installation level subsistence ordering and receipting for DOD food customers?

    • A.

      HAACP

    • B.

      STORES

    • C.

      UMR

    • D.

      DSCP

    Correct Answer
    B. STORES
    Explanation
    The correct answer is STORES. STORES is designed to automate all installation level subsistence ordering and receipting for DOD food customers. This system helps streamline the process of ordering and receiving food supplies for military installations, ensuring efficient and accurate management of subsistence items.

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  • 28. 

    (217)  One of the major goals of STORES ordering is for you, the customer, to have the opportunity to receive your food products

    • A.

      Within 48 hours

    • B.

      Within 36 hours

    • C.

      Within 24 hours

    • D.

      Within 12 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 48 hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is within 48 hours. The goal of STORES ordering is to ensure that customers can receive their food products within a reasonable timeframe. While receiving the products within 36, 24, or 12 hours may be desirable, it may not always be feasible due to various factors such as distance, availability, and processing time. Therefore, the goal is to deliver the products within 48 hours, allowing for a reasonable amount of time for processing and transportation.

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  • 29. 

    ()  Which virus is associated with contaminated water and ice, salads, frosting, shellfish and person-to-person contact?

    • A.

      Salmonella

    • B.

      E-Coli

    • C.

      Norwalk Virus

    • D.

      H1N1

    Correct Answer
    C. Norwalk Virus
    Explanation
    The Norwalk Virus is associated with contaminated water and ice, salads, frosting, shellfish, and person-to-person contact. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and stomach cramps. This virus is highly contagious and can easily spread through contaminated food or water, as well as through direct contact with an infected person. It is important to practice good hygiene and food safety measures to prevent the spread of Norwalk Virus.

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  • 30. 

    (209)  The food temperature danger zone ranges from

    • A.

      41 to 140 degrees Fahrenheit

    • B.

      41 to 100 degrees Fahrenheit

    • C.

      65 to 149 degrees Fahrenheit

    Correct Answer
    A. 41 to 140 degrees Fahrenheit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 41 to 140 degrees Fahrenheit. This range is considered the food temperature danger zone because it is the range at which bacteria can grow rapidly in food. Temperatures below 41 degrees Fahrenheit can slow down the growth of bacteria, while temperatures above 140 degrees Fahrenheit can kill most bacteria. Therefore, it is important to keep hot foods hot (above 140 degrees Fahrenheit) and cold foods cold (below 41 degrees Fahrenheit) to prevent bacterial growth and foodborne illnesses.

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  • 31. 

    (217)  What action does storeroom personnel take to acknowledge any changes (additions or deletions)?

    • A.

      Discuss changes with vendor to get an understanding and agreement of additions/deletions

    • B.

      Initial the deliver ticket to acknowledge any additions or deletions

    • C.

      Draw a line through the items not received and have vendor sign

    • D.

      Draw a line through the items not received and have the storeroom personnel sign

    Correct Answer
    B. Initial the deliver ticket to acknowledge any additions or deletions
    Explanation
    The storeroom personnel acknowledge any changes (additions or deletions) by initialing the delivery ticket. This is a way for them to indicate that they have reviewed and accepted the changes made to the items being delivered.

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  • 32. 

    (217)  When should receipts be posted to the storeroom records?

    • A.

      Immediately upon issuing the food to the kitchen

    • B.

      As soon as the kitchen uses it

    • C.

      Before you issue the food to the kitchen

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Before you issue the food to the kitchen
    Explanation
    Receipts should be posted to the storeroom records before issuing the food to the kitchen. This ensures that there is an accurate record of the inventory being received and allows for proper tracking of stock levels. By posting the receipts beforehand, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and addressed before the food is used in the kitchen, preventing potential issues or shortages.

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  • 33. 

    (220)  What is a quick reference to what items on the DSCP catalog can be ordered?

    • A.

      CFS preface

    • B.

      Air Force worldwide menu

    • C.

      Air Force Core Items

    • D.

      Production log

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Core Items
    Explanation
    The Air Force Core Items serve as a quick reference to what items on the DSCP (Defense Supply Center Philadelphia) catalog can be ordered. These items are considered essential and are commonly used across the Air Force. They are readily available for ordering and are likely to be in stock.

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  • 34. 

    (217)  Preparation of the UMR (original and three copies) is a joint effort between

    • A.

      Storeroom NCOIC and Food Services Officer

    • B.

      Dining Facility Manager and Food Services Officer

    • C.

      Food Services Officer and Commander

    • D.

      Food Services Officer and base public health personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Food Services Officer and base public health personnel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Food Services Officer and base public health personnel. The UMR (Unitized Group Ration) is a standardized package of meals prepared for military personnel in the field. The Food Services Officer is responsible for overseeing the preparation and distribution of the UMR, while the base public health personnel are involved in ensuring that the food is safe and meets health and sanitation standards. Therefore, the joint effort between these two parties is necessary to properly prepare the UMR.

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  • 35. 

    (202)  Which form should be used to record signatures and collect cash, and to account for those persons unable to pay for meals?

    • A.

      AF Form 2

    • B.

      AF Form 79

    • C.

      AF Form 1038

    • D.

      AF IMT 1119-1

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 79
    Explanation
    AF Form 79 should be used to record signatures and collect cash, and to account for those persons unable to pay for meals. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of collecting cash and recording signatures. It allows for proper documentation and accountability when handling cash transactions and ensuring that individuals who are unable to pay for meals are properly accounted for.

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  • 36. 

    (204)  Practicability means food on the menu that is readily available and adaptable to different preparation methods, time allowances, and equipment available for cooking it.  Two additional things that should be kept in mind are:

    • A.

      Ability of cooks to prepare food and availability of seafood

    • B.

      Progressive cooking and facility design

    • C.

      Amount of seafood and, progressive cooking and facility design

    • D.

      Progressive cooking and the ability of cooks to prepare food

    Correct Answer
    D. Progressive cooking and the ability of cooks to prepare food
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Progressive cooking and the ability of cooks to prepare food." This answer aligns with the concept of practicability, which refers to the practicality and feasibility of preparing food. Progressive cooking involves using advanced techniques and methods in the kitchen, while the ability of cooks to prepare food refers to their skills and expertise in cooking. Both factors are important considerations in ensuring that the food on the menu is readily available and adaptable to different preparation methods.

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  • 37. 

    (211)  To coat with crumbs, flour, sugar or corn meal is considered

    • A.

      Flaking

    • B.

      Kneading

    • C.

      Fermenting

    • D.

      Dredging

    Correct Answer
    D. Dredging
    Explanation
    Dredging is the process of coating food with crumbs, flour, sugar, or cornmeal. It is commonly used to add a crispy and flavorful outer layer to various dishes such as fried chicken or fish. This technique involves lightly coating the food item with the chosen ingredient, typically by rolling or pressing it into the coating. The excess coating is then shaken off before cooking. Dredging helps to enhance the texture and taste of the dish, providing a satisfying crunch when cooked.

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  • 38. 

    (212)  The key to the production of good food is

    • A.

      Heat transfer

    • B.

      Ability of the food preparer

    • C.

      Quality of the meats being prepared

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat transfer
    Explanation
    Heat transfer is the key to the production of good food because it is essential for cooking food evenly and thoroughly. Heat transfer allows the food to reach the desired temperature, ensuring that it is cooked properly and safe to consume. Without effective heat transfer, the food may be undercooked or overcooked, resulting in an unpleasant taste and texture. Therefore, understanding and controlling heat transfer is crucial for achieving high-quality and delicious food.

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  • 39. 

    (217)  The public health inspector reports food found not fit for consumption or not acceptable on  ________________________________ and then releases it for proper disposal.

    • A.

      DD Form 1348-6, DoD Single Line Item Requisition System Document

    • B.

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

    • C.

      AF Form 126, Custodian

    • D.

      AF Form 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt
    Explanation
    The public health inspector reports food found not fit for consumption or not acceptable on AF Form 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt and then releases it for proper disposal.

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  • 40. 

    (008)  Who approves NAFI MOAs?

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      MAJCOM commander

    • C.

      AFSVA

    • D.

      HQ USAF functional manager

    Correct Answer
    D. HQ USAF functional manager
    Explanation
    The HQ USAF functional manager approves NAFI MOAs. This individual is responsible for overseeing the specific functional area within the Headquarters of the United States Air Force. They have the authority to approve agreements between the Air Force and Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentalities (NAFIs). The installation commander, MAJCOM commander, and AFSVA do not have the authority to approve NAFI MOAs.

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  • 41. 

    (217)  What type of container should be used to transport or temporarily store water, peeled raw potatoes and dry foods; but, never to prepare or store meat, fruit, salad, tea, coffee, lemonade, fruit juice, or other acid-containing foods?

    • A.

      Galvanized

    • B.

      Plastic

    • C.

      Aluminum

    • D.

      Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Galvanized
    Explanation
    Galvanized containers are suitable for transporting or temporarily storing water, peeled raw potatoes, and dry foods because they are resistant to rust and corrosion. However, they should not be used to prepare or store meat, fruit, salad, tea, coffee, lemonade, fruit juice, or other acid-containing foods as the acid content can react with the galvanized coating and contaminate the food.

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  • 42. 

    (217)  Who designates, in writing, persons responsible for and having access to the storeroom?

    • A.

      The Sustainment Flight Chief

    • B.

      The Food Services Officer

    • C.

      The Dining Facility Manager

    • D.

      The NCOIC, Storeroom

    Correct Answer
    B. The Food Services Officer
    Explanation
    The Food Services Officer is responsible for designating, in writing, persons who are responsible for and have access to the storeroom. This means that the Food Services Officer is the one who determines which individuals are authorized to enter the storeroom and handle its contents.

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  • 43. 

    (010)  Who is responsible for appointing equipment custodians?

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Workcenter NCOIC

    • C.

      Flight Chief

    • D.

      Supply Squadron Commander for all base activities

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The Commander is responsible for appointing equipment custodians. This role holds the authority to select individuals who will be responsible for the care and maintenance of equipment. The Commander is in a position of leadership and has the final say in the appointment process.

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  • 44. 

    (010)  Which form is maintained on all property outside your span of control?      

    • A.

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request

    • B.

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

    • C.

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request

    • D.

      DD Form 1348-1, DOD Sing Line Item Release/Receipt Document

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt. This form is used to document the temporary transfer of equipment or property outside of an individual's span of control. It serves as a receipt and provides accountability for the property until it is returned.

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  • 45. 

    (217)  What form is used to report food that does not meet specification requirements?

    • A.

      DD Form 1608

    • B.

      DD Form 1806

    • C.

      AF Form 1608

    • D.

      AF Form 1806

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1608
    Explanation
    The correct form used to report food that does not meet specification requirements is DD Form 1608.

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  • 46. 

    (010)  The degree of security required for resale merchandise depends upon the size of the inventory, accessibility of merchandise to patrons, limitations of visual surveillance, sensitivity of resale items, physical characteristics of your facility and

    • A.

      Number of personnel available to monitor the items

    • B.

      Number of items for resale

    • C.

      Value of the individual items

    • D.

      Number of security forces personnel available

    Correct Answer
    C. Value of the individual items
    Explanation
    The degree of security required for resale merchandise depends on various factors such as the size of the inventory, accessibility of merchandise to patrons, limitations of visual surveillance, sensitivity of resale items, physical characteristics of the facility, and the value of the individual items. The value of the individual items is an important consideration as higher-value items may require stricter security measures to prevent theft or damage.

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  • 47. 

    (218)  What type of inventories are taken weekly and at the close of business on the last day of each calendar month for all food service operations?

    • A.

      Physical

    • B.

      External

    • C.

      Internal

    • D.

      Non-automated

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal
    Explanation
    Internal inventories are taken weekly and at the close of business on the last day of each calendar month for all food service operations. This means that the inventories are conducted within the organization itself, by the employees or management of the food service operation. These internal inventories help in keeping track of the stock levels, identifying any discrepancies, and managing the overall inventory control within the organization.

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  • 48. 

    (215)  Air Force dining operations were ranked ___ in size among food business as of fiscal year 2002.

    • A.

      10th

    • B.

      17th

    • C.

      57th

    • D.

      87th

    Correct Answer
    D. 87th
    Explanation
    Air Force dining operations were ranked 87th in size among food businesses as of fiscal year 2002. This means that there were 86 other food businesses that were larger in size than Air Force dining operations during that time.

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  • 49. 

    (202)  Who provides the mission support group commander with a statement in writing describing the emergency and the persons to whom it is essential that the Air Force furnish food for a limited time?

    • A.

      HQ USAF

    • B.

      MAJCOM

    • C.

      Installation Commander

    • D.

      FSS Commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation Commander
    Explanation
    The Installation Commander provides the mission support group commander with a statement in writing describing the emergency and the persons to whom it is essential that the Air Force furnish food for a limited time.

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  • 50. 

    (218)  When you transfer subsistence between two facilities, each facility

    • A.

      Calls AFSVA to inform them of the transfer

    • B.

      Processes the transfer in CFS

    • C.

      Inputs information into the FIFO system

    • D.

      Must double the price charged to the customer to make up for the transfer

    Correct Answer
    B. Processes the transfer in CFS
    Explanation
    When subsistence is transferred between two facilities, each facility is responsible for processing the transfer in CFS (Consolidated Food Service). This means that they will use the CFS system to record and track the transfer of the subsistence. This allows for accurate inventory management and ensures that the subsistence is properly accounted for.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 11, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Fred70s
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