3m051b Volume 3 Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol

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3m051b Volume 3 Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol

Passing CDC exams in the air force is no easy task and needs a lot of studying from the students. Just how ready are you for the 3m051b Volume 3 exam covering the readiness, mortuary and protocols to follow. Give this review questions a try and revise where needed. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Resources in Part II of the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) are
    • A. 

      Identified.

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Allocated.

    • D. 

      Stockpiled.

  • 2. 
    How often is the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) reviewed?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Bi-monthly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Bi-annually.

  • 3. 
    In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve
    • A. 

      Officers and enlisted Airmen.

    • B. 

      And Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and Airmen.

    • C. 

      And ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians.

    • D. 

      And Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas.

  • 4. 
    What is Services’ highest priority during wartime combat support?
    • A. 

      Strategic offensive and defensive missions.

    • B. 

      Humanitarian operations throughout the continental United States (CONUS) and all overseas theaters of operation.

    • C. 

      Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on prime readiness in base services (RIBS) teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation.

    • D. 

      Maintaining CONUS based sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support.

  • 5. 
    In a wartime environment, levels of service will increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after
    • A. 

      M+15.

    • B. 

      M+30.

    • C. 

      M+45.

    • D. 

      M+60.

  • 6. 
    Which document contains time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN)?
    • A. 

      Unit line number (ULN).

    • B. 

      Force Requirement Number (FRN).

    • C. 

      Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).

    • D. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

  • 7. 
    A force requirement may require more than one time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) entry due to
    • A. 

      Split sourcing.

    • B. 

      Multiple pallets.

    • C. 

      Multiple delivery dates.

    • D. 

      The need for more than one aircraft.

  • 8. 
    What does the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictate to units?
    • A. 

      Tasking.

    • B. 

      Manning requirements.

    • C. 

      Number of enlisted to deploy.

    • D. 

      Number of officers to deploy.

  • 9. 
    The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in regards to what?
    • A. 

      Rank and position.

    • B. 

      Rank and time in grade.

    • C. 

      Position and time-in-grade.

    • D. 

      Position and time-in-service.

  • 10. 
    Who provides direction to the Services Control Center (SVCC)?
    • A. 

      Readiness officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B. 

      Force support commander.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Base commander.

  • 11. 
    What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services’ support capability?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      80.

    • D. 

      75.

  • 12. 
    Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) provide quarterly training status updates to?
    • A. 

      Installation Deployment Officer.

    • B. 

      Superintendent.

    • C. 

      Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander.

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Center.

  • 13. 
    Which type of unit type code (UTC) provides nonappropriated fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100?
    • A. 

      RFSRB.

    • B. 

      RFSRL.

    • C. 

      RFL14.

    • D. 

      RFL05.

  • 14. 
    Which force module sets are being phased out?
    • A. 

      Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle.

    • B. 

      BEAR and Harvest Falcon.

    • C. 

      Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.

    • D. 

      Those that are being replaced with Playbook Options.

  • 15. 
    Which force module contains functional management teams that plan force beddown and mission expansion?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and control (C2).

  • 16. 
    Which force module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources capable of bedding down forces for initial operational capability?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and control (C2).

  • 17. 
    Which force module is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and control (C2).

  • 18. 
    Who must complete home station and readiness training (HSRT)?
    • A. 

      Subject-to-deploy personnel.

    • B. 

      Identified-to-deploy personnel.

    • C. 

      All Services military personnel.

    • D. 

      Only individuals that have completed Services Combat Training (SCT).

  • 19. 
    How many tiers make up home station and readiness training?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 20. 
    What is the minimum percentage of personnel that needs home station and readiness training (HSRT) on the operation of the 1 1/2 and 2 1/2 ton truck and 10K forklift?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      35.

  • 21. 
    How many days prior to deploying are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend Force Support Combat Training (FSCT)?
    • A. 

      90.

    • B. 

      120.

    • C. 

      90-120.

    • D. 

      90-180.

  • 22. 
    What plays a key role in ensuring all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times?
    • A. 

      Mobility folders.

    • B. 

      Base legal office.

    • C. 

      Squadron readiness office.

    • D. 

      Installation deployment plan.

  • 23. 
    Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?
    • A. 

      All Air Force members.

    • B. 

      Members with civilian spouses.

    • C. 

      All Air Force members with families.

    • D. 

      Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.

  • 24. 
    What information does the Air Force use to assess readiness, determine budgetary allocations, and manage how actions impact unit level readiness?
    • A. 

      Unit type codes (UTC).

    • B. 

      Personal accounting symbol (PAS).

    • C. 

      Status of resources and training system (SORTS).

    • D. 

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

  • 25. 
    To whom does the Warfighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues?
    • A. 

      Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).

    • C. 

      Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).

    • D. 

      United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).

  • 26. 
    Who provides the overall direction for Services readiness, training, education, and manpower programs through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies?
    • A. 

      Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).

    • C. 

      Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).

    • D. 

      United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).

  • 27. 
    Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations?
    • A. 

      Current death.

    • B. 

      Mortuary affairs.

    • C. 

      Concurrent return.

    • D. 

      Temporary interment.

  • 28. 
    Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
    • A. 

      Current death.

    • B. 

      Mortuary affairs.

    • C. 

      Concurrent return.

    • D. 

      Temporary interment.

  • 29. 
    Within how many hours of a death notification must a family liaison officer (FLO) be assigned?
    • A. 

      72.

    • B. 

      24.

    • C. 

      36.

    • D. 

      48.

  • 30. 
    How often will the family liaison officer (FLO) contact the family?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 31. 
    Who does the Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshal available resources to support?
    • A. 

      Family.

    • B. 

      Deceased.

    • C. 

      Commander.

    • D. 

      Family Liaison Officer (FLO).

  • 32. 
    What type of flag case is given to the family of the deceased member?
    • A. 

      Hardwood.

    • B. 

      Plastic.

    • C. 

      Metal.

    • D. 

      None.

  • 33. 
    How many copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      15.

  • 34. 
    How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two places are not located in the same place?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 35. 
    Which is not an authorized way to transport remains in the continental United States (CONUS)?
    • A. 

      Commercial aircraft.

    • B. 

      Government aircraft.

    • C. 

      Hearse or service car.

    • D. 

      Defense Attaché Office (DAO).

  • 36. 
    When notified of an active duty death, who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information?
    • A. 

      Mortuary officer.

    • B. 

      Family liaison officer.

    • C. 

      Base commander of the deceased.

    • D. 

      Person authorized direct disposition.

  • 37. 
    How long are mortuary case files kept?
    • A. 

      Three years.

    • B. 

      Five years.

    • C. 

      Ten years.

    • D. 

      Permanently.

  • 38. 
    Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a
    • A. 

      Professional bugler.

    • B. 

      High-quality recorded version the family selects.

    • C. 

      Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.

    • D. 

      Ceremonial bugle if the family grants permission.

  • 39. 
    Who may waive the requirement to provide honors, if necessary, due to requirements of war, contingency operations, or other military requirements?
    • A. 

      Secretary of Defense.

    • B. 

      Services commander.

    • C. 

      Installation commander.

    • D. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM) commander.

  • 40. 
    How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      Each fiscal year.

    • D. 

      Each calendar year.

  • 41. 
    Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams?
    • A. 

      Officer in charge.

    • B. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • C. 

      Flight NCOIC.

    • D. 

      Flight commander.

  • 42. 
    How many Airmen, conducting military honors, make up the firing party?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      14.

  • 43. 
    Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?
    • A. 

      The officer in charge (OIC).

    • B. 

      The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • C. 

      Survival recovery center (SRC).

    • D. 

      Competent medical authority.

  • 44. 
    When would you wash remains?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Always.

    • C. 

      When an aircraft is not leaving within one hour.

    • D. 

      When an aircraft is not leaving within two hours.

  • 45. 
    The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the mortuary affairs activity at the end of each
    • A. 

      Hour.

    • B. 

      Day.

    • C. 

      Week.

    • D. 

      Month.

  • 46. 
    Who determines what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site?
    • A. 

      Installation commander.

    • B. 

      Services commander.

    • C. 

      Security forces.

    • D. 

      Civil engineers.

  • 47. 
    Who manages search and recovery (S&R) operations and tasks members of other organizations as augmentees?
    • A. 

      Communications squadron.

    • B. 

      Security forces squadron.

    • C. 

      Civil engineers squadron.

    • D. 

      Services personnel.

  • 48. 
    What personnel determines if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions?
    • A. 

      Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD).

    • B. 

      Nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC).

    • C. 

      Temporary interment site members.

    • D. 

      Security forces.

  • 49. 
    At what temperature must remains be refrigerated?
    • A. 

      32-34° Fahrenheit (F).

    • B. 

      36-38° F.

    • C. 

      38-40° F.

    • D. 

      40-42° F.

  • 50. 
    What agency should be notified when a fatality mishap occurs for a Fatality Search and Recovery Team determination?
    • A. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    • B. 

      HQ USAF Director of Services (HQ USAF/ILV)).

    • C. 

      Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM).

    • D. 

      AFSVA Services Operations (AFSVA/SVOH).

  • 51. 
    How many members staff a Fatality Search and Recovery Team (FSRT)?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      8.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 52. 
    Who evaluates the performance of the search and recovery team during base level exercises or training exercises?
    • A. 

      Installation commander.

    • B. 

      Services commander.

    • C. 

      Medical commander.

    • D. 

      Mortuary officer.

  • 53. 
    The peacetime search and recovery (S&R) team is staffed with 26 members at any given time. How many individuals does the mortuary officer ensure are trained as an S&R team leader and flanker, as well as with recovered remains and tagging procedures?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      12.

    • D. 

      13.

  • 54. 
    Who educates and trains search and recovery (S&R) team members on the use, maintenance, and care of respirators used to protect against the inhalation of harmful atmospheres?
    • A. 

      Medical officer.

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer.

    • C. 

      Readiness noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer.

  • 55. 
    During peacetime search and recovery (S&R), who provides global positioning system and/or optical survey equipment and trained personnel to plot remains, personal effects, and aircraft wreckage?
    • A. 

      Services.

    • B. 

      Security forces.

    • C. 

      Civil engineers.

    • D. 

      Mortuary affairs.

  • 56. 
    How many tags, during the recovery phase of a search and recovery (S&R) event, are used for each set of remains found?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 57. 
    What information is not included in an after-actions report?
    • A. 

      Number of fatalities.

    • B. 

      Location of the incident.

    • C. 

      Start and end date of the operation.

    • D. 

      Number of participants from each squadron.

  • 58. 
    Assigned protocol personnel support commanders in planning and executing
    • A. 

      Change of command ceremonies.

    • B. 

      Designing and sending invitations to official functions.

    • C. 

      All dining-in and dining-out ceremonies held on base.

    • D. 

      Official functions and in hosting distinguished visitors.

  • 59. 
    Who develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Air Force.

    • B. 

      Air Force Services Agency Director.

    • C. 

      Chief of Staff of the Air Force.

    • D. 

      Air Force Institute of Technology Director.

  • 60. 
    Honors are usually demonstrated by
    • A. 

      Saluting.

    • B. 

      Playing of Taps.

    • C. 

      Cannon salutes.

    • D. 

      Formal correspondence.

  • 61. 
    What agency is the final authority on matters of customs and forms of address?
    • A. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    • B. 

      HQ USAF, Director of Services (HQ USAF/ILV).

    • C. 

      State Department.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

  • 62. 
    What day should the United States Flag be flown at half-staff until noon, and then raised to the top?
    • A. 

      Patriot Day, September 11th.

    • B. 

      Memorial Day, last Monday in May.

    • C. 

      Peace Officers Memorial Day, May 15th.

    • D. 

      National Pearl Harbor Remembrance Day, December 7th.

  • 63. 
    What is the starting point for all you do with an official function?
    • A. 

      Sending out invitations.

    • B. 

      Planning seating arrangements.

    • C. 

      Determining the order of precedence.

    • D. 

      Organizing the arrival and departure order.

  • 64. 
    Who determines precedence for DOD officials?
    • A. 

      The Secretary of Defense.

    • B. 

      The United States Department of State.

    • C. 

      The Speaker of the House of Representatives.

    • D. 

      The Director, Administration and Management.

  • 65. 
    What is the first factor to consider, if you do not consider position, when determining precedence among officers on active duty?
    • A. 

      Rank.

    • B. 

      Date of rank.

    • C. 

      Total active federal military service.

    • D. 

      Position on the permanent promotion list.

  • 66. 
    Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host) at an all male event?
    • A. 

      Interpreter.

    • B. 

      Protocol officer.

    • C. 

      Most junior guest.

    • D. 

      Most senior guest.

  • 67. 
    How should you seat husbands and wives formal events?
    • A. 

      Together.

    • B. 

      At separate tables.

    • C. 

      Opposite each other.

    • D. 

      Determined by the host.

  • 68. 
     If there are two hosts for an event, where on the invitation is the senior host’s emblem placed?
    • A. 

      On the left.

    • B. 

      On the right.

    • C. 

      Centered by itself.

    • D. 

      Centered above the other emblem.

  • 69. 
    In a deployed environment, the protocol officer works for the
    • A. 

      Services commander.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      Theater commander.

    • D. 

      Air Force protocol office.

  • 70. 
    Who should be notified every time a distinguished visitor (DV) visits an installation?
    • A. 

      DV lodging manager.

    • B. 

      The local embassy or visitor’s bureau.

    • C. 

      Air Traffic Operations Center (ATOC).

    • D. 

      Security Forces (SF) or Office of Special Investigations (OSI).