3m051b Volume 3 Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol

70 Questions | Total Attempts: 475

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3m051b Volume 3 Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol

Passing CDC exams in the air force is no easy task and needs a lot of studying from the students. Just how ready are you for the 3m051b Volume 3 exam covering the readiness, mortuary and protocols to follow. Give this review questions a try and revise where needed. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Resources in Part II of the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) are
    • A. 

      Identified.

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Allocated.

    • D. 

      Stockpiled.

  • 2. 
    How often is the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) reviewed?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Bi-monthly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Bi-annually.

  • 3. 
    In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve
    • A. 

      Officers and enlisted Airmen.

    • B. 

      And Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and Airmen.

    • C. 

      And ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians.

    • D. 

      And Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas.

  • 4. 
    What is Services’ highest priority during wartime combat support?
    • A. 

      Strategic offensive and defensive missions.

    • B. 

      Humanitarian operations throughout the continental United States (CONUS) and all overseas theaters of operation.

    • C. 

      Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on prime readiness in base services (RIBS) teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation.

    • D. 

      Maintaining CONUS based sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support.

  • 5. 
    In a wartime environment, levels of service will increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after
    • A. 

      M+15.

    • B. 

      M+30.

    • C. 

      M+45.

    • D. 

      M+60.

  • 6. 
    Which document contains time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN)?
    • A. 

      Unit line number (ULN).

    • B. 

      Force Requirement Number (FRN).

    • C. 

      Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).

    • D. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

  • 7. 
    A force requirement may require more than one time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) entry due to
    • A. 

      Split sourcing.

    • B. 

      Multiple pallets.

    • C. 

      Multiple delivery dates.

    • D. 

      The need for more than one aircraft.

  • 8. 
    What does the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictate to units?
    • A. 

      Tasking.

    • B. 

      Manning requirements.

    • C. 

      Number of enlisted to deploy.

    • D. 

      Number of officers to deploy.

  • 9. 
    The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in regards to what?
    • A. 

      Rank and position.

    • B. 

      Rank and time in grade.

    • C. 

      Position and time-in-grade.

    • D. 

      Position and time-in-service.

  • 10. 
    Who provides direction to the Services Control Center (SVCC)?
    • A. 

      Readiness officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B. 

      Force support commander.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Base commander.

  • 11. 
    What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services’ support capability?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      80.

    • D. 

      75.

  • 12. 
    Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) provide quarterly training status updates to?
    • A. 

      Installation Deployment Officer.

    • B. 

      Superintendent.

    • C. 

      Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander.

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Center.

  • 13. 
    Which type of unit type code (UTC) provides nonappropriated fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100?
    • A. 

      RFSRB.

    • B. 

      RFSRL.

    • C. 

      RFL14.

    • D. 

      RFL05.

  • 14. 
    Which force module sets are being phased out?
    • A. 

      Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle.

    • B. 

      BEAR and Harvest Falcon.

    • C. 

      Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.

    • D. 

      Those that are being replaced with Playbook Options.

  • 15. 
    Which force module contains functional management teams that plan force beddown and mission expansion?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and control (C2).

  • 16. 
    Which force module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources capable of bedding down forces for initial operational capability?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and control (C2).

  • 17. 
    Which force module is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and control (C2).

  • 18. 
    Who must complete home station and readiness training (HSRT)?
    • A. 

      Subject-to-deploy personnel.

    • B. 

      Identified-to-deploy personnel.

    • C. 

      All Services military personnel.

    • D. 

      Only individuals that have completed Services Combat Training (SCT).

  • 19. 
    How many tiers make up home station and readiness training?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 20. 
    What is the minimum percentage of personnel that needs home station and readiness training (HSRT) on the operation of the 1 1/2 and 2 1/2 ton truck and 10K forklift?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      35.

  • 21. 
    How many days prior to deploying are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend Force Support Combat Training (FSCT)?
    • A. 

      90.

    • B. 

      120.

    • C. 

      90-120.

    • D. 

      90-180.

  • 22. 
    What plays a key role in ensuring all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times?
    • A. 

      Mobility folders.

    • B. 

      Base legal office.

    • C. 

      Squadron readiness office.

    • D. 

      Installation deployment plan.

  • 23. 
    Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?
    • A. 

      All Air Force members.

    • B. 

      Members with civilian spouses.

    • C. 

      All Air Force members with families.

    • D. 

      Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.

  • 24. 
    What information does the Air Force use to assess readiness, determine budgetary allocations, and manage how actions impact unit level readiness?
    • A. 

      Unit type codes (UTC).

    • B. 

      Personal accounting symbol (PAS).

    • C. 

      Status of resources and training system (SORTS).

    • D. 

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

  • 25. 
    To whom does the Warfighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues?
    • A. 

      Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).

    • C. 

      Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).

    • D. 

      United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).

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