3m051b Volume 3 Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol
Passing CDC exams in the air force is no easy task and needs a lot of studying from the students. Just how ready are you for the 3m051b Volume 3 exam covering the readiness, mortuary and protocols to follow. Give this review questions a try and revise where needed. Good luck!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Resources in Part II of the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) are
- A.
Identified.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Allocated.
- D.
Stockpiled.
Correct Answer
C. Allocated.Explanation
In Part II of the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP), resources are allocated. This means that the resources are assigned or distributed to specific areas or purposes according to a plan or strategy. The allocation process ensures that the resources are used efficiently and effectively to meet the needs and objectives of the expeditionary site.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How often is the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) reviewed?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Bi-monthly.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Bi-annually.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
The In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) is reviewed on an annual basis. This means that it is evaluated and updated once every year. This review process ensures that the plan remains current and effective in addressing any changes or developments in the garrison's expeditionary operations. By reviewing the IGESP annually, any necessary adjustments can be made to enhance its efficiency and alignment with the garrison's goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve
- A.
Officers and enlisted Airmen.
- B.
And Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and Airmen.
- C.
And ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians.
- D.
And Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas.
Correct Answer
D. And Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas.Explanation
The correct answer states that the Services force in War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1 consists of Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas. This means that in addition to active duty and Air Force Reserve officers and enlisted Airmen, the Services force also includes personnel from the Air National Guard who hold positions as officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is Services’ highest priority during wartime combat support?
- A.
Strategic offensive and defensive missions.
- B.
Humanitarian operations throughout the continental United States (CONUS) and all overseas theaters of operation.
- C.
Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on prime readiness in base services (RIBS) teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation.
- D.
Maintaining CONUS based sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support.
Correct Answer
A. Strategic offensive and defensive missions.Explanation
During wartime combat support, Services' highest priority is to carry out strategic offensive and defensive missions. This means that their main focus is on supporting military operations that involve attacking or defending strategic targets and positions. This could include actions such as air strikes, ground offensives, or defensive maneuvers. By prioritizing these missions, Services aim to contribute to the overall success of the military campaign and achieve the desired objectives in the theater of operation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In a wartime environment, levels of service will increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after
- A.
M+15.
- B.
M+30.
- C.
M+45.
- D.
M+60.
Correct Answer
B. M+30.Explanation
In a wartime environment, levels of service will increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after M+30. This means that after 30 minutes from a specific event or time (M), there will be an increase in the levels of service. This indicates that efforts will be made to improve the quality of life programs available to individuals in the wartime environment.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which document contains time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN)?
- A.
Unit line number (ULN).
- B.
Force Requirement Number (FRN).
- C.
Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- D.
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
Correct Answer
C. Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).Explanation
The document that contains time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN) is the Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD). This document provides a detailed plan for the deployment of forces, including the timing and sequencing of movements, the resources needed, and the personnel and equipment involved. It helps to ensure that all necessary resources are available at the right time and place to support the operation plan. The other options (Unit line number, Force Requirement Number, Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) do not specifically refer to the document that contains this information.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A force requirement may require more than one time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) entry due to
- A.
Split sourcing.
- B.
Multiple pallets.
- C.
Multiple delivery dates.
- D.
The need for more than one aircraft.
Correct Answer
A. Split sourcing.Explanation
The correct answer is split sourcing. A force requirement may require more than one TPFDD entry due to split sourcing, which means that the required resources are obtained from multiple sources. This could be because a single source cannot provide all the necessary resources, or it could be a strategic decision to diversify the sources to mitigate risks. By splitting the sourcing, the force requirement can be fulfilled by multiple entities or locations, ensuring a more efficient and effective deployment of resources.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What does the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictate to units?
- A.
Tasking.
- B.
Manning requirements.
- C.
Number of enlisted to deploy.
- D.
Number of officers to deploy.
Correct Answer
A. Tasking.Explanation
The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictates tasking to units. This means that it provides instructions or assignments to units regarding their deployment. It may include information on the specific tasks or duties that need to be carried out during the deployment, as well as any other requirements or expectations that the units need to fulfill. The DRMD helps ensure that units are properly prepared and organized for their deployment, and that they understand what is expected of them.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in regards to what?
- A.
Rank and position.
- B.
Rank and time in grade.
- C.
Position and time-in-grade.
- D.
Position and time-in-service.
Correct Answer
A. Rank and position.Explanation
The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) is a document that outlines the structure of a unit in terms of the ranks and positions of its personnel. It specifies the hierarchical structure of the unit, indicating the different ranks and positions that exist within the unit. This document helps to ensure that the unit is properly staffed and organized, with individuals assigned to the appropriate positions based on their rank and qualifications.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who provides direction to the Services Control Center (SVCC)?
- A.
Readiness officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- B.
Force support commander.
- C.
Group commander.
- D.
Base commander.
Correct Answer
B. Force support commander.Explanation
The Force Support Commander provides direction to the Services Control Center (SVCC). They are responsible for overseeing the operations and ensuring that the center is functioning effectively. The Force Support Commander is in charge of managing and coordinating all support services for the base, including food services, lodging, fitness, and recreation. They work closely with the SVCC to ensure that the needs of the base personnel are met and that the center is operating in accordance with established guidelines and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services’ support capability?
- A.
100.
- B.
90.
- C.
80.
- D.
75.
Correct Answer
B. 90.Explanation
The correct answer is 90. This suggests that 90% of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services' support capability. This means that the Services' support capability is based on the majority of the population that requires feeding during wartime.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) provide quarterly training status updates to?
- A.
Installation Deployment Officer.
- B.
Superintendent.
- C.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander.
- D.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Center.
Correct Answer
C. Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander.Explanation
The unit deployment manager (UDM) is responsible for providing quarterly training status updates to the Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander. This is because the FSS commander oversees the deployment process and is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and prepared for deployment. By providing training status updates to the FSS commander, the UDM helps to ensure that the commander has the necessary information to make informed decisions regarding deployment readiness.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which type of unit type code (UTC) provides nonappropriated fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100?
- A.
RFSRB.
- B.
RFSRL.
- C.
RFL14.
- D.
RFL05.
Correct Answer
B. RFSRL.Explanation
The correct answer is RFSRL. This unit type code (UTC) is responsible for nonappropriated fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100. The other options, RFSRB, RFL14, and RFL05, do not specify a population size or indicate that they are responsible for NAF management.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module sets are being phased out?
- A.
Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle.
- B.
BEAR and Harvest Falcon.
- C.
Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.
- D.
Those that are being replaced with Playbook Options.
Correct Answer
C. Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.Explanation
The force module sets that are being phased out are Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon. This means that these specific sets will no longer be used or available. It is not mentioned why they are being phased out, but it is stated that they are being replaced with Playbook Options.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which force module contains functional management teams that plan force beddown and mission expansion?
- A.
Open the Base.
- B.
Operate the Base.
- C.
Establish the Base.
- D.
Command and control (C2).
Correct Answer
D. Command and control (C2).Explanation
The correct answer is Command and control (C2). Command and control (C2) is a force module that contains functional management teams responsible for planning force beddown and mission expansion. C2 is essential for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication, and making strategic decisions. This force module plays a crucial role in managing and organizing the forces to achieve mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which force module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources capable of bedding down forces for initial operational capability?
- A.
Open the Base.
- B.
Operate the Base.
- C.
Establish the Base.
- D.
Command and control (C2).
Correct Answer
C. Establish the Base.Explanation
The correct answer is "Establish the Base." This is because establishing the base involves setting up the necessary infrastructure and resources to support initial operational capability, including unit type codes (UTC) with the capability to bed down forces. Opening the base refers to unlocking and accessing the base, operating the base involves carrying out day-to-day activities, and command and control (C2) refers to the coordination and management of forces.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which force module is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days?
- A.
Open the Base.
- B.
Operate the Base.
- C.
Establish the Base.
- D.
Command and control (C2).
Correct Answer
B. Operate the Base.Explanation
The force module that is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days is "Operate the Base." This force module is responsible for managing and maintaining the base operations, including logistics, infrastructure, and support services, for an extended period of time. It ensures the smooth functioning of the base and provides the necessary resources and support for sustained operations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who must complete home station and readiness training (HSRT)?
- A.
Subject-to-deploy personnel.
- B.
Identified-to-deploy personnel.
- C.
All Services military personnel.
- D.
Only individuals that have completed Services Combat Training (SCT).
Correct Answer
C. All Services military personnel.Explanation
The correct answer is "All Services military personnel." This means that all military personnel from all branches of the armed forces are required to complete home station and readiness training (HSRT). This training is necessary for all service members to ensure they are prepared and ready for deployment or any other operational requirements.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many tiers make up home station and readiness training?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because home station training and readiness training are two separate tiers. Home station training refers to the training conducted at the home base or station of the military personnel, while readiness training focuses on preparing the personnel for deployment or combat situations. Therefore, these two tiers make up the overall training process.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the minimum percentage of personnel that needs home station and readiness training (HSRT) on the operation of the 1 1/2 and 2 1/2 ton truck and 10K forklift?
- A.
20.
- B.
25.
- C.
30.
- D.
35.
Correct Answer
C. 30.Explanation
The minimum percentage of personnel that needs home station and readiness training (HSRT) on the operation of the 1 1/2 and 2 1/2 ton truck and 10K forklift is 30. This means that at least 30% of the personnel should receive training on operating these vehicles and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many days prior to deploying are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend Force Support Combat Training (FSCT)?
- A.
90.
- B.
120.
- C.
90-120.
- D.
90-180.
Correct Answer
D. 90-180.Explanation
Deployable unit type codes (UTC) are required to attend Force Support Combat Training (FSCT) a certain number of days prior to deploying. The correct answer, 90-180, indicates that the UTCs are required to attend FSCT anywhere between 90 to 180 days before their deployment. This range allows for flexibility in scheduling the training and ensures that the UTCs are adequately prepared for combat operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What plays a key role in ensuring all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times?
- A.
Mobility folders.
- B.
Base legal office.
- C.
Squadron readiness office.
- D.
Installation deployment plan.
Correct Answer
A. Mobility folders.Explanation
Mobility folders play a key role in ensuring all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times. These folders contain important documents and information related to the personnel's readiness for deployment, such as medical records, training certificates, and personal contact information. By keeping these folders updated and organized, the military can ensure that all necessary preparations are made before personnel are deployed, minimizing any potential issues or delays. The other options, base legal office, squadron readiness office, and installation deployment plan, may have their own roles in the deployment process, but mobility folders specifically focus on the readiness and organization of individual personnel.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?
- A.
All Air Force members.
- B.
Members with civilian spouses.
- C.
All Air Force members with families.
- D.
Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.
Correct Answer
D. Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.Explanation
The correct answer is Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations. This group of individuals is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification. This is because these individuals have additional responsibilities and circumstances that require them to have a plan in place to ensure the care and well-being of their dependents in their absence.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What information does the Air Force use to assess readiness, determine budgetary allocations, and manage how actions impact unit level readiness?
- A.
Unit type codes (UTC).
- B.
Personal accounting symbol (PAS).
- C.
Status of resources and training system (SORTS).
- D.
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.
Correct Answer
C. Status of resources and training system (SORTS).Explanation
The Air Force uses the Status of resources and training system (SORTS) to assess readiness, determine budgetary allocations, and manage how actions impact unit level readiness. SORTS provides information on the status of resources, personnel, and training within a unit, allowing the Air Force to make informed decisions regarding readiness and resource allocation. It helps in identifying any gaps or deficiencies in resources or training that may affect unit readiness and allows for effective management of these issues. Unit type codes (UTC), personal accounting symbol (PAS), and designed operational capability (DOC) statement are not specifically mentioned as tools used for these purposes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
To whom does the Warfighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues?
- A.
Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).
- B.
Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).
- C.
Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).
- D.
United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).
Correct Answer
A. Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).Explanation
The Warfighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to the Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who provides the overall direction for Services readiness, training, education, and manpower programs through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies?
- A.
Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).
- B.
Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).
- C.
Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).
- D.
United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).
Correct Answer
A. Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).Explanation
The correct answer is the Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM). This team is responsible for providing the overall direction for Services readiness, training, education, and manpower programs. They do this through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations?
- A.
Current death.
- B.
Mortuary affairs.
- C.
Concurrent return.
- D.
Temporary interment.
Correct Answer
A. Current death. -
- 28.
Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
- A.
Current death.
- B.
Mortuary affairs.
- C.
Concurrent return.
- D.
Temporary interment.
Correct Answer
C. Concurrent return.Explanation
The preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict is concurrent return. This refers to the process of promptly and simultaneously returning the remains of deceased service members to their home countries for proper burial. This approach ensures that the deceased are honored and their families can grieve and hold funeral services in a timely manner. It also allows for the efficient management of remains during periods of conflict when there may be a high number of casualties.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Within how many hours of a death notification must a family liaison officer (FLO) be assigned?
- A.
72.
- B.
24.
- C.
36.
- D.
48.
Correct Answer
B. 24.Explanation
A family liaison officer (FLO) must be assigned within 24 hours of a death notification. This is crucial to provide immediate support and assistance to the bereaved family during their time of grief. The FLO plays a vital role in ensuring effective communication between the family and the authorities, providing updates on investigations, and addressing any concerns or questions the family may have. Assigning an FLO promptly helps to establish a strong support system and facilitates a smoother process for the family during this difficult time.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How often will the family liaison officer (FLO) contact the family?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Quarterly.
Correct Answer
A. Daily.Explanation
The family liaison officer (FLO) will contact the family on a daily basis. This implies that the FLO will regularly communicate with the family members, providing them with updates, support, and any necessary information. Daily contact ensures that the family is kept informed and involved throughout the process, allowing for a more effective and efficient support system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who does the Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshal available resources to support?
- A.
Family.
- B.
Deceased.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Family Liaison Officer (FLO).
Correct Answer
A. Family.Explanation
The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals available resources to support the family. This program is designed to provide assistance and support to the families of deceased Air Force members. It aims to help them cope with the loss, navigate through the administrative processes, and access the resources they need during this difficult time. By focusing on the family, AFSAP ensures that they receive the necessary support and care after the loss of their loved one.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type of flag case is given to the family of the deceased member?
- A.
Hardwood.
- B.
Plastic.
- C.
Metal.
- D.
None.
Correct Answer
A. Hardwood.Explanation
The correct answer is Hardwood. This suggests that the flag case given to the family of the deceased member is made of hardwood material. Hardwood is a durable and high-quality material commonly used for making furniture and other decorative items. It is often chosen for flag cases to provide a sense of elegance and to honor the memory of the deceased.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?
- A.
1.
- B.
5.
- C.
10.
- D.
15.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
The person authorized direct disposition (PADD) is given 10 copies of the death certificate. This is likely because multiple copies may be needed for various legal and administrative purposes, such as notifying financial institutions, insurance companies, and government agencies. Having 10 copies ensures that the PADD has enough copies to fulfill these requirements without needing to make additional copies.Rate this question:
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- 34.
How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two places are not located in the same place?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
A. One.Explanation
When the shipping facility and the final destination are not located in the same place, only one escort accompanies the remains. This suggests that there is no need for additional escorts or security personnel during the transportation process.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which is not an authorized way to transport remains in the continental United States (CONUS)?
- A.
Commercial aircraft.
- B.
Government aircraft.
- C.
Hearse or service car.
- D.
Defense Attaché Office (DAO).
Correct Answer
D. Defense Attaché Office (DAO).Explanation
The Defense Attaché Office (DAO) is not an authorized way to transport remains in the continental United States (CONUS). The DAO is a diplomatic office that represents the defense interests of one country in another, and it is not involved in transportation services for remains. Commercial aircraft, government aircraft, and hearse or service car are all authorized methods for transporting remains within the continental United States.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When notified of an active duty death, who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information?
- A.
Mortuary officer.
- B.
Family liaison officer.
- C.
Base commander of the deceased.
- D.
Person authorized direct disposition.
Correct Answer
A. Mortuary officer.Explanation
When notified of an active duty death, the mortuary officer is responsible for opening a new case file and documenting pertinent information. This includes gathering details about the deceased, notifying the appropriate parties, and coordinating the necessary arrangements for the deceased service member. The mortuary officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed and that the family and loved ones of the deceased receive the support and assistance they need during this difficult time.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How long are mortuary case files kept?
- A.
Three years.
- B.
Five years.
- C.
Ten years.
- D.
Permanently.
Correct Answer
A. Three years.Explanation
Mortuary case files are kept for a period of three years. This is likely because after three years, the information in these files may no longer be relevant or necessary for future reference. Keeping them for a shorter period helps to manage and organize the storage of these files more efficiently. Additionally, after three years, it is possible that the information in the files may have been transferred to a more permanent record-keeping system, making the physical files less essential.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a
- A.
Professional bugler.
- B.
High-quality recorded version the family selects.
- C.
Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.
- D.
Ceremonial bugle if the family grants permission.
Correct Answer
C. Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.Explanation
The correct answer is "ceremonial bugle if the military service permits." This means that it is not allowed to play taps at a military funeral using a ceremonial bugle if the military service does not grant permission.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who may waive the requirement to provide honors, if necessary, due to requirements of war, contingency operations, or other military requirements?
- A.
Secretary of Defense.
- B.
Services commander.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM) commander.
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of Defense.Explanation
The Secretary of Defense may waive the requirement to provide honors, if necessary, due to requirements of war, contingency operations, or other military requirements. This is because the Secretary of Defense holds the highest position in the Department of Defense and has the authority to make decisions regarding military operations and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress?
- A.
Quarterly.
- B.
Semi-annually.
- C.
Each fiscal year.
- D.
Each calendar year.
Correct Answer
D. Each calendar year.Explanation
The Air Force, along with the other Services, submits funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress each calendar year. This means that the data is collected and reported once every year, specifically based on the calendar year. Quarterly refers to every three months, semi-annually refers to twice a year, and each fiscal year refers to the financial year of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams?
- A.
Officer in charge.
- B.
Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- C.
Flight NCOIC.
- D.
Flight commander.
Correct Answer
C. Flight NCOIC.Explanation
The Flight NCOIC is responsible for selecting various elements of the honor guard, including the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams. They are in charge of coordinating and organizing these teams for different events and ceremonies. The Flight NCOIC plays a crucial role in ensuring that the honor guard performs their duties with precision and professionalism.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How many Airmen, conducting military honors, make up the firing party?
- A.
3.
- B.
7.
- C.
8.
- D.
14.
Correct Answer
C. 8.Explanation
The correct answer is 8 because in military honors, a firing party typically consists of 8 Airmen. They are responsible for firing the ceremonial volleys during funerals and other military ceremonies. The number 8 is significant as it represents a full squad, which is a common unit in military formations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?
- A.
The officer in charge (OIC).
- B.
The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- C.
Survival recovery center (SRC).
- D.
Competent medical authority.
Correct Answer
D. Competent medical authority.Explanation
The competent medical authority is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP). This individual is trained and qualified to assess and determine if a person is deceased. They have the necessary medical knowledge and expertise to make an accurate determination of death. The officer in charge (OIC), noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), and the survival recovery center (SRC) may have important roles in managing the CCP, but it is ultimately the competent medical authority who has the responsibility to declare death.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When would you wash remains?
- A.
Never.
- B.
Always.
- C.
When an aircraft is not leaving within one hour.
- D.
When an aircraft is not leaving within two hours.
Correct Answer
A. Never.Explanation
The correct answer is "Never" because "washing remains" does not make sense in this context. The other options suggest washing the remains based on the departure time of an aircraft, but it is unclear what "washing remains" refers to. Therefore, the most logical answer is that it is never necessary to wash remains in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the mortuary affairs activity at the end of each
- A.
Hour.
- B.
Day.
- C.
Week.
- D.
Month.
Correct Answer
B. Day.Explanation
The Services Control Center provides a situation report (SITREP) of the mortuary affairs activity at the end of each day. This means that every day, higher headquarters receive an update on the mortuary affairs activity. It allows them to stay informed about the current situation and make any necessary decisions or adjustments. Providing a daily report ensures that the information is up-to-date and allows for timely decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who determines what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site?
- A.
Installation commander.
- B.
Services commander.
- C.
Security forces.
- D.
Civil engineers.
Correct Answer
D. Civil engineers.Explanation
Civil engineers determine what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the soil composition and local conditions to determine the appropriate equipment needed for the task at hand. The installation commander, services commander, and security forces may have their own roles and responsibilities, but it is the civil engineers who specifically deal with determining the equipment requirements for the temporary interment site.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who manages search and recovery (S&R) operations and tasks members of other organizations as augmentees?
- A.
Communications squadron.
- B.
Security forces squadron.
- C.
Civil engineers squadron.
- D.
Services personnel.
Correct Answer
D. Services personnel.Explanation
Services personnel are responsible for managing search and recovery (S&R) operations and tasking members of other organizations as augmentees. They are specifically trained in coordinating and overseeing S&R efforts, ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are deployed effectively. While the other options may have their own roles and responsibilities within an organization, it is the services personnel who are primarily responsible for managing S&R operations.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What personnel determines if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions?
- A.
Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD).
- B.
Nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC).
- C.
Temporary interment site members.
- D.
Security forces.
Correct Answer
D. Security forces.Explanation
Security forces are responsible for determining if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions. They have the expertise and training to assess the security situation and ensure that the area is free from any potential threats or dangers that could hinder the S&R operations. They play a crucial role in maintaining the safety and security of the area, allowing for effective and efficient S&R operations to take place.Rate this question:
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- 49.
At what temperature must remains be refrigerated?
- A.
32-34° Fahrenheit (F).
- B.
36-38° F.
- C.
38-40° F.
- D.
40-42° F.
Correct Answer
C. 38-40° F. -
- 50.
What agency should be notified when a fatality mishap occurs for a Fatality Search and Recovery Team determination?
- A.
Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
- B.
HQ USAF Director of Services (HQ USAF/ILV)).
- C.
Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM).
- D.
AFSVA Services Operations (AFSVA/SVOH).
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM).Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM). This agency should be notified when a fatality mishap occurs for a Fatality Search and Recovery Team determination.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 10, 2012Quiz Created by
Tomnelson
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