3m051a Volume 2. Food Service
3M051A-02-1008, Edit Code 05 ; Test is used to guage Airmans progress in their CDCs.
- 1.
Enlisted members receiving the meal portion of per diem are authorized to use the dining facility
- A.
At no charge.
- B.
As cash-paying customers.
- C.
At the installation commander’s discretion.
- D.
When the installation commander determines other facilities are not available.
Correct Answer
B. As cash-paying customers.Explanation
Enlisted members receiving the meal portion of per diem are authorized to use the dining facility as cash-paying customers. This means that they are required to pay for their meals at the dining facility, just like any other customer. They are not given the meals for free or at a discounted rate. This policy ensures that enlisted members are treated equally and have the same responsibilities as other customers when it comes to paying for their meals.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What are the two types of Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates?
- A.
Standard and special.
- B.
Standard and normal.
- C.
Discount and normal.
- D.
Discount and standard.
Correct Answer
D. Discount and standard.Explanation
The two types of Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates are discount and standard. This means that there are different rates for meals provided by the DOD, with some meals being offered at a discounted rate and others at the standard rate.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which meal type service is not available in appropriated fund (APF) dining facilities?
- A.
Buffet.
- B.
Holiday.
- C.
À la carte.
- D.
Traditional.
Correct Answer
B. Holiday.Explanation
The question asks which meal type service is not available in appropriated fund (APF) dining facilities. The options provided are buffet, holiday, à la carte, and traditional. Among these options, the term "holiday" does not refer to a specific meal type service. It is likely that the other options, such as buffet, à la carte, and traditional, are commonly offered in APF dining facilities, while holiday is not a meal type service.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who can allow off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other DOD installations to eat in the base dining facilities during emergencies?
- A.
Food service officers.
- B.
Services commanders.
- C.
Installation commanders.
- D.
MAJCOM commanders.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commanders.Explanation
During emergencies, installation commanders have the authority to allow off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other DOD installations to eat in the base dining facilities. This is because installation commanders have the overall responsibility and authority for the operation and management of the base, including making decisions related to emergency situations and the use of base facilities. Food service officers, services commanders, and MAJCOM commanders may have specific roles and responsibilities within the base, but the ultimate decision-making authority lies with the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 5.
If it is not feasible to obtain signatures in the base dining facilities during emergencies, who certifies the number of meals furnished?
- A.
Food service officer.
- B.
Services commander.
- C.
Mission support group commander.
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
C. Mission support group commander.Explanation
During emergencies when obtaining signatures in the base dining facilities is not feasible, the responsibility of certifying the number of meals furnished falls on the Mission Support Group Commander. This individual is in charge of overseeing various support services, including food service, on the base. As such, they would be responsible for ensuring that accurate records are kept and that the appropriate number of meals are provided during emergencies when signatures cannot be obtained.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many days of emergency rations (MRE) are authorized units allowed to purchase?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Units are authorized to purchase two days of emergency rations (MRE). This implies that in emergency situations, units are allowed to acquire enough rations to sustain themselves for a maximum of two days.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is one of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities?
- A.
Communication.
- B.
Managing shifts.
- C.
Lack of meetings.
- D.
Training personnel.
Correct Answer
A. Communication.Explanation
One of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities is communication. Effective communication is crucial in ensuring that tasks are carried out efficiently, orders are accurately taken and delivered, and customer satisfaction is maintained. Poor communication can lead to misunderstandings, mistakes, and delays in service, which can ultimately impact the overall operation of the facility. Therefore, managers need to prioritize clear and effective communication among their staff to address this problem.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day?
- A.
Taste testing food.
- B.
Uniform inspections.
- C.
Mentoring and training.
- D.
On-the-job training (OJT).
Correct Answer
C. Mentoring and training.Explanation
The most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day is mentoring and training. This is because a shift leader plays a crucial role in guiding and developing the skills of their team members. By providing guidance, support, and training, the shift leader helps to improve the performance and productivity of the team. This duty also contributes to creating a positive work environment and fostering a culture of continuous learning and growth within the team.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the key to proper scheduling?
- A.
Having shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods.
- B.
Helping workers resolve their personal problems.
- C.
Dividing workers equally among the shifts.
- D.
Considering workers with unique skills.
Correct Answer
A. Having shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods.Explanation
The key to proper scheduling is having shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods. This ensures that there are enough employees available to handle the high demand during busy periods, resulting in efficient and effective operations. By scheduling more workers during peak times, businesses can avoid bottlenecks and delays, leading to improved productivity and customer satisfaction.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What should shift leaders and mangers know in order to prevent manpower shortfalls?
- A.
Scheduled personnel appointments and training.
- B.
Daily and specialty meals scheduled.
- C.
The shifts at other dining facilities.
- D.
The peak hours for serving food.
Correct Answer
D. The peak hours for serving food.Explanation
Shift leaders and managers should know the peak hours for serving food in order to prevent manpower shortfalls. By understanding when the demand for food is highest, they can schedule enough personnel to ensure efficient service and avoid shortages. This knowledge allows them to allocate resources effectively and provide adequate staffing during busy periods, preventing any potential manpower issues.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The operational advantages of the cyclic menu in menu planning include
- A.
Providing flexibility in menu planning.
- B.
Allowing customers to plan their meals in advance.
- C.
Allowing managers time to devote to the customers.
- D.
Providing food service personnel additional training time.
Correct Answer
A. Providing flexibility in menu planning.Explanation
The cyclic menu provides flexibility in menu planning because it allows for a variety of options to be rotated and repeated over a certain period of time. This means that customers can have different choices each day or week, while still allowing the kitchen to plan and prepare meals in a systematic manner. It also allows for the utilization of seasonal ingredients and specials, providing further flexibility in creating a diverse and appealing menu. This flexibility ultimately caters to the preferences and dietary needs of a wide range of customers.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which is not a criteria for which managers can change core menu components?
- A.
Satisfy the preferences of your guests.
- B.
Provide choices to accommodate religious observances.
- C.
Adjust stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales.
- D.
Add culturally diverse or specialty meals, or increase menu variety.
Correct Answer
C. Adjust stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales.Explanation
Managers can change core menu components to satisfy the preferences of guests, provide choices to accommodate religious observances, add culturally diverse or specialty meals, or increase menu variety. However, adjusting stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales is not a criteria for changing core menu components. This criterion is related to managing inventory and taking advantage of sales opportunities, but it does not directly involve changing the core menu offerings.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A good menu is
- A.
Practical and acceptable.
- B.
Simple and eye appealing.
- C.
Practical and cost effective.
- D.
Acceptable and eye appealing.
Correct Answer
A. Practical and acceptable.Explanation
A good menu should be practical in the sense that it offers dishes that are feasible to prepare and serve, taking into consideration factors such as available ingredients and kitchen equipment. Additionally, it should be acceptable to the target audience, catering to their preferences, dietary restrictions, and cultural norms. While simplicity and eye-appeal are important qualities, they are not explicitly mentioned in the question, making the answer "practical and acceptable" the most fitting choice.Rate this question:
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- 14.
According to the Corporate Food Service (CFS) menu preface, what is mandatory for omelets and scrambled eggs?
- A.
At least six choices available.
- B.
Use fresh eggs whenever possible.
- C.
Use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs.
- D.
Omelets must be cooked to order, scramble eggs can be pre-cooked.
Correct Answer
C. Use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs.Explanation
The correct answer is "Use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs." This is because the question asks for what is mandatory for omelets and scrambled eggs according to the CFS menu preface. Out of the given options, using frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs is the only one that is mentioned as a requirement. The other options may be recommendations or suggestions, but they are not stated as mandatory.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Corporate Food Service (CFS) menu preface, when are the mandatory short order menus served?
- A.
Lunch and dinner.
- B.
Lunch and night.
- C.
Dinner and night.
- D.
Lunch only.
Correct Answer
A. Lunch and dinner.Explanation
According to the Corporate Food Service (CFS) menu preface, the mandatory short order menus are served during both lunch and dinner.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the foundation for all Air Force club catering operations?
- A.
The Air Force Catering Program.
- B.
HQ AFSVA.
- C.
Food and Beverage Section.
- D.
Force Support Squadron.
Correct Answer
A. The Air Force Catering Program.Explanation
The correct answer is The Air Force Catering Program. The Air Force Catering Program serves as the foundation for all Air Force club catering operations. It provides guidelines, policies, and procedures for food and beverage services within the Air Force. It ensures that clubs and dining facilities are able to meet the needs and expectations of Air Force personnel and their families. The program also focuses on quality control, cost management, and customer satisfaction. By following the guidelines and standards set by the Air Force Catering Program, club catering operations can maintain consistency and excellence in their services.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Flight meal menus were created, developed, and published by
- A.
HQ AFSVA/SVS.
- B.
HQ AFSVA/SVM
- C.
HQ AFSVA/SVOH.
- D.
HQ AFSVA/SVOFOF.
Correct Answer
D. HQ AFSVA/SVOFOF.Explanation
The correct answer is HQ AFSVA/SVOFOF. This is because the question states that flight meal menus were created, developed, and published by a specific department or organization. Out of the given options, only HQ AFSVA/SVOFOF matches this description.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What do the core flight menu standards mandate?
- A.
Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system.
- B.
Variety of healthy items delivered by flight kitchen personnel.
- C.
Variety of prepackaged foods in an inexpensive packaging system.
- D.
Choice of healthy/not healthy menu items in a quality packaging system.
Correct Answer
A. Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system.Explanation
The core flight menu standards mandate healthy menu items with a quality packaging system. This means that the menu options provided on flights must be nutritious and promote a healthy lifestyle. Additionally, the packaging system used for these menu items must be of high quality to ensure freshness and presentation. This standard ensures that passengers have access to healthy food options while traveling and promotes overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 19.
During a long flight, which meal can you serve a sandwich meal?
- A.
The last meal.
- B.
The first meal.
- C.
Lunch and dinner.
- D.
Breakfast and lunch.
Correct Answer
B. The first meal.Explanation
During a long flight, the first meal is typically served as a breakfast or brunch option. This is because the first meal is usually served shortly after takeoff, and it is common for airlines to offer breakfast or brunch options during this time. Therefore, a sandwich meal can be served as the first meal during a long flight.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the rating scale for each category on the Food Service Evaluation Record?
- A.
Poor to excellent.
- B.
Fair to outstanding.
- C.
Poor to outstanding.
- D.
Unsatisfactory to satisfactory.
Correct Answer
C. Poor to outstanding.Explanation
The rating scale for each category on the Food Service Evaluation Record is from poor to outstanding. This means that the evaluator can rate the food service in each category anywhere from a poor rating to an outstanding rating.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the first line of defense to prevent a food-borne illness?
- A.
Air Force public health personnel.
- B.
Maintaining good personal hygiene.
- C.
Using only bacteria-free subsistence.
- D.
Using sanitation solutions for cleaning.
Correct Answer
B. Maintaining good personal hygiene.Explanation
Maintaining good personal hygiene is the first line of defense to prevent a food-borne illness. This includes practices such as washing hands thoroughly before handling food, wearing clean clothes and aprons, and keeping the kitchen area clean and free from contamination. By practicing good personal hygiene, individuals can minimize the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or pathogens into the food, reducing the likelihood of food-borne illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the Air Force temperature danger zone for foods?
- A.
41 – 140°F.
- B.
40 – 141°F.
- C.
51 – 140°F.
- D.
50 – 141°F.
Correct Answer
A. 41 – 140°F.Explanation
The correct answer is 41 - 140°F. This temperature range is considered the danger zone for foods by the Air Force. This is because bacteria can grow rapidly within this range, increasing the risk of foodborne illnesses. It is important to keep hot foods above 140°F and cold foods below 41°F to prevent bacterial growth and ensure food safety.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What should be done before cleaning any electric equipment?
- A.
Wipe off equipment.
- B.
Inspect the equipment.
- C.
Unplug the equipment.
- D.
Turn off all equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Unplug the equipment.Explanation
Before cleaning any electric equipment, it is important to unplug the equipment. This is necessary to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or electric shocks. Cleaning electric equipment while it is still plugged in can be extremely dangerous and may result in serious injuries. Therefore, it is crucial to always unplug the equipment before cleaning it to minimize any risks and ensure a safe cleaning process.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How often should carpeted surfaces be steam cleaned?
- A.
Weekly.
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Semi-annually.
Correct Answer
B. Monthly.Explanation
Carpeted surfaces should be steam cleaned on a monthly basis. This frequency allows for regular maintenance and helps to prevent the buildup of dirt, allergens, and stains. Monthly steam cleaning helps to maintain the cleanliness and appearance of the carpet, prolong its lifespan, and ensure a healthier indoor environment.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Defrost refrigeration units when ice buildup reaches what thickness?
- A.
1/8 inch.
- B.
1/4 inch.
- C.
3/8 inch.
- D.
1/2 inch.
Correct Answer
B. 1/4 inch.Explanation
Refrigeration units should be defrosted when ice buildup reaches a thickness of 1/4 inch. This thickness is considered optimal for defrosting as it ensures that the ice does not impede the proper functioning of the unit. If the ice buildup exceeds this thickness, it can negatively affect the efficiency of the refrigeration unit and lead to potential issues such as reduced cooling capacity and increased energy consumption. Therefore, regular defrosting at the recommended thickness is necessary to maintain the optimal performance of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What three groups are food borne illnesses divided into?
- A.
Food borne intoxication, food borne infection, and cyanide poisoning.
- B.
Natural or chemical poisons, cyanide poisoning, and food borne infection.
- C.
Natural or chemical poisons, food borne intoxication, and cyanide poisoning.
- D.
Natural or chemical poisons, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.
Correct Answer
D. Natural or chemical poisons, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.Explanation
The correct answer is "Natural or chemical poisons, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection." This answer correctly identifies the three groups of food borne illnesses, which are natural or chemical poisons, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection. These groups encompass different types of illnesses caused by consuming contaminated food, such as toxins produced by bacteria or viruses, chemical contaminants, and infections caused by bacteria or parasites.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Symptoms of food intoxication commonly referred to as food poisoning, usually occur how quickly?
- A.
1–2 hours.
- B.
2–4 hours.
- C.
4–12 hours.
- D.
6–24 hours.
Correct Answer
B. 2–4 hours.Explanation
Food intoxication, or food poisoning, typically causes symptoms to appear within 2-4 hours after consuming contaminated food. This is because the toxins produced by bacteria or other pathogens in the food take time to multiply and reach a level that causes illness. The onset of symptoms within this time frame is a characteristic feature of food intoxication, distinguishing it from other types of foodborne illnesses that may have longer incubation periods.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Symptoms of food infection, usually occur how quickly?
- A.
1–2 hours.
- B.
2–4 hours.
- C.
4–12 hours.
- D.
6–24 hours.
Correct Answer
D. 6–24 hours.Explanation
Symptoms of food infection usually occur within a range of 6 to 24 hours after consuming contaminated food. This timeframe allows for the bacteria or pathogens present in the food to multiply in the digestive system and cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The delayed onset of symptoms is due to the time required for the bacteria to reach a sufficient level to cause illness.Rate this question:
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- 29.
How long can potentially hazardous foods be in the danger zone before they are considered unsafe for consumption and destroyed?
- A.
Two hours.
- B.
Four hours.
- C.
Six hours.
- D.
Eight hours.
Correct Answer
B. Four hours.Explanation
Potentially hazardous foods can be in the danger zone for a maximum of four hours before they are considered unsafe for consumption and need to be destroyed. The danger zone refers to the temperature range between 40°F (4°C) and 140°F (60°C), where bacteria can grow rapidly. After four hours in this temperature range, the risk of bacterial growth and foodborne illness increases significantly, making the food unsafe to eat. Therefore, it is important to ensure that potentially hazardous foods are kept out of the danger zone and properly stored to maintain their safety.Rate this question:
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- 30.
We prepare potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked, refrigerated, and must be served hot again (leftovers) by reheating it to an internal temperature of at least
- A.
155ºF for at least 15 seconds.
- B.
155ºF for at least 30 seconds.
- C.
165ºF for at least 15 seconds.
- D.
165ºF for at least 30 seconds.
Correct Answer
C. 165ºF for at least 15 seconds.Explanation
The correct answer is 165ºF for at least 15 seconds. This temperature and duration are necessary to ensure that any potential bacteria or pathogens present in the food are killed off, making it safe to eat. Reheating the food to this temperature for at least 15 seconds ensures that it reaches the necessary internal temperature to eliminate any potential foodborne illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What potentially hazardous leftover foods may be frozen?
- A.
Casseroles only.
- B.
Meat sauces only.
- C.
Any food as long as the food depth is not more than three inches.
- D.
None, freezing of leftovers is strictly forbidden.
Correct Answer
D. None, freezing of leftovers is strictly forbidden.Explanation
The correct answer is "None, freezing of leftovers is strictly forbidden." This means that no potentially hazardous leftover foods should be frozen. Freezing leftovers can lead to the growth of bacteria and other harmful microorganisms, which can cause foodborne illnesses when the food is later consumed. It is important to properly store and handle leftovers to ensure food safety.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak?
- A.
120ºF.
- B.
130ºF.
- C.
140ºF.
- D.
150ºF.
Correct Answer
B. 130ºF.Explanation
The proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak is 130ºF.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the most desirable method of thawing food?
- A.
Completely submerged under water.
- B.
At room temperature for no more than six hours.
- C.
Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less.
- D.
In a microwave and then stored under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less.
Correct Answer
C. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less.Explanation
The most desirable method of thawing food is under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40ºF or less. This method ensures that the food remains at a safe temperature, preventing the growth of bacteria. Thawing food in the refrigerator also allows for a slow and even thaw, which helps to maintain the quality and texture of the food. Thawing food under refrigeration is recommended by food safety guidelines to minimize the risk of foodborne illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What does the record keeping system in a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) document?
- A.
What corrective actions are effective.
- B.
An ongoing, effective system is in place.
- C.
The effectiveness of the Critical Control Points.
- D.
Tracks which days and meal periods that HACCP is used.
Correct Answer
B. An ongoing, effective system is in place.Explanation
The correct answer is "An ongoing, effective system is in place." The record keeping system in a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) document ensures that there is a continuous and efficient system established. This system helps to monitor and document critical control points, corrective actions, and the overall effectiveness of the HACCP program. It allows for tracking and analyzing data to ensure that food safety hazards are identified and controlled effectively, and that the necessary corrective actions are taken promptly.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The cooking term “blend” means to mix
- A.
Two or more ingredients thoroughly.
- B.
Two or more ingredients with a circular motion.
- C.
Until smooth, so that the resulting mixture is softened.
- D.
A mixture smooth by using a fast regular circular and lifting motion.
Correct Answer
A. Two or more ingredients thoroughly.Explanation
The term "blend" in cooking refers to the action of mixing two or more ingredients thoroughly. This means combining the ingredients in such a way that they are evenly distributed and incorporated into one another, creating a uniform mixture.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The cooking term “chop” means to cut
- A.
Into very small pieces.
- B.
Into small cubes or pieces.
- C.
Food into irregular small pieces.
- D.
Any food into square-shaped pieces.
Correct Answer
C. Food into irregular small pieces.Explanation
The term "chop" in cooking refers to cutting food into irregular small pieces. This means that the food is not cut into uniform cubes or square-shaped pieces, but rather into smaller, random shapes. Chopping is commonly used for ingredients like vegetables or herbs, where a more rustic and less precise cut is desired. It allows for a variety of shapes and sizes, adding texture and visual interest to dishes.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The cooking term “partially thaw” means to remove your meat from the freezer and place it under refrigeration. Approximately how many hours before intended use should it be placed under refrigeration?
- A.
12.
- B.
18.
- C.
36.
- D.
48.
Correct Answer
B. 18.Explanation
The correct answer is 18. When the cooking term "partially thaw" is used, it means that the meat should be removed from the freezer and placed under refrigeration for approximately 18 hours before it is intended to be used. This allows the meat to thaw slowly and safely, ensuring that it remains at a safe temperature and does not spoil.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The purpose of sautéing food is to
- A.
Seal the moisture inside the food and protect the oil.
- B.
Achieve a higher cooking temperature without the agitation of boiling the food.
- C.
Deliver heat at an even rate to all sides of a food so all parts are cooked at the same time.
- D.
Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food.
Correct Answer
D. Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food.Explanation
Sautéing food involves cooking it quickly in a small amount of oil or fat over high heat. This method helps to minimize water loss and preserve the vitamins in the food, as the cooking time is short and the moisture is sealed inside. At the same time, sautéing allows for browning and flavor development due to the high heat, resulting in a delicious and flavorful dish.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which cooking method(s) transfers heat by conduction?
- A.
Deep fat frying.
- B.
Broiling and grilling.
- C.
Baking and roasting.
- D.
Boiling and broiling.
Correct Answer
A. Deep fat frying.Explanation
Deep fat frying is a cooking method that transfers heat by conduction. In this method, food is submerged in hot oil, and the heat is transferred from the oil to the food through direct contact. The hot oil conducts the heat to the food, cooking it evenly and quickly. This is different from other methods mentioned, such as broiling, grilling, baking, roasting, boiling, and broiling, which use other forms of heat transfer like radiation or convection.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The tip of the thermometer should be inserted when checking meats for doneness to the center of the meat
- A.
Nearest the bone.
- B.
At its thickest point.
- C.
At its thinnest point.
- D.
Away from the bone.
Correct Answer
B. At its thickest point.Explanation
When checking meats for doneness, it is important to insert the tip of the thermometer at its thickest point. This is because the thickest part of the meat takes the longest to cook and is therefore the most accurate representation of its internal temperature. The bone, on the other hand, can conduct heat differently and may give an inaccurate reading. Therefore, inserting the thermometer at the thickest point ensures that the meat is cooked thoroughly and safely.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the internal temperature of doneness for rare cooked foods?
- A.
120°F.
- B.
130°F.
- C.
140°F.
- D.
150°F.
Correct Answer
B. 130°F.Explanation
The internal temperature of doneness for rare cooked foods is 130°F.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The shift leader uses the production log to communicate what information to the servers?
- A.
How much to serve, what ingredients were used, and what utensils to use.
- B.
How much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.
- C.
How much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what ingredients were used.
- D.
What ingredients were used, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.
Correct Answer
B. How much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.Explanation
The shift leader uses the production log to communicate how much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use. This information is important for ensuring consistency in portion sizes, presentation, and proper use of utensils. By providing clear instructions in these areas, the shift leader helps maintain quality and efficiency in the serving process.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The main purpose of garnish is to
- A.
Improve the appearance of the dining facility.
- B.
Increase nutritional value.
- C.
Stimulate the appetite.
- D.
Decorate food.
Correct Answer
D. Decorate food.Explanation
Garnish is used to decorate food. It is primarily used to enhance the visual appeal of a dish, making it more attractive and appetizing. While garnish can sometimes add a small amount of nutritional value, its main purpose is to make the dish look more appealing. By adding colors, textures, and visual interest to the plate, garnish can stimulate the appetite and make the dining experience more enjoyable.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When planning food replenishment of the serving line, what should you ensure?
- A.
Speed of the serving line.
- B.
Simplicity for the line servers.
- C.
Foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling.
- D.
Use the same pans for cooking and serving to reduce the number of dirty dishes.
Correct Answer
C. Foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling.Explanation
When planning food replenishment of the serving line, it is important to ensure that foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling. This means that the food should be transferred directly from the kitchen to the serving line without unnecessary touching or moving of the food. This helps to maintain food safety and quality, as excessive handling can increase the risk of contamination and decrease the freshness of the food. It also ensures that the food is served efficiently without any delays or interruptions in the serving process.Rate this question:
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- 45.
As a safety precaution, never fill pans that contain liquids more than how full?
- A.
One-third.
- B.
One-half.
- C.
Two-thirds.
- D.
Three-fourths.
Correct Answer
D. Three-fourths.Explanation
Filling pans that contain liquids more than three-fourths full can be dangerous as the liquid may overflow when heated. This can cause burns, fires, or other accidents. It is important to leave some space for the liquid to expand when heated, especially if it is a boiling or bubbling liquid. Therefore, filling pans more than three-fourths full is not recommended for safety reasons.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What utensil is used for serving baked fish?
- A.
Slotted spoon.
- B.
Solid spoon.
- C.
Food tongs.
- D.
Spatula.
Correct Answer
D. Spatula.Explanation
A spatula is the correct utensil for serving baked fish. A spatula is a flat, wide tool with a long handle that is used for flipping and lifting delicate foods, such as fish, without breaking them apart. It is ideal for gently transferring the baked fish from the baking dish to the serving plate, ensuring that the fish remains intact and doesn't fall apart. A slotted spoon and solid spoon are not suitable for this task as they are generally used for serving liquids or solid foods, but may not provide the necessary support for delicate fish. Food tongs are typically used for grabbing and turning solid foods, and may not be precise or gentle enough for serving baked fish.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which item is better to carve in the kitchen?
- A.
Ham.
- B.
Turkey.
- C.
Roast beef.
- D.
Meat loaf.
Correct Answer
B. Turkey.Explanation
Turkey is the better item to carve in the kitchen because it is a large bird that is often served whole for special occasions like Thanksgiving. Carving a turkey requires skill and precision to separate the different cuts of meat and ensure that each slice is evenly sized and properly presented. In contrast, ham, roast beef, and meatloaf are typically pre-sliced or easier to carve due to their smaller size and uniform shape. Therefore, turkey presents a greater challenge and opportunity for mastery in the art of carving.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is a good tip to remember when preparing food in the dining facility?
- A.
Only prepare all the food items when directed by the dining facility manager.
- B.
Prepare all the food items as quickly as possible.
- C.
Make sure you measure all the ingredients.
- D.
Open canned items only as needed.
Correct Answer
D. Open canned items only as needed.Explanation
When preparing food in the dining facility, it is important to open canned items only as needed. This ensures that the food remains fresh and prevents any waste. Opening canned items in advance may lead to spoilage and decrease the quality of the food. It is also a good practice to measure all the ingredients accurately to maintain the desired taste and consistency of the dish. However, the most crucial tip mentioned here is to open canned items only when required.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When producing large quantities of food, what is the most important management device?
- A.
Proper serving techniques.
- B.
Progressive cooking.
- C.
Waste control.
- D.
Planning.
Correct Answer
C. Waste control.Explanation
Waste control is the most important management device when producing large quantities of food because it helps to minimize food waste and maximize efficiency. By implementing effective waste control measures, such as proper inventory management, portion control, and recycling, food establishments can reduce costs, improve sustainability, and ensure that resources are used efficiently. This not only benefits the bottom line but also helps to minimize the environmental impact of food production. Proper serving techniques, progressive cooking, and planning are important aspects of food management, but waste control takes precedence in ensuring optimal operations.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When should the Production Log be completed?
- A.
During a break.
- B.
After each meal.
- C.
Before each meal.
- D.
At the close of business.
Correct Answer
C. Before each meal.Explanation
The production log should be completed before each meal to ensure that all necessary information about the production process is recorded accurately and in a timely manner. This allows for proper documentation of any issues or concerns that may arise during production, as well as tracking the progress and efficiency of the production line. Completing the production log before each meal also helps in identifying any potential problems or bottlenecks in the production process, allowing for timely adjustments or interventions to maintain smooth operations.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 13, 2012Quiz Created by
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