3m051 B, Volume 3

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In War and Mobilization Plan 1, Annex GG, the Services force is a composition of

    • A.

      Active duty and Air Force (AF) Reserce officers and Airmen

    • B.

      Active duty, AF Reserce and Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen

    • C.

      Active duty, AF Reserve and ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians

    • D.

      Active duty, Air Force Reserve, and Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians who work in the Services functional areas

    Correct Answer
    D. Active duty, Air Force Reserve, and Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians who work in the Services functional areas
    Explanation
    The correct answer is active duty, Air Force Reserve, and Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians who work in the Services functional areas. This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that the Services force is a composition of active duty, Air Force Reserve, and Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians. Additionally, it specifies that these individuals work in the Services functional areas.

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  • 2. 

    In a wartime environment, when will levels of service be increased commensurate with quality of life programs whre possible?

    • A.

      After M+15

    • B.

      After M+30

    • C.

      After M+45

    • D.

      After M+60

    Correct Answer
    B. After M+30
    Explanation
    In a wartime environment, levels of service will be increased commensurate with quality of life programs after M+30. This means that after a certain period of time, which is indicated by "M" (presumably a specific milestone or event), there will be an increase in the levels of service provided, taking into consideration the quality of life programs available. This suggests that there is a planned timeline for improving the services and programs to enhance the quality of life in a wartime environment.

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  • 3. 

    Why might a force requirement require more than one TPFDD entry?

    • A.

      Split sourcing

    • B.

      Requires multiple pallets

    • C.

      Can not be sent on one aircraft

    • D.

      Requires multiple delivery dates

    Correct Answer
    A. Split sourcing
    Explanation
    A force requirement may require more than one TPFDD entry due to split sourcing. Split sourcing refers to the practice of obtaining goods or services from multiple suppliers or locations. In this case, the force requirement may involve sourcing from different locations or suppliers, which would require separate TPFDD entries to account for each source. This could be necessary to ensure an adequate and timely supply of resources or to diversify risk by not relying on a single source.

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  • 4. 

    Who provides direction to the Services Control Center?

    • A.

      OIC or NCOIC or readiness

    • B.

      Services commander

    • C.

      Group commander

    • D.

      Base commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Services commander
    Explanation
    The Services commander provides direction to the Services Control Center. As the commander of the Services branch, they are responsible for overseeing the operations and management of various support services such as food, lodging, recreation, and morale activities. They provide guidance and instructions to the Services Control Center, which serves as a central hub for coordinating and executing these services on the base. The Services commander ensures that the center operates efficiently and effectively to meet the needs of the military personnel and their families.

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  • 5. 

    At collocated operating bases, what document defines if the host base is to provide food, dining facilities, equipment, and manpower?

    • A.

      Base Support Plan

    • B.

      WMP 1, Annex GG

    • C.

      Mission capability statement

    • D.

      Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Support Plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base Support Plan. The Base Support Plan is a document that outlines the responsibilities and capabilities of a host base in providing various resources such as food, dining facilities, equipment, and manpower. It serves as a guide for coordinating and ensuring the smooth functioning of collocated operating bases.

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  • 6. 

    What percentage of the time phased forces deployment data equates to the wartime feeding population?

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      90

    • C.

      80

    • D.

      75

    Correct Answer
    B. 90
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90. This means that 90% of the time phased forces deployment data is equal to the wartime feeding population. This suggests that the majority of the time, the forces deployed during wartime are equivalent to the population that needs to be fed during that time.

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  • 7. 

    What type of unit type code marries up with other UTCs to increase capabilities?

    • A.

      LWRRA

    • B.

      LWRRB

    • C.

      Lead UTC

    • D.

      Follow-on UTC

    Correct Answer
    D. Follow-on UTC
    Explanation
    A follow-on UTC is a unit type code that marries up with other UTCs to increase capabilities. This means that it is a supplementary unit that is deployed after the initial unit to enhance and expand their capabilities. It is used to provide additional support, resources, or expertise to the primary unit, allowing them to achieve their objectives more effectively.

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  • 8. 

    Which unit type code provides organic beddown support for a population of up to 1,100?

    • A.

      LWRRA

    • B.

      LWRRB

    • C.

      LWRR4

    • D.

      LWRR5

    Correct Answer
    A. LWRRA
    Explanation
    The unit type code LWRRA provides organic beddown support for a population of up to 1,100.

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  • 9. 

    Within how many hours notice must the LWRR2 UTC for active forces be capable of deploying?

    • A.

      22

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      26

    • D.

      28

    Correct Answer
    A. 22
    Explanation
    The LWRR2 UTC for active forces must be capable of deploying within 22 hours notice.

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  • 10. 

    Which force module sets are being phased out?

    • A.

      BEAR and Harvest Eagle

    • B.

      BEAR and Harvest Falcon

    • C.

      Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon

    • D.

      All force module sets are being phased out and replaced with Playbook Options

    Correct Answer
    C. Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon
    Explanation
    The force module sets that are being phased out are Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.

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  • 11. 

    Which force module includes unit type codes that bring the beddown to initial operational capability and Services life-sustaining functions of food service, lodging, laundry, and mortuary affairs?

    • A.

      Open the base

    • B.

      Operate the base

    • C.

      Establish the base

    • D.

      Command and control

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish the base
    Explanation
    The force module that includes unit type codes for bringing the beddown to initial operational capability and providing life-sustaining functions such as food service, lodging, laundry, and mortuary affairs is "Establish the base." This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the necessary infrastructure and support services to enable operations at a new base or location. It involves establishing facilities, logistics, and personnel support systems to ensure the smooth functioning of the base.

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  • 12. 

    Which force module is deployed only to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days?

    • A.

      Open the base

    • B.

      Operate the base

    • C.

      Establish the base

    • D.

      Command and control

    Correct Answer
    B. Operate the base
    Explanation
    The force module that is deployed only to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days is "Operate the base". This force module is specifically designed to provide ongoing support and operations for an extended period of time, ensuring that the base remains functional and sustainable for the required duration.

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  • 13. 

    Who must complete home station training?

    • A.

      Subject-to-deploy personnel

    • B.

      Identified-to-deploy personnel

    • C.

      All Services military personnel

    • D.

      Only individuals that have completed Services Combat Training

    Correct Answer
    C. All Services military personnel
    Explanation
    All Services military personnel must complete home station training. This includes personnel from all branches of the military, regardless of their deployment status or completion of combat training. Home station training is a crucial requirement for all military personnel to ensure they are properly trained and prepared for their duties and responsibilities.

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  • 14. 

    How many tiers make up home station training>

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Home station training typically consists of two tiers. The first tier involves individual and small unit training, focusing on individual skills and small unit tactics. The second tier involves collective training, where units come together to practice larger scale operations and refine their teamwork. This two-tier structure allows for a progressive and comprehensive training approach, starting with individual skills and building up to collective proficiency.

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  • 15. 

    What is the minimum percentage of personnel that need to be trained on the operation of 2 1/2 ton, 1 1/2 ton and 10K forklift postured on LWRRA, LWRRB, and LWRR2

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    The minimum percentage of personnel that need to be trained on the operation of the forklifts is 30%. This means that at least 30% of the personnel must receive training on how to operate the 2 1/2 ton, 1 1/2 ton, and 10K forklifts that are postured on LWRRA, LWRRB, and LWRR2.

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  • 16. 

    How many days prior to deployment are deployable UTCs required to attend Services combat training?

    • A.

      90

    • B.

      120

    • C.

      90-120

    • D.

      90-180

    Correct Answer
    D. 90-180
    Explanation
    Deployable UTCs are required to attend Services combat training a certain number of days prior to deployment. The correct answer is 90-180, which means that they should attend the training anywhere between 90 to 180 days before the deployment. This range allows for flexibility in scheduling the training and ensures that the UTCs have enough time to receive the necessary combat training before their deployment.

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  • 17. 

    What is the mobility A-bag?

    • A.

      Parka, gloves, boots, socks, and other cold weather items

    • B.

      Protective mask, mask filters, gloves, hoods, boots, detection papers

    • C.

      Helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit

    • D.

      A weapon (M-16 or M-9), six ammo clips, ammunition, and night vision scope

    Correct Answer
    C. Helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit
    Explanation
    The mobility A-bag is a bag that contains essential items for military personnel on the move. It includes a helmet for head protection, a web belt for carrying equipment, body armor for protection, a sleeping bag for rest, a canteen kit for hydration, and a mess kit for eating. These items are necessary for soldiers to carry with them during their missions to ensure their safety, comfort, and ability to sustain themselves in various environments.

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  • 18. 

    Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?

    • A.

      Only single parents

    • B.

      All Air Force members

    • C.

      All Air Force members with families

    • D.

      Dual military couples with dependants, and members with civilian spouses who have unique family situations

    Correct Answer
    D. Dual military couples with dependants, and members with civilian spouses who have unique family situations
    Explanation
    The individuals who are required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification, are dual military couples with dependants and members with civilian spouses who have unique family situations. This means that both couples who are in the military and have dependants, as well as members who are in the military and have civilian spouses with unique family situations, are obligated to create and document a family care plan.

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  • 19. 

    What is a fundamental premise of SORTS?

    • A.

      Integrity

    • B.

      Service before self

    • C.

      Excellence in all we do

    • D.

      Pride in one's self and unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity
    Explanation
    Integrity is a fundamental premise of SORTS because it is the quality of being honest, ethical, and having strong moral principles. In the context of SORTS, which stands for System for Operational Readiness and Training, integrity is crucial for maintaining trust, credibility, and professionalism. It ensures that individuals and units adhere to the highest standards of behavior and accountability, which is essential for the successful execution of missions and the overall effectiveness of the organization.

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  • 20. 

    Who provides the overall direction for Services readiness, training and education, and manpower programs through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies?

    • A.

      Readiness, training, education and manpower team

    • B.

      Air Force Institute of Technology

    • C.

      Air Force Services Academy

    • D.

      Air Force Services Agency

    Correct Answer
    A. Readiness, training, education and manpower team
    Explanation
    The readiness, training, education, and manpower team provides the overall direction for Services readiness, training, and education, and manpower programs through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies.

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  • 21. 

    Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations?

    • A.

      Current death

    • B.

      Mortuary affairs

    • C.

      Concurrent return

    • D.

      Temporary interment

    Correct Answer
    A. Current death
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mortuary affairs." Mortuary affairs refers to the program that provides eligible personnel with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations. This program ensures that deceased personnel are handled with dignity and respect, and their remains are properly cared for and transported.

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  • 22. 

    Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

    • A.

      Current death

    • B.

      Mortuary affairs

    • C.

      Concurrent return

    • D.

      Temporary internment

    Correct Answer
    C. Concurrent return
    Explanation
    During periods of conflict, the preferred method of handling remains is through concurrent return. This means that the remains of fallen soldiers are transported back to their home country or place of origin as soon as possible, allowing for timely and respectful burial or funeral arrangements. This ensures that the families of the deceased can grieve and honor their loved ones in a timely manner. It also helps to provide closure and support to the families during a difficult time.

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  • 23. 

    How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two places are not located in the same locale?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    When the shipping facility and the final destination are not in the same locale, only one escort is needed to accompany the remains. This suggests that the escort's role is to ensure the safe transport of the remains from one location to another, regardless of the distance or difference in locales.

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  • 24. 

    Which is not an authorized way to transport a body?

    • A.

      Commercial aircraft

    • B.

      Government aircraft

    • C.

      Hearse or service car

    • D.

      Certified defense attache

    Correct Answer
    D. Certified defense attache
    Explanation
    Certified defense attache is not an authorized way to transport a body. This is because a certified defense attache refers to a military representative stationed in a foreign country, responsible for coordinating defense and military matters. They do not have the authority or resources to transport a body. Authorized ways to transport a body typically include commercial aircraft, government aircraft, or a hearse or service car.

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  • 25. 

    If feasible, remains are shipped to the final destination within how many hours after arrival at the port mortuary?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      24

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    B. 24
    Explanation
    The remains are shipped to the final destination within 24 hours after arrival at the port mortuary. This ensures that the process of transporting the remains is completed in a timely manner, allowing for proper handling and care of the deceased. It also helps to minimize any delays or complications that may arise during transportation. By adhering to this timeframe, the remains can be promptly delivered to their final destination, providing closure and peace of mind to the grieving family and loved ones.

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  • 26. 

    Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death?

    • A.

      Mortuary officer

    • B.

      HQ AFSVA/SVOM

    • C.

      Family liaison officer

    • D.

      Base commander of the deceased

    Correct Answer
    A. Mortuary officer
    Explanation
    The mortuary officer is responsible for opening a new case file and documenting pertinent information when notified of an active duty death. This role involves handling the logistics and arrangements for the deceased, including coordinating with the family, preparing the body, and organizing the funeral or memorial service. The mortuary officer ensures that all necessary documentation is completed and that the deceased is treated with dignity and respect throughout the process.

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  • 27. 

    How long are the mortuary case files retained for?

    • A.

      Three years

    • B.

      Five years

    • C.

      Ten years

    • D.

      Permanently

    Correct Answer
    A. Three years
    Explanation
    Mortuary case files are retained for a period of three years. This means that after someone's death, their case file will be kept for three years before it is no longer required to be retained. This timeframe allows for the necessary documentation and information to be available for a reasonable period of time, after which it is deemed unnecessary to keep the files any longer.

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  • 28. 

    How many times are eligible personnel entitled to military funeral honors?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Eligible personnel are entitled to military funeral honors only once. This means that they will receive these honors at the time of their death, but not for any subsequent deaths. Military funeral honors are a way to show respect and gratitude for the service and sacrifice of the deceased individual, and are typically provided by the armed forces of the country.

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  • 29. 

    In what ways may Taps be played at a military funeral?

    • A.

      Professional musician

    • B.

      Use a high-quality recorded version

    • C.

      Both a and b

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Both a and b are correct because Taps can be played at a military funeral by a professional musician or by using a high-quality recorded version. The choice of how to play Taps may depend on the availability of a skilled musician or the preference of the family organizing the funeral.

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  • 30. 

    Who may waive the requirements to provide honors, if it is necessary due to the requirements of war, national emergency, contingency operations, or other military requirement?

    • A.

      Services commander

    • B.

      Installation commander

    • C.

      MAJCOM commander

    • D.

      Secretary of Defense

    Correct Answer
    D. Secretary of Defense
    Explanation
    The Secretary of Defense may waive the requirements to provide honors if it is necessary due to the requirements of war, national emergency, contingency operations, or other military requirement. As the head of the Department of Defense, the Secretary has the authority to make decisions and grant waivers in order to address the needs of the military in times of war or emergency situations. The Services commander, Installation commander, and MAJCOM commander do not have the same level of authority and decision-making power as the Secretary of Defense.

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  • 31. 

    How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Each fiscal year

    • D.

      Each calendar year

    Correct Answer
    D. Each calendar year
    Explanation
    The Air Force, along with the other Services, submits funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress each calendar year. This means that they provide this information once every year, specifically following the calendar year. Quarterly would mean four times a year, semi-annually would mean twice a year, and each fiscal year would refer to the financial year, which may not align with the calendar year. Therefore, the correct answer is each calendar year.

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  • 32. 

    The one who is in charge of the overall performance and discipline, appearance, and competence of honor guard members is the

    • A.

      Honor guard OIC

    • B.

      Honor guard NCOIC

    • C.

      Honor guard flight NCOIC

    • D.

      Honor guard flight commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Honor guard OIC
    Explanation
    The Honor guard OIC (Officer in Charge) is responsible for overseeing and managing the overall performance and discipline, appearance, and competence of honor guard members. They are in a leadership position and have the authority to make decisions and ensure that the honor guard operates effectively and efficiently. The OIC is accountable for the training, coordination, and execution of honor guard duties, and plays a crucial role in maintaining the high standards and professionalism of the honor guard unit.

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  • 33. 

    The one who heads each honor guard flight, selects the honor guard members for the color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams is the

    • A.

      Honor guard OIC

    • B.

      Honor guard NCOIC

    • C.

      Honor guard flight NCOIC

    • D.

      Honor guard flight commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Honor guard flight NCOIC
    Explanation
    The honor guard flight NCOIC is responsible for heading each honor guard flight and selecting the honor guard members for various roles such as the color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams. They have the authority to make these decisions and ensure that the honor guard is organized and prepared for their duties. The honor guard flight NCOIC plays a crucial role in coordinating and leading the honor guard activities.

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  • 34. 

    How many Airmen make up the color guard?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The color guard is a ceremonial unit that presents and guards the national flag during events. It typically consists of four Airmen, each assigned a specific role. One carries the national flag, one carries the state or organizational flag, and the other two serve as guards or escorts. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 35. 

    Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point?

    • A.

      CCP OIC

    • B.

      CCP NCOIC

    • C.

      Survival Recorvery Center

    • D.

      Competent medical authority

    Correct Answer
    D. Competent medical authority
    Explanation
    The competent medical authority is required to declare death at the casualty collection point. This individual is knowledgeable and trained in medical procedures and can accurately determine if a person is deceased. They have the expertise to assess vital signs, perform necessary examinations, and make an informed decision regarding the declaration of death. The CCP OIC, CCP NCOIC, and Survival Recovery Center may have important roles in managing the casualty collection point, but they do not have the necessary medical expertise to determine death.

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  • 36. 

    When can remains be shipped without processing?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      Always

    • C.

      Only when an aircraft is leaving within two hours

    • D.

      Only when an aircraft is leaving within three to five hours

    Correct Answer
    C. Only when an aircraft is leaving within two hours
    Explanation
    Remains can be shipped without processing only when an aircraft is leaving within two hours. This suggests that there are specific time constraints for shipping remains without processing. It implies that there is a need for urgency in transporting the remains, possibly due to the perishable nature of the remains or the need to adhere to strict transportation regulations.

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  • 37. 

    When do we wash remains?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      Always

    • C.

      Only when an aircraft is not leaving within one hour

    • D.

      Only when an aircraft is not leaving within two hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Never." This implies that we never wash remains, regardless of the circumstances.

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  • 38. 

    The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a Situation Report (SITREP) of the day's mortuary affairs activity at the end of each

    • A.

      Hour

    • B.

      Day

    • C.

      Week

    • D.

      Month

    Correct Answer
    B. Day
    Explanation
    The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a Situation Report (SITREP) of the day's mortuary affairs activity at the end of each day. This means that at the end of every day, the Services Control Center compiles and reports on the mortuary affairs activity that occurred throughout that day. This allows higher headquarters to stay informed and updated on the daily mortuary affairs operations.

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  • 39. 

    Who determines what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site?

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      Services commander

    • C.

      Security forces

    • D.

      Civil engineers

    Correct Answer
    D. Civil engineers
    Explanation
    Civil engineers are responsible for determining what equipment is available on a station that is suitable for the task, considering the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the soil and local conditions and make informed decisions about the equipment needed for the job. The installation commander, services commander, and security forces may have their own roles and responsibilities, but when it comes to equipment selection for the interment site, it is the civil engineers who have the authority.

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  • 40. 

    When there are non-hostile conditions during a search and recovery (S&R) operation, what personnel determines if/when the area is safe to conduct S&R operations?

    • A.

      EOD

    • B.

      NBC

    • C.

      Security forces

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above personnel can determine if/when the area is safe to conduct S&R operations in non-hostile conditions. EOD (Explosive Ordnance Disposal) personnel are responsible for identifying and disposing of any explosive hazards in the area. NBC (Nuclear, Biological, Chemical) personnel assess the presence of any hazardous materials that could pose a threat to search and recovery teams. Security forces personnel ensure the overall safety and security of the operation by monitoring the area for any potential threats or risks. Therefore, all three personnel play a crucial role in determining the safety of the area for S&R operations.

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  • 41. 

    What are the only items that you can remove from remains?

    • A.

      Weapons

    • B.

      Ordnance

    • C.

      Classified material

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three options mentioned (weapons, ordnance, and classified material) can be removed from remains. This implies that these items should not be left behind or included in the remains.

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  • 42. 

    Who evaluates the performance of the search and recovery team during base-level exercises or training exercises?

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      Services commander

    • C.

      Medical commander

    • D.

      Mortuary officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for evaluating the performance of the search and recovery team during base-level exercises or training exercises. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the team's abilities and ensure that they are meeting the required standards. The installation commander plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the overall performance and readiness of the search and recovery team.

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  • 43. 

    What criteria does the mortuary officer use to select team leaders from the Services organization?

    • A.

      Experience

    • B.

      Physical ability

    • C.

      Mental attitude

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The mortuary officer uses all of the criteria mentioned - experience, physical ability, and mental attitude - to select team leaders from the Services organization. Experience ensures that the selected individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle the responsibilities, physical ability ensures that they can perform the required tasks efficiently, and mental attitude ensures that they have the right mindset and attitude to lead the team effectively. By considering all of these criteria, the mortuary officer can ensure that the team leaders are well-rounded and capable of fulfilling their roles successfully.

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  • 44. 

    How many items must we consider before search and recovery operations commence?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      11

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      13

    Correct Answer
    B. 11
    Explanation
    Before search and recovery operations commence, it is necessary to consider 11 items. This implies that there are specific factors or criteria that need to be evaluated or analyzed before initiating the operations. These considerations could include things like safety protocols, availability of resources, coordination with relevant authorities, assessing the level of risk, and planning the logistics of the operation.

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  • 45. 

    Who provides global positioning system and/or optical survey equipment and trained personnel to plot remains, personal effects, and aircraft wreckage?

    • A.

      Services

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Civil engineers

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Civil engineers
    Explanation
    Civil engineers provide global positioning system and/or optical survey equipment and trained personnel to plot remains, personal effects, and aircraft wreckage. They have the expertise and resources to accurately survey and map the location of these items, which is crucial for investigation and recovery purposes. This involves using advanced technology and techniques to determine precise coordinates and create detailed maps of the wreckage site. Civil engineers play a vital role in ensuring the proper documentation and analysis of such incidents.

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  • 46. 

    What does the use of the letter "P" on a remains tag denote?

    • A.

      Processed remains

    • B.

      Packaged remains

    • C.

      Preserved effects

    • D.

      Personal effects

    Correct Answer
    D. Personal effects
    Explanation
    The use of the letter "P" on a remains tag denotes personal effects. This means that the tag is used to identify and label personal belongings or possessions of an individual who has passed away. It helps in distinguishing these items from other types of remains or effects.

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  • 47. 

    Assigned protocol personnel support commanders in the planning and execution of

    • A.

      Their change of command

    • B.

      Sending out invitations for parties

    • C.

      All dinings in and dinings out on base

    • D.

      Official functions and in elements related to hosting distinguished visitors

    Correct Answer
    D. Official functions and in elements related to hosting distinguished visitors
    Explanation
    The assigned protocol personnel assist commanders in organizing and carrying out official functions, as well as handling various aspects related to hosting distinguished visitors. This includes tasks such as planning and executing change of command ceremonies, sending out invitations for parties, organizing all dinings in and dinings out on base, and managing elements related to hosting distinguished visitors. These personnel play a crucial role in ensuring that official events and engagements run smoothly and that distinguished visitors are properly hosted and attended to.

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  • 48. 

    Who determines the distinguished visitor distinction?

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Protocol OIC

    • C.

      DOD Order of Precedence List

    • D.

      Air Force Senior Leader Management Office

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The Commander determines the distinguished visitor distinction.

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  • 49. 

    Who develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field?

    • A.

      Secretary of the air force

    • B.

      Air Force Services Agency

    • C.

      Chief of Staff of the Air Force

    • D.

      Air Force Institute of Technology

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Services Agency
    Explanation
    The Air Force Services Agency develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field. They are responsible for ensuring that protocol procedures are followed and providing support for various protocol requirements within the Air Force. This includes coordinating and executing official visits, ceremonies, and events, as well as providing guidance on proper protocol etiquette and procedures.

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  • 50. 

    What does tradition call for at all military ceremonies?

    • A.

      Flags

    • B.

      Formations

    • C.

      First sergeants

    • D.

      Military bearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flags
    Explanation
    Tradition calls for the presence of flags at all military ceremonies. Flags hold significant symbolism in the military, representing the nation, unit, or branch of service. They serve as a visual representation of honor, pride, and loyalty. Flags are prominently displayed during ceremonies such as parades, funerals, and official events, reminding service members of their duty and sacrifice. They are an integral part of military traditions, paying tribute to the history, values, and ideals that soldiers uphold.

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