3e551 Volume 5 Ure

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) is developed when the Air Force

    • A.

      Will have a permanent presence, developed by CE planners within a limited time frame.

    • B.

      Will not have a permanent presence, quick deployment without full staffing or collaboration.

    • C.

      Will not have a permanent presence, developed in collaboration with other functional areas within a limited time frame.

    • D.

      Will have a permanent presence, developed in collaboration with other functional areas within a limited time frame.

    Correct Answer
    D. Will have a permanent presence, developed in collaboration with other functional areas within a limited time frame.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "will have a permanent presence, developed in collaboration with other functional areas within a limited time frame." This means that the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) is created when the Air Force will have a long-term presence at a location. The plan is developed in coordination with other functional areas within a specific timeframe, suggesting that it requires input and collaboration from various departments or units.

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  • 2. 

    What process is based on a site being selected as a potential operating location?

    • A.

      Site selection.

    • B.

      Data collection.

    • C.

      Storage and access.

    • D.

      Analysis and planning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Site selection.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is site selection. This process involves choosing a specific location for a potential operation. It includes evaluating various factors such as accessibility, market demand, cost, infrastructure, and availability of resources. Site selection is a crucial step in determining the success and efficiency of an operation, as it directly impacts factors like logistics, customer reach, and cost-effectiveness.

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  • 3. 

    What process allows information obtained by the survey to be accessible to the commander and planners?

    • A.

      Site selection.

    • B.

      Data collection.

    • C.

      Storage and access.

    • D.

      Analysis and planning.

    Correct Answer
    C. Storage and access.
    Explanation
    Storage and access is the process that allows information obtained by the survey to be accessible to the commander and planners. Once the data is collected, it needs to be stored in a way that is easily retrievable and can be accessed by the relevant individuals. This ensures that the information can be used for analysis and planning purposes, allowing the commander and planners to make informed decisions based on the survey findings. Site selection and data collection are important steps in the overall process, but it is the storage and access of the information that enables its usability.

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  • 4. 

    Civil engineers are responsible for all of the following except

    • A.

      Erecting temporary shelters for other deployed personnel.

    • B.

      Erecting temporary facilities required by the mission.

    • C.

      Modifying existing facilities to meet the mission.

    • D.

      Constructing facilities required by the mission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Erecting temporary shelters for other deployed personnel.
    Explanation
    Civil engineers are responsible for a wide range of tasks related to construction and infrastructure. They are involved in erecting temporary facilities required by the mission, modifying existing facilities to meet the mission's requirements, and constructing facilities required by the mission. However, erecting temporary shelters for other deployed personnel is not typically within the scope of their responsibilities. This task is usually carried out by other personnel, such as military engineers or logistics specialists, who specialize in providing temporary accommodations for personnel in the field.

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  • 5. 

    What does a well planned and executed deployment depend upon?

    • A.

      Civil engineers planning the overall schedule.

    • B.

      Planner’s ability to produce a comprehensive site layout.

    • C.

      That the planner will do the work prior to arrival of other deploying units.

    • D.

      The Civil Engineers ability to produce a comprehensive site layout of the potential site.

    Correct Answer
    B. Planner’s ability to produce a comprehensive site layout.
    Explanation
    A well planned and executed deployment depends on the planner's ability to produce a comprehensive site layout. This is because a site layout is crucial for organizing and coordinating the deployment of resources, personnel, and equipment. It helps in determining the optimal placement of facilities, infrastructure, and operational areas, ensuring efficient workflow and minimizing potential obstacles or conflicts. A comprehensive site layout also aids in identifying potential risks or hazards and allows for effective contingency planning. Therefore, the planner's ability to create a detailed and comprehensive site layout is essential for a successful deployment.

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  • 6. 

    Wartime planning factors that dictate the scope of facilities are provided by whom?

    • A.

      Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

    • B.

      Baser civil engineer (BCE).

    • C.

      Wing commander.

    • D.

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).
    Explanation
    The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) provide wartime planning factors that dictate the scope of facilities. These factors are crucial in determining the size, capacity, and capabilities of facilities needed during times of war. The JCS, composed of the highest-ranking military officers from each branch of the armed forces, play a key role in strategic planning and decision-making. Their expertise and knowledge inform the planning process and ensure that facilities are appropriately designed and equipped to support military operations during wartime.

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  • 7. 

    The primary mission of a base dictates the initial requirements. Is this all you consider when developing your requirements? Why?

    • A.

      Yes, other missions will be planned for as they arise.

    • B.

      Yes, the primary mission is paramount in the process.

    • C.

      No, you must consider all present and planned missions.

    • D.

      No, you must provide for all present and planned missions.

    Correct Answer
    C. No, you must consider all present and planned missions.
    Explanation
    When developing requirements for a base, it is not sufficient to only consider the primary mission. The base should be able to cater to all present and planned missions. By considering all missions, the base can be designed and equipped to handle a variety of tasks and adapt to changing needs. This ensures that the base remains versatile and capable of supporting different operations effectively. Therefore, it is essential to consider all present and planned missions when developing requirements for a base.

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  • 8. 

    During the planning process, which key item dictates facility hardening requirements?

    • A.

      The overall situation.

    • B.

      The probable type of attack.

    • C.

      The mission to be performed.

    • D.

      The anticipated threat conditions.

    Correct Answer
    D. The anticipated threat conditions.
    Explanation
    The anticipated threat conditions dictate facility hardening requirements during the planning process. This means that the level of security measures and precautions needed for a facility will be determined based on the potential threats that it may face. By assessing and anticipating the specific threats that could occur, appropriate measures can be put in place to ensure the facility is adequately hardened and protected.

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  • 9. 

    Which process is the most critical in the pre-deployment planning process?

    • A.

      Utility siting.

    • B.

      Facility siting.

    • C.

      Aircraft parking.

    • D.

      Force movement.

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft parking.
    Explanation
    In the pre-deployment planning process, aircraft parking is the most critical process. This is because proper parking and positioning of aircraft is essential for efficient deployment and operations. It ensures that the aircraft are strategically placed for easy access, maintenance, refueling, and loading/unloading of personnel and cargo. Effective aircraft parking also allows for optimal use of available space and resources, minimizing the risk of accidents and maximizing operational readiness.

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  • 10. 

    There are no standard apron sizes because they are designed

    • A.

      Individually by the base civil engineer (BCE).

    • B.

      Individually to meet the mission.

    • C.

      Corporately by number of aircraft.

    • D.

      Corporately by sized of the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    B. Individually to meet the mission.
    Explanation
    Apron sizes for aircraft are not standardized because they are designed individually to meet the specific requirements of each mission. The base civil engineer (BCE) takes into consideration factors such as the type of aircraft, the number of aircraft, and the specific tasks that need to be performed on the apron. Therefore, apron sizes can vary depending on the mission and the specific needs of the aircraft and crew.

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  • 11. 

    What is the recommended degree angle of the tactical/fighter aircraft parking arrangement?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    A. 45
    Explanation
    The recommended degree angle of the tactical/fighter aircraft parking arrangement is 45. This angle allows for efficient use of space and easy maneuverability for the aircraft. A 45-degree angle also provides optimal visibility for pilots and ground crew, ensuring safe and effective parking and movement of the aircraft.

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  • 12. 

    Regarding planning principles, what does redundancy refer to?

    • A.

      A facility capable of multiple uses.

    • B.

      Systems which are easily maintained.

    • C.

      Providing alternate locations for command and control centers.

    • D.

      A facility which can maintain operations for the duration of a conflict.

    Correct Answer
    C. Providing alternate locations for command and control centers.
    Explanation
    Redundancy in planning principles refers to the provision of alternate locations for command and control centers. This means having backup facilities that can be used in case the primary command and control center becomes unavailable or compromised. By having redundancy, organizations can ensure continuity of operations and maintain effective command and control capabilities even in the face of disruptions or emergencies.

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  • 13. 

    Of the 10 planning principles, which one describes a facility as being able to be used for multiple purposes?

    • A.

      Resiliency.

    • B.

      Redundancy.

    • C.

      Sustainability.

    • D.

      Interoperability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resiliency.
    Explanation
    Resiliency is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of a facility to adapt and recover from disruptions or disasters. A resilient facility is designed to be flexible and versatile, allowing it to be used for multiple purposes. It can easily accommodate different activities and functions, making it a valuable asset in various situations. Resiliency ensures that a facility can continue to serve its intended purpose even in challenging circumstances, making it an essential planning principle.

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  • 14. 

    During Desert Storm, generators were unable to receive normal maintenance due to a lack of parts. The fact that these generators were able to continue operating under those conditions is an example of applying which principle?

    • A.

      Reliability and maintainability.

    • B.

      Sustainability.

    • C.

      Redundancy.

    • D.

      Resiliency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reliability and maintainability.
    Explanation
    The fact that the generators were able to continue operating under the conditions of a lack of parts suggests that they were reliable and maintainable. Reliability refers to the ability of a system to consistently perform its intended function, while maintainability refers to the ease with which a system can be repaired or maintained. In this case, the generators demonstrated their reliability by continuing to operate despite the lack of maintenance, and their maintainability by not requiring frequent repairs or replacement parts.

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  • 15. 

    Of the planning principles, which one lends itself to individuals to perform to the best of their abilities?

    • A.

      Resiliency.

    • B.

      Accessibility.

    • C.

      Combat siting.

    • D.

      Planning for people.

    Correct Answer
    D. Planning for people.
    Explanation
    Planning for people is the correct answer because this principle focuses on creating environments and systems that prioritize the needs and well-being of individuals. By considering factors such as inclusivity, safety, and community engagement, planning for people allows individuals to perform to the best of their abilities. It promotes the development of spaces that are accessible, supportive, and conducive to personal growth and success.

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  • 16. 

    What planning factors are used to determine your facility and utility requirements?

    • A.

      Parameters to determine base line requirements.

    • B.

      Base lines used in determining facility and utility requirements.

    • C.

      Multipliers applied to base line requirements to determine base population.

    • D.

      Multipliers that are applied to mission parameters in determining base line requirements.

    Correct Answer
    B. Base lines used in determining facility and utility requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Base lines used in determining facility and utility requirements." This answer suggests that base lines are used as a reference point or starting point in the process of determining facility and utility requirements. These base lines could be factors or parameters that help establish the minimum or desired standards for the facilities and utilities needed. By using these base lines, planners can then assess and adjust the requirements based on specific mission parameters or other factors.

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  • 17. 

    What precautionary step do you take prior to applying the planning factors?

    • A.

      Determine facility hardening requirements based on the capabilities of the expected adversary.

    • B.

      Develop the biggest possible picture of the conditions to be faced.

    • C.

      Review your data with the wing command’s staff.

    • D.

      Determine requirements to support the mission.

    Correct Answer
    C. Review your data with the wing command’s staff.
    Explanation
    Prior to applying the planning factors, it is important to review the data with the wing command's staff. This step ensures that all relevant information and data are considered and taken into account before making any decisions or plans. By reviewing the data with the wing command's staff, it allows for a collaborative approach and ensures that all perspectives and expertise are considered, leading to more effective and informed decision-making.

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  • 18. 

    What is a bare base?

    • A.

      A site that has a usable runway, airfield lighting, and an arresting system.

    • B.

      A site that has a runway, taxiway, mobile aircraft arresting system, and a source of water that is potable.

    • C.

      A site that has a runway, taxiway, logistical support. and a source of water that is or can be made potable.

    • D.

      A site that has a usable runway, taxiway, parking areas, and a source of water that is or can be made potable.

    Correct Answer
    D. A site that has a usable runway, taxiway, parking areas, and a source of water that is or can be made potable.
    Explanation
    A bare base refers to a site that has the necessary infrastructure for aircraft operations, including a usable runway, taxiway, parking areas, and a source of water that is or can be made potable. This means that the base is equipped to support aircraft landings, takeoffs, and parking, as well as provide access to water that is safe for consumption.

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  • 19. 

    Who are the members of a two-man site planning team deployed ahead of the team with the command and control force module?

    • A.

      Field grade officer and an engineering professional.

    • B.

      Base civil engineer (BCE) and engineering professional.

    • C.

      Field grade officer and planner.

    • D.

      BCE and planner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Field grade officer and an engineering professional.
    Explanation
    A two-man site planning team deployed ahead of the team with the command and control force module consists of a field grade officer and an engineering professional. The field grade officer provides the necessary leadership and expertise in military operations, while the engineering professional contributes technical knowledge and skills in site planning. Together, they form a well-rounded team capable of effectively assessing and preparing the site for the arrival of the command and control force module.

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  • 20. 

    What team deploys with the open the airbase force module?

    • A.

      Airborne RED HORSE.

    • B.

      Deployment reaction group.

    • C.

      Airfield analysis team.

    • D.

      Site planning team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne RED HORSE.
    Explanation
    Airborne RED HORSE is the correct answer because they are a specialized team that is trained to rapidly deploy and construct airbases in hostile or austere environments. They are specifically designed to open and operate airbases and provide necessary support for air operations. The other options, such as Deployment Reaction Group, Airfield Analysis Team, and Site Planning Team, do not specifically focus on opening airbases and may have different roles and responsibilities.

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  • 21. 

    Who has a vested interest in and responsibility for the flow of bare base assets?

    • A.

      Civil engineers.

    • B.

      Deployment planners.

    • C.

      Expeditionary site team.

    • D.

      Engineering professionals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil engineers.
    Explanation
    Civil engineers have a vested interest in and responsibility for the flow of bare base assets because they are responsible for the design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and buildings. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary infrastructure is in place to support the flow of assets in a bare base environment. Additionally, civil engineers are trained to assess and manage the logistical needs of a project, making them well-suited to handle the flow of assets efficiently.

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  • 22. 

    What basic expeditionary airfield resource (BEAR) set is generally transported in first?

    • A.

      Initial flightline support package.

    • B.

      Follow-on housekeeping set.

    • C.

      Industrial operations set.

    • D.

      Housekeeping set.

    Correct Answer
    D. Housekeeping set.
    Explanation
    The housekeeping set is generally transported in first because it includes essential items for maintaining cleanliness and hygiene in the expeditionary airfield. This set typically includes items such as brooms, mops, cleaning supplies, and waste disposal equipment. Ensuring a clean and organized environment is crucial for the smooth functioning of the airfield and the well-being of personnel. Therefore, the housekeeping set is prioritized to be transported first to establish a clean and functional base.

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  • 23. 

    Which assets would be used to upgrade an initial standard airbase?

    • A.

      BEAR force module kits.

    • B.

      Harvest Falcon assets.

    • C.

      Harvest Eagle assets.

    • D.

      The hardback tent.

    Correct Answer
    A. BEAR force module kits.
    Explanation
    BEAR force module kits would be used to upgrade an initial standard airbase. These kits contain various modules that can enhance the capabilities of the airbase, such as improved communication systems, advanced radar technology, and upgraded infrastructure. Harvest Falcon and Harvest Eagle assets are not specifically mentioned as assets for upgrading the airbase. The hardback tent is not likely to be used for upgrading the airbase as it is a type of temporary shelter and does not provide any significant upgrades to the base's capabilities.

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  • 24. 

    Temporary standard airbases are expected last up to

    • A.

      12 months and where military construction (MILCON) permanent facilities are required.

    • B.

      12 month and where MILCON permanent facilities are not required.

    • C.

      24 months and where MILCON permanent facilities are required.

    • D.

      24 months and where MILCON permanent facilities are not required.

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 months and where MILCON permanent facilities are not required.
    Explanation
    Temporary standard airbases are designed to last for a specific duration before permanent facilities are needed. The correct answer states that these airbases are expected to last up to 24 months, which means they are designed to remain operational for a longer period of time. Additionally, the answer specifies that MILCON permanent facilities are not required, indicating that the temporary airbases are self-sufficient and do not rely on permanent infrastructure.

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  • 25. 

    How are enduring presence construction standards designed?

    • A.

      Designed with finishes, materials and systems for moderate energy efficiency, maintenance and life cycle costs.

    • B.

      Designed with flooring, materials and systems for moderate energy efficiency, maintenance and life cycle costs.

    • C.

      Designed with finishes, materials and systems for maintaining in theater mobilizations.

    • D.

      Designed with flooring, materials and systems for maintaining in theater mobilizations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Designed with finishes, materials and systems for moderate energy efficiency, maintenance and life cycle costs.
    Explanation
    The enduring presence construction standards are designed with finishes, materials, and systems that prioritize moderate energy efficiency, maintenance, and life cycle costs. This means that the construction standards aim to use materials and finishes that are energy-efficient and require less maintenance, leading to lower costs over the lifespan of the building. This approach ensures that the construction meets sustainability goals while also being cost-effective in the long run.

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  • 26. 

    Who provides the initial bare base airfield evaluation?

    • A.

      AFCESA.

    • B.

      Prime BEEF.

    • C.

      RED HORSE.

    • D.

      Contingency response group (CRG).

    Correct Answer
    A. AFCESA.
    Explanation
    AFCESA stands for Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency. They are responsible for providing the initial bare base airfield evaluation. This means that they assess the condition and suitability of an airfield for use in military operations. They evaluate factors such as runway condition, infrastructure, and potential hazards to determine if the airfield can support the required operations. AFCESA plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of airfield operations for the Air Force.

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  • 27. 

    How many additional feet of paved or compacted overrun should be provided at the end of each runway?

    • A.

      500

    • B.

      900

    • C.

      1000

    • D.

      1500

    Correct Answer
    C. 1000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1000 because providing an additional 1000 feet of paved or compacted overrun at the end of each runway ensures that there is enough space for aircraft to safely stop in case of emergency landings or aborted takeoffs. This extra distance allows for sufficient braking and deceleration, reducing the risk of accidents and providing a safety buffer for aircraft operations.

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  • 28. 

    Why should long utility runs be avoided?

    • A.

      They are inefficient and lead to problems.

    • B.

      Greater possibilities of damage during an attack.

    • C.

      Frees mobile utility systems for other uses.

    • D.

      Increased pressure in water lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are inefficient and lead to problems.
    Explanation
    Long utility runs should be avoided because they are inefficient and lead to problems. When utility lines are extended over long distances, there is a higher chance of energy loss and decreased efficiency. Additionally, long utility runs are more susceptible to damage, such as leaks or breaks, which can disrupt the supply of essential services. Therefore, it is important to minimize the length of utility runs to ensure optimal efficiency and reduce the risk of problems occurring.

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  • 29. 

    What key decision has a significant impact on the design and layout of utility systems?

    • A.

      The type and sources of materials to be used.

    • B.

      The number and spacing of utilities plants.

    • C.

      The type of utility system to be used.

    • D.

      Dispersed or non-dispersed layout.

    Correct Answer
    D. Dispersed or non-dispersed layout.
    Explanation
    The key decision that has a significant impact on the design and layout of utility systems is whether to have a dispersed or non-dispersed layout. This decision determines how the utilities plants and equipment will be arranged and organized within the system. A dispersed layout means that the plants and equipment are spread out across the facility, while a non-dispersed layout means that they are centralized in one location. The choice between these two layouts can have a major impact on factors such as efficiency, accessibility, maintenance, and overall system performance.

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  • 30. 

    Which bare base layout provides a passive defense?

    • A.

      Dispersed layout.

    • B.

      Non-dispersed layout.

    • C.

      High-threat area layout.

    • D.

      Low-visibility area layout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dispersed layout.
    Explanation
    A dispersed layout provides a passive defense because it involves spreading out the base's structures and facilities over a larger area, making it more difficult for an enemy to target and attack them. This layout reduces the vulnerability of the base to direct attacks and increases the chances of survival during an enemy assault. By dispersing the base's assets, it becomes harder for the attacker to concentrate their forces and overwhelm the defenses, thus enhancing the base's passive defense capabilities.

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  • 31. 

    When planning your bare base layout, what should you consider?

    • A.

      Functional grouping, base population, natural concealment, low lying level site, and utility access.

    • B.

      Base population, natural concealment, level site, and nearby natural water source, and road access.

    • C.

      Functional grouping, base population, natural concealment, level site, adequate drainage, and adequate site drainage.

    • D.

      Functional grouping, base population, rough terrain to conceal base from observation and provide adequate drainage.

    Correct Answer
    C. Functional grouping, base population, natural concealment, level site, adequate drainage, and adequate site drainage.
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all the important factors that should be considered when planning a bare base layout. Functional grouping ensures that different areas of the base are organized and efficient. Base population determines the size and capacity of the base. Natural concealment helps to hide the base from observation. A level site provides stability and ease of construction. Adequate drainage and site drainage are important for managing water flow and preventing flooding. Overall, considering these factors ensures a well-designed and functional bare base layout.

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  • 32. 

    Which spacing criteria are correct for non-dispersed billeting layout?

    • A.

      60 feet between groups, 30 feet between rows, and 12 feet between billets in a row.

    • B.

      60 feet between groups, 30 feet between billets in a row, and 12 feet between rows.

    • C.

      150 feet between groups and 12 feet between billets, and 60 feet between latrines and billets.

    • D.

      60 feet between billets in a row, 60 feet between rows, and 60 feet between latrines and billets.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 feet between groups, 30 feet between rows, and 12 feet between billets in a row.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60 feet between groups, 30 feet between rows, and 12 feet between billets in a row. This spacing criteria ensures that there is enough distance between groups of billets, allowing for privacy and separation. Additionally, the 30 feet between rows provides adequate space for movement and access between the rows. Finally, the 12 feet between billets in a row ensures that there is enough space for each individual billet, allowing for comfortable living conditions.

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  • 33. 

    When and how can the distances stated as minimums be modified?

    • A.

      Distances may be increased/decreased by 10 feet in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment.

    • B.

      Distances may be increased/decreased by 20 feet in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment.

    • C.

      Distances may be increased/decreased by 10 percent in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment.

    • D.

      Distances may be increased/decreased by 20 percent in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Distances may be increased/decreased by 10 percent in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Distances may be increased/decreased by 10 percent in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment." This means that the distances stated as minimums can be adjusted by increasing or decreasing them by 10 percent in any direction. This allows for flexibility in positioning and taking advantage of natural cover and concealment in a tactical situation.

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  • 34. 

    You can orient the shelters to reduce the effects of solar radiation and wind by the

    • A.

      Long dimension towards the sun, and the prevailing winds.

    • B.

      Short dimension towards the sun and prevailing winds.

    • C.

      Short dimension towards the prevailing winds, and the long dimension towards the sun.

    • D.

      Short dimension towards the sun, and the long dimension towards the prevailing winds.

    Correct Answer
    B. Short dimension towards the sun and prevailing winds.
    Explanation
    By orienting the shelters with the short dimension towards the sun and prevailing winds, the effects of solar radiation and wind can be minimized. This arrangement allows the shelters to receive less direct sunlight and reduces heat gain. Additionally, it helps to channel the wind around the shelters, reducing the impact of strong winds and preventing them from entering the shelter. This orientation ensures that the shelters are better protected from the elements and provides a more comfortable environment for the occupants.

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  • 35. 

    Why should you orient and site facilities to reduce shadows?

    • A.

      Prevent enemy recognition of site.

    • B.

      Reduce the effects of solar radiation.

    • C.

      Minimize passive defense requirements.

    • D.

      Minimize the possibility of enemy recognition of site.

    Correct Answer
    D. Minimize the possibility of enemy recognition of site.
    Explanation
    Orienting and siting facilities to reduce shadows helps minimize the possibility of enemy recognition of the site. By reducing shadows, it becomes more difficult for the enemy to detect the presence of the facilities, making it harder for them to plan attacks or gather information about the site. This increases the security and decreases the vulnerability of the facilities.

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  • 36. 

    Locally constructed revetments are not used around aircraft because

    • A.

      It takes too long to construct.

    • B.

      It is not as strong as steel revetments.

    • C.

      Jet engines may ingest loose material.

    • D.

      The needed materials are not always available

    Correct Answer
    C. Jet engines may ingest loose material.
    Explanation
    Jet engines may ingest loose material is the correct answer because revetments are structures built to protect aircraft from the effects of explosions or shrapnel. Locally constructed revetments, which are made of loose materials, may pose a risk to jet engines as loose material can be sucked into the engines, causing damage and potentially leading to engine failure. Therefore, it is not safe to use locally constructed revetments around aircraft.

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  • 37. 

    The purpose of revetments is to

    • A.

      Serve as attack decoys.

    • B.

      Store unneeded fill material.

    • C.

      Construct contingency water storage tanks.

    • D.

      Protect parked aircraft and essential facilities.

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect parked aircraft and essential facilities.
    Explanation
    Revetments are structures built to provide protection from various external threats. They are commonly used to shield parked aircraft and essential facilities from potential damage caused by natural disasters, such as floods, hurricanes, or earthquakes. Revetments act as a barrier, absorbing the impact of any potential hazards and minimizing the risk of harm to the aircraft and facilities. Therefore, the purpose of revetments is to protect parked aircraft and essential facilities.

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  • 38. 

    Why should revetment cells never be arranged with their open ends facing each other?

    • A.

      Increases jet engine noise.

    • B.

      Taxi response time will be increased.

    • C.

      Easily accessible to an enemy attack.

    • D.

      Chain reaction explosions may occur.

    Correct Answer
    D. Chain reaction explosions may occur.
    Explanation
    Revetment cells should never be arranged with their open ends facing each other because it can lead to chain reaction explosions. When revetment cells are arranged in this way, any explosion or fire in one cell can easily spread to the adjacent cells, causing a chain reaction. This increases the risk of widespread damage and loss of life. Therefore, it is important to arrange revetment cells in a way that minimizes the potential for chain reaction explosions.

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  • 39. 

    How can the effects of an enemy attack be minimized?

    • A.

      Through quick response.

    • B.

      By striking the enemy first.

    • C.

      Through passive defense measures.

    • D.

      By minimizing facilities and equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Through passive defense measures.
    Explanation
    Passive defense measures refer to strategies and actions taken to minimize the impact of an enemy attack without actively engaging the enemy. This approach focuses on fortifying defenses, such as building shelters, implementing early warning systems, and developing contingency plans. By adopting passive defense measures, the goal is to protect personnel, infrastructure, and resources, ultimately reducing the vulnerability to enemy attacks. This approach is often considered more prudent and less risky than striking the enemy first or minimizing facilities and equipment, as it prioritizes protection and resilience over offensive actions.

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  • 40. 

    Which of these airbase operability assessment (ABO) elements would medical care fall under?

    • A.

      Survive.

    • B.

      Support.

    • C.

      Recover.

    • D.

      Generate.

    Correct Answer
    C. Recover.
    Explanation
    Medical care would fall under the "Recover" element of airbase operability assessment (ABO). In the context of ABO, "Recover" refers to the ability of an airbase to restore its functions and capabilities after an incident or disruption. Medical care is an essential component of recovery as it involves providing necessary healthcare services to injured personnel and ensuring their well-being. By including medical care under the "Recover" element, the ABO framework acknowledges the importance of healthcare in restoring the operational readiness of an airbase.

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  • 41. 

    Using the five airbase operability elements as a guide, airbase operability assessment (ABO) assessment’s main focus is on

    • A.

      Direct combat capabilities.

    • B.

      How well the base can work.

    • C.

      How much support host nations provide.

    • D.

      How well we communicate with host nations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct combat capabilities.
    Explanation
    The main focus of airbase operability assessment (ABO) is on direct combat capabilities. This means that the assessment evaluates the ability of an airbase to support and carry out combat operations effectively. It assesses factors such as the availability and functionality of aircraft, weapons systems, and other combat-related resources. The assessment does not primarily focus on how well the base can work in terms of logistics or support functions, the level of support provided by host nations, or the communication with host nations.

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  • 42. 

    As an engineering professional assigned to the emergency operation center (EOC), which search recovery center (SRC) functions would you be most involved in?

    • A.

      Account for casualties and monitor resources.

    • B.

      Monitor material resources and track base recovery.

    • C.

      Determine scope of damage and track base recovery.

    • D.

      Determine scope of damage and account for personnel casualties.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine scope of damage and track base recovery.
    Explanation
    As an engineering professional assigned to the emergency operation center (EOC), you would be most involved in determining the scope of damage and tracking base recovery. This would involve assessing the extent of the damage caused by the emergency situation and developing strategies to recover and rebuild the affected areas. By tracking the progress of base recovery, you can ensure that the necessary resources and actions are being implemented to restore the affected infrastructure and facilities. This role is crucial in coordinating and directing the recovery efforts in a timely and efficient manner.

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  • 43. 

    Who heads the damage control center?

    • A.

      The support group commander.

    • B.

      The base civil engineer.

    • C.

      The chief of operations.

    • D.

      The wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. The chief of operations.
    Explanation
    The chief of operations heads the damage control center because they are responsible for overseeing all operational activities within the organization. This includes managing emergency response and coordinating efforts to mitigate damage in case of any incidents or disasters. As the head of operations, they have the authority and expertise to make critical decisions and allocate resources effectively to minimize the impact of any potential damage.

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  • 44. 

    What is a function of the damage control center (DCC)?

    • A.

      Monitor material resources and disseminate information.

    • B.

      Coordinate civil engineer tasks and monitor response teams.

    • C.

      Track base recovery by monitoring civil engineering tasks and use of critical resources.

    • D.

      Deploy and monitor civil engineer response teams and determine impact of damage on the base’s mission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Coordinate civil engineer tasks and monitor response teams.
    Explanation
    The function of the damage control center (DCC) is to coordinate civil engineer tasks and monitor response teams. This means that the DCC is responsible for overseeing and organizing the tasks of civil engineers and ensuring that response teams are working effectively. They may also be in charge of assigning resources and ensuring that the teams are properly equipped to handle the situation. Monitoring the response teams allows the DCC to assess their progress and make any necessary adjustments to ensure the most efficient and effective response to the damage.

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  • 45. 

    Which team must determine how much airfield pavement damage and unexploded ordnance remains after an attack?

    • A.

      Airfield damage assessment team (DAT).

    • B.

      Explosive ordnance team.

    • C.

      Airfield search and recovery team.

    • D.

      Crater repair team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airfield damage assessment team (DAT).
    Explanation
    The team that must determine how much airfield pavement damage and unexploded ordnance remains after an attack is the Airfield Damage Assessment Team (DAT). This team is responsible for assessing the extent of damage to the airfield's pavement and identifying any unexploded ordnance that may pose a threat. They play a crucial role in evaluating the safety and usability of the airfield after an attack.

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  • 46. 

    What other specialty will you be working with on the minimum operating strip (MOS) marking team?

    • A.

      3E2X1, Pavements and Construction Equipment Specialists.

    • B.

      3E8X1, Explosive Ordnance Disposal Specialists.

    • C.

      3E3X1, Structural Specialists.

    • D.

      3E9X1, Readiness Specialists.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3E3X1, Structural Specialists.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3E3X1, Structural Specialists. The question is asking which specialty will be working with the MOS marking team. The MOS marking team is responsible for marking the minimum operating strip, which is a designated area for aircraft operations. Since the question is related to construction and pavements, it makes sense that the structural specialists would be working with the MOS marking team as they are responsible for constructing and maintaining structures such as runways, taxiways, and aircraft parking areas.

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  • 47. 

    Which team does not work within or for the damage control center (DCC)?

    • A.

      Airfield damage assessment team.

    • B.

      Crater repair team.

    • C.

      Civil engineer control center team.

    • D.

      Minimum operating strip (MOS) marking team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airfield damage assessment team.
    Explanation
    The Airfield damage assessment team does not work within or for the damage control center (DCC). The other three teams, namely the Crater repair team, Civil engineer control center team, and Minimum operating strip (MOS) marking team, are all associated with the damage control center and are responsible for various tasks related to damage control and repair.

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  • 48. 

    The keys in your ability to survive and operate is

    • A.

      Ensuring airfield damage assessment teams are trained in using the base grid map.

    • B.

      Establishing communication procedures during the first sign of hostilities.

    • C.

      Ensuring war readiness materials are on hand in sufficient quantity.

    • D.

      Completing preparation and training before hostilities begin.

    Correct Answer
    D. Completing preparation and training before hostilities begin.
    Explanation
    Completing preparation and training before hostilities begin is the correct answer because it ensures that the individuals and teams involved are fully prepared and equipped to handle any challenges or threats that may arise during the hostilities. This includes being familiar with the base grid map, establishing communication procedures, and having sufficient war readiness materials. By completing these preparations and training beforehand, the ability to survive and operate effectively is greatly increased, as individuals are better equipped to assess airfield damage, communicate effectively, and have the necessary materials readily available.

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  • 49. 

    During a contingency, good radio discipline is necessary to

    • A.

      Prevent enemy jamming.

    • B.

      Provide effective communication.

    • C.

      Prevent unintentional jamming of each other’s transmission.

    • D.

      Prevent “radio dead zones” around the base.

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevent unintentional jamming of each other’s transmission.
    Explanation
    During a contingency, good radio discipline is necessary to prevent unintentional jamming of each other's transmission. This means that by practicing good radio discipline, individuals can avoid interfering with each other's communication signals, ensuring smooth and effective communication. This is crucial in situations where clear and uninterrupted communication is vital for the success of the operation. It helps to prevent confusion, misunderstandings, and potential disruptions that could arise from unintentional jamming.

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  • 50. 

    Why is it important for response teams to practice together?

    • A.

      To establish communication procedures.

    • B.

      To learn their responsibilities and learn to work as a team.

    • C.

      To enable the teams to assemble their equipment and tools.

    • D.

      So the teams will be better organized when responding to contingencies.

    Correct Answer
    B. To learn their responsibilities and learn to work as a team.
    Explanation
    It is important for response teams to practice together in order to learn their responsibilities and learn to work as a team. By practicing together, team members can become familiar with their roles and responsibilities, understand how to effectively communicate and coordinate with each other, and develop trust and cohesion within the team. This allows them to work more efficiently and effectively during actual emergencies or contingencies, ensuring a coordinated and organized response.

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