Npte Physical Therapist Exam Review

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Npte Physical Therapist Exam Review - Quiz

The NPTE is used to evaluate the capability of licensure candidates who have graduated from either an accredited physical therapy program or comparable non-accredited program.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A physical therapist is working in an outpatient orthopedic clinic. During the patient's history the patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff muscles in the past." Which of the following muscles cannot be considered as possibly being torn?

    • A.

      Teres minor

    • B.

      Teres major

    • C.

      Supraspinatus

    • D.

      Infraspinatus

    Correct Answer
    B. Teres major
    Explanation
    The teres major muscle cannot be considered as possibly being torn. The question states that the patient tore 3 out of their 4 rotator cuff muscles in the past. The rotator cuff muscles consist of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. Since the patient reports tearing 3 out of the 4 rotator cuff muscles, it can be inferred that the teres major muscle was not torn.

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  • 2. 

    A physical therapist is caring for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with fibromyalgia and COPD. Which of the following tasks should the physical therapist delegate to an aide?

    • A.

      Transferring the patient during the third visit.

    • B.

      Ambulating the patient for the first time. 

    • C.

      Taking the patient's vital sign while setting up an exercise program.

    • D.

      Educating the patient on monitoring fatigue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferring the patient during the third visit.
    Explanation
    The physical therapist should delegate the task of transferring the patient during the third visit to an aide. This task involves physically moving the patient from one place to another, which can be safely done by an aide under the supervision of the physical therapist. Ambulating the patient for the first time, taking vital signs, and educating the patient on monitoring fatigue require specialized knowledge and skills that only a physical therapist should perform.

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  • 3. 

    A physical therapist is instructing a person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?

    • A.

      Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.

    • B.

      Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.

    • C.

      Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.

    • D.

      Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
  • 4. 

    A physical therapist is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the physical therapist's immediate attention and phone call?

    • A.

      A 8 year-old boy has been vomiting and appears to have slower movements and has a history of an atrio-ventricular shunt placement.

    • B.

      A 10 year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.

    • C.

      A 7 year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days that has history of an anterior knee wound. 

    • D.

      A 7 year-old girl that had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.

    Correct Answer
    A. A 8 year-old boy has been vomiting and appears to have slower movements and has a history of an atrio-ventricular shunt placement.
    Explanation
    The 8-year-old boy's symptoms of vomiting and slower movements, combined with his history of an atrio-ventricular shunt placement, suggest a potential complication or malfunction of the shunt. This requires immediate attention and a phone call from the physical therapist to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action.

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  • 5. 

     A physical therapist is caring for a patient in the step down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

    • A.

      Bradycardia

    • B.

      Increased pupil size bilaterally

    • C.

      Change in LOC

    • D.

      Vomiting

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
    Explanation
    Increased pupil size bilaterally is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure. Increased intracranial pressure can cause symptoms such as bradycardia, changes in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting. However, increased pupil size bilaterally is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. It may instead indicate a different neurological condition or response to medication.

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  • 6. 

    The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

    • A.

      Nausea

    • B.

      Anorexia

    • C.

      Rapid weight gain

    • D.

      SOB (shortness of breath)

    Correct Answer
    D. SOB (shortness of breath)
    Explanation
    Shortness of breath is a common symptom of right-sided heart failure. It occurs when fluid accumulates in the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing. Nausea, anorexia, and rapid weight gain are all signs of right-sided heart failure. Nausea and anorexia can occur due to decreased blood flow to the gastrointestinal system, while rapid weight gain is a result of fluid retention. Therefore, shortness of breath is not an indicator of right-sided heart failure.

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  • 7. 

    A patient has recently been diagnosed with symptomatic bradycardia. Which of the following medications is the most recognized for treatment of symptomatic bradycardia?

    • A.

      Questran

    • B.

      Digitalis

    • C.

      Nitroglycerin

    • D.

      Atropine

    Correct Answer
    D. Atropine
    Explanation
    Atropine is the most recognized medication for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia. Bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate, and atropine works by blocking the action of the vagus nerve, which helps to increase heart rate. This medication is commonly used in emergency situations to quickly increase heart rate and improve blood flow. Questran is a medication used to lower cholesterol, Digitalis is used to treat heart failure, and Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain in angina. These medications are not specifically indicated for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?

    • A.

      PaO2 (91%)

    • B.

      Bicarbonate 159

    • C.

      CO(2) 48 mm Hg

    • D.

      PH 7.33

    Correct Answer
    D. PH 7.33
    Explanation
    A bicarbonate level of 159 indicates a significantly elevated level, which is indicative of metabolic acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, there is an excess of acid or a decrease in bicarbonate levels in the body, leading to a decrease in pH. This can be caused by conditions such as diabetes, kidney disease, or lactic acidosis. The high bicarbonate level suggests that the body is trying to compensate for the acidosis by retaining bicarbonate.

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  • 9. 

    A patient has suffered a left CVA and has developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The physical therapist notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema and the skin is intact. The physical therapist should score the patient as having which of the following?

    • A.

      Stage I pressure ulcer

    • B.

      Stage II pressure ulcer

    • C.

      Stage III pressure ulcer

    • D.

      Stage IV pressure ulcer

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage I pressure ulcer
    Explanation
    The patient's non-blanchable erythema over the left elbow indicates the presence of a Stage I pressure ulcer. Stage I pressure ulcers are characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness. This stage indicates that there is damage to the underlying tissue, but it has not yet progressed to an open wound or skin loss.

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  • 10. 

    A physical therapist working on an ICU unit, notices a patient is experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All of these may indicate which of the following medical conditions?

    • A.

      Patient may have a DVT.

    • B.

      Patient may be exhibiting signs of dermatitis.

    • C.

      Patient may be in the late phases of CHF.

    • D.

      Patient may be experiencing anxiety after surgery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient may have a DVT.
    Explanation
    The patient is experiencing shortness of breath (SOB), calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf, which are all symptoms commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT is a condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg. This can lead to pain, swelling, and warmth in the affected area, as well as potentially causing a pulmonary embolism if the clot travels to the lungs. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are indicative of a possible DVT.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 25, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    AdewumiKoju

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