3d154 Vol 3 &4

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1. Which module of Spectrum XXI is used to manage digital terrain elevation data (DTED) for use by the engineering tools module?

Explanation

The correct answer is Topographic manager. The topographic manager module of Spectrum XXI is used to manage digital terrain elevation data (DTED) for use by the engineering tools module. This module allows for the storage, retrieval, and manipulation of DTED, which is crucial for engineering tasks such as analyzing terrain, planning radio coverage, and optimizing network performance.

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About This Quiz
Atmosphere Quizzes & Trivia

The '3D154 Vol 3 &4' quiz assesses knowledge on atmospheric layers, solar phenomena, and their interactions with Earth. It covers the structure of the atmosphere, properties of the... see moreionosphere, and the impact of solar activities. Essential for learners in physics and atmospheric sciences. see less

2. According to the Assistant Secretary of Defense policy, what additional accessory must the purchaser buy when procuring Iridium handheld terminals?

Explanation

According to the Assistant Secretary of Defense policy, when procuring Iridium handheld terminals, the purchaser must buy an additional accessory called the Iridium security module (ISM).

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3. In relationship to direction finding (DF), as a spectrum operation technician, what must you decipher to help locate and resolve EMI?

Explanation

As a spectrum operation technician, in order to locate and resolve EMI (Electromagnetic Interference), you need to decipher interference reports and customer information. These reports and information provide valuable insights into the specific interference issues experienced by customers, which can help in identifying the source of the interference and taking appropriate measures to resolve it. Radio frequency guides and publications may provide general information about DF, but they may not provide the specific details needed to address a particular EMI problem. Supplemental and closing reports may be helpful, but they alone may not provide sufficient information to effectively locate and resolve EMI.

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4. The three direction finding (DF) methods are used to

Explanation

The three direction finding (DF) methods are used to triangulate signals. This means that these methods are employed to determine the direction or location of a signal source. By using multiple DF methods, such as amplitude comparison, phase comparison, and time difference of arrival, the exact position of the signal can be determined by triangulating the measurements obtained from each method. This is useful in various applications, such as locating sources of interference or tracking radio signals.

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5. What device do you use to determine the virtual height of any ionospheric layer?

Explanation

An ionospheric sounder is used to determine the virtual height of any ionospheric layer. It is specifically designed to measure the reflection height of radio waves in the ionosphere. By emitting a radio wave and analyzing the time it takes for the wave to return after being reflected by the ionosphere, the virtual height of the ionospheric layer can be determined. This information is crucial for understanding and studying the behavior of the ionosphere and its impact on communication and navigation systems.

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6. What two modern remotely piloted vehicles (RPV) are remotely controlled via satellites?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Hawk and Predator. Both Global Hawk and Predator are modern remotely piloted vehicles (RPV) that are remotely controlled via satellites. This means that they can be operated and controlled from a remote location using satellite communication technology.

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7. Which software program contains the Military Communications-Electronics Board (MCEB) Pub 7, Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF)?

Explanation

Spectrum XXI is the software program that contains the Military Communications-Electronics Board (MCEB) Pub 7, Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF). This means that Spectrum XXI is the program used for managing and coordinating military communications and electronics, specifically related to frequency actions.

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8. What antenna type is used for mobile and portable land mobile radio (LMR) installations?

Explanation

The whip antenna is commonly used for mobile and portable land mobile radio (LMR) installations. This type of antenna is compact, flexible, and easy to install, making it ideal for mobile applications. It is designed to radiate and receive radio signals in a 360-degree pattern, allowing for effective communication in various directions. The whip antenna is also durable and can withstand harsh weather conditions, making it suitable for outdoor use. Overall, the whip antenna is a practical choice for mobile and portable LMR installations.

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9. What do computer-controlled automated link establishment (ALE) radios use to allow them to handshake with other ALE radios in the network

Explanation

Computer-controlled automated link establishment (ALE) radios use protocols to allow them to handshake with other ALE radios in the network. Protocols are a set of rules and procedures that govern the communication between devices. In the case of ALE radios, protocols define how the radios establish and maintain connections with each other. These protocols ensure that the radios can effectively communicate and exchange data, allowing for seamless communication within the network.

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10. Before a permanent frequency assignment can be requested, the new equipment must have what approval?

Explanation

Before a permanent frequency assignment can be requested, the new equipment must have the approval of DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation.

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11. Barrage jammers are limited to narrow bandwidths because they

Explanation

Barrage jammers are limited to narrow bandwidths because they require large amounts of power. This is because the jamming signal needs to overpower the original signal in order to disrupt communication effectively. By using large amounts of power, the jammer can generate a strong signal that can interfere with the targeted frequencies. However, this high power requirement limits the bandwidth that can be jammed, as it becomes increasingly difficult to generate and sustain high power levels across a wide range of frequencies.

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12. What level of coordination is required for all electronic warfare (EW) conducted in Canada?

Explanation

The correct answer is "National." This means that all electronic warfare conducted in Canada requires coordination at the national level. This suggests that there is a centralized authority or organization responsible for overseeing and coordinating electronic warfare activities across the country.

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13. What made trunking possible in land mobile radio (LMR) systems?

Explanation

Microprocessors made trunking possible in land mobile radio (LMR) systems. Trunking is a technology that allows multiple users to share a set of frequencies efficiently. With the introduction of microprocessors, it became possible to dynamically assign frequencies to users based on demand, rather than using fixed frequency allocations. Microprocessors enabled the development of sophisticated control systems that could manage the allocation of frequencies, handle call setup and tear down, and provide other advanced features such as prioritization and encryption. This greatly increased the capacity and efficiency of LMR systems, making trunking a reality.

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14. What DOD standard spectrum management system was created to manage the spectrum in peacetime and during contingencies by all services?

Explanation

Spectrum XXI is the correct answer because it is a DOD standard spectrum management system that was created to manage the spectrum in both peacetime and during contingencies by all services. It is a comprehensive system that allows for efficient planning, engineering, coordination, and tracking of spectrum usage.

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15. What are the two primary commercial satellite systems currently used by the Department of Defense (DOD)?

Explanation

The correct answer is INMARSAT and Iridium. These are the two primary commercial satellite systems currently used by the Department of Defense (DOD).

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16. The presence or absence and height above Earth of the F1 and F2 ionospheric layers vary with the position of the

Explanation

The presence or absence and height above Earth of the F1 and F2 ionospheric layers vary with the position of the Sun. The ionospheric layers are formed due to the interaction between solar radiation and the Earth's atmosphere. The Sun is the primary source of solar radiation, and its position in the sky directly affects the ionization levels and height of the ionospheric layers. Therefore, changes in the position of the Sun will cause variations in the presence, absence, and height of the F1 and F2 ionospheric layers.

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17. What component of the ground wave travels directly from the transmit antenna to the receive antenna?

Explanation

The component of the ground wave that travels directly from the transmit antenna to the receive antenna is called the direct wave. This wave follows a straight line path and does not interact with the ground or any other objects. It is the shortest and fastest path between the two antennas, resulting in the strongest signal strength.

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18. Systems Planning, Engineering, and Evaluation Device (SPEED) provides the user with a standard set of software components to

Explanation

The correct answer is "perform radio frequency (RF) link analysis and engineering." The Systems Planning, Engineering, and Evaluation Device (SPEED) is a tool that allows users to analyze and engineer radio frequency links. It provides a standard set of software components specifically for this purpose. The other options mentioned, such as storing communications information, developing loadsets and hopsets, and modifying equipment requirements, are not the primary functions of SPEED.

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19. You can make a long-wire antenna directional by

Explanation

Placing a terminating device at the distant station end of the antenna can make a long-wire antenna directional. This is because the terminating device absorbs the energy that is not radiated in the desired direction, preventing it from reflecting back towards the source. By effectively terminating the antenna, the signal is focused in the desired direction, increasing the antenna's directivity and making it more directional.

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20. Which document is a list of protected, guarded, or taboo frequencies requiring protection from friendly electronic warfare?

Explanation

The Joint Restricted Frequency Listing (JRFL) is a document that contains a list of frequencies that are considered protected, guarded, or taboo, and therefore require protection from friendly electronic warfare. This document is used to ensure that these frequencies are not interfered with or compromised during military operations. The other options listed do not specifically pertain to the protection of frequencies in electronic warfare.

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21. What is the best way to counter barrage jamming?

Explanation

Increasing the operating power is the best way to counter barrage jamming. Barrage jamming is a type of electronic warfare where a wide range of frequencies are jammed simultaneously, making it difficult for the intended signal to be received. By increasing the operating power, the intended signal is amplified, allowing it to overcome the jamming interference and be received more effectively. This increased power helps to overpower the jamming signals and maintain communication or transmission.

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22. Which organization do you contact if you are experiencing electromagnetic interference (EMI) to terrestrial systems from nonhostile sources?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron (85 EIS) is the correct answer because they are responsible for resolving electromagnetic interference (EMI) issues to terrestrial systems caused by nonhostile sources. They have the expertise and equipment to identify and mitigate EMI problems, ensuring the proper functioning of the systems. The other options, such as the Joint Spectrum Center (JSC), Joint Information Operations Center (JIOC), and Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO), may be involved in spectrum management and information operations but do not specifically address EMI issues.

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23. What element of information operations protects and defends information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and nonrepudiation?

Explanation

Information assurance (IA) is the element of information operations that protects and defends information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and nonrepudiation. IA involves implementing measures and practices to prevent unauthorized access, protect data from being tampered with or altered, verify the authenticity of information, maintain confidentiality, and ensure that the originator of a message cannot deny sending it. It encompasses a range of security measures and protocols to safeguard information and ensure its reliability and trustworthiness.

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24. What is the most common piece of equipment for troposcatter communications in the Air Force today?

Explanation

The AN/TRC-170 is the most common piece of equipment for troposcatter communications in the Air Force today.

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25. Which type of international maritime satellite (INMARSAT) terminal is restricted to the continental United States (CONUS) use?

Explanation

INMARSAT-A is the correct answer because it is the type of international maritime satellite (INMARSAT) terminal that is restricted to the continental United States (CONUS) use.

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26. What small task-organized group of parachute/scuba trained AF personnel control air traffic into landing zones (LZ) and drop zones (DZ)?

Explanation

Combat control teams (CCT) are small task-organized groups of parachute/scuba trained AF personnel that control air traffic into landing zones (LZ) and drop zones (DZ). They are responsible for coordinating and directing aircraft during combat operations, ensuring safe and efficient landing and airdrop operations. CCTs are highly skilled and trained in air traffic control, communications, and tactical operations, making them essential in coordinating and facilitating air operations in challenging environments.

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27. Radio horizon distance equates to what?

Explanation

The radio horizon distance refers to the maximum distance at which a radio signal can be transmitted and received without any obstacles or interference. It is typically greater than the optical horizon distance due to the nature of radio waves and their ability to diffract and bend around obstacles. The correct answer states that the radio horizon distance is approximately 15 percent greater than the optical horizon distance, indicating that radio signals can travel further than what can be seen with the naked eye.

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28. In frequency hopping operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as

Explanation

In frequency hopping operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as dwell time. This refers to the duration for which the transmitter stays on a particular frequency before switching to another. It determines how long the transmitter will transmit on a specific frequency before hopping to the next one in the sequence.

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29. The responsibility for organizing, training, equipping, and providing forces to fulfill specific roles of the military departments and services belongs to the

Explanation

The responsibility for organizing, training, equipping, and providing forces to fulfill specific roles of the military departments and services belongs to the military departments and services themselves. This means that each military department (such as the Army, Navy, or Air Force) and each service within those departments is responsible for managing their own organization, training, and equipping of forces. This decentralized approach allows for specialization and expertise within each branch of the military, ensuring that each department and service can fulfill its specific role effectively.

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30. Which occurrence is not an irregular variation of the ionosphere?

Explanation

Diurnal variation refers to the regular daily changes in the ionosphere due to the Sun's radiation. It is a predictable pattern that occurs every day, with ionization levels increasing during the day and decreasing at night. On the other hand, solar flares, sporadic E, and ionospheric storms are all irregular variations of the ionosphere that occur due to external factors such as solar activity, weather conditions, and geomagnetic disturbances. Therefore, diurnal is the only occurrence mentioned that is not considered an irregular variation of the ionosphere.

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31. Prior to submitting an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report for interference discovered during an exercise, you must coordinate the report with the

Explanation

Prior to submitting an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report for interference discovered during an exercise, you must coordinate the report with the Electronic Warfare Coordination Cell (EWCC) or the Electronic Warfare (EW) duty officer. These entities are responsible for managing and coordinating electronic warfare activities and ensuring that any interference is properly addressed and mitigated. They have the expertise and authority to assess the situation, determine the appropriate course of action, and communicate with relevant stakeholders to resolve the interference issue effectively.

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32. Which radio is not a HAVE QUICK (HQ) type?

Explanation

The question asks for a radio that is not a HAVE QUICK (HQ) type. The options provided are Basic HQ, HQ II, HQ IIA, and HQ III. The correct answer is HQ III because it is the only option that does not have the term "HQ" in its name. Therefore, HQ III is not a HAVE QUICK (HQ) type of radio.

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33. Which module of Spectrum XXI is used to automate the process of handling requests for specific frequencies from spectrum users?

Explanation

The correct answer is Frequency assignment. This module of Spectrum XXI is used to automate the process of handling requests for specific frequencies from spectrum users. It helps in efficiently assigning frequencies to users based on their requirements and ensuring the optimal utilization of the available spectrum resources.

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34. Which data item is not found on a Spectrum XXI HF sky wave analysis output?

Explanation

The Spectrum XXI HF sky wave analysis output provides information about various data items related to HF sky wave analysis. The local time period, transmit location, and universal time period are all important factors in analyzing HF sky wave propagation. However, the type of radio being used is not typically included in this analysis output as it is not directly relevant to the analysis of HF sky wave propagation.

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35. What is the worst type of antenna to use for sky wave circuits?

Explanation

A whip antenna is the worst type of antenna to use for sky wave circuits because it is vertically polarized and has a low radiation angle. Sky wave propagation relies on signals being reflected off the ionosphere, and a low radiation angle will result in a significant portion of the signal being absorbed by the ground instead of being reflected back. Additionally, whip antennas have a limited radiation pattern and are less efficient at transmitting and receiving signals over long distances.

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36. The purpose of the Frequency Review Program is to ensure the

Explanation

The purpose of the Frequency Review Program is to ensure that the frequency database accurately reflects current operations. This means that the program is designed to regularly review and update the database to ensure that it is up to date and reflects the most recent information about operations. This is important for maintaining accuracy and efficiency in the frequency database, which is likely used for various operational purposes.

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37. Because of extreme congestion, in which frequency band is new land mobile radio (LMR) assignments usually made?

Explanation

Due to extreme congestion, new land mobile radio (LMR) assignments are usually made in the frequency band of 138 to 144 MHz or 406 to 420 MHz. This is because these frequency bands are less crowded and therefore provide better opportunities for clear and reliable communication.

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38. Most repeater systems operate in what type of configuration?

Explanation

Most repeater systems operate in a half duplex configuration, which means that they can either transmit or receive signals at one time, but not both simultaneously. In a half duplex system, the repeater receives a signal from one device and then retransmits it to another device. This configuration allows for efficient use of the communication channel, as only one device can transmit at a time, reducing the chances of collisions and interference.

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39. What irregular ionospheric variation can actually help HF communications by letting stations propagate on unusually high frequencies or allow sky wave propagation to close stations?

Explanation

Sporadic E is an irregular ionospheric variation that can help HF communications by allowing stations to propagate on unusually high frequencies or enabling sky wave propagation to close stations. Sporadic E is a phenomenon where patches of dense ionization form in the E region of the ionosphere, which is normally too weak for HF communication. These patches can reflect HF signals, allowing them to travel longer distances and at higher frequencies than usual. This can enhance HF communication capabilities and improve the range and quality of transmissions.

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40. How can you submit a joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) report?

Explanation

To submit a joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) report, you can use either a classified or unclassified message via email.

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41. What system has been approved to replace the current instrument landing systems (ILS) in the United States for both civil and military use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Microwave landing system (MLS). The MLS has been approved to replace the current instrument landing systems (ILS) in the United States for both civil and military use. The MLS uses microwave signals to provide precise and accurate guidance to aircraft during the approach and landing phases. It offers improved accuracy, reliability, and flexibility compared to the traditional ILS, making it a more advanced and efficient system for aviation navigation.

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42. What frequency band does the SKE follow-on (SKEFO) system use employing spread spectrum transmission

Explanation

The SKE follow-on (SKEFO) system uses the frequency band of 3100–3600 MHz for spread spectrum transmission.

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43. Which item on the electronic attack (EA) clearance message identifies the geographic bounds for the EA operation?

Explanation

The operating area on the electronic attack (EA) clearance message identifies the geographic bounds for the EA operation. This means that it specifies the specific area or region where the electronic attack will take place. The altitude refers to the height or elevation at which the operation will be conducted. The route of flight refers to the specific path or course that will be followed during the operation. The topographical layout refers to the physical features or characteristics of the area, which may be important for planning the operation but does not specifically identify the geographic bounds.

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44. Normally, on what joint network do tactical air control parties call for close air support?

Explanation

Tactical air control parties typically call for close air support on the AC-18 Tactical Air Request Net. This network is specifically designed for requesting and coordinating air support in tactical operations. The other options, AC-1 Joint Air Coordination Net, AC-4 Tactical Air Direction Net, and AC-19 Fighter Air Direction Net, are not typically used for this purpose.

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45. What type of devices does not require a NTIA approved frequency assignment, but the DOD may require them to be registered in the FRRS?

Explanation

Unlicensed devices do not require a NTIA approved frequency assignment, but the DOD may require them to be registered in the FRRS. This means that these devices can operate on frequencies that are not specifically assigned to them, but they still need to be registered with the DOD for tracking and coordination purposes.

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46. Within how many hours must you submit an initial Air Force Spectrum Interference Report (AFSIR) after an occurrence of the electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. After an occurrence of electromagnetic interference (EMI), you are required to submit an initial Air Force Spectrum Interference Report (AFSIR) within 4 hours. This report helps to identify and address any interference issues in the Air Force's spectrum usage.

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47. What type of satellite orbit is used for intelligence collection, weather services, and navigation because it covers more points on Earth than other types of satellites?

Explanation

Polar orbit is used for intelligence collection, weather services, and navigation because it covers more points on Earth than other types of satellites. This is because a polar orbit passes over the Earth's poles and covers the entire surface of the Earth as it rotates. In contrast, inclined, equatorial, and synchronous orbits have limitations in terms of coverage and may not be able to reach certain areas of the Earth.

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48. What are the three series of long-range aid to navigation (LORAN)

Explanation

The correct answer is A, C, D. This is because the question is asking for the three series of long-range aid to navigation (LORAN). Among the given options, only A, C, and D are mentioned as series of LORAN. The other options do not include series letters that are mentioned in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is A, C, D.

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49. What are the two levels of service the global positioning system offers?

Explanation

The global positioning system offers two levels of service: Standard positioning service (SPS) and precise positioning service (PPS). The SPS provides basic positioning and timing information to all users, while the PPS offers higher accuracy and is available only to authorized users.

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50. Which organization's primary function is to ensure assigned joint task forces (JTF) are authorized sufficient use of the spectrum to execute their assigned duties?

Explanation

The JTF spectrum management element (JSME) is responsible for ensuring that assigned joint task forces (JTF) have sufficient authorization to use the spectrum for their assigned duties. This means that they are in charge of managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum by the JTF, ensuring that they have the necessary frequencies and bandwidth to carry out their operations effectively. The JSME plays a crucial role in ensuring that JTFs have the necessary communication capabilities and can operate without interference from other users of the spectrum.

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51. Which Joint Task Force (JTF) functional component commander is responsible for all theater air operations?

Explanation

The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) is responsible for all theater air operations. This means that they oversee and coordinate all air assets and operations within a joint task force. The JFACC is in charge of planning, directing, and executing air missions to support the overall objectives of the joint force. They work closely with other component commanders to ensure effective integration and synchronization of air power with other elements of the joint force.

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52. The three stages of the deployment phase in their correct order are

Explanation

The correct order of the three stages of the deployment phase is predeployment, deployment, and buildup. This order makes logical sense as predeployment refers to the preparation and planning stage before the actual deployment takes place. Deployment is the actual execution of the plan and the deployment of resources. Buildup comes after deployment and refers to the process of gradually increasing the strength or size of the deployed resources.

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53. Which document lists all individual missions and sorties for a given period?

Explanation

The Air tasking order (ATO) is the document that lists all individual missions and sorties for a given period. It provides detailed information about the tasks assigned to each unit, including the objectives, targets, timing, and resources required. The ATO is crucial for coordinating and executing military operations, as it ensures that all units are aware of their assigned tasks and can effectively carry them out. The other options, Operational plan (OPLAN), Operational order (OPORD), and Flight information publication (FLIP), do not specifically list individual missions and sorties like the ATO does.

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54. When electronic attack (EA) is to be conducted within line-of-sight (LOS) of an area frequency coordinator (AFC) or fleet area control and surveillance facility (FACSFAC), who determines whether an existing clearance is sufficient or a new clearance must be submitted?

Explanation

The controlling AFC and/or FACSFAC determines whether an existing clearance is sufficient or a new clearance must be submitted when conducting electronic attack (EA) within line-of-sight (LOS) of an AFC or FACSFAC.

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55. What Air Force Instruction (AFI) governs the tracking and reporting of personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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56. Which joint standard document lists net group data, call words, call signs, suffix/expander data, frequencies, signs/countersigns, and smoke/pyrotechnics data?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint communications-electronics operation instruction (JCEOI). This document is a joint standard document that lists various important information related to communication and electronics operations. It includes net group data, call words, call signs, suffix/expander data, frequencies, signs/countersigns, and smoke/pyrotechnics data. The JCEOI is used to ensure effective communication and coordination between different units and organizations during joint operations.

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57. What system was born out of the operations security (OPSEC) failures of the Vietnam War?

Explanation

The Revised Battlefield Electronic Communications-Electronics Operating Instruction (CEOI) System (RBECS) was born out of the operations security (OPSEC) failures of the Vietnam War. This system was developed as a solution to the OPSEC vulnerabilities that were exposed during the Vietnam War, in order to enhance the security and effectiveness of communications and electronic operations in future military operations.

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58. In CONUS, special permission must be received to operate the single channel ground airborne radio system (SINCGARS) in the frequency hopping mode above what level?

Explanation

In CONUS, special permission must be received to operate the single channel ground airborne radio system (SINCGARS) in the frequency hopping mode above 1,000 feet AGL.

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59. Automated link establishment (ALE) equipment is comprised of

Explanation

The correct answer is computer-controlled HF radios. Automated link establishment (ALE) equipment refers to a system that uses computer-controlled high-frequency (HF) radios to establish and maintain communication links. These radios are capable of automatically selecting the best frequency and modulation technique for reliable communication. They are commonly used in military and emergency communication systems where reliable long-range communication is required. The other options mentioned in the question, such as advanced GPS landing systems, land mobile radios with cellular phones, and MILSTAR satellite controller systems, are not directly related to ALE equipment.

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60. What is the first thing you look at when selecting an antenna for a HF circuit?

Explanation

When selecting an antenna for a HF circuit, the first thing to consider is the type of propagation. This is because different types of propagation, such as ground wave, sky wave, or line-of-sight, require different antenna designs and characteristics. By understanding the type of propagation, one can choose an antenna that is optimized for the specific conditions and maximize the performance of the HF circuit.

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61. What type of antenna should be used for low frequency and short-distance HF circuits?

Explanation

The near vertical incidence sky wave (NVIS) antenna should be used for low frequency and short-distance HF circuits. This type of antenna is designed to radiate signals at high angles, allowing them to be reflected back to Earth over short distances. NVIS antennas are commonly used for communication within a specific region or coverage area, making them ideal for low frequency and short-distance HF circuits.

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62. Contractors submit frequency requests in support of Air Force contracts through the

Explanation

Contractors submit frequency requests in support of Air Force contracts through the Air Force representative, to the major command (MAJCOM) that administers the contract. This means that the contractors need to communicate their frequency requests to the Air Force representative who is responsible for overseeing the contract. The representative then forwards these requests to the MAJCOM, which is the higher-level command that manages and administers the contract. This process ensures that the frequency requests are properly coordinated and approved within the Air Force structure.

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63. What two agencies must you coordinate with on all electronic warfare (EW) requests?

Explanation

You must coordinate with the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) on all electronic warfare (EW) requests. These agencies are responsible for regulating and managing the use of the electromagnetic spectrum, which is crucial for EW operations. The FAA ensures that EW activities do not interfere with civilian aviation, while the FCC ensures that they do not interfere with civilian communications. Coordinating with both agencies helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of EW operations.

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64. Air Force activities must be careful in procuring and using nonlicensed devices. Which type of equipment is not in this category?

Explanation

Intersquad Land mobile radios are not considered nonlicensed devices because they operate on specific frequency bands that are allocated for military use. Therefore, Air Force activities do not need to be as cautious when procuring and using these radios compared to other nonlicensed devices such as biomedical telemetry, wireless microphones, and wireless local area network access points.

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65. What type of jamming technique may be overcome by manually changing frequencies, limiting output power, using directional antennas, and limiting radio transmissions?

Explanation

Spot jamming technique involves the jammer transmitting a strong signal on a specific frequency to disrupt communications. This type of jamming can be overcome by manually changing frequencies, as the jammer would need to continuously adjust their signal to match the new frequency. Limiting output power and using directional antennas can also help mitigate the effects of spot jamming by reducing the impact of the jammer's signal. Additionally, limiting radio transmissions can prevent the jammer from finding a target to disrupt.

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66. What type of key is required to initiate the pseudo random algorithm for choosing frequencies?

Explanation

The correct answer is Transmission security (TRANSEC). In order to initiate the pseudo random algorithm for choosing frequencies, a key related to transmission security is required. TRANSEC is a term used in computer security to refer to measures taken to secure the transmission of sensitive information. This includes the use of encryption algorithms and keys to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted. Therefore, the key required to initiate the pseudo random algorithm for choosing frequencies falls under the category of transmission security (TRANSEC).

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67. What area of Earth does the scintillation atmospheric belt affect the most?

Explanation

The scintillation atmospheric belt affects the equator the most. This is because the scintillation phenomenon, which refers to the rapid fluctuations in the amplitude and phase of radio waves passing through the ionosphere, is more pronounced near the equator. The equatorial region is known for its complex and dynamic ionospheric conditions, which contribute to the formation of the scintillation atmospheric belt. In contrast, the polar regions and the hemispheres are less affected by this phenomenon.

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68. What radar system gives very accurate aircraft range, elevation, and azimuth information within a wedge-shaped scan area that is 20° wide, 8° high, and 20 miles long?

Explanation

Precision approach radar is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide accurate range, elevation, and azimuth information within a defined scan area. The given dimensions of the scan area match those of a precision approach radar, making it the most suitable option. WSR-88D NEXRAD weather radar is primarily used for weather monitoring, air route traffic control radar is used for managing air traffic in a specific airspace, and airport surveillance radar is used for monitoring aircraft movements within an airport's vicinity.

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69. What type of control is inherent in combatant command (COCOM)?

Explanation

Combatant command (COCOM) refers to the authority and control given to commanders to plan, organize, and execute military operations. Operational control is inherent in COCOM as it encompasses the authority to direct and control forces in the accomplishment of assigned missions and tasks. This type of control involves the coordination and integration of resources, personnel, and assets to achieve operational objectives. It includes the authority to employ forces, assign tasks, and delegate authority to subordinate commanders. Operational control is critical in ensuring effective and efficient execution of military operations.

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70. What type of command has the authority to establish subordinate commands?

Explanation

A unified command is a type of command that has the authority to establish subordinate commands. This means that it is responsible for coordinating and directing multiple organizations or agencies in a combined effort. It ensures that all the different commands work together effectively towards a common goal, allowing for better coordination and communication between different entities.

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71. Which of the following contains the civilian communications infrastructure and the natural phenomena within an area of responsibility (AOR)?

Explanation

Background environmental information (BEI) contains the civilian communications infrastructure and the natural phenomena within an area of responsibility (AOR). It provides information about the environment, including terrain, weather patterns, electromagnetic spectrum usage, and other relevant data. This information is crucial for military operations as it helps in planning and executing missions effectively by understanding the local conditions and potential challenges. FLIP provides aeronautical information, DTED provides elevation data, and FRRS provides information about frequency resources, but none of these specifically include the civilian communications infrastructure and natural phenomena within an AOR.

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72. What times do we use in the electronic attack (EA) clearance message?

Explanation

In electronic attack (EA) clearance messages, the times used are Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) and local time. UTC is a standardized time reference used worldwide, while local time refers to the time in the specific location where the EA clearance message is being sent or received. This combination allows for clear communication and coordination across different time zones.

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73. Intermods produce harmonic frequencies at the

Explanation

Intermods, or intermodulation distortions, occur when multiple frequencies interact with each other in a nonlinear system. In this case, the intermods produce harmonic frequencies at the sum and difference of the original frequencies. Additionally, they also produce multiples of the sum and difference frequencies. This means that the intermods generate additional frequencies that are not present in the original signals, but are related to their sum and difference.

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74. When was the joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) program established?

Explanation

The correct answer is October 1992. This means that the joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) program was established in October 1992.

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75. In which type of electromagnetic interference (EMI) report(s) can you ask for frequency management or quick fix interference resolution capability (QFIRC) assistance?

Explanation

In an Initial or Supplemental report, you can ask for frequency management or quick fix interference resolution capability (QFIRC) assistance. These reports are the appropriate types of electromagnetic interference (EMI) reports where you can request help for managing frequencies or resolving interference issues quickly.

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76. What term is associated with the point where a satellite is the farthest from the center of Earth?

Explanation

Apogee is the term associated with the point where a satellite is the farthest from the center of Earth. This is the highest point in the satellite's orbit and is opposite to the perigee, which is the point where the satellite is closest to the center of Earth. The term "satellite link" refers to the communication connection between a satellite and a ground station, while "orbital period" refers to the time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit around Earth.

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77. Which type of frequency assignment is made only to terrestrial stations?

Explanation

The type of frequency assignment that is made only to terrestrial stations is called "Group." This means that this frequency assignment is specific to stations located on land and does not include stations located in other environments such as air, water, or space.

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78. What operational concept disrupts, denies, degrades, or destroys information resident in computers and computer networks or the computers and networks themselves?

Explanation

Computer network attack (CNA) is the correct answer because it refers to the operational concept that disrupts, denies, degrades, or destroys information resident in computers and computer networks or the computers and networks themselves. CNA involves various techniques and methods to compromise the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of computer systems and networks, including hacking, malware, denial of service attacks, and other malicious activities. It is a form of offensive cyber warfare that aims to exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems and networks to gain unauthorized access or cause harm.

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79. What electronic warfare (EW) subdivision includes signal intelligence (SIGINT)?

Explanation

The electronic warfare (EW) subdivision that includes signal intelligence (SIGINT) is electronic warfare support (ES). Electronic warfare support involves the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information about enemy electromagnetic emissions, including communication signals, radar signals, and electronic warfare signals. SIGINT is a critical component of electronic warfare support, as it focuses on intercepting and analyzing enemy signals to gain intelligence and situational awareness. Electronic attack (EA) involves using electromagnetic energy to attack enemy systems, military deception (MD) involves manipulating enemy perceptions, and electronic protection (EP) involves protecting friendly systems from electronic threats.

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80. What satellite system consists of 66 low-earth orbiting (LEO) satellites and provides essential worldwide communications where terrestrial communications are not available?

Explanation

Iridium is the correct answer because it is a satellite system that consists of 66 low-earth orbiting (LEO) satellites. It provides essential worldwide communications in areas where terrestrial communications are not available.

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81. What regular ionospheric variation is attributed to Earth's revolving around the Sun and the tilting of Earth's axis during this rotation?

Explanation

Seasonal variations in the ionosphere are attributed to Earth's revolving around the Sun and the tilting of Earth's axis during this rotation. As Earth moves around the Sun, the intensity and angle of sunlight reaching different parts of the planet change, resulting in variations in the ionosphere. Additionally, the tilt of Earth's axis causes different regions to experience different amounts of sunlight throughout the year, leading to seasonal variations in the ionosphere. Therefore, the correct answer is seasonal variations.

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82. In what frequency band does the HAVE QUICK (HQ) radio operate?

Explanation

The correct answer is UHF. UHF stands for Ultra High Frequency, which refers to the frequency band between 300 MHz and 3 GHz. HAVE QUICK (HQ) radio operates in this frequency band, which is commonly used for military communications due to its ability to provide long-range communication and resistance to interference.

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83. What three items form the joint tactical radio (JTR) set?

Explanation

The joint tactical radio (JTR) set consists of three items: the Wideband networking waveform (WNW), network services, and the programmable radio set. These three components work together to provide effective and efficient communication capabilities in tactical operations. The WNW enables high-speed data transmission, network services facilitate connectivity and management of the network, and the programmable radio set allows for customization and adaptability to different communication requirements.

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84. What type of basic radar system cannot give range but can give target speed?

Explanation

Continuous wave (CW) Doppler radar is a type of basic radar system that can give target speed but cannot give range. This is because CW radar continuously emits a signal without any interruptions, making it unable to measure the time it takes for the signal to travel to the target and back, which is necessary for determining range. However, it can still measure the change in frequency of the signal reflected off a moving target, allowing it to calculate the target's speed.

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85. What is the area of silence between the weakest ground wave reception and the point the sky wave first returns to Earth called?

Explanation

The area of silence between the weakest ground wave reception and the point the sky wave first returns to Earth is called the skip zone. This refers to the region where the signal strength is too weak to be received by ground wave propagation, but the sky wave has not yet returned to the Earth's surface.

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86. For tactical air navigational (TACAN) proposals, individual proposals are sent for each state when the number of states involved is less than

Explanation

When the number of states involved in tactical air navigational (TACAN) proposals is less than 7, individual proposals are sent for each state. This means that if there are 6 or fewer states involved, separate proposals will be sent for each state. However, if there are 7 or more states involved, it is likely that a different approach or process is followed for handling the proposals.

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87. What four frequencies are assigned to the station keeping equipment (SKE) for continental United Sates (CONUS) use?

Explanation

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88. Which type of assignment is valid for an unspecified period of time, but requires a periodic review?

Explanation

A regular assignment is valid for an unspecified period of time but requires a periodic review. This means that the assignment does not have a fixed end date but needs to be reviewed or evaluated at regular intervals to assess its progress or effectiveness. In contrast, temporary assignments have a specific end date, trial assignments are for a limited trial period, and group assignments involve working with others towards a common goal.

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89. The Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO) requires additional lead time beyond the normal requirement to coordinate with what two national agencies?

Explanation

The Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO) requires additional lead time beyond the normal requirement to coordinate with the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) and the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA). This suggests that these two national agencies play a crucial role in managing and coordinating spectrum usage for the Air Force. The FCC regulates and manages the civilian use of the radio frequency spectrum, while the FAA is responsible for regulating and overseeing civil aviation within the United States. Therefore, it is important for the AFSMO to coordinate with these agencies to ensure effective and efficient spectrum management for the Air Force.

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90. What part of the atmosphere extends from Earth's surface to heights of about 7.5 miles above Earth?

Explanation

The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 7.5 miles above the Earth. It is where weather occurs and where most of the Earth's air mass is found. The other options, including the ionosphere, mesosphere, and stratosphere, are higher layers of the atmosphere that extend beyond the troposphere.

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91. What irregular ionospheric variation produces a burst of radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum and may last from minutes to hours in duration?

Explanation

Solar flares are irregular ionospheric variations that produce a burst of radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum. These flares can last from minutes to hours in duration. Sporadic E refers to a different type of irregular ionospheric variation, while the 27-day and 11-year sunspot cycles are not directly related to the production of bursts of radiation.

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92. What type of satellite, as viewed from Earth, appears to rise from one horizon and set on the opposite horizon each day?

Explanation

Non-synchronous satellites, as viewed from Earth, appear to rise from one horizon and set on the opposite horizon each day. This is because non-synchronous satellites have an orbital period that is not synchronized with the rotation of the Earth. As a result, they appear to move across the sky in a different pattern each day, rising and setting at different times.

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93. Which type of planning is conducted to prepare for contingent situations and for what type scenario is it usually used?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is conducted to prepare for contingent situations, which are potential events that may or may not occur. It involves analyzing different scenarios and developing strategies to handle them. In this case, the planning is specifically focused on likely scenarios, which are situations that have a higher probability of occurring. This type of planning helps organizations to be proactive and prepared for potential challenges or opportunities that may arise in the future.

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94. Electronic warfare (EW) training packages used during CONUS exercises are usually classified as

Explanation

The correct answer is CONFIDENTIAL. Electronic warfare (EW) training packages used during CONUS exercises are typically classified as CONFIDENTIAL. This means that the information contained in these training packages is sensitive and could cause damage to national security if disclosed. The classification level indicates that the information is intended to be kept confidential and shared only with individuals who have the appropriate security clearance.

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95. What was the old power level restriction for Federal Communication Commission (FCC) spread spectrum operations?

Explanation

The old power level restriction for Federal Communication Commission (FCC) spread spectrum operations was less than 1 watt. This means that the power level used for spread spectrum operations had to be below 1 watt.

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96. In what frequency band does the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) radio operate?

Explanation

The Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) radio operates in the VHF frequency band. VHF stands for Very High Frequency and typically ranges from 30 to 300 MHz. This frequency band is commonly used for communication purposes as it provides good range and penetration through obstacles such as buildings and foliage. SINCGARS radios are widely used by the military for secure voice and data communication in various operational environments.

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97. What system has been identified as the "backbone communication system of the maneuver brigade"?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced position location and reporting system (EPLRS). EPLRS has been identified as the "backbone communication system of the maneuver brigade". This system provides enhanced position location and reporting capabilities, allowing for improved situational awareness and communication within the brigade. It is specifically designed for tactical military operations and is widely used by maneuver brigades for efficient and effective communication.

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98. Joint tactical information distribution system/multifunctional information distribution system (JTIDS/MIDS) terminals are designed to exclude JTIDS/MIDS transmissions between which frequency ranges?

Explanation

JTIDS/MIDS terminals are designed to exclude transmissions between the frequency ranges of 1,008 to 1,053 MHz and 1,065 to 1,113 MHz.

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99. What high-powered radar system is designed for long-range detection of hostile aircraft and control of friendly aircraft?

Explanation

The correct answer is Aircraft control and warning radar (AC&W). This radar system is specifically designed for long-range detection of hostile aircraft and control of friendly aircraft. It is used to provide early warning of potential threats and to ensure the safe and efficient operation of aircraft in a given airspace. AC&W radar systems are typically used by military organizations and air traffic control agencies to monitor and manage aircraft movements.

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100. Which type of frequency application do you use to update or apply for a period of operation extension of a temporary or trial assignment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Renewal." Renewal is the type of frequency application that is used to update or apply for a period of operation extension for a temporary or trial assignment. This means that when the initial period of operation for a temporary or trial assignment is coming to an end, a renewal application is submitted to extend the period of operation. This allows for the continuation of the assignment beyond its original timeframe.

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101. What operational function is vital to the broad range of US political, military, economic, and informational activities, including support of command and control (C2) during C2 attack and C2 protect operations?

Explanation

Psychological operations (PSYOPS) is the correct answer because it is an operational function that is vital to a broad range of US political, military, economic, and informational activities. PSYOPS involves using psychological techniques to influence the emotions, attitudes, and behavior of targeted individuals or groups. It plays a crucial role in supporting command and control (C2) during C2 attack and C2 protect operations by shaping perceptions, influencing decision-making, and undermining the enemy's morale and will to fight. This makes PSYOPS an essential tool in achieving strategic objectives and maintaining operational effectiveness.

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102. What system provides a robust, on-the move, high-speed, automated data exchange using a contention-free networking architecture and supports the Army's battle command system?

Explanation

The Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) provides a robust, on-the-move, high-speed, automated data exchange using a contention-free networking architecture. It supports the Army's battle command system by allowing for efficient and reliable communication between military units. EPLRS enables real-time situational awareness and facilitates the exchange of critical information, enhancing the effectiveness and coordination of military operations.

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103. Which radio covers the entire 136 to 174 MHz band and is used by special operations forces for squad communications?

Explanation

The correct answer is Miniature Secure Handheld Radio (MSHR). This radio covers the entire 136 to 174 MHz band and is used by special operations forces for squad communications. This implies that it is specifically designed for secure and reliable communication within a squad, making it an ideal choice for special operations forces. The other options mentioned do not cover the entire frequency band or may not be specifically designed for squad communications.

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104. How do you determine the maximum range or distance that a radar system can detect a target?

Explanation

To determine the maximum range or distance that a radar system can detect a target, you need to divide the pulse recurrence time by 12.36 microseconds. This calculation takes into account the time it takes for the radar system to send out a pulse and receive the echo back from the target. By dividing the pulse recurrence time by 12.36 microseconds, you can calculate the maximum range or distance that the radar system can detect the target accurately.

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105. The delay satellite is a form of what type of satellite?

Explanation

An active satellite is a type of satellite that actively transmits signals or data back to Earth. It is equipped with its own power source and communication systems, allowing it to actively engage in communication and data transmission. In contrast, a passive satellite relies on reflecting or redirecting signals from other sources. The given answer, "Active," correctly identifies the delay satellite as a type of active satellite.

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106. What navigational aid (NAVAID) system as the localizer and glide slope directional transmitters?

Explanation

The correct answer is Instrument landing system (ILS). The ILS is a navigational aid system that uses localizer and glide slope directional transmitters to guide aircraft during the approach and landing phase. The localizer provides lateral guidance, ensuring that the aircraft stays on the correct alignment with the runway, while the glide slope provides vertical guidance, helping the pilot maintain the correct descent path. This system is commonly used in airports to assist pilots in landing safely, especially in low visibility conditions.

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107. What instrument landing system (ILS) component sends signals that provide pilots with horizontal guidance (bearing) to runway centerline and a three-letter Morse code identifier?

Explanation

The instrument landing system (ILS) component that sends signals providing pilots with horizontal guidance to the runway centerline and a three-letter Morse code identifier is the localizer. The localizer helps pilots align their aircraft with the runway and provides them with accurate lateral guidance during the approach and landing phase. The glide slope, inner marker, and middle marker are other components of the ILS system but they do not specifically provide horizontal guidance to the runway centerline.

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108. What agency provides day-to-day network management of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) and delegates the authority for satellite resource allocation in support of the ground mobile forces (GMF) system?  

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) provides day-to-day network management of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) and delegates the authority for satellite resource allocation in support of the ground mobile forces (GMF) system.

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109. Which members of the information operations (IO) cell identify the frequencies that are published in the joint restricted frequency listing (JRFL)?

Explanation

J2 and J3 members of the information operations (IO) cell are responsible for identifying the frequencies that are published in the joint restricted frequency listing (JRFL).

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110. As a general rule, theater joint frequency management offices require how many days lead time to process peacetime overseas requirements?

Explanation

Theater joint frequency management offices typically require 90 days lead time to process peacetime overseas requirements. This means that individuals or organizations need to submit their requests at least 90 days in advance to ensure that the necessary frequency management processes can be completed in a timely manner. This lead time allows for proper coordination and allocation of frequencies for theater operations.

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111. The low-density stream of charged particles emitted from the Sun is known as what?

Explanation

The low-density stream of charged particles emitted from the Sun is known as solar wind. Solar wind is a continuous flow of plasma consisting of electrons, protons, and alpha particles that are released from the outer layer of the Sun's atmosphere. These particles travel at high speeds and can have a significant impact on the Earth's magnetosphere and the formation of auroras.

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112. Where can you find in most current information on the fielding of Land Mobile Radio systems?

Explanation

The most current information on the fielding of Land Mobile Radio systems can be found in the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) manual.

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113. What ionospheric layer reflects HF signals during the daytime?

Explanation

During the daytime, the F2 layer of the ionosphere reflects HF signals. The F2 layer is the highest layer of the ionosphere, located approximately 200-400 km above the Earth's surface. It is known for its ability to reflect high-frequency (HF) radio waves, allowing for long-distance communication. This layer is particularly active during the daytime due to the presence of solar radiation, which ionizes the atoms and molecules in the F2 layer, making it highly reflective.

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114. What solar effect arrives in the atmosphere two to three days after being released from the sun and can cause low-earth orbiting (LEO) satellites to slow down?

Explanation

Electrically charged particle clouds, also known as coronal mass ejections (CMEs), are released from the sun and take two to three days to reach the Earth's atmosphere. These CMEs consist of charged particles, such as protons and electrons, that can interact with the Earth's magnetic field. When they do, they can cause disturbances in the magnetosphere, which can lead to the deceleration of low-earth orbiting satellites. Therefore, electrically charged particle clouds are the solar effect that can cause satellites to slow down.

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115. What is the term used to identify time between radar pulses?

Explanation

The term used to identify the time between radar pulses is pulse recurrence time. This refers to the time interval between the start of one pulse and the start of the next pulse in a radar system. It is an important parameter that determines the rate at which pulses are transmitted and the maximum range that can be achieved by the radar system.

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116. Which long-range aid to navigation (LORAN) system operates on a center frequency of 100 kHz and is programmed to use six different types of pulse repetition rate (PRR)?

Explanation

One possible explanation for the correct answer C is that the long-range aid to navigation (LORAN) system mentioned in the question operates on a center frequency of 100 kHz and is programmed to use six different types of pulse repetition rate (PRR). This suggests that the LORAN system has the capability to transmit signals at different rates, which can be used for various navigational purposes.

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117. What division of the joint task force (JTF) commander's staff plans, coordinates, and integrates operations to accomplish the assigned mission?

Explanation

The Operations Directorate (J-3) is responsible for planning, coordinating, and integrating operations to accomplish the assigned mission within the joint task force (JTF) commander's staff. This division focuses on the execution of military operations, ensuring that all resources and assets are effectively utilized to achieve the objectives of the mission. They work closely with other directorates and units to develop operational plans, synchronize activities, and provide guidance for the successful completion of the mission.

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118. What does the Systems Planning, Engineering, and Evaluation Device (SPEED) fully integrated system do?

Explanation

The Systems Planning, Engineering, and Evaluation Device (SPEED) fully integrated system is responsible for generating, storing, and disseminating communications information. It does not specifically mention the other options such as having twelve spectrum modules for communications plan development, building Joint Communications-Electronics Operation Instructions (JCEOI), or developing loadsets, hopsets, and Digital Terrain Elevation Data (DTED). Therefore, the correct answer is that SPEED generates, stores, and disseminates communications information.

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119. Earth's atmosphere is broken down into how many layers?

Explanation

The Earth's atmosphere is broken down into five layers. These layers, starting from the Earth's surface and moving upwards, are the troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. Each layer has its own unique characteristics and plays a vital role in protecting and sustaining life on Earth.

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120. System gains or losses can be calculated by

Explanation

The correct answer is comparing the new system values against its old value at the Log rate which applies to that factor. This method allows for the evaluation of any changes or improvements in the system by comparing the current values with the previous values at the appropriate logarithmic rate. By doing so, it provides a reliable measure of the system's performance and any gains or losses that may have occurred.

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121. During extreme communications conditions, you may use enemy frequencies to send your traffic when such action is approved by

Explanation

During extreme communications conditions, the J–2 directorate may approve the use of enemy frequencies to send traffic. The J–2 directorate is responsible for intelligence and counterintelligence, and they would have the necessary information and expertise to make such a decision. The J–6 directorate is responsible for command, control, communications, and computer systems, but they may not have the same level of knowledge about enemy frequencies. The Joint frequency management office (JFMO) and Joint spectrum management element (JSME) are also involved in managing frequencies, but they may not have the authority to approve the use of enemy frequencies.

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122. The joint tactical radio system (JTRS) is a family of radios designed aroun

Explanation

The correct answer is software communications architecture (SCA). The question is asking about the design of the joint tactical radio system (JTRS) and which feature it is based on. The JTRS is designed around the software communications architecture (SCA), which is a set of specifications that allows for the development of software-defined radios. This architecture enables interoperability and flexibility in communication systems by separating the hardware from the software, allowing for easy upgrades and reconfiguration.

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123. During which phase of crisis action planning (CAP) is the combatant commander's selected course of action (COA) transformed into an operational order (OPORD)?

Explanation

During CAP Phase 5: Execution Planning, the combatant commander's selected course of action (COA) is transformed into an operational order (OPORD). This phase involves detailed planning and coordination to ensure that all necessary resources, personnel, and logistics are properly allocated and prepared for the execution of the chosen COA. It includes developing timelines, assigning responsibilities, and finalizing the specific details and instructions that will guide the implementation of the COA. This phase is crucial in translating the strategic decisions made in previous phases into actionable plans that can be effectively executed on the ground.

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124. For geographical areas not under control of an area frequency coordinator (AFC) or Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility (FACSFAC), who must electronic attack (EA) users coordinate requests through?

Explanation

Electronic attack (EA) users coordinate requests through their respective service POC. This means that if a geographical area is not under the control of an AFC or FACSFAC, the EA users need to coordinate their requests through the Point of Contact (POC) designated by their own service. This ensures that there is a centralized coordination and communication channel for EA activities, even in areas where there is no AFC or FACSFAC in control.

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125. Which organization manages the joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) program for the DOD?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Spectrum Center (JSC). The Joint Spectrum Center (JSC) is the organization that manages the joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) program for the DOD. They are responsible for ensuring efficient and effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by coordinating and resolving spectrum interference issues.

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126. Which organization is responsible for providing signal intelligence (SIGINT) support for spectrum-use efforts of the combatant commanders as designated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Director, National Security Agency (DIRNSA)." The National Security Agency (NSA) is responsible for providing signal intelligence (SIGINT) support for spectrum-use efforts of the combatant commanders as designated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS). The NSA is an intelligence agency of the United States Department of Defense and is responsible for gathering and analyzing information from foreign signals to support national security and military operations. As the director of the NSA, the DIRNSA oversees and coordinates these SIGINT efforts.

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127. What navigational aid (NAVAID) system transmits a rotating heart-shaped radiation pattern, a nine-lobed pattern, plus a distance measuring equipment (DME) beacon?

Explanation

TACAN is a navigational aid system that transmits a rotating heart-shaped radiation pattern and a nine-lobed pattern, along with a DME beacon. The other options, ILS, VOR, and LORAN, do not have these specific characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is TACAN.

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128. Which marker beacon indicates a position at which an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the localizer course will intercept the instrument landing system (ILS) glide path?

Explanation

The marker beacon that indicates a position at which an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the localizer course will intercept the ILS glide path is the Outer marker. The Outer marker is typically located 4 to 7 nautical miles from the runway threshold and is used as a reference point for pilots to begin their descent and prepare for the final approach. Once the aircraft passes the Outer marker, it should be established on the localizer course and descending towards the glide path to ensure a safe landing.

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129. How many nautical miles is the extended range of the enhanced traffic collision avoidance system (E-TCAS)?

Explanation

The extended range of the enhanced traffic collision avoidance system (E-TCAS) is 40 nautical miles. This means that the system is able to detect and provide warnings for potential collisions with other aircraft within a radius of 40 nautical miles.

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130. What method(s) do joint task force (JTF) components utilize to supply spectrum use information to the Joint Spectrum Management Element (JSME)?

Explanation

Joint Task Force (JTF) components utilize the Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF) or Master Net Listing (MNL) to supply spectrum use information to the Joint Spectrum Management Element (JSME). These formats provide a standardized and organized way to document and communicate spectrum use within the JTF. The SFAF is used to document frequency assignments and changes, while the MNL provides a comprehensive list of all frequencies and nets used by the JTF. By using these formats, the JTF components ensure efficient and effective spectrum management and coordination with the JSME.

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131. Which person or organization determines the international distress and emergency frequencies that do not need specific assignment outside the United States and possessions (US&P)?

Explanation

The theater commanders and host nations are responsible for determining the international distress and emergency frequencies that do not need specific assignment outside the United States and possessions (US&P). They have the authority to allocate and manage these frequencies in order to ensure effective communication during distress and emergency situations. The Joint Spectrum Management Office is responsible for overall spectrum management within the US&P, but in this specific case, the responsibility lies with the theater commanders and host nations. The OCONUS installation commanders may have some role in managing frequencies within their specific installations, but they do not have the authority to determine international distress and emergency frequencies. The International Telecommunications Union is a global organization that coordinates and regulates international telecommunications, but it does not have the specific responsibility for determining these frequencies.

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132. What are the three individual services provided by VOR tactical air navigation (VORTAC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is VHF omnidirectional (VOR) azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN DME. VOR tactical air navigation (VORTAC) provides three individual services: VOR azimuth, which provides azimuth information for aircraft navigation; TACAN azimuth, which provides azimuth information for both military and civilian aircraft; and TACAN distance measuring equipment (DME), which provides distance information for aircraft navigation.

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133. What irregular ionospheric variation is caused by the Sun rotating on its axis?

Explanation

The irregular ionospheric variation caused by the Sun rotating on its axis is known as the 27-day sunspot cycle. Sunspots are dark spots on the surface of the Sun that are caused by intense magnetic activity. As the Sun rotates, these sunspots appear and disappear, causing fluctuations in the ionosphere. These fluctuations can affect radio communication and navigation systems on Earth. The 27-day cycle refers to the time it takes for the Sun to complete one rotation on its axis and for the sunspots to reappear in the same location.

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134. What is the most widely known and used spread spectrum system?

Explanation

Direct sequence spread spectrum is the most widely known and used spread spectrum system. This system uses a spreading code to spread the bandwidth of the signal, making it more resistant to interference and jamming. It is commonly used in various wireless communication technologies, including Wi-Fi and Bluetooth. Time hopping systems, pulse frequency modulated systems, and frequency hopping spread spectrum are also spread spectrum systems, but they are not as widely known and used as direct sequence spread spectrum.

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135. Who is the primary point of contact for joint tactical information distribution system/multifunctional information distribution system (JTIDS/MIDS) coordination for a continental United Sates (CONUS) assignment?

Explanation

The primary point of contact for JTIDS/MIDS coordination for a CONUS assignment is the Headquarters Air Combat Command (ACC) Spectrum Management Office. This office is responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum within the Air Combat Command, which includes the coordination of JTIDS/MIDS systems. They ensure that the spectrum is effectively and efficiently utilized to support military operations and maintain communication capabilities.

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136. What radar system has a primary function to search for, track, catalog, and store in computer memories information about satellites, missiles, or air to ground targets?

Explanation

A phased-array radar system is designed to search for, track, catalog, and store information about satellites, missiles, or air to ground targets. This type of radar uses multiple antennas and electronic beam steering to rapidly scan a wide area and track multiple targets simultaneously. The information gathered is then stored in computer memories for further analysis and processing.

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137. What EHF satellite system is designed to provide worldwide connectivity for high priority military forces with satellite-to-satellite cross-link capability?

Explanation

MILSTAR is the correct answer because it is a satellite system specifically designed to provide worldwide connectivity for high priority military forces. It has the capability of satellite-to-satellite cross-link, allowing for secure and reliable communication between military forces. INMARSAT is an international maritime satellite system, DSCS is a defense satellite communications system, and AFSATCOM is an Air Force satellite communications system, but none of these systems are specifically designed for worldwide connectivity for high priority military forces with satellite-to-satellite cross-link capability.

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138. If not already formed and operating, during which phase is the information operations (IO) cell activated?

Explanation

The information operations (IO) cell is activated during the employment phase. This is the phase where the IO cell is put into action and starts carrying out its operations. The IO cell may include personnel responsible for planning, coordinating, and executing information-related activities to support the mission objectives. Activation during the employment phase ensures that the IO cell is ready and operational when it is needed to support the overall mission.

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139. Which type of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) issued order initiates execution planning on selected courses of action that have been authorized by the secretary of defense?

Explanation

The correct answer is "alert." In the given question, it is stated that the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) issues an order to initiate execution planning on selected courses of action authorized by the secretary of defense. The term "alert" is commonly used to describe the act of notifying and preparing military personnel for imminent action or operation. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that the CJCS would issue an alert to initiate execution planning on authorized courses of action.

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140. What operational concept is defined as protecting and defending information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and reputation?

Explanation

Information assurance (IA) is the operational concept that is defined as protecting and defending information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and reputation. IA encompasses measures and practices that aim to safeguard information systems and the information they contain from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. It involves implementing security controls, conducting risk assessments, developing security policies and procedures, and educating users about security best practices. IA is crucial for maintaining the trustworthiness and reliability of information systems and ensuring that they continue to function effectively and securely.

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141. What operational concept includes processes that collect, analyze, and disseminate information using any medium or form, when taken together, comprises a larger system or systems or processes?

Explanation

Information-based processes is the correct answer because it refers to a concept that involves the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information using any medium or form. This concept encompasses various systems or processes that work together to manage and utilize information effectively. It is a broader term that encompasses information protection, information warfare, and information assurance, as it focuses on the overall processes involved in handling information.

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142. Which layer of the atmosphere includes the ionosphere?

Explanation

The ionosphere is a region within the Earth's atmosphere that contains a high concentration of ions and free electrons. It is located within the thermosphere, which is the layer of the atmosphere that extends from about 80 kilometers above the Earth's surface to the edge of space. The thermosphere is known for its high temperatures and is the layer where the auroras occur. Therefore, the correct answer is the thermosphere.

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143. Which is the priority component of the Global Command and Control System (GCCS) designed to support the National Command Authorities and Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command System (NMCS) is the priority component of the Global Command and Control System (GCCS) designed to support the National Command Authorities and Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. This system provides the necessary command and control capabilities for the military to effectively communicate, coordinate, and execute their missions. It ensures that the National Command Authorities have the necessary information and tools to make informed decisions and effectively command and control military operations.

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144. In which phase of crisis action planning does the joint force commander (JFC) establish the joint task force spectrum management element (JSME)?

Explanation

In Phase 3 of crisis action planning, the joint force commander (JFC) establishes the joint task force spectrum management element (JSME). This phase involves the development and evaluation of courses of action, as well as the selection of the most effective and feasible option. The establishment of the JSME during this phase is crucial for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum by joint task force elements. It ensures efficient communication and information sharing among different units and minimizes interference or conflicts in spectrum usage.

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145. Overseas units submit frequency requests according to

Explanation

The correct answer is "unified command policy." This means that overseas units submit frequency requests based on the policy set by the unified command. This indicates that there is a central command that establishes guidelines and regulations for frequency management, which all units operating overseas must adhere to.

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146. Normally, what Army component deploys systems that provide theater air defense coverage using Patriot missile systems?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air defense artillery battalion (ADA BN). An ADA BN is a component of the Army that deploys systems, such as Patriot missile systems, to provide theater air defense coverage. This battalion is responsible for the operational control and employment of air defense artillery units in the field.

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147. A senior Marine air command and control system (MACCS) that originates all air defense control measures, to include air defense warning conditions and weapons control status is called a/an

Explanation

A senior Marine air command and control system (MACCS) that originates all air defense control measures, to include air defense warning conditions and weapons control status is called a Tactical air command center. This is because a Tactical air command center is responsible for coordinating and controlling all air defense operations, including issuing air defense warning conditions and managing weapons control status.

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148. The purpose of the Link 16 Gateway is to

Explanation

The purpose of the Link 16 Gateway is to enhance ground and air situation awareness and combat identification. This means that the Link 16 Gateway is designed to improve the understanding of the overall battlefield environment for both ground and air forces. It does this by providing real-time information on the location and identification of friendly and enemy forces, allowing for better coordination and decision-making in combat situations.

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149. How many nautical miles is the range of the station keeping equipment follow-on (SKEFO) system?

Explanation

The range of the station keeping equipment follow-on (SKEFO) system is 100 nautical miles.

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150. How many types of Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) aircraft radios are there?

Explanation

There are three types of Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) aircraft radios.

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151. What aircraft radios share fighter-to-fighter data with each other while recording friendly ground positions transmitted from the net control station?

Explanation

Situation awareness data link (SADL) radios share fighter-to-fighter data with each other while recording friendly ground positions transmitted from the net control station. This means that SADL radios allow aircraft to communicate and exchange information with each other, specifically regarding the positions of friendly ground forces. This enables better situational awareness and coordination among fighter aircraft during operations.

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152. What identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) unit uses a pulse repetition rate (PRR) of 230 pulses per second (PPS), are triggered for stability, and are limited to 4 watts of transmitter power to the antenna?

Explanation

A beacon ramp handheld tester is the correct answer because it is a type of identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) unit that uses a pulse repetition rate (PRR) of 230 pulses per second (PPS). These testers are triggered for stability and are limited to 4 watts of transmitter power to the antenna. This type of tester is specifically designed to test and calibrate beacon ramps, which are used for aircraft identification and tracking purposes.

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153. The area where the transmitter antenna and receiver antennas intersect and share common airspace in troposcatter propagation is known as

Explanation

In troposcatter propagation, the scatter volume refers to the area where the transmitter antenna and receiver antennas intersect and share common airspace. This is the region where the scattering of the radio waves occurs, allowing for communication over long distances. The scatter volume is crucial in troposcatter propagation as it determines the effectiveness and quality of the communication link between the transmitter and receiver.

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154. What operational concept involves the integrated use of assigned and supporting capabilities and activities, mutually supported by intelligence, to affect enemy decision makers and achieve or promote specific objectives?

Explanation

The operational concept that involves the integrated use of assigned and supporting capabilities and activities, mutually supported by intelligence, to affect enemy decision makers and achieve or promote specific objectives is Offensive IO. Offensive IO aims to disrupt and degrade the enemy's decision-making process by utilizing various capabilities and activities, such as cyber attacks, psychological operations, and electronic warfare. This concept focuses on actively engaging the enemy and influencing their actions to gain an advantage. Defensive information operations (IO) and defensive information warfare (IW) are focused on protecting one's own information and systems, while offensive IW involves offensive actions in the information domain.

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155. What support component provides the means to initiate, receive, process, and execute requests for air support and to disseminate information and intelligence produced by aerial assets?

Explanation

The correct answer is Army Air-Ground System. This support component is responsible for initiating, receiving, processing, and executing requests for air support. It also disseminates information and intelligence produced by aerial assets. The other options, such as Air Defense Artillery Brigade, Air Defense Artillery Command Post, and Army Airspace Command and Control Element, do not specifically provide the means for all these functions related to air support and information dissemination.

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156. With what Army element is the Air Force air support operations center (ASOC) normally collocated?

Explanation

The Air Force air support operations center (ASOC) is normally collocated with the component's main command post. This means that the ASOC is located in close proximity to the main command post of the Army element. This allows for effective coordination and communication between the Air Force and Army, as they can easily share information and make joint decisions. By being collocated with the main command post, the ASOC can provide direct support to the Army element and ensure efficient integration of air support into the overall mission.

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157. What is the minimum lead time that the Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO) requires to coordinate frequency actions through national-level agencies?

Explanation

The Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO) requires a minimum lead time of 60 days to coordinate frequency actions through national-level agencies. This means that any frequency actions, such as changes or allocations, must be submitted to the AFSMO at least 60 days in advance to ensure proper coordination and approval from the relevant national-level agencies.

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158. In determining whether or not you are being jammed, what is the most likely cause of the noise if it stays constant when you tune your receiver on either side of the operating frequency?

Explanation

If the noise stays constant when tuning the receiver on either side of the operating frequency, it suggests that the source of the noise is intentionally targeting and interfering with the receiver's signal. This is commonly known as jamming, where an external source deliberately disrupts the communication by emitting a strong signal on the same frequency. Therefore, the most likely cause of the noise in this scenario is that you are being jammed.

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159. Which term describes the specific order in which HAVE QUICK (HQ) radios switch from one frequency to the next?  

Explanation

The term that describes the specific order in which HAVE QUICK (HQ) radios switch from one frequency to the next is "hopping pattern." This refers to the predetermined sequence in which the radios change frequencies during communication.

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160. F-layer critical frequencies generally fall in what frequency range?

Explanation

The F-layer critical frequencies generally fall in the frequency range of 1 to 15 MHz. This means that the maximum usable frequency for long-distance radio communication during the day is typically between 1 and 15 MHz. Frequencies outside of this range may not be reflected back to Earth by the F-layer, resulting in reduced or no communication.

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161. What transcontinental system provides critical communications connectivity for the National Command Authorities (NCA), Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), and North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) nations?

Explanation

The Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) provides critical communications connectivity for the National Command Authorities (NCA), Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), and North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) nations.

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162. Which regulation is the primary publication providing guidance about tactics, techniques, and procedures for planning, coordinating, and controlling the use of the electromagnetic spectrum in a Joint Task Force (JTF) environment?

Explanation

CJCSM 3320.01B, Joint Operations in the Electromagnetic Battlespace, is the correct answer because it specifically provides guidance about tactics, techniques, and procedures for planning, coordinating, and controlling the use of the electromagnetic spectrum in a Joint Task Force (JTF) environment. The other options, such as the EUCOM spectrum management manual and DoDI 4650.1, may provide information about spectrum management but do not specifically focus on the JTF environment. CJCSI 3320.01B, Electromagnetic Spectrum Use in Joint Military Operations, may seem similar to the correct answer, but it is not the primary publication providing guidance in a JTF environment.

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163. Which cryptographic key is required to encrypt normal voice and data traffic for the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) radio?

Explanation

The correct answer is traffic encryption key. The Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) radio requires a traffic encryption key to encrypt normal voice and data traffic. This key is used to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted information, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals.

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164. What is the minimum amount of days allotted for the processing of a temporary joint tactical information distribution system/multifunctional information distribution system (JTIDS/MIDS) frequency assignment for use within the United States and its possessions?

Explanation

The minimum amount of days allotted for the processing of a temporary JTIDS/MIDS frequency assignment for use within the United States and its possessions is 90. This means that it takes at least 90 days for the processing and approval of such an assignment.

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165. What wave propagation effect makes use of general weather phenomena and air turbulence to refract radio waves to the receiving station?

Explanation

Tropospheric wave propagation refers to the bending or refraction of radio waves in the lower part of the Earth's atmosphere, known as the troposphere. This phenomenon occurs due to general weather phenomena and air turbulence, which cause variations in temperature, pressure, and humidity in the troposphere. These variations in the refractive index of the air can cause radio waves to be bent and follow a curved path, allowing them to reach the receiving station even if they would normally be obstructed by the Earth's curvature. Therefore, the correct answer is tropospheric.

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166. Which organization is responsible for coordinating interference resolution efforts involving multiple unified commands and/or Department of State coordination with other countries?

Explanation

The Joint Staff /J–6 is responsible for coordinating interference resolution efforts involving multiple unified commands and/or Department of State coordination with other countries. This organization is tasked with managing and ensuring effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum, which includes resolving any interference issues that may arise. They work closely with other military commands and the Department of State to coordinate and address any interference challenges, both domestically and internationally.

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167. What satellite system provides reliable, worldwide command and control (C2) communications using tactical UHF voice and data networks?

Explanation

AFSATCOM is the correct answer because it is a satellite system that provides reliable, worldwide command and control (C2) communications using tactical UHF voice and data networks. This system is specifically used by the Air Force for their satellite communications needs. INMARSAT is an international maritime satellite system, MILSTAR is a military strategic and tactical relay system, and DSCS is the Defense Satellite Communications System, none of which are specifically designed for Air Force C2 communications.

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168. How many types of assignments, all of which use the Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF), does the DOD use?

Explanation

The DOD uses 4 types of assignments that all use the Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF).

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169. What transmission security (TRANSEC) parameter ensures hopping sequences are synchronized in each net and may be an internal or external input to the system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time reference." In transmission security (TRANSEC), the time reference parameter ensures that hopping sequences are synchronized in each net. It can be an internal or external input to the system, providing a common time base for all nodes in the network. This synchronization is crucial for secure and reliable communication within the network.

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170. What is the Marine equivalent of the Air Force control and reporting center (CRC)?

Explanation

The Marine equivalent of the Air Force control and reporting center (CRC) is the Tactical air operations center (TAOC). The TAOC is responsible for coordinating and controlling all tactical air operations in the Marine Corps. It serves as the central hub for planning, directing, and executing air operations, including the control and reporting of aircraft. The TAOC works closely with other command and control elements to ensure effective and efficient air support to Marine forces.

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171. What agency is the Department of Defense (DOD) manager for mobile satellite services (MSS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the agency responsible for managing mobile satellite services (MSS) for the Department of Defense (DOD). They provide secure and reliable communications capabilities to support the military's mission.

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172. What airborne asset is an airborne extension of the Air Support Operations Center (ASOC) that provides a coordination link between attack aircraft and the combat ground forces?

Explanation

The correct answer is Airborne forward air controller (AFAC). An AFAC is an airborne asset that serves as an extension of the Air Support Operations Center (ASOC). Its main role is to provide coordination between attack aircraft and combat ground forces. This involves directing and controlling the delivery of air support, such as close air support and airstrikes, to assist the ground forces in their mission. The AFAC communicates with both the ASOC and the ground forces, ensuring effective coordination and integration of airpower into the battlefield.

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173. How many types of applications, all of which use the Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF), do we use to accomplish frequency actions?

Explanation

We use 6 types of applications, all of which use the Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF), to accomplish frequency actions.

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174. What system provides line-of-sight (LOS) communications, navigation, and exchanges surveillance and command and control (C2) information with airborne platforms to enhance the capability of various types of missions?

Explanation

The Multifunctional Information Distribution System (MIDS) provides line-of-sight (LOS) communications, navigation, and exchanges surveillance and command and control (C2) information with airborne platforms to enhance the capability of various types of missions. MIDS is a secure, high-capacity, jam-resistant, digital data link that allows for real-time exchange of tactical information between different platforms, enhancing situational awareness and coordination during operations.

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175. Scintillation is an atmospheric effect that has the capability to knock out satellite communications. Which frequency band does it affect most?

Explanation

Scintillation is an atmospheric effect that causes fluctuations in the intensity and phase of radio signals. It is most pronounced in the lower frequency bands because these signals are more susceptible to ionospheric disturbances. The 3 to 30 MHz frequency band, also known as the High Frequency (HF) band, is particularly affected by scintillation. This is because the ionosphere, which is responsible for reflecting and refracting HF signals, is more turbulent in this frequency range. As a result, scintillation can significantly degrade satellite communications operating in the 3 to 30 MHz frequency band.

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176. What agency is the Air Force point of contact for international maritime satellite (INMARSAT) issues?

Explanation

The Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA) is the point of contact for international maritime satellite (INMARSAT) issues. This agency is responsible for managing and coordinating communication systems and services for the Air Force. They would handle any communication issues related to INMARSAT, which is a satellite communication system used for maritime purposes.

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177. What transmission security (TRANSEC) parameter forces two transceivers to follow the same hopping sequence?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Net number". In a transmission security (TRANSEC) system, the net number parameter is used to ensure that two transceivers follow the same hopping sequence. This means that they will both switch between frequencies in the same predetermined order, which helps to maintain secure communication by preventing unauthorized access or interception. The net number serves as a synchronization mechanism for the transceivers, ensuring that they are on the same page when it comes to frequency hopping.

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178. Which spread spectrum system varies the period and duty cycle of a pulsed radio frequency (RF) carrier under the control of a coded sequence?

Explanation

Time hopping is a spread spectrum system that varies the period and duty cycle of a pulsed radio frequency (RF) carrier under the control of a coded sequence. In time hopping, the RF carrier signal is divided into small time slots, and the transmitter and receiver synchronize their hopping patterns based on a predetermined code sequence. This allows for increased resistance to interference and improved security in wireless communication systems.

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179. What Marine component is equivalent to the Air Force air support operations center (ASOC) and provides direction of air-to-ground operations?

Explanation

The Direct Air Support Center (DASC) is the Marine component that is equivalent to the Air Force air support operations center (ASOC) and provides direction of air-to-ground operations. The DASC is responsible for coordinating and controlling close air support missions, ensuring effective communication between ground and air forces, and facilitating the integration of air power into the overall tactical plan. It serves as a centralized command and control hub for air support operations, similar to the ASOC in the Air Force.

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Which module of Spectrum XXI is used to manage digital terrain...
According to the Assistant Secretary of Defense policy, what...
In relationship to direction finding (DF), as a spectrum operation...
The three direction finding (DF) methods are used to
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Which software program contains the Military...
What antenna type is used for mobile and portable land mobile radio...
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Before a permanent frequency assignment can be requested, the new...
Barrage jammers are limited to narrow bandwidths because they
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What made trunking possible in land mobile radio (LMR) systems?
What DOD standard spectrum management system was created to manage the...
What are the two primary commercial satellite systems currently used...
The presence or absence and height above Earth of the F1 and F2...
What component of the ground wave travels directly from the transmit...
Systems Planning, Engineering, and Evaluation Device (SPEED) provides...
You can make a long-wire antenna directional by
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What is the best way to counter barrage jamming?
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Which type of international maritime satellite (INMARSAT) terminal is...
What small task-organized group of parachute/scuba trained AF...
Radio horizon distance equates to what?
In frequency hopping operation, the interval at which each transmitter...
The responsibility for organizing, training, equipping, and providing...
Which occurrence is not an irregular variation of the ionosphere?
Prior to submitting an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report for...
Which radio is not a HAVE QUICK (HQ) type?
Which module of Spectrum XXI is used to automate the process of...
Which data item is not found on a Spectrum XXI HF sky wave analysis...
What is the worst type of antenna to use for sky wave circuits?
The purpose of the Frequency Review Program is to ensure the
Because of extreme congestion, in which frequency band is new land...
Most repeater systems operate in what type of configuration?
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How can you submit a joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR)...
What system has been approved to replace the current instrument...
What frequency band does the SKE follow-on (SKEFO) system use...
Which item on the electronic attack (EA) clearance message identifies...
Normally, on what joint network do tactical air control parties call...
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Within how many hours must you submit an initial Air Force Spectrum...
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What are the three series of long-range aid to navigation (LORAN)
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Which Joint Task Force (JTF) functional component commander is...
The three stages of the deployment phase in their correct order are
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When electronic attack (EA) is to be conducted within line-of-sight...
What Air Force Instruction (AFI) governs the tracking and reporting of...
Which joint standard document lists net group data, call words, call...
What system was born out of the operations security (OPSEC) failures...
In CONUS, special permission must be received to operate the single...
Automated link establishment (ALE) equipment is comprised of
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What type of antenna should be used for low frequency and...
Contractors submit frequency requests in support of Air Force...
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Air Force activities must be careful in procuring and using...
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What area of Earth does the scintillation atmospheric belt affect the...
What radar system gives very accurate aircraft range, elevation, and...
What type of control is inherent in combatant command (COCOM)?
What type of command has the authority to establish subordinate...
Which of the following contains the civilian communications...
What times do we use in the electronic attack (EA) clearance message?
Intermods produce harmonic frequencies at the
When was the joint spectrum interference resolution (JSIR) program...
In which type of electromagnetic interference (EMI) report(s) can you...
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What electronic warfare (EW) subdivision includes signal intelligence...
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What regular ionospheric variation is attributed to Earth's revolving...
In what frequency band does the HAVE QUICK (HQ) radio operate?
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For tactical air navigational (TACAN) proposals, individual proposals...
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The Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO) requires additional...
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What irregular ionospheric variation produces a burst of radiation...
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Electronic warfare (EW) training packages used during CONUS exercises...
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Joint tactical information distribution system/multifunctional...
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As a general rule, theater joint frequency management offices require...
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Where can you find in most current information on the fielding of Land...
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Which long-range aid to navigation (LORAN) system operates on a center...
What division of the joint task force (JTF) commander's staff plans,...
What does the Systems Planning, Engineering, and Evaluation Device...
Earth's atmosphere is broken down into how many layers?
System gains or losses can be calculated by
During extreme communications conditions, you may use enemy...
The joint tactical radio system (JTRS) is a family of radios designed...
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For geographical areas not under control of an area frequency...
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What is the most widely known and used spread spectrum system?
Who is the primary point of contact for joint tactical information...
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What EHF satellite system is designed to provide worldwide...
If not already formed and operating, during which phase is the...
Which type of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) issued...
What operational concept is defined as protecting and defending...
What operational concept includes processes that collect, analyze, and...
Which layer of the atmosphere includes the ionosphere?
Which is the priority component of the Global Command and Control...
In which phase of crisis action planning does the joint force...
Overseas units submit frequency requests according to
Normally, what Army component deploys systems that provide theater air...
A senior Marine air command and control system (MACCS) that originates...
The purpose of the Link 16 Gateway is to
How many nautical miles is the range of the station keeping equipment...
How many types of Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System...
What aircraft radios share fighter-to-fighter data with each other...
What identification friend or foe/selective identification feature...
The area where the transmitter antenna and receiver antennas intersect...
What operational concept involves the integrated use of assigned and...
What support component provides the means to initiate, receive,...
With what Army element is the Air Force air support operations center...
What is the minimum lead time that the Air Force Spectrum Management...
In determining whether or not you are being jammed, what is the most...
Which term describes the specific order in which HAVE QUICK (HQ)...
F-layer critical frequencies generally fall in what frequency range?
What transcontinental system provides critical communications...
Which regulation is the primary publication providing guidance about...
Which cryptographic key is required to encrypt normal voice and data...
What is the minimum amount of days allotted for the processing of a...
What wave propagation effect makes use of general weather phenomena...
Which organization is responsible for coordinating interference...
What satellite system provides reliable, worldwide command and control...
How many types of assignments, all of which use the Standard Frequency...
What transmission security (TRANSEC) parameter ensures hopping...
What is the Marine equivalent of the Air Force control and reporting...
What agency is the Department of Defense (DOD) manager for mobile...
What airborne asset is an airborne extension of the Air Support...
How many types of applications, all of which use the Standard...
What system provides line-of-sight (LOS) communications, navigation,...
Scintillation is an atmospheric effect that has the capability to...
What agency is the Air Force point of contact for international...
What transmission security (TRANSEC) parameter forces two transceivers...
Which spread spectrum system varies the period and duty cycle of a...
What Marine component is equivalent to the Air Force air support...
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