3C051 Set 2 Volume 1 Practice Test

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1. How long does static electricity stay intact?

Explanation

Static electricity stays intact until something causes it to discharge. This means that the static charge remains until it is transferred or neutralized by coming into contact with a conductor or another object with a different charge. Once the discharge occurs, the static electricity is no longer present.

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About This Quiz
Practice Test Quizzes & Trivia

Mixture of URES/Short Answer Questions for the first Volume.

2. What is the first job the basic input output system does at start-up?

Explanation

The first job that the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up is to run the power-on self-test (POST). The POST is a series of diagnostic tests that the BIOS performs to check the hardware components of the computer system. It ensures that all essential hardware components are functioning properly before proceeding with the boot process. This helps in identifying any potential issues or errors that may prevent the system from starting up successfully.

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3. Static electricity remains intact until it is

Explanation

Static electricity remains intact until it is discharged. Discharging refers to the process of releasing or transferring the excess electric charge from an object to the ground or another object with a lower electric potential. When static electricity is discharged, the accumulation of electric charge is balanced, and the object returns to a neutral state. This can happen through various means, such as through contact with a conductor or through a spark or electric discharge. Once discharged, the object no longer carries a static electric charge.

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4. What can detect if a central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exists?

Explanation

The Power-on-Self-test (POST) is a diagnostic program that runs when a computer is turned on to check if all the hardware components, including the CPU, are functioning properly. It detects any hardware problems in the CPU by running a series of tests to ensure that all the components are working correctly. Therefore, the POST is specifically designed to detect if a CPU hardware problem exists.

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5. What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

Explanation

The correct answer is always classified to the highest classification of the material within the container. This means that the combination to any security container is always classified at the same level as the highest classified material that is stored within the container. This ensures that the container provides the appropriate level of protection for the sensitive information or materials it contains.

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6. Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as...

Explanation

Polling refers to the process of actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program. In this method, the client program regularly checks the device to see if there is any new information or if any action needs to be taken. It is a common technique used in computer programming to interact with external hardware or devices.

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7. Which term describes the data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is whole and complete, without any errors or inconsistencies. Data integrity is crucial in maintaining the quality and trustworthiness of data, especially in databases and information systems. It involves various measures and techniques to prevent data corruption, unauthorized modifications, or loss of data. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes the data as whole or complete.

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8. What rank must primary communications security responsible officers hold?

Explanation

Primary communications security responsible officers must hold the rank of SSgt.

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9. Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit deployment manager and commander. The unit deployment manager and commander should be notified immediately of any predeployment shortfalls in order to address and resolve any issues that may affect the deployment process. They are responsible for overseeing the deployment of personnel and equipment, and ensuring that all necessary resources are available for a successful deployment. By notifying them promptly, any shortfalls can be addressed and necessary actions can be taken to mitigate any potential impact on the deployment.

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10. What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

Explanation

BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System. It is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components during the boot process, and it also provides a set of low-level software routines that allow the operating system to communicate with the hardware. The BIOS is stored on a chip on the motherboard and is essential for the computer to start up and function properly.

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11. Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operation system to interact with hardware devices?

Explanation

A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and the operating system, allowing the operating system to communicate with and control the hardware. Drivers are essential for the proper functioning of hardware devices, as they provide the necessary instructions and protocols for the operating system to utilize the hardware effectively.

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12. When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

Explanation

Placing masking tape on the cables and connection points is a simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware. This allows for easy identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to track and troubleshoot any issues. It also helps prevent confusion and ensures that the cables are properly connected.

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13. What phase in concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

Explanation

Predeployment is the phase that focuses on exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment. This phase occurs before the actual deployment and is crucial in preparing individuals for the tasks and challenges they may face during deployment. It allows for practice and training to ensure that all personnel are well-prepared and confident in their abilities to handle the deployment process and effectively use their equipment.

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14. What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs between two objects at different electrical potentials. This discharge happens when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object, and it is transferred to another object with a lower electrical potential. It can occur due to various reasons such as friction, contact, or separation of materials. This discharge can be hazardous and cause damage to electronic devices, which is why precautions such as grounding and using anti-static measures are necessary.

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15. What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Explanation

An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism used by hardware devices to communicate with the CPU and request its attention. When an interrupt occurs, the CPU suspends its current execution and handles the interrupt request. This allows the CPU to prioritize and respond to different events or devices in a timely manner, ensuring efficient processing of tasks.

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16. What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

Explanation

BIOS, or Basic Input/Output System, is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices in a computer system. It performs a power-on self-test (POST) during the boot process and checks if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found, BIOS sends an error message to the user. Therefore, BIOS is the correct answer for the given question.

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17. What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?

Explanation

To prevent the build-up of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive devices is necessary. This is because grounding provides a pathway for the static electricity to flow into the ground, preventing it from accumulating on the devices. By doing so, the risk of damaging the devices or causing a discharge that could harm individuals or disrupt the operation of electronic equipment is minimized. Checking the relative humidity level, disconnecting the circuit from the device, or turning the power switch to the off position may not directly address the issue of static electricity build-up.

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18. Which component uses a lithium battey to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

Explanation

The CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is responsible for storing the BIOS (Basic input output system) settings, including date, time, and hardware configuration. The lithium battery provides a continuous power supply to the CMOS chip, ensuring that the settings are not lost when the computer is turned off or unplugged. This allows the computer to retain its configuration and settings even when not connected to a power source.

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19. On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

Explanation

Cache is the correct answer because most modern computers have two or three levels of memory, and cache is one of those levels. Cache memory is a small and fast memory that is closer to the CPU, allowing for quick access to frequently used data and instructions. It helps to improve the computer's overall performance by reducing the time it takes to retrieve data from the slower main memory.

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20. Normally the last step in the boot up process is

Explanation

After the computer goes through the initial steps of the boot up process, such as the keyboard lights flashing and the memory test being visible on the monitor, the next and final step is for the operating system (OS) to load into memory. Once this happens, the user interface appears, allowing the user to interact with the computer and access its features and functions.

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21. What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force COMSEC Form 16?

Explanation

The preferred method for listing material on the Air Force COMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized and listed in alphabetical order based on their short titles. This method allows for easy and efficient referencing and retrieval of the materials when needed.

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22. If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of dinstance, the COMSEC manager

Explanation

If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager would ask the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message. This method allows the COMSEC manager to obtain the necessary information from the user without physically being present. It is a practical solution when conducting an inventory in person is not feasible due to distance constraints.

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23. What TDC characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

Explanation

Survivability is the TDC characteristic that requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment must be designed and built to withstand and operate in hazardous environments where nuclear, biological, and chemical threats are present. It ensures that the equipment can continue to function and be maintained even in these challenging conditions, thus enhancing the safety and effectiveness of the personnel using it.

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24. Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

The CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS is a type of semiconductor technology used in microprocessors and other digital logic circuits. It is sensitive to static electricity, which can cause permanent damage to the component. Therefore, proper handling and precautions must be taken when working with CMOS to prevent electrostatic discharge.

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25. What is considered as nonvolatile memory?

Explanation

Nonvolatile memory refers to a type of computer memory that retains its stored data even when the power is turned off or lost. Among the options provided, Read-Only Memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile memory. ROM is a type of memory that stores permanent data and instructions that cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. It is commonly used to store firmware, such as the BIOS, which is essential for booting up the computer. Unlike volatile memory, which loses its data when the power is turned off, ROM retains its contents, making it a nonvolatile memory option.

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26. What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Explanation

The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line number to avoid conflicts. In the case of the floppy disk controller, it commonly uses IRQ 6 to communicate with the CPU and handle disk operations.

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27. Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

Explanation

Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD) refers to items that are sensitive to voltages below 1000 volts. Since the item in question is sensitive to 900 volts, it falls under Class I.

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28. What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?

Explanation

After initial power is applied, the next step in the boot-up process is for the keyboard lights to flash. This is a common indication that the computer is receiving power and initializing its hardware components. It does not necessarily mean that the operating system has loaded or that the user interface is visible.

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29. This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number

Explanation

This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. The answer "Accounting legend code (ALC)-1" suggests that ALC-1 is the specific accounting control number that should be used for this COMSEC material. This indicates that the material is of high importance and requires strict accounting procedures to ensure its security and proper handling.

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30. What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Stand Form 153?

Explanation

The maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Stand Form 153 is 1. This means that there is only one action that can be performed on this specific form.

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31. What is the term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equiptment?

Explanation

The term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment is "aids". This term is used to describe any additional materials or resources that are used to support the secure communication and protection of sensitive information. These aids can include things like key cards, codebooks, or cryptographic algorithms that are used in conjunction with the equipment to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the communications.

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32. What theater deployable comminications characteristic requires equiptment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment. and operations in a deployed enviroment?

Explanation

The characteristic of theater deployable communications that requires equipment setup times to be kept to a minimum is mobility. In a deployed environment, it is crucial to be able to quickly transport, deploy, and operate the communication equipment. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in rapidly changing situations. By minimizing setup times, the communication system can be easily moved and reconfigured as needed, ensuring effective communication capabilities in the theater of operations.

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33. The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

Explanation

Fault isolation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring. This involves identifying and isolating the specific fault or problem that led to the failure, in order to address it effectively and prevent it from happening again in the future.

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34. What is the easiest harware installation on a computer?

Explanation

Memory chips are the easiest hardware installation on a computer because they can be easily inserted into the memory slots on the motherboard. Unlike other hardware components such as the video card, CPU, or motherboard, memory chips do not require additional cables or connectors. They simply need to be properly aligned and firmly inserted into the memory slots. This process is relatively simple and can be done by most computer users without any technical expertise.

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35. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4000 but less than 15000 volts fall into category

Explanation

Items that are sensitive to more than 4000 but less than 15000 volts fall into category III.

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36. What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

Explanation

When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device, the first step you must take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no electrical current flowing through the device, reducing the risk of electrostatic discharge and potential damage to the device. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be necessary steps in the process, but they should be done after turning off the power switch.

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37. The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the

Explanation

The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the user. This means that the person is responsible for utilizing and protecting communication security equipment and materials in their role. They must follow proper procedures and protocols to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information. The user plays a crucial role in maintaining the security of communication systems and preventing unauthorized access or disclosure.

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38. Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

Explanation

Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to Transient Aircrews. This means that when material is issued to Transient Aircrews, there is no need to keep records of its disposition or report its destruction. This could be because Transient Aircrews are not expected to hold onto the material for an extended period of time, and therefore there is no need for the same level of accountability as with other entities such as NATO Forces or the Base COMSEC Account itself.

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39. AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

Explanation

AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous 6 months of inventory. This means that the form includes information on the current inventory as well as the inventory from the past 6 months. This allows for a comprehensive record of inventory to be kept and helps in tracking any changes or discrepancies over time.

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40. At a MINIMUM, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

Explanation

It is recommended to change a cipher lock combination at least once a month to ensure maximum security. Regularly changing the combination reduces the risk of unauthorized access as it limits the time frame for someone to potentially figure out the current combination. This frequent change also prevents any potential security breaches or compromises that may occur over a longer period of time.

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41. In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?

Explanation

The destruction certificates are filed in folder 6 of the COMSEC account 6-part folder.

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42. What is the main goal of buffers?

Explanation

The main goal of buffers is to temporarily hold data used by some types of hardware. Buffers act as a temporary storage area that allows for smoother data flow between different components of a system. By temporarily holding data, buffers can help prevent data loss or corruption when there is a difference in the speed at which data is produced and consumed. This ensures that data is available when needed and can be processed at a consistent rate, improving overall system performance.

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43. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data communication. It is a single bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. The receiver can then check the parity bit to detect if any errors occurred during transmission. If the number of 1s is different from what the parity bit indicates, an error is detected. Therefore, the parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code.

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44. What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?

Explanation

After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot up process is usually a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the computer's RAM (Random Access Memory) to ensure that it is functioning properly. It is an important step in the boot up process as it helps identify any potential issues with the computer's memory.

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45. This COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quanity

Explanation

ALC-2 is the correct answer because it indicates that the COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quantity. The other accounting legend codes (ALC-1, ALC-3, and ALC-4) do not specify continuous accounting by quantity.

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46. This COMSEC material is NOT required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory

Explanation

The correct answer is ALC-4. This COMSEC material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory. This suggests that ALC-4 is either not considered as important or its tracking is not necessary for the daily or shift operations.

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47. In which phase does the COMSEC manager determine which materials the CRO officer needs?

Explanation

In the preparation phase, the COMSEC manager assesses the specific materials needed by the CRO officer. This involves identifying the necessary encryption devices, codes, keys, and other resources required for secure communication. By determining these materials in advance, the COMSEC manager ensures that the CRO officer is properly equipped to protect sensitive information during communication operations.

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48. In which phase does the CRO check the material issued against the list on the SF 153?

Explanation

In the distribution phase, the CRO checks the material issued against the list on the SF 153. This phase involves the actual transfer of materials from one location to another, ensuring that the correct items are being distributed according to the list provided. The CRO plays a crucial role in verifying that the materials being distributed match the list on the SF 153, ensuring accuracy and accountability in the distribution process.

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49. What is known as a suite of modules and accressory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communication networks?

Explanation

ICAP is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone of deployed communication networks.

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50. In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed is done in the step of confirming the resolution. This step is taken after the problem has been resolved, and it involves double-checking the actions taken and the results achieved to ensure that the issue has been completely resolved. By reviewing the case history, the technician can verify that all necessary steps were taken and that no important details were overlooked, providing assurance that the problem has been effectively addressed.

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51. Which Air Force form do communication security managers (CM) use when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security COMSEC account?

Explanation

Communication security managers (CM) use Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security COMSEC account.

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52. What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

Explanation

Cache memory is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. Cache memory is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to retrieve them quickly. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, cache memory helps to reduce the time it takes for the CPU to access the main memory. This improves overall system performance and efficiency. Therefore, cache memory is an important component in a CPU for optimizing data access and improving processing speed.

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53. After receiving their initial educations in COMSEC account management, how often must CRO's trained to remain qualified to manage their account?

Explanation

CROs must receive their initial education in COMSEC account management. After that, they need to undergo training annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This ensures that they stay up to date with the latest practices and regulations in the field.

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54. Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation

Explanation

Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident violation. This means that if someone fails to follow the instructions or protocols related to an urgent dissemination message, it could result in a breach or compromise of cryptographic systems or information. This violation could have serious consequences for the security and integrity of the cryptographic systems and the information they protect.

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55. What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). TDC refers to a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure that is designed to be easily transported and deployed in theater. It provides reliable and secure communication capabilities for military operations in various environments.

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56. What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?

Explanation

Transport is the term that suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material. It implies the act of physically moving goods or materials from one location to another, typically by using vehicles or other means of transportation. The person or entity involved in the transportation process has an active interest in the material being transported, indicating that they have a purpose or intention behind the movement.

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57. Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?

Explanation

The final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions is the commander of the unit holding TPC material. This means that the commander is responsible for granting approval for individuals to have access to TPC positions, ensuring the security and accountability of the material.

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58. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercials communication standards

Explanation

The characteristic of Open System Standards reflects the module architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) that comply with established international or commercial communication standards. Open System Standards ensure that the TDC modules can seamlessly integrate and communicate with other systems or devices that also adhere to these standards. This allows for interoperability, enabling efficient and effective communication between different systems in a theater deployment scenario.

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59. To enrure CRO's are complying with applicable directives and accounting for COMSEC material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

Explanation

The COMSEC manager is responsible for ensuring that CRO's (Custodial Responsible Officers) are following the necessary directives and properly accounting for COMSEC (Communications Security) material. To fulfill this responsibility, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect the CRO's accounts on a semi-annual basis. This means that the inspections should occur twice a year, providing regular oversight and ensuring compliance with the applicable directives.

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60. Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

Explanation

The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The NSA is an intelligence agency that is responsible for collecting and analyzing foreign communications and protecting US government communications and information systems. As the head of the NSA, the DIRNSA oversees the development and implementation of cryptographic systems and protocols to ensure the security of sensitive information.

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61. What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination

Explanation

When changing a safe combination, you need to fill out and affix the SF700 form to the inside of the locking drawer.

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62. What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAT) exercises at communication security responsible officer (CRO) accounts

Explanation

The maximum time between emergency action plan (EAT) exercises at communication security responsible officer (CRO) accounts is 6 months. This means that CRO accounts must conduct EAT exercises at least once every 6 months to ensure preparedness for emergency situations.

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63. Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency

Explanation

Sustained Communications Support Teams provide uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. They ensure that communication systems are up and running, maintaining connectivity and enabling effective communication between different units. These teams play a crucial role in supporting military operations by ensuring that communication channels remain operational under challenging conditions.

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64. What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC material?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 153. SF 153 is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC material.

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65. This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your enviroment

Explanation

SF701 is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment. This form is used to document and track the physical security measures in place, such as locks, alarms, and access controls. By conducting a daily inventory using SF701, you can ensure that all security measures are functioning properly and identify any potential vulnerabilities or issues that need to be addressed. This helps to maintain a secure environment and protect against unauthorized access or breaches.

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66. Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?

Explanation

The Cryptologic Support Group (CPSG) establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number.

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67. How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises?

Explanation

The correct answer is 24 months. This means that the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises should be maintained for a period of 24 months. This is important for record-keeping and compliance purposes, as it allows for documentation to be reviewed and referenced if needed in the future. By keeping the documentation for this length of time, organizations can ensure that they have a comprehensive record of their emergency preparedness efforts.

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68. In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting step of "Define the problem," you would determine which conditions are present. This step involves gathering information about the issue, identifying any symptoms or error messages, and understanding the current state of the problem. By defining the problem, you can analyze the conditions that led to the issue and start formulating a plan to resolve it.

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69. The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and managed by

Explanation

A controlling authority is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational use and control of COMSEC material. This means that they have the authority to ensure that proper procedures and protocols are followed in order to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. They play a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of COMSEC material and ensuring that it is used in accordance with established guidelines and regulations.

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70. What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying materials, including programming FORTEZZA cards?

Explanation

A Certification Authority (CA) workstation is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying materials, including programming FORTEZZA cards. A CA workstation is responsible for issuing digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the identity of individuals or entities in a network. It manages the entire certificate lifecycle, including generating cryptographic keys, verifying the identity of certificate applicants, signing certificates, and distributing them to users. The CA workstation ensures the secure and reliable operation of the certificate infrastructure.

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71.  Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base?

Explanation

The correct answer is CM. CM stands for Crisis Management, which refers to the overall coordination and management of emergency response efforts. As such, the CM is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base. They oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of these plans to ensure preparedness and effective response in case of emergencies. The CM works closely with various stakeholders, including the Unit Commander and MAJCOM, but they have the ultimate responsibility for the EAPs.

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72. Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

Explanation

The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from AFCOMSEC Form 14.

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73. Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?

Explanation

The Unit Commander has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This means that they have the power to grant exceptions or exemptions to certain rules or requirements if they are necessary for the successful completion of a mission. This authority is specific to the Unit Commander and is not shared with other individuals or higher-ranking officials such as the COMSEC Manager or Wing Commander.

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74. In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you confirm that a dilemma exists. This step involves identifying the specific issue or malfunction and separating it from other potential causes or factors. By isolating the problem, you can focus on finding a solution for that particular issue, rather than wasting time and effort on unrelated factors. Therefore, confirming the existence of the dilemma is an essential part of the isolation step in troubleshooting.

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75. Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message?

Explanation

CPSG stands for Cryptologic Systems Group, which is a unit within the National Security Agency (NSA). The CPSG is responsible for developing original messages for COMSEC (Communications Security) accounts by urgent electronic message. Therefore, CPSG is the correct answer to the question.

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76. What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?

Explanation

Before signing the COMSEC hand receipt, each CRO should check the COMSEC manager's clearance status. This is important to ensure that the manager has the necessary authorization and clearance to handle and manage COMSEC material. By verifying the manager's clearance status, the CRO can ensure that the proper security protocols are being followed and that the manager is qualified to oversee the handling of sensitive information.

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77. In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting step of "Resolve the problem," you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps, such as defining and isolating the problem, to determine the root cause of the issue. By identifying the likely causes, you can focus on finding a solution that addresses those specific causes, while eliminating unlikely causes helps narrow down the potential solutions and prevents wasting time and resources on unnecessary troubleshooting steps.

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  • Apr 01, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    A1cbecker
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How long does static electricity stay intact?
What is the first job the basic input output system does at start-up?
Static electricity remains intact until it is
What can detect if a central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem...
What is the classification of the combination to any security...
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program...
Which term describes the data is whole or complete?
What rank must primary communications security responsible officers...
Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?
What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup...
Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operation...
When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables...
What phase in concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with...
What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between...
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware...
What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and...
What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static...
Which component uses a lithium battey to maintain computer settings...
On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
Normally the last step in the boot up process is
What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force...
If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user...
What TDC characteristic requires equipment be capable of...
Which original component was very susceptible to damage from...
What is considered as nonvolatile memory?
What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the...
Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall...
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial...
This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices...
What is the maximum number of different actions that can be...
What is the term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other...
What theater deployable comminications characteristic requires...
The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of...
What is the easiest harware installation on a computer?
Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4000 but...
What is the first step you must take when either installing or...
The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while...
Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for...
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory...
At a MINIMUM, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destruction...
What is the main goal of buffers?
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic...
This COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quanity
This COMSEC material is NOT required to be tracked on the daily or...
In which phase does the COMSEC manager determine which materials the...
In which phase does the CRO check the material issued against the list...
What is known as a suite of modules and accressory kits serving as the...
In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and...
Which Air Force form do communication security managers (CM) use when...
What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
After receiving their initial educations in COMSEC account management,...
Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could...
What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications...
What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by...
Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person...
What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic reflects...
To enrure CRO's are complying with applicable directives and...
Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic...
What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking...
What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAT) exercises...
Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to...
What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC...
This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your...
Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account...
How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the...
In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are...
The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and...
What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of...
 Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP)...
Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on...
Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately,...
What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?
In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and...
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