2w051b Vol.2 Ure Questions I.Y.A.A.Y.A.S

1. What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"?

Caliber .38.

Caliber .50.

5.56 millimeter.

7.62 millimeter.

2. What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?

Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant.

Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and detonator.

Cartridge case, shot pellets, and propellant.

Cartridge case, propellant, and tracer.

3. Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?

Nose.

Tail.

Nose and tail.

Between the lugs.

4. The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and

Electrical.

Hydraulic.

Proximity.

Inertia.

5. What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?

Ballast.

Target practice on small ranges.

Use in static displays and award presentations.

Familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system.

6. What major aircraft systems carry countermeasure flares?

Bomber and reconnaissance aircraft.

Tactical and reconnaissance aircraft.

Close air support and bomber aircraft.

All major tactical, bomber and cargo aircraft.

7. What is a requirement for military explosives ?

Raw materials must be cheap

Raw materials must be nonhygroscopic

Raw materials must be common to America

Raw materials must be vital to the war effort

8. The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called

Detonation.

Disposition.

Deflagration.

Decomposition.

9. What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?

10.

12.

28.

410.

10. What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?

Ejection of the primer.

The wad can cause injury

There is no significant hazard.

Fragmentation of the projectile.

11. Where are proximity sensors/fuzes installed on a bomb?

Nose.

Tail.

Nose and tail.

Between the lugs.

12. What substance is the M112 demo block made of?

Ammonia.

Black powder.

Composition C–4.

Nitroglycerin.

13. For what purpose do we use a shaped charge?

Bring down walls and collapse roofs.

No practical application in the munitions field.

Ignite rocket motors equipped with electric squibs.

To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object.

14. Name two types of effects for signals.

Fire and flash.

Heat and flash.

Smoke and heat.

Light and smoke.

15. What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?

Hour of flight.

Hour of function.

Height of function.

Height of fragmentation.

16. What will not cause the electric primer in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition to be fired accidentally?

Proper handling.

Static electricity.

Rough handling.

Electromagnetic energy.

17. How can you tell when an FMU–124A/B fuze is armed?

You see only the green background through the window.

The safety pin is removed and the release shaft is extended.

The safety pin is removed and the release shaft is detracted.

You see a white “S” on a green background through the window.

18. The major physical difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–89/B cluster bombs is the

Height of arming.

Method of arming.

CBU–89/B uses the MK339 fuze.

CBU–89/B does not have canted fins.

19. The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the

Bourrelet.

Projectile.

Fuze.

Primer.

20. What are the components of the 105 millimeter (mm) round?

Cartridge case, propellant charge, primer, projectile, and fuze.

Primer, igniter, cartridge case, and propellant charge.

Projectile, igniter, and cartridge case.

Igniter, projectile, and fuze.

21. The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and

Light.

Altitude.

Humidity.

Chemical composition

22. Which mine do we commonly call the "claymore"?

M14.

M18A1

M27A1

M28A1.

23. What color is the most common for military safety fuze?

Red.

Green.

Purple.

Orange.

24. What is the M129 bomb used for?

Destroy hardened aircraft shelters.

Destroy columns of armored vehicles

Penetrate and destroy runway surfaces and enemy bunkers.

Deliver propaganda leaflets used to persuade the enemy to surrender.

25. The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?

Seal wires.

Cotter pins.

Safety blocks.

“Detonator safe” feature.

26. With electrical fuzes, what device is used in place of arming wire?

Bungee cord.

Battery-firing device.

Linear-shaped charge.

Target-detecting device.

27. What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?

Fuze adapter.

Bomb adapter.

Adapter booster.

Adapter burster.

28. How do we classify 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition?

According to its purpose.

As combat or noncombat ammunition.

By the type of gun system in which it is used.

By the method of its initiation (electric or percussion).

29. What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?

Lock ring.

Split latch.

Safety block.

Detonator safety latch.

30. Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round.

Ignition booster, cartridge case, and projectile.

Propellant, cartridge case, and ignition booster

Propellant, cartridge case, ignition booster, and fuze.

Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze.

31. What material is the 30 millimeter (mm) cartridge case made of?

Steel.

Brass.

Metal.

Aluminum.

32. What are initiators designed to do?

Supply gas pressure to operate other cartridge-activated devices.

Supply gas pressure to remove aircraft canopies.

Eject external stores.

Eject seats.

33. How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?

Decrease standoff distance.

Increase standoff distance.

Decrease explosive charge.

Increase explosive charge.

34. What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?

Inert powder.

Black powder.

Composition B.

White phosphorus.

35. What device is used to initiate time fuse?

M60 Igniter.

Firing Wire.

Galvanometer.

Blasting machine.

36. Which part of the target practice 20 millimeter (mm) round is inert?

Primer.

Cartridge.

Projectile.

Cartridge filler.

37. The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces

500,000 candlepower for an average burn time of three minutes.

300,000 candlepower for an average burn time of two minutes.

Two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.

One million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.

38. What are catapults used for?

Ejecting external stores from an aircraft.

Removing a canopy and seat from an aircraft.

Positioning a seat and crew member for ejection.

Ejecting a seat and crew member safely from an aircraft.

39. Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce

Pressure.

Energy.

Vapors.

Heat.

40. What are the detonation products?

Deflagration and spontaneous ignition.

Spontaneous ignition, heat, and light.

Heat, light, gases, and pressure.

Volatility and deflagration.

41. What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?

Short.

Light.

Heavy.

Medium.

42. Name three classifications of Air Force grenades.

Combat, practice, and training.

Dummy, training, and service.

Service, practice, and training.

Chemical, practice, and service.

43. Against what types of targets is the CBU–97/B primarily used?

Anti-personnel.

Runways.

Facilities.

Tanks.

44. What M505-series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?

Fuze is bore safe.

M505-series fuze is inertia armed.

Rotor assembly is safety pinned until loading.

M505-series fuze does not have a safety, but it does require very careful handling.

45. What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?

Composition B.

Composition C.

Black powder.

Cyclonite (RDX).

46. Which chemical filler is used in the AN–M8 smoke grenade?

Chloroacetophenone.

Hexachloroethane

White phosphorus.

Composition B.

47. What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?

T44.

T45.

T46.

FZU–2/B.

48. What do we mean when we say the 105 millimeter (mm) is "fixed" ammunition?

It must be fired as a single shot round.

The propellant charge is not adjustable.

Its application is limited to one purpose.

The projectile can be fired from only one cannon.

49. What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal?

Noise only.

Flare and noise.

Smoke and flare.

Smoke and noise.

50. Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation PGU–45/B projectile produce?

300.

1,300.

3,300.

13,000.

51. The rate of transformation for high explosives is between

3,200 and 25,000 feet per second.

3,200 and 28,000 feet per second.

3,200 and 31,000 feet per second.

3,200 and 32,000 feet per second.

52. How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?

50 meters.

100 meters.

250 meters.

300 meters.

53. How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904 nose fuze?

Changing the delay element.

By rotating the timing lock.

By adjusting the calibrated dial.

The firing delay time is fixed and cannot be changed.

54. What is one significant difference in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition compared to other cannon ammunition?

The bourrelet.

The propellant.

The point detonating fuze.

The electrically fired primer.

55. What does the SD–206 infrared flare do?

Provides less heat than the M206 flare.

Provides more heat than the M206 flare.

Provides more flexibility due to its smaller size.

Provides smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes

56. What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb?

10 pounds.

20 pounds.

25 pounds.

45 pounds.

57. What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality?

15-foot.

30-foot.

32-foot.

42-foot.

58. What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze?

FZU–39/B sensor.

FZU–48/B initiator.

Battery-firing device.

MK32 Mod 1 arming device.

59. What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B?

92 pounds.

192 pounds.

27 pounds.

270 pounds.

60. How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time?

One.

Two.

Three.

Four.

61. When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container?

80 or 100.

150 or 175.

200 or 250.

275 or 300.

62. How many lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition?

Four.

Three.

Two.

One.

63. What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce?

Red light.

Green light.

White light.

Yellow light.

64. How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?

Electric igniter.

Percussion primer.

Electric stab firing pin

Nonelectric stab firing pin.

65. Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb?

BLU–61 bomblets.

BLU–63 bomblets.

BLU–97 bomblets.

MK118 bomblets.

66. What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?

GAU–2.

GAU–8.

GAU–12.

GAU–18.

67. What are the two types of impulse cartridges?

Electric and gas.

Explosive and gas.

Percussion and electric.

Explosive and non-explosive.

68. Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuze installed?

Either the nose or the tail.

The nose fuze well.

The tail fuze well.

Between the lugs.

69. What are removers designed to do?

Remove obstacles from the ejecting pilot’s path.

Remove the aircraft seat from the aircraft.

Eject crew members safely.

Eject aircraft canopy.

70. How much force is required to function the M14 anti-personnel mine?

5 to 10 pounds.

10 to 15 pounds.

20 to 30 pounds.

20 to 35 pounds.

71. What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide?

Flash, smoke, and a whistling sound.

Flash, illumination, and a whistling sound.

Flash, illumination, and an explosive sound.

Smoke, illumination, and an explosive sound

72. What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) highexplosive round?

Comp B.

Comp C.

Cyclonite (RDX).

Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate PETN.

73. Which component is part of the ALE–50 series towed decoy system?

Launch initiator.

Launch controller.

Gas grain generator.

Battery-firing device.

74. What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser?

ARD 446–1.

ARD 863–1.

MK2 Mod 0.

MK107 Mod 0.

75. How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?

50,000 candlepower.

100,000 candlepower.

1,000,000 candlepower.

2,000,000 candlepower.

76. The FMU–54-series tail fuzes are used in

Laser-guided bomb series.

BLU–109/B-series guided bombs.

MK80- and M-series general-purpose bombs with conical fins.

MK80-series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder.

77. What setting causes the FMU–139A/B fuze to abort and not arm?

“LOW-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to the “X” position.

“HIGH-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to the “X” position.

“LOW-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to other than the “X” position.

“HIGH-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to other than the “X” position.

78. What is the weight of the BDU–48 series practice bomb?

10 pounds.

20 pounds.

25 pounds.

45 pounds.

79. The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately

50 feet per second.

60 feet per second

65 feet per second.

75 feet per second.

80. What bomb is filled a thermobaric explosive?

BLU–113.

BLU–118.

BLU–122.

BLU–126.

81. What air inflatable retarder (AIR) is used on the MK84 bomb?

BSU–49/B.

BSU–50/B.

BSU–92.

BSU–93/B.

82. What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold?

36.

24.

20.

16.

83. According to figure 2–48, the cluster bomb unit (CBU)–89A/B with a wind-corrected munitions dispenser kit is converted to a

CBU–104/B.

CBU–104A/B.

CBU–105/B.

CBU–105A/B.

84. What fuze is used in 30 (mm) high-explosive incendiary ammunition?

M505.

M505A1.

M505A2.

M505A3.

85. What type of bomb is the BLU–113?

2,000-pound general-purpose bomb.

2,000-pound penetrator bomb.

4,000-pound general-purpose bomb.

4,000-pound penetrator bomb.

86. The BLU–126/B is identical to the

M117, 750-pound bomb.

MK82, 500-pound bomb.

MK84, 2,000-pound bomb.

BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb.

87. Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–97 cluster bomb use?

SUU–66.

SUU–65.

SUU–64.

SUU–30.

88. The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the

MK82 high-drag munition.

MK82 low-drag munition.

M117 high-drag munition.

MK84 low-drag munition.

89. According to figure 2–48, the CBU–103/B is converted to a wind-corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) from what cluster bomb unit (CBU)?

CBU–87/B.

CBU–87A/B.

CBU–87B/B.

CBU–87C/B.

90. In an electronically timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?

Battery-firing device.

Arming lanyard assembly.

Electric charging assembly.

Electronically timed sensor.

91. Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers?

FZU–39/B.

FMU–56/B.

FMU–110/B.

FMU–124/B.

92. Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb?

BSU–50/B.

BSU–49/B.

BSU–93/B.

MAU–103.

93. Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use?

BBU–35/B.

BBU–36/B.

BBU–45/B.

BBU–46/B.

94. Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare?

BBU–35/B.

BBU–36/B.

BBU–46/B.

BBU–47/B.

95. Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting built into the fuze at the time of manufacture?

FZU–39/B.

FMU–56/B.

FMU–110/B.

FMU–113/B.

96. What suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize?

SUU–64/B.

SUU–65/B.

SUU–66/B.

SUU–76C/B.

97. What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143 series fuze?

FZU–39/B sensor.

FZU–48/B initiator.

FZU–55 series fuze initiator.

FZU–32 series fuze initiator.

98. What bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28C/B?

BLU–113.

BLU–118.

BLU–122.

BLU–126.

99. Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?

BLU–113.

BLU–118.

BLU–122.

BLU–126.

100. How do we classify explosive train primers?

By the size of the primer.

According to their location.

By the way they are initiated.

According to their functioning

2w051b Vol.2 Ure Questions I.Y.A.A.Y.A.S

1. What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?

3. Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?

4. The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and

5. What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?

6. What major aircraft systems carry countermeasure flares?

7. What is a requirement for military explosives ?

8. The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called

9. What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?

10. What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?

11. Where are proximity sensors/fuzes installed on a bomb?

12. What substance is the M112 demo block made of?

13. For what purpose do we use a shaped charge?

14. Name two types of effects for signals.

15. What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?

16. What will not cause the electric primer in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition to be fired accidentally?

17. How can you tell when an FMU–124A/B fuze is armed?

18. The major physical difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–89/B cluster bombs is the

19. The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the

20. What are the components of the 105 millimeter (mm) round?

21. The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and

22. Which mine do we commonly call the "claymore"?

23. What color is the most common for military safety fuze?

24. What is the M129 bomb used for?

25. The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?

26. With electrical fuzes, what device is used in place of arming wire?

27. What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?

28. How do we classify 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition?

29. What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?

30. Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round.

31. What material is the 30 millimeter (mm) cartridge case made of?

32. What are initiators designed to do?

33. How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?

34. What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?

35. What device is used to initiate time fuse?

36. Which part of the target practice 20 millimeter (mm) round is inert?

37. The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces

38. What are catapults used for?

39. Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce

40. What are the detonation products?

41. What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?

42. Name three classifications of Air Force grenades.

43. Against what types of targets is the CBU–97/B primarily used?

44. What M505-series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?

45. What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?

46. Which chemical filler is used in the AN–M8 smoke grenade?

47. What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?

48. What do we mean when we say the 105 millimeter (mm) is "fixed" ammunition?

49. What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal?

50. Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation PGU–45/B projectile produce?

51. The rate of transformation for high explosives is between

52. How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?

53. How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904 nose fuze?

54. What is one significant difference in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition compared to other cannon ammunition?

55. What does the SD–206 infrared flare do?

56. What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb?

57. What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality?

58. What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze?

59. What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B?

60. How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time?

61. When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container?

62. How many lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition?

63. What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce?

64. How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?

65. Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb?

66. What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?

67. What are the two types of impulse cartridges?

68. Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuze installed?

69. What are removers designed to do?

70. How much force is required to function the M14 anti-personnel mine?

71. What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide?

72. What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) highexplosive round?

73. Which component is part of the ALE–50 series towed decoy system?

74. What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser?

75. How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?

76. The FMU–54-series tail fuzes are used in

77. What setting causes the FMU–139A/B fuze to abort and not arm?