2T251 Vol 2. Air Freight

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 44

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2T251 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to
    • A. 

      Allow Aerial Ports of Embarkation (APOE) to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.

    • B. 

      Provide notification to the Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE) that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.

    • C. 

      Provide a way to process a shipment through the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • D. 

      Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.

  • 2. 
    The shipper’s second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to
    • A. 

      Determine the information necessary to complete the shipping documentation enlisting the help of the Air Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • B. 

      Pack and prepare the shipment for movement, applying any required markings, labels, or radio frequency identification (RFID) tags.

    • C. 

      Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).

    • D. 

      Make necessary arrangements for delivery of the shipment to the transshipment point, referred to in the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) as “making the shipment”.

  • 3. 
    Another name for a receiver is a
    • A. 

      Transshipper.

    • B. 

      Consignor.

    • C. 

      Vendor.

    • D. 

      Consignee.

  • 4. 
    Which agency challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and is the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver?
    • A. 

      Consolidation and Containerization Point (CCP).

    • B. 

      Direct vendor delivery (DVD) agency.

    • C. 

      Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • D. 

      Customer service branch (CSB).

  • 5. 
    When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA)?
    • A. 

      When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice.

    • B. 

      When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the Defense Transportation System (DTS).

    • C. 

      When the Consolidation and Containerization Point (CCP) has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE).

    • D. 

      When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.

  • 6. 
    What two types of data are entered on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?
    • A. 

      Prime and trailer.

    • B. 

      Prime and secondary.

    • C. 

      Secondary and trailer.

    • D. 

      Temporary and permanent.

  • 7. 
    Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) explains how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block?
    • A. 

      L.

    • B. 

      M.

    • C. 

      O.

    • D. 

      P.

  • 8. 
    What type of code represents the consignor/consignee blocks of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?
    • A. 

      Air dimension code.

    • B. 

      Document identifier (DI) code.

    • C. 

      Air commodity and special handling code.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC).

  • 9. 
    You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC) when
    • A. 

      You cannot gain access to the DODAAC website.

    • B. 

      You do not have a clear-text address to send the shipment.

    • C. 

      The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.

    • D. 

      You are in a deployed location and do not know how to query the location.

  • 10. 
    What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?
    • A. 

      How the shipment is packaged.

    • B. 

      The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.

    • C. 

      Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimensions.

    • D. 

      The specific method of transportation for each segment of movement.

  • 11. 
    Which transportation priority (TP) includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
    • A. 

      TP-1.

    • B. 

      TP-2.

    • C. 

      TP-3.

    • D. 

      TP-4.

  • 12. 
    The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the
    • A. 

      Three-digit Julian date.

    • B. 

      Estimated time of arrival (ETA) code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • C. 

      Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • D. 

      GMT hour code and the ETA code.

  • 13. 
    You use the transportation account codes (TAC) to
    • A. 

      Identify shipments that require special recognition.

    • B. 

      Identify the nature of the shipment and how to treat the shipment.

    • C. 

      Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments.

    • D. 

      Indicate the number of days a shipment will be in transit from the consignor to the aerial port of embarkation (APOE).

  • 14. 
    What is the formula to determine the cube of a shipment?
    • A. 

      Length × width ÷ 1385.

    • B. 

      Length × width ÷ 1728.

    • C. 

      Length × width × height ÷ 1385.

    • D. 

      Length × width × height ÷ 1728.

  • 15. 
    When a shipment arrives at the air terminal, your first job is to ensure the
    • A. 

      Cargo is frustrated properly.

    • B. 

      Shipment will fit on a given aircraft.

    • C. 

      Shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal.

    • D. 

      Driver has the required personal protective equipment (PPE).

  • 16. 
    Which publication provides detailed guidance on how to mark and label cargo properly?
    • A. 

      AFI 11–2C–XXX, Special Handling.

    • B. 

      AMCI 24–101, Cargo and Mail Policy.

    • C. 

      MIL–STD–129, Military Marking for Shipment and Storage.

    • D. 

      TO 1–CXXX–9, Mail Policy.

  • 17. 
    Identification markings and labels tell you
    • A. 

      What the shipment is.

    • B. 

      How to refuse a shipment.

    • C. 

      How to handle a shipment.

    • D. 

      Where the shipment came from and where it is going.

  • 18. 
    You place two military shipment labels (MSL) on any item over how many cubic feet?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 19. 
    When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it
    • A. 

      Anytime; there are no restrictions.

    • B. 

      When the shipper delivers the shipment.

    • C. 

      When an intermediate carrier delivers the shipment.

    • D. 

      When an Air Mobility Command (AMC) aircraft delivers the shipment.

  • 20. 
    You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
    • A. 

      Always; no exceptions.

    • B. 

      When the shipper delivers the cargo.

    • C. 

      When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

    • D. 

      When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.

  • 21. 
    Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
    • A. 

      SF Form 361, Discrepancy Report (TDR).

    • B. 

      SF Form 364, Report of Discrepancy (ROD).

    • C. 

      AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1387, Military Shipment Label (MSL).

  • 22. 
    In how many copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 23. 
    After the Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?
    • A. 

      Initial both copies and retain them for their files.

    • B. 

      Retain one copy for their files and discard the original.

    • C. 

      Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.

    • D. 

      Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file the original.

  • 24. 
    Using manual procedures, when you annotate the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD), what does it represent?
    • A. 

      The block time of the aircraft.

    • B. 

      The system entry time (SET).

    • C. 

      The required delivery date (RDD).

    • D. 

      The time the shipment was frustrated.

  • 25. 
    When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the 
    • A. 

      Air commodity and special handling code.

    • B. 

      Expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD).

    • C. 

      Transportation account code (TAC), project code, and type pack code.

    • D. 

      Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and document identifier (DI) code.

  • 26. 
    Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      18.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 27. 
    You finalize the receipt of a shipment by
    • A. 

      Completing a DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record, and having load planning personnel sign for the shipment.

    • B. 

      Turning it over to the appropriate pallet build-up agency.

    • C. 

      Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.

    • D. 

      Loading the shipment onto a K-loader and taking it out to the aircraft.

  • 28. 
    At manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel write which information on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processing function?
    • A. 

      SET and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.

    • B. 

      GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.

    • C. 

      Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left-hand corner.

    • D. 

      System Entry Time (SET) and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left-hand corner.

  • 29. 
    When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel attempt to acquire them, you must 
    • A. 

      Wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo.

    • B. 

      Store the cargo out of the way until you receive the manifests and process other shipments instead.

    • C. 

      Break all the pallets down and process them immediately.

    • D. 

      Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.

  • 30. 
    Which Air Mobility Command (AMC) form is used to log all terminating cargo and mail manifests? 
    • A. 

      214

    • B. 

      33

    • C. 

      2775

    • D. 

      156

  • 31. 
    A short shipment is a shipment that
    • A. 

      Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.

    • B. 

      Is listed on the manifests, but did not arrive at the air terminal.

    • C. 

      Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifests.

    • D. 

      Arrived at the air terminal, but removed due to suspicion of pilferage.

  • 32. 
    Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment? 
    • A. 

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer.

    • B. 

      Security Forces (SF) duty officer.

    • C. 

      Traffic Management Office (TMO)/air freight.

    • D. 

      Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

  • 33. 
    You leave in transit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie-downs, or radio frequency identification (RFID) tags when the pallets
    • A. 

      Air terminating.

    • B. 

      Arrived with no manifests.

    • C. 

      Are destined for more than one location.

    • D. 

      Are destined for a single location.

  • 34. 
    You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except
    • A. 

      Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.

    • B. 

      Postal authorities, when picking up registered mail.

    • C. 

      Aircrew members, when using cargo manifest.

    • D. 

      Truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate.

  • 35. 
    An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
    • A. 

      25,000.

    • B. 

      7,500.

    • C. 

      5,000.

    • D. 

      10,000.

  • 36. 
    You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Winching pallets is not authorized.

  • 37. 
    You are deployed and a cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?
    • A. 

      Chunks of mud under a vehicle.

    • B. 

      No amount of dirt is acceptable.

    • C. 

      Dirt and sand that you can pinch with your fingers.

    • D. 

      A thin film of road dust.

  • 38. 
    You have been tasked to scout your deployed location to look for pallets that are inappropriately stored and provide guidance to the users on how to stack them properly. One user has hundreds of pallets scattered over the yard and wants to know what the maximum number of pallets that can be stacked for storage (provided adequate dunnage is appropriately place)?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      25.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 39. 
    A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?
    • A. 

      50.

    • B. 

      40.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 40. 
    Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?
    • A. 

      A 38-inch high pallet weighing 6,500 pounds.

    • B. 

      A 94-inch high pallet weighing 10,500 pounds.

    • C. 

      A 100-inch high pallet weighing 12,150 pounds.

    • D. 

      An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.

  • 41. 
    You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?
    • A. 

      C-130.

    • B. 

      C-17.

    • C. 

      C-5.

    • D. 

      DC-10.

  • 42. 
    You are issuing three GBU-1/B straps to an Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) C-130. Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Pallet and Net Monitor Local Custodial Log.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 4069, Tie-down Equipment Checklist.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 8001, AMC Key Asset and Equipment Report.

  • 43. 
    You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy (AVB), and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which two other factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
    • A. 

      Movement indicator and SET.

    • B. 

      Weight and system entry time (SET).

    • C. 

      Movement indicator and type pack.

    • D. 

      Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator.

  • 44. 
    When internal slingable unit (ISU) containers are damaged during deployments, they may be accepted for airlift so the ISU can be returned to the depot for repair. How must they be prepared for airlift?
    • A. 

      Fully loaded on base support pallets.

    • B. 

      Loaded with no more than 5,000 lbs.

    • C. 

      Empty and placed on base support pallet.

    • D. 

      Loaded with no more than 5,000 lbs on base support pallet.

  • 45. 
    You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?
    • A. 

      355.

    • B. 

      150.

    • C. 

      200.

    • D. 

      100.

  • 46. 
    When building multi-pallet trains, you may need to use dunnage to help distribute the weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as what kind of weight?
    • A. 

      Net.

    • B. 

      Tare.

    • C. 

      Gross plus.

    • D. 

      Not annotated.

  • 47. 
    What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?
    • A. 

      Immigration clearance.

    • B. 

      Supply of pallet covers.

    • C. 

      Materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the pallet train.

    • D. 

      Multi-pallets in back log.

  • 48. 
    Who is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point?
    • A. 

      Load Planner.

    • B. 

      Shipper.

    • C. 

      Load master.

    • D. 

      Joint Inspector.

  • 49. 
    You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a center of balance (C/B)?
    • A. 

      Single pallet.

    • B. 

      Small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

    • C. 

      Shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long.

    • D. 

      Three-pallet train.

  • 50. 
    If the shipper decides to remove cargo from a weighed and marked vehicle, what must be re-accomplished?
    • A. 

      Remarking and reweighing.

    • B. 

      Remarking and reaccomplishing Joint Inspection.

    • C. 

      Reweighing and recomputing C/B.

    • D. 

      Reweighing and reaccomplishing Joint Inspection.

  • 51. 
    When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 39, Pallet Invoice, for a pallet, which information belongs in the "Oldest SET" block?
    • A. 

      Clear text Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and Julian date of the oldest piece on the pallet.

    • B. 

      Transportation control number (TCN) of the oldest piece of mail.

    • C. 

      GMT hour/code of the first piece you placed on the pallet.

    • D. 

      GMT hour/code of the oldest piece on the pallet.

  • 52. 
    Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built? 
    • A. 

      AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice and DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record and AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1907 and DD Form 2775, Pallet identifier.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 105, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist and DD Form 2275, Pallet Identifier.

  • 53. 
    Active radio frequency  identification (RFID) technology offers long-range interrogation form permanently mounted interrogators. What minimum distance is considered "long range"?
    • A. 

      300 feet.

    • B. 

      100 feet.

    • C. 

      10 feet.

    • D. 

      3 feet.

  • 54. 
    When you attach the radio frequency identification (RFID) tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached
    • A. 

      Near the highest priority piece of cargo.

    • B. 

      Outside of any plastic or over wrapping.

    • C. 

      On the bottom right corner of the pallet.

    • D. 

      Inside the pallet cover.

  • 55. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 56. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      7.

  • 57. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of corrosive materials?
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      9.

  • 58. 
    Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials?
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      9.

  • 59. 
    Which form do inspectors use to inspect and frustrate hazardous materials shipments?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1385, Military Shipment Label.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1387–2, Special Handling Data/Certification.

    • C. 

      AMC Form 1033, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1015, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist.

  • 60. 
    In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles
    • A. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • B. 

      Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • C. 

      Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • D. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

  • 61. 
    In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "O" means these articles
    • A. 

      Must not be loaded, transported or stored together.

    • B. 

      Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • C. 

      Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported or stored together.

    • D. 

      Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

  • 62. 
    The area surrounding aircraft transporting hazardous materials must be placarded to
    • A. 

      Let the explosives handlers know which aircraft to take the shipments.

    • B. 

      Warn flight line personnel to stay outside of a 50-yard radius of the aircraft.

    • C. 

      Warn the aircrew that they will be transporting hazardous shipments to their next destination.

    • D. 

      Let emergency response and other personnel know of hazardous materials and explosives presence.

  • 63. 
    When placarding aircraft, how must hazardous materials placards be displayed?
    • A. 

      Front only and at entry points.

    • B. 

      Front and rear only and at entry points.

    • C. 

      Cargo loading end and both sides only.

    • D. 

      Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.

  • 64. 
    Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?
    • A. 

      1.6.

    • B. 

      5.2 (Other than organic peroxide, Type B, liquid or solid, temperature controlled).

    • C. 

      7 (Radioactive category III – Yellow label only).

    • D. 

      8.

  • 65. 
    Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?
    • A. 

      1.1.

    • B. 

      1.2.

    • C. 

      2.1.

    • D. 

      4.3.

  • 66. 
    What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      Three.

  • 67. 
    Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?
    • A. 

      Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.

    • B. 

      Forward on non-jettisonable cargo.

    • C. 

      Anywhere, as long as it is compatible.

    • D. 

      On the right side only, as long as it is compatible.

  • 68. 
    During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft is
    • A. 

      Vented.

    • B. 

      Braced.

    • C. 

      Cleaned.

    • D. 

      Grounded.

  • 69. 
    Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1387–2, Special Handling Data/Certification.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 1015, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1497–2, Security and Classified Shipment Tally Record.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1033, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG).

  • 70. 
    If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shippers complete?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1387–2, Special Handling Data/Certification only.

    • B. 

      AMC Form 1033, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG) only.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1387–2 and AMC Form 1033.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1387–2, AMC Form 1033 and AMC Form 1015, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist.

  • 71. 
    When using manual procedures, you transfer custody of a shipment requiring security precautions by using the
    • A. 

      AMC Form 214, Security Cage Log and Inventory.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record or manual manifest.

    • C. 

      Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) manifest.

    • D. 

      AMC Form 1015, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist.

  • 72. 
    What is Defense Courier Service (DCS) material?
    • A. 

      Human remains (HR) shipments that require courier escort.

    • B. 

      Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort.

    • C. 

      Biological defense and refrigeration shipments that require courier escort.

    • D. 

      Money or gold bullion shipments that require high security and courier escort.

  • 73. 
    What is the maximum number of human remains (HR) transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 74. 
    You received a vaccine shipment that requires dry ice. Which form must be on the shipment to identify the requirement for dry ice?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1502, Frozen Medical Material Shipment.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1502–1, Chilled Medical Material Shipment.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1502–2, Limited Unrefrigerated Medical Material Shipment.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1502–3, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods.

  • 75. 
    You received a vaccine shipment that can be removed from refrigeration for short periods of time. Which form must be on the shipment to identify this requirement?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1502, Frozen Medical Material Shipment.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1502–1, Chilled Medical Material Shipment.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1502–2, Limited Unrefrigerated Medical Material Shipment.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1502–3, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods.

  • 76. 
    When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the
    • A. 

      Register number and the transportation priority (TP).

    • B. 

      Register number and the required delivery date (RDD).

    • C. 

      Transportation control number (TCN), weight, and cube.

    • D. 

      TCN and register number.

  • 77. 
    At a minimum, seal consolidated registered mail containers with
    • A. 

      Packing tape and boxcar seals.

    • B. 

      Packing tape and plastic or metal bands.

    • C. 

      Packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals.

    • D. 

      Metal or plastic bands, spray adhesive, and boxcar seals.

  • 78. 
    The Army receives approval to green sheet a piece of cargo. The cargo will move ahead of
    • A. 

      All other Army cargo.

    • B. 

      A Navy piece of 999 cargo.

    • C. 

      All other cargo in the air terminal.

    • D. 

      An Air Force piece of purple sheet cargo.

  • 79. 
    You work at an air terminal without an Air Clearance Authority (ACA) or a Customer Service Branch (CSB) and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment. Who initiates green sheet
    • A. 

      Air freight officer.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      Air terminal operations officer.

    • D. 

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) outbound controller.

  • 80. 
    All personnel performing what functions are required to complete the nuclear weapons related material (NWRM) fundamentals course?
    • A. 

      Passenger service, Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC), and load planning.

    • B. 

      Special handling, freight, ramp services, and load planning.

    • C. 

      Special handling, freight, ramp services, ATOC, security cage, and load planning.

    • D. 

      Special handling, freight, ramp services, passenger service, ATOC, and load planning.

  • 81. 
    In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle nuclear weapons related material (NWRM), what minimum percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing, and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?
    • A. 

      5%.

    • B. 

      10%.

    • C. 

      20%.

    • D. 

      25%.

  • 82. 
    You are a load team chief about to offload a C–17 with a mixed load consisting of pallets and rolling stock. Before beginning offload operations, you must consider the type of cargo
    • A. 

      Offloaded, equipment availability, and number of qualified drivers.

    • B. 

      On-loaded, equipment availability, and number of qualified drivers.

    • C. 

      Offloaded, number and type of equipment available, and number of qualified drivers.

    • D. 

      On-loaded, number and type of equipment available, and number of qualified drivers.

  • 83. 
    If using a pry bar to assist with loading, how much can you load on the pry bar?
    • A. 

      250 lbs.

    • B. 

      355 lbs.

    • C. 

      It depends on the aircraft.

    • D. 

      It depends on the applicable pry bar technical order (TO).

  • 84. 
    You have received an extremely heavy piece of cargo resting only on two skids. Which formula would you use to determine its contact area?
    • A. 

      Diameter2 × 0.785.

    • B. 

      Length × width (of each skid).

    • C. 

      Length × width (of each skid) × 0.785.

    • D. 

      Length × width (of each skid) × the number of skids.

  • 85. 
    You are loading a trailer on a C–5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances. In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during on-load, which type of shoring would you use?
    • A. 

      Bridge shoring.

    • B. 

      Sleeper shoring.

    • C. 

      Parking shoring.

    • D. 

      Approach shoring.

  • 86. 
    The special handling section is responsible for on or off loading
    • A. 

      Previously bumped/frustrated cargo.

    • B. 

      Any material that requires a shippers declaration of dangerous goods.

    • C. 

      Loose shipments of “life or death urgency” material, very, very important parts, and registered mail.

    • D. 

      Loose shipments of outsized cargo, cargo deemed “special interest” by command issuing transportation request.

  • 87. 
    Prior to loading the aircraft, the load team supervisor performs a pre-inspection of the
    • A. 

      Manifests, cargo, and load plan.

    • B. 

      Cargo load, the loading aids, and cargo manifests.

    • C. 

      Cargo load, aircraft cargo compartment, and loading aids.

    • D. 

      Load team members, the aircraft cargo compartment, and the cargo manifests.

  • 88. 
    You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?
    • A. 

      Clear.

    • B. 

      Spotter.

    • C. 

      Loading.

    • D. 

      Engine operations.

  • 89. 
    You are driving a Next Generation Small Loader (NGSL) and the spotter communicates the signal shown in figure T–1. What must you do?
    • A. 

      Stop.

    • B. 

      Shut down.

    • C. 

      Slow down.

    • D. 

      Tilt mast back.

  • 90. 
    You are operating a 60K loader and the spotter communicates the signal shown in figure T–2. What is the spotter telling you to do?
    • A. 

      Roll right.

    • B. 

      Right turn.

    • C. 

      Side shift right.

    • D. 

      Front yaw right.

  • 91. 
    Non-unitized warehouse skids or individual containers of explosives will be secured to forklifts for movement. The exemption for this is when
    • A. 

      Bumped cargo requires expeditious movement.

    • B. 

      Movement is within the 25 feet circle of safety parameter.

    • C. 

      Container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures.

    • D. 

      Shift supervisor declares supplemental restraint to be in “relaxed” conditions.

  • 92. 
    You are loading passengers on a C–17 in which several pallets are loaded. At a minimum, how many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      40.

  • 93. 
    You and your team are loading very heavy pallets on a C–5. Which of the following is the correct way to load the pallets?
    • A. 

      Load team personnel pulling them.

    • B. 

      Load team personnel pushing them.

    • C. 

      Gravity feeding them from the K-loader.

    • D. 

      Pushing the pallets out of control at excessive speeds.

  • 94. 
    How many 10,000-pound (lb) chains would you use to restrain a vehicle weighing 12,380 lbs for the forward direction when the vehicle is restrained to the floor of a C–17?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 95. 
    How many 25,000-pound (lb) chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo weighing 17,700 lbs for the vertical direction when the cargo is restrained to the floor of a C–5?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 96. 
    Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 97. 
    During engine running on/offload (ERO) operations, when are passengers loaded on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      After the ramp cargo is loaded.

    • B. 

      After all of the cargo is loaded.

    • C. 

      Before all of the cargo is loaded.

    • D. 

      Before the ramp cargo is loaded.

  • 98. 
    If concurrent operations are already in progress, load team chiefs and other personnel must report to whom prior to entering the area?
    • A. 

      Loadmaster.

    • B. 

      Ramp coordinator.

    • C. 

      Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).

    • D. 

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) senior controller.

  • 99. 
    Before performing any concurrent servicing operations, who is required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      The loadmaster only.

    • B. 

      All personnel involved in the operation.

    • C. 

      The loadmaster and load team chief only.

    • D. 

      The concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) only.

  • 100. 
    When can passengers enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operations?
    • A. 

      When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.

    • B. 

      When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the same side of the aircraft.

    • C. 

      When the cargo load team chief tells them to.

    • D. 

      Never.