2S051 Vol1

60 Questions | Total Attempts: 1139

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2S051 Quizzes & Trivia

2s051 Vol1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty are described in AFMAN 36-
    • A. 

      2101

    • B. 

      2110

    • C. 

      2201

    • D. 

      2903

  • 2. 
    Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
    • A. 

      Providing support to maintenance activities.

    • B. 

      Researching and identifying materiel requirements.

    • C. 

      Performing materiel management systems control functions.

    • D. 

      Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.

  • 3. 
    The purpose of the Air Force logistics career broadening program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and
    • A. 

      Interfaces.

    • B. 

      Processes.

    • C. 

      Perspectives.

    • D. 

      Provisioning.

  • 4. 
    What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected Materiel Management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA).

    • B. 

      GSA and Materiel Management System.

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC.

    • D. 

      Materiel Management System and DLA.

  • 5. 
    Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
    • A. 

      Effect One: Enterprise view.

    • B. 

      Effect Two: Integrated processes.

    • C. 

      Effect Three: Optimized resources.

    • D. 

      Effect Four: Integrated technology.

  • 6. 
    In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?
    • A. 

      Financial.

    • B. 

      Acquisition.

    • C. 

      Technology.

    • D. 

      Infrastructure.

  • 7. 
    Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
    • A. 

      Designed by a local commodity center.

    • B. 

      Sourced from another branch of service.

    • C. 

      Fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

    • D. 

      Purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC).

  • 8. 
    What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community?
    • A. 

      Local manufacture.

    • B. 

      Local purchase.

    • C. 

      Lateral support.

    • D. 

      Other services.

  • 9. 
    Which class of supply includes weapons?
    • A. 

      II.

    • B. 

      IV.

    • C. 

      VI.

    • D. 

      VIII.

  • 10. 
    Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
    • A. 

      III.

    • B. 

      V.

    • C. 

      VII.

    • D. 

      IX.

  • 11. 
    What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
    • A. 

      Deployment and Distribution.

    • B. 

      Traffic Management.

    • C. 

      Materiel Management.

    • D. 

      Management and Systems.

  • 12. 
    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron flight is responsible for stocking, storing, issuing, managing, inventorying, inspecting, and shipping DOD supplies and equipment?
    • A. 

      Materiel Management.

    • B. 

      Command section.

    • C. 

      Mission Readiness.

    • D. 

      Sustainment.

  • 13. 
    Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Materiel Management System?
    • A. 

      Administration.

    • B. 

      Item accounting.

    • C. 

      File maintenance.

    • D. 

      Accounting and finance.

  • 14. 
    What Materiel Management System process is activated if assets are insufficient to satisfy the requirement on the requested item?
    • A. 

      Receipt.

    • B. 

      Turn-in.

    • C. 

      Due-out.

    • D. 

      Shipment.

  • 15. 
    Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
    • A. 

      Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG).

    • B. 

      Miscellaneous file maintenance.

    • C. 

      Follow-up.

    • D. 

      Status.

  • 16. 
    How often is AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 17. 
    What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?
    • A. 

      Part.

    • B. 

      Section.

    • C. 

      Volume.

    • D. 

      Paragraph.

  • 18. 
    How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?
    • A. 

      Toolbars.

    • B. 

      Blue text.

    • C. 

      Dark red text.

    • D. 

      Solid black line.

  • 19. 
    How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?
    • A. 

      0223.

    • B. 

      02023.

    • C. 

      020203.

    • D. 

      0202030.

  • 20. 
    How many characters make up a national stock number?
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      13.

    • C. 

      14.

    • D. 

      15.

  • 21. 
    What two entities make up the national stock number?
    • A. 

      National Item Identification Number and Materiel Management Code.

    • B. 

      Federal Supply Class and National Item Identification Number.

    • C. 

      Federal Supply Class and Materiel Management Code.

    • D. 

      Materiel Management Code and Commercial and Government Entity.

  • 22. 
    How many major types of inquiries are there in the Materiel Management System?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      One.

  • 23. 
    Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specific information?
    • A. 

      Record retrieval.

    • B. 

      Supply management.

    • C. 

      Type record account.

    • D. 

      Transaction exception.

  • 24. 
    Which record retrieval code in the Materiel Management System gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 25. 
    What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the Materiel Management System to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
    • A. 

      C.

    • B. 

      D.

    • C. 

      F.

    • D. 

      R.

  • 26. 
    Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?
    • A. 

      Stock number

    • B. 

      Transaction serial number.

    • C. 

      Batch miscellaneous option.

    • D. 

      Batch transaction date and serial number.

  • 27. 
    Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?
    • A. 

      Abbreviated format (Option A).

    • B. 

      Short format (Option B).

    • C. 

      Short format (Option S).

    • D. 

      Long format (Option L).

  • 28. 
    Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
    • A. 

      Reject.

    • B. 

      Inquiry.

    • C. 

      Management notice.

    • D. 

      Management support.

  • 29. 
    Which chapter in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the Materiel Management System rejects created during processing?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 30. 
    Within how many workdays should all Materiel Management System rejects normally be processed?
    • A. 

      Seven.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      One.

  • 31. 
    Which product of the Materiel Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
    • A. 

      D818.

    • B. 

      D097.

    • C. 

      D043.

    • D. 

      D019.

  • 32. 
    Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase?
    • A. 

      MAN.

    • B. 

      MGT.

    • C. 

      MNT.

    • D. 

      MMT.

  • 33. 
    Who determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
    • A. 

      Individual flight chiefs and terminal security monitors.

    • B. 

      Logistics manager.

    • C. 

      Computer operations supervisor.

    • D. 

      Accountable officer.

  • 34. 
    User identification and controlled transaction identification codes are loaded to designated terminal functions by the
    • A. 

      Data processing center.

    • B. 

      Terminal security manager.

    • C. 

      Computer operations supervisor.

    • D. 

      Management and systems officer.

  • 35. 
    Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
    • A. 

      A flight request.

    • B. 

      A job order number.

    • C. 

      A cumulative reject.

    • D. 

      An approved supplement.

  • 36. 
    The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday?
    • A. 

      30th.

    • B. 

      20th.

    • C. 

      15th

    • D. 

      10th.

  • 37. 
    The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 38. 
    In materiel management, you will primarily deal with which divisions of the Air Force supply management activity group?
    • A. 

      General Services Administration (GSA) and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

    • B. 

      General support division (GSD) and materiel support division (MSD).

    • C. 

      Troop support division and MSD.

    • D. 

      Fuels division and GSD.

  • 39. 
    What is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to a Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) function?
    • A. 

      Check in and out with the flight chief.

    • B. 

      Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.

    • C. 

      Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past 3 years.

    • D. 

      Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.

  • 40. 
    How frequently should you schedule surveillance visit?
    • A. 

      As required.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 41. 
    During a surveillance visit, you should coordinate your review of management products with what activity?
    • A. 

      Training element.

    • B. 

      Analysis element.

    • C. 

      Base personnel.

    • D. 

      Statistical data.

  • 42. 
    When the Materiel Management System does not process or update transactions as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1810.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1815.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1820.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1825.

  • 43. 
    Who is responsible for submitting and monitoring difficulty reports?
    • A. 

      Procedures element.

    • B. 

      Data processing center.

    • C. 

      Administration element.

    • D. 

      Computer operations element.

  • 44. 
    A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected
    • A. 

      As workload permits.

    • B. 

      In the next scheduled release.

    • C. 

      On an Air Force suggestion form.

    • D. 

      Over the phone with the Materiel Management System control center.

  • 45. 
    What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?
    • A. 

      Trend analysis.

    • B. 

      Special studies.

    • C. 

      Problem analysis.

    • D. 

      Document analysis.

  • 46. 
    What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?
    • A. 

      Trend analysis

    • B. 

      Special studies.

    • C. 

      Problem analysis.

    • D. 

      Document analysis.

  • 47. 
    What transaction identification code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document?
    • A. 

      Due-out release (DOR).

    • B. 

      FIL.

    • C. 

      ISU.

    • D. 

      Special requisition (SPR).

  • 48. 
    What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 49. 
    What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?
    • A. 

      Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU.

    • B. 

      Source documents with file indicator D.

    • C. 

      TRIC FCU.

    • D. 

      TRIC FIC.

  • 50. 
    What materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Control (D04).

    • C. 

      Consolidated Transaction (M19).

    • D. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).

  • 51. 
    What materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)?
    • A. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Control (D04), part 1.

    • C. 

      Consolidated Transaction (M19).

    • D. 

      Conversion Audit List (R22).

  • 52. 
    What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?
    • A. 

      Daily Transaction (D06).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Control (D04).

    • C. 

      Consolidated Transaction (M19).

    • D. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).

  • 53. 
    The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?
    • A. 

      D04 and D05.

    • B. 

      D04 and D06.

    • C. 

      D05 and D08.

    • D. 

      D06 and D08.

  • 54. 
    What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?
    • A. 

      Hold an item that has not been confirmed.

    • B. 

      Determine whether an item is lost.

    • C. 

      Ensure an item has been shipped.

    • D. 

      Put an item on backorder.

  • 55. 
    All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail?
    • A. 

      Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares.

    • B. 

      Special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM).

    • C. 

      Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC).

    • D. 

      Shipment inventory.

  • 56. 
    What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?
    • A. 

      SSC.

    • B. 

      SSG.

    • C. 

      SCG.

    • D. 

      SCS.

  • 57. 
    What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
    • A. 

      R04.

    • B. 

      R23.

    • C. 

      R40.

    • D. 

      R43.

  • 58. 
    What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a freeze code?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      Q.

    • C. 

      S.

    • D. 

      U.

  • 59. 
    What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction?
    • A. 

      1AM.

    • B. 

      1CC.

    • C. 

      1TK.

    • D. 

      1WC.

  • 60. 
    What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?
    • A. 

      Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code (TTPC).

    • B. 

      Transaction serial number, quantity, and date.

    • C. 

      Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date.

    • D. 

      Quantity, TTPC, and date.