2A852 CDC Volume 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Intermediate.
- D.
Isochronal
Correct Answer
C. Intermediate.Explanation
The question asks for an Air Force inspection concept that is not included in the given options. The options provided are "Phased," "Periodic," and "Isochronal." These are all valid Air Force inspection concepts. Therefore, the correct answer is "Intermediate," as it is not an Air Force inspection concept.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Pre-flight.
- C.
End-of-runway.
- D.
Basic post-flight.
Correct Answer
B. Pre-flight.Explanation
A flight preparedness check is a type of inspection that is conducted before a flight to ensure that the aircraft is in a suitable condition for takeoff. This inspection includes checking the fuel levels, engine oil, control surfaces, and other crucial components to ensure that everything is functioning properly. The pre-flight inspection is essential for ensuring the safety and readiness of the aircraft before it takes off.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Pre-flight.
- C.
End-of-runway.
- D.
Basic post-flight.
Correct Answer
C. End-of-runway.Explanation
The end-of-runway inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft. This inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed its taxi and is ready for takeoff. It involves a thorough inspection of the aircraft's exterior, including the landing gear, control surfaces, and other critical components. The purpose of this inspection is to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition before it takes off.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When is the thru-flight inspection performed?
- A.
Between flights.
- B.
After the last flight of the day.
- C.
Before the aircraft goes on alert.
- D.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed.
Correct Answer
A. Between flights.Explanation
The thru-flight inspection is performed between flights. This means that it is conducted after a flight has landed and before the next flight takes off. This inspection is important to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition, all systems are functioning correctly, and any necessary maintenance or repairs can be addressed before the next flight. Performing the thru-flight inspection between flights helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When is the basic post-flight inspection performed?
- A.
Between flights
- B.
Before the aircraft goes on alert.
- C.
After the last flight of a specified flying period
- D.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed.
Correct Answer
C. After the last flight of a specified flying periodExplanation
The basic post-flight inspection is performed after the last flight of a specified flying period. This means that it is conducted once all flights for a particular period have been completed. This inspection is important to check the overall condition of the aircraft after a series of flights and ensure that it is safe and ready for the next flying period.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which inspection is not based on hours of operation?
- A.
Thru-flight.
- B.
Pre-flight.
- C.
Periodic.
- D.
Phase .
Correct Answer
A. Thru-flight.Explanation
Thru-flight is the inspection that is not based on hours of operation. This type of inspection is performed quickly between flights to ensure that the aircraft is safe to continue flying. It involves a visual check of the aircraft's exterior, including the engines, control surfaces, and landing gear. Unlike pre-flight, periodic, and phase inspections, which are scheduled based on the number of flight hours, thru-flight inspections are conducted regardless of the aircraft's operating time.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
- A.
Major.
- B.
Phase.
- C.
Pre-flight.
- D.
Hourly post-flight
Correct Answer
B. Phase.Explanation
The phase inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection. This type of inspection involves a thorough examination of specific components or systems of the aircraft, which allows for targeted maintenance and repairs to be completed efficiently. By focusing on specific areas during the phase inspection, the overall downtime of the aircraft can be minimized, ensuring that it can return to service as quickly as possible.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which inspection is not peculiar to the isochronal inspection system?
- A.
Minor.
- B.
Major
- C.
Basic post-flight.
- D.
Home station check.
Correct Answer
C. Basic post-flight.Explanation
The isochronal inspection system is a periodic maintenance inspection where an aircraft is thoroughly checked for any discrepancies or issues. The inspections included in this system are typically more extensive and time-consuming, such as major inspections and home station checks. However, basic post-flight inspections are not specific to the isochronal inspection system as they are performed after every flight to ensure the aircraft is safe for the next flight. Therefore, basic post-flight inspections are not peculiar to the isochronal inspection system.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form
- A.
781A
- B.
781B.
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
A. 781AExplanation
Each discrepancy discovered, excluding battle damage, is recorded on AFTO Form 781A.Rate this question:
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- 10.
At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
When you enter them in error.
- B.
When you find them to be incorrect
- C.
When you must correct a discrepancy
- D.
Never, even if you entered them in error.
Correct Answer
D. Never, even if you entered them in error.Explanation
The correct answer is "Never, even if you entered them in error." This means that you should never erase symbols that you entered on the AFTO Form 781A, even if you made a mistake. The reason for this is that any changes or corrections should be made by crossing out the incorrect information with a single line, initialing and dating it. This ensures that a clear audit trail is maintained and any changes can be traced back to the original entry. Erasing the symbols would not provide a clear record of the correction.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A for Red X discrepancies?
- A.
Date corrected.
- B.
Job control number
- C.
Complete discrepancy
- D.
Complete technical order reference.
Correct Answer
D. Complete technical order reference.Explanation
In the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A for Red X discrepancies, the required information is the complete technical order reference. This means that the person filling out the form needs to provide the specific technical order that outlines the correct procedure or action to be taken in order to rectify the Red X discrepancy. This information is crucial for ensuring that the correct and approved procedures are followed during the corrective action process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781C?
- A.
Provide engine configuration and flight status.
- B.
Provide avionics discrepancies and load status
- C.
Provide avionics configuration and load status.
- D.
Provide avionics configuration and engine status
Correct Answer
C. Provide avionics configuration and load status.Explanation
The purpose of the AFTO Form 781C is to provide avionics configuration and load status. This form is used to document and track the specific configuration and status of the avionics systems on an aircraft. It allows maintenance personnel to record any changes or discrepancies in the avionics configuration, as well as the current load status of the systems. This information is important for ensuring that the avionics are properly configured and functioning correctly, and for tracking any issues or changes that may affect the aircraft's performance or safety.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who checks the AFTO 781C before flight to make sure that the avionics equipment status conforms to mission requirements?
- A.
Aircraft commander
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Avionics manager
- D.
Quality assurance
Correct Answer
A. Aircraft commanderExplanation
The aircraft commander is responsible for checking the AFTO 781C before flight to ensure that the avionics equipment status aligns with the mission requirements. This includes verifying that all necessary equipment is functioning properly and ready for use. As the individual in charge of the aircraft and its operations, the aircraft commander plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and success of the mission.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who ensures the validity and legibility of all required entries on the AFTO Form 781C?
- A.
Quality assurance
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Aircraft commander.
- D.
Maintenance personnel
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance personnelExplanation
Maintenance personnel are responsible for ensuring the validity and legibility of all required entries on the AFTO Form 781C. This includes verifying the accuracy of the information entered and making sure that it is clear and readable. They are trained and knowledgeable in the maintenance procedures and requirements, making them the appropriate personnel to ensure the form is completed correctly. Quality assurance may also have a role in reviewing the form, but the primary responsibility lies with the maintenance personnel. The group commander and aircraft commander may have oversight, but they are not directly responsible for the entries on the form.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
- A.
781A.
- B.
781B
- C.
781H.
- D.
781J.
Correct Answer
C. 781H.Explanation
The AFTO form 781H is used to document maintenance status and servicing information. This form is specifically designed for recording historical data, including maintenance actions, inspections, and servicing details. It allows maintenance personnel to track the maintenance history of an aircraft or equipment, ensuring that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed and documented accurately. The 781H form is an essential tool for maintaining the overall readiness and reliability of aircraft and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What does a signature in the AFTO Form 781H, exceptional release block indicate?
- A.
Aircraft requires inspection
- B.
Aircraft requires servicing
- C.
Aircraft is safe for flight.
- D.
Aircraft is grounded.
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft is safe for flight.Explanation
The signature in the AFTO Form 781H, exceptional release block indicates that the aircraft is safe for flight. This means that all necessary inspections, servicing, and maintenance have been completed and the aircraft is deemed ready and safe to take off and fly.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which AFTO forms are used to document airframe time?
- A.
781J and 781C
- B.
781H and 781J.
- C.
781H and 781C
- D.
781A and 781C.
Correct Answer
B. 781H and 781J.Explanation
The AFTO forms 781H and 781J are used to document airframe time. These forms are specifically designed for recording maintenance and inspection activities related to the airframe. The 781H form is used to document scheduled inspections, modifications, and repairs, while the 781J form is used to document unscheduled maintenance and repairs. Together, these forms provide a comprehensive record of the airframe's maintenance history and help ensure the aircraft's airworthiness.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who is responsible for making entries on the AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle - Engine Flight Document?
- A.
Group commander
- B.
Aircraft commander.
- C.
Aircraft maintenance technician.
- D.
Aerospace ground equipment technician.
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft maintenance technician.Explanation
The aircraft maintenance technician is responsible for making entries on the AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle - Engine Flight Document. This form is used to record important information about the engine's performance and any maintenance or inspections conducted on the aircraft. The aircraft maintenance technician plays a crucial role in documenting and maintaining the engine's flight history and ensuring the accuracy of the information recorded on the form.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which AFTO form is used to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B.
- C.
781K
- D.
781C.
Correct Answer
C. 781KExplanation
The correct answer is 781K. The 781K AFTO form is used to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data. This form is specifically designed for recording information related to aircraft inspections and maintenance that may have been delayed or deferred. It allows for accurate documentation of any essential inspections or maintenance tasks that were not performed on schedule, ensuring that this information is properly recorded and addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Block D on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
- A.
Airframe time.
- B.
Exceptional release.
- C.
Engine servicing data.
- D.
Delayed discrepancies.
Correct Answer
D. Delayed discrepancies.Explanation
Block D on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document delayed discrepancies. This means that any issues or problems with the aircraft that were not resolved immediately or were delayed in being fixed are recorded in this block. It is important to document these delayed discrepancies for maintenance and safety purposes, as they may require further attention or repairs in the future.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What form is used for support equipment?
- A.
1492.
- B.
244
- C.
781A.
- D.
781K.
Correct Answer
B. 244 -
- 22.
Which part of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document equipment discrepancies?
- A.
Part I.
- B.
Part II.
- C.
Part IV.
- D.
Part V.
Correct Answer
D. Part V.Explanation
Part V of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document equipment discrepancies. This section allows personnel to record any issues or malfunctions observed with the equipment. By documenting these discrepancies, maintenance personnel can track and address the problems, ensuring that the equipment is properly maintained and repaired.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The AFTO Form 245 is used
- A.
To document quality assurance evaluations
- B.
To document scheduled maintenance on aircraft.
- C.
As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244
- D.
To allow supervisors to review equipment maintenance documentation.
Correct Answer
C. As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244Explanation
The AFTO Form 245 is used as a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244. This means that it is an additional page that is attached to the AFTO Form 244 in order to provide more space for recording information in Part V. It allows for the continuation of documentation without having to use multiple copies of the AFTO Form 244.Rate this question:
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- 24.
To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
- A.
AFTO Form 244
- B.
AFTO Form 245.
- C.
AF Form 979, DANGER tag.
- D.
AF Form 1492, WARNING tag.
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 1492, WARNING tag.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 1492, WARNING tag. This form is used to flag a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored. It is specifically designed to warn personnel about potential dangers associated with the condition. The other options listed, AFTO Form 244, AFTO Form 245, and AF Form 979, are not suitable for flagging conditions that could cause damage or injury.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms?
- A.
The bottom portion
- B.
The top portion.
- C.
Both portions
- D.
Neither.
Correct Answer
A. The bottom portionExplanation
The bottom portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms. This suggests that the information on the bottom portion of the tag is compared or verified against the information on the aircraft forms for accuracy and consistency.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When will the AF Form 1492, Warning Tag, be used in-flight?
- A.
Never.
- B.
Always.
- C.
For thrust reversers.
- D.
During emergencies.
Correct Answer
A. Never.Explanation
The AF Form 1492, Warning Tag, will never be used in-flight. This suggests that there is no circumstance or situation where this form is required or relevant during a flight.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of wire provides high temperature resistance?
- A.
Conventional.
- B.
Kapton.
- C.
Coaxial
- D.
Triaxial.
Correct Answer
B. Kapton.Explanation
Kapton is a type of wire that provides high temperature resistance. It is known for its ability to withstand extreme temperatures, making it suitable for applications where heat resistance is required. Kapton wires are commonly used in industries such as aerospace, automotive, and electronics, where they are exposed to high temperatures and harsh environments. This type of wire is made from a polyimide material, which gives it excellent thermal stability and resistance to heat.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the typical characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable?
- A.
50 ohms
- B.
67 ohms
- C.
76 ohms.
- D.
90 ohms
Correct Answer
A. 50 ohmsExplanation
Coaxial cables are designed to have a specific characteristic impedance, which is the ratio of voltage to current in the cable. The most commonly used characteristic impedance for coaxial cables is 50 ohms. This value is chosen because it provides optimal signal transmission with minimal signal loss and interference. It is widely used in various applications such as telecommunications, data transmission, and RF systems.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Triaxial cable is used when
- A.
Further shielding is required.
- B.
Further accuracy is required.
- C.
High temperature resistance is required.
- D.
Installed in exhaust gas temperature systems
Correct Answer
A. Further shielding is required.Explanation
Triaxial cable is used when further shielding is required. This type of cable consists of an inner conductor surrounded by two layers of shielding, which provides enhanced protection against electromagnetic interference. It is commonly used in applications where signal integrity and protection against external noise are critical, such as in high-frequency communications, instrumentation, and medical equipment. The additional shielding in triaxial cable helps to minimize signal loss and maintain signal quality, making it suitable for environments with high levels of electromagnetic interference.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is not a type of metal used in thermocouple conductors?
- A.
Iron
- B.
Gold.
- C.
Copper.
- D.
Constantan.
Correct Answer
B. Gold.Explanation
Gold is not a type of metal used in thermocouple conductors. Thermocouples are temperature sensors that work based on the principle of the Seebeck effect, which involves the generation of a voltage when two different metals are joined together at two different temperatures. Common metals used in thermocouple conductors include iron, copper, and constantan, but gold is not typically used due to its high cost and limited availability.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Why is it important to ensure that equal amounts of both wires are removed when cutting thermocouple wiring?
- A.
To maintain proper temperature indications
- B.
To maintain optical power transmission.
- C.
To maintain shock resistance
- D.
To maintain response time
Correct Answer
A. To maintain proper temperature indicationsExplanation
It is important to ensure that equal amounts of both wires are removed when cutting thermocouple wiring to maintain proper temperature indications. Thermocouples work based on the principle of the Seebeck effect, where a temperature difference between two wires generates a voltage. If unequal amounts of wire are removed, the temperature readings will be inaccurate as the voltage generated will not be proportional to the temperature difference. Therefore, equal amounts of wire must be removed to ensure accurate temperature indications.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type of solder is used in repair of thermocouple wiring?
- A.
Hard
- B.
Zinc
- C.
Soft.
- D.
Tin.
Correct Answer
A. HardExplanation
Hard solder is the correct answer because it is commonly used in the repair of thermocouple wiring. Hard solder has a higher melting point compared to soft solder, making it more suitable for high-temperature applications like thermocouples. It provides a strong and durable joint that can withstand the harsh conditions and maintain accurate temperature readings. Zinc and tin solders have lower melting points and are typically used for low-temperature applications, so they would not be suitable for repairing thermocouple wiring.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance may results in
- A.
Greater tension control.
- B.
Reduced shock resistance.
- C.
Greater elasticity of the glass fibers
- D.
Reduced optical power transmission.
Correct Answer
D. Reduced optical power transmission.Explanation
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance can cause the glass fibers inside the fiber to become misaligned. This misalignment can lead to increased scattering of light and reduced transmission efficiency, resulting in reduced optical power transmission.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which component of a fiber optic cable does not add tensile strength?
- A.
Outer jacket
- B.
Optical fiber.
- C.
Buffer jacket.
- D.
Strength members.
Correct Answer
B. Optical fiber.Explanation
The optical fiber is the component of a fiber optic cable that does not add tensile strength. Tensile strength refers to the ability of a material to withstand stretching or pulling forces. While the outer jacket, buffer jacket, and strength members are designed to provide additional strength and protect the delicate optical fiber, the fiber itself is not responsible for adding tensile strength to the cable. Its main function is to transmit light signals for communication purposes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Optoelectronic transducers perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
- A.
Amplifiers output circuit signals
- B.
Converts electrical signals to light signals
- C.
Converts optical energy to electrical energy.
- D.
Emit light when current is passed through them.
Correct Answer
C. Converts optical energy to electrical energy.Explanation
Optoelectronic transducers in a fiber optic transmission convert optical energy to electrical energy. This means that they are able to receive the light signals transmitted through the fiber optic cable and convert them into electrical signals that can be further processed and utilized by other electronic devices or systems. This conversion is essential for the proper functioning and transmission of data in fiber optic communication systems.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What must you do before installing a splice?
- A.
Remove the connector from the wire
- B.
Remove the insulation from the wire
- C.
Shrink the sealing sleeve
- D.
Shrink the crimp barrel.
Correct Answer
B. Remove the insulation from the wireExplanation
Before installing a splice, it is necessary to remove the insulation from the wire. This is because the insulation acts as a barrier and needs to be removed in order to establish a secure connection between the wires. By removing the insulation, the bare wires can be properly joined together, ensuring a reliable and effective splice.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How do you determine the exact length of insulation to strip from a wire?
- A.
Use the length of the wire stripping tool.
- B.
Refer to the appropriate wiring technical orders (TO).
- C.
Use the length of the heat gun
- D.
Refer to a co-worker.
Correct Answer
B. Refer to the appropriate wiring technical orders (TO).Explanation
To determine the exact length of insulation to strip from a wire, it is best to refer to the appropriate wiring technical orders (TO). These technical orders provide specific guidelines and instructions for various wiring tasks, including stripping insulation from wires. By referring to the TO, one can ensure that the correct length of insulation is stripped, ensuring proper electrical connections and preventing any potential issues or hazards.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Electromagnetic pulse (EMP) cable was developed with how many outer protective layers?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The correct answer is 3 because electromagnetic pulse (EMP) cables were developed with three outer protective layers. These layers are designed to shield the cable from electromagnetic interference and protect it from external damage. Each layer serves a specific purpose in ensuring the cable's performance and durability.Rate this question:
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- 39.
An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) hardened cable is considered nonrepairable by local personnel if it has damage to the
- A.
Cable jacket
- B.
Internal wires.
- C.
Outer braided shield
- D.
Wires at the connector
Correct Answer
B. Internal wires.Explanation
An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) hardened cable is designed to withstand the effects of an EMP, which can cause significant damage to electronic devices and their components. If the internal wires of the cable are damaged, it means that the cable's ability to transmit signals and protect against EMPs is compromised. As a result, the cable is considered nonrepairable because repairing the internal wires would require specialized equipment and expertise that may not be available locally.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is not a type of tape used in outer shield repair?
- A.
Electrical
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Polyester.
- D.
Silicone.
Correct Answer
A. ElectricalExplanation
Electrical tape is not used in outer shield repair.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to
- A.
Allow adequate airflow around wires.
- B.
Avoid violating the one-inch rule.
- C.
Allow flexing of the wire bundle
- D.
Avoid spreading of the contacts.
Correct Answer
D. Avoid spreading of the contacts.Explanation
Starting ties far enough back from the connector helps to avoid spreading of the contacts. If the ties are too close to the connector, they can put pressure on the contacts and cause them to spread apart. This can lead to poor electrical connections and potential signal loss. By starting the ties further back, there is less risk of the ties interfering with the contacts and ensures a secure and reliable connection.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What must be worn when using the cable strap tool?
- A.
Eye protection
- B.
Ear protection.
- C.
Wrist strap.
- D.
Gloves.
Correct Answer
A. Eye protectionExplanation
When using the cable strap tool, it is necessary to wear eye protection. This is because using the tool involves manipulating cables and straps, which can potentially cause debris or small particles to fly into the eyes. Wearing eye protection ensures that the eyes are shielded from any potential hazards, reducing the risk of eye injuries or damage.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What tool measures the specific degree of tightness of nuts or bolts?
- A.
Stress kit.
- B.
Bolt meter.
- C.
Tensiometer
- D.
Torque wrench
Correct Answer
D. Torque wrenchExplanation
A torque wrench is a tool that measures the specific degree of tightness of nuts or bolts. It is designed to apply a specific amount of torque or rotational force to a fastener. By using a torque wrench, the user can ensure that the fastener is tightened to the correct specification, preventing over-tightening or under-tightening. This tool is commonly used in automotive, construction, and engineering industries to ensure the proper assembly and maintenance of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A torque wrench is not accurate
- A.
Above 30 percent capacity
- B.
Above 20 percent capacity.
- C.
Below 20 percent of capacity
- D.
Below 30 percent of capacity
Correct Answer
C. Below 20 percent of capacityExplanation
A torque wrench is not accurate below 20 percent of its capacity. This means that when the torque applied is below 20 percent of the wrench's maximum capacity, the readings provided by the wrench may not be reliable or precise. It is important to operate the torque wrench within its specified range to ensure accurate torque measurements.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What do cable tensiometers measure?
- A.
Degree of cable density per linear foot
- B.
Angular torque of cable connections.
- C.
Specific degree of cable thickness
- D.
Specific degree of cable tightness.
Correct Answer
D. Specific degree of cable tightness.Explanation
Cable tensiometers are used to measure the specific degree of cable tightness. They are designed to determine the tension or force applied to a cable or wire, ensuring that it is within the desired range. This is important in various industries such as construction, telecommunications, and power distribution, as improper cable tightness can lead to performance issues or even failure of the cable system. By accurately measuring the tightness, cable tensiometers help ensure the safety and reliability of cable installations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Aircraft panels are sealed for protection against
- A.
Corrosion.
- B.
Chaffing.
- C.
Friction.
- D.
Theft.
Correct Answer
A. Corrosion.Explanation
Aircraft panels are sealed to provide protection against corrosion. Corrosion is a natural process that occurs when metals are exposed to moisture and oxygen, leading to the gradual deterioration of the metal surface. By sealing the panels, the aircraft's structure is shielded from these corrosive elements, ensuring its longevity and safety. This is especially important for aircraft, as they are exposed to various environmental conditions during flight, including humidity and precipitation. Sealing the panels helps to prevent corrosion and maintain the structural integrity of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What does sealant cure time depend on?
- A.
Temperature and relative humidity
- B.
Corrosion and relative humidity.
- C.
Air pressure and temperature
- D.
Temperature and corrosion
Correct Answer
A. Temperature and relative humidityExplanation
The cure time of sealant depends on two factors: temperature and relative humidity. Temperature affects the chemical reaction that occurs during the curing process, as higher temperatures can accelerate the reaction and shorten the cure time. Relative humidity, on the other hand, affects the moisture content in the air, which can also impact the curing process. Higher humidity levels can slow down the curing process, while lower humidity levels can speed it up. Therefore, both temperature and relative humidity play a crucial role in determining the cure time of sealant.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which is a good practice when installing a gasket?
- A.
Reuse the gasket
- B.
Use a new gasket.
- C.
Avoid the entrapment of air.
- D.
Use the opposite side of the gasket
Correct Answer
B. Use a new gasket.Explanation
Using a new gasket is a good practice when installing a gasket because it ensures a proper seal and reduces the risk of leaks. Reusing a gasket can lead to uneven compression and loss of elasticity, which can result in leaks and damage to the gasket. Using a new gasket also allows for a clean and smooth surface, promoting better sealing and preventing the entrapment of air. Using the opposite side of the gasket is not recommended as it may not provide a proper seal.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Why must gaskets be properly seated during installation?
- A.
To avoid leaks.
- B.
To eliminate cuts.
- C.
To provide strain relief.
- D.
To avoid entrapment of air.
Correct Answer
A. To avoid leaks.Explanation
Gaskets must be properly seated during installation to avoid leaks. When a gasket is not properly seated, there can be gaps or uneven pressure distribution, which can result in fluid or gas leakage. Proper seating ensures a tight seal between the mating surfaces, preventing any leakage and maintaining the integrity of the system.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which structural area provides access to perform engine maintenance and servicing?
- A.
Nacelles.
- B.
Windows.
- C.
Cargo door.
- D.
Empennage
Correct Answer
A. Nacelles.Explanation
The nacelles of an aircraft provide access to perform engine maintenance and servicing. The nacelles are the streamlined structures that house the engines on an aircraft. They are designed to be easily accessible for maintenance purposes, allowing technicians to inspect and service the engines as needed. This includes tasks such as checking for any damage or wear, replacing components, and performing routine maintenance procedures to ensure the engines are functioning properly. The other options, windows, cargo door, and empennage, do not provide direct access to the engines for maintenance and servicing.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 11, 2016Quiz Created by
Matthew Kenney
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