2A654 CDC All UREs

280 Questions | Total Attempts: 833

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2A654 CDC All UREs

All the UREs of CDC 2A654.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What type of fuel pumps are used for engine feed in the forward and AFT reservoir tanks of a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Single-impeller, turbine-driven

    • B. 

      Single-impeller, electrically driven

    • C. 

      Dual-impeller, turbine-driven

    • D. 

      Dual-impeller, electrically driven

  • 2. 
    What type valve is the crossfeed valve in a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Fuel pressure-operated gate

    • B. 

      Hydraulic-operated gate

    • C. 

      Motor-operated butterfly

    • D. 

      Solenoid-operated butterfly

  • 3. 
    What position would you place the ENGINE FEED switch in order to correct a fuel imbalance caused by to much fuel in the forward fuel system of a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      AFT

    • B. 

      FWD

    • C. 

      BALANCE

    • D. 

      NORMAL

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Air refueling

    • B. 

      Alternate

    • C. 

      Main tank

    • D. 

      Override

  • 5. 
    What valves must be open to feed all engines from the center wing tank on a tanker aircraft?
    • A. 

      Air refueling to engine manifold

    • B. 

      Gravity feed

    • C. 

      Tank to manifold

    • D. 

      Override wing

  • 6. 
    What causes fuel to transfer from the reserve tank on a tanker aircraft during flight?
    • A. 

      Air pressure

    • B. 

      Boost pump pressure

    • C. 

      Gravity

    • D. 

      Override pump pressure

  • 7. 
    Why is the output pressure and the flow ratings of a centrifugal pump greater then the amount the system needs?
    • A. 

      Provide fuel to the engines during negative gravity or inverted flight conditions.

    • B. 

      Prevent reverse flow of fuel from a pump with a greater pressure output.

    • C. 

      Prevent fuel boiling and evaporation in the wing tanks at high altitudes.

    • D. 

      Provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure.

  • 8. 
    What type of centrifugal pump is used when fuel supply is required during negative gravity conditions?
    • A. 

      In-line ejector

    • B. 

      Dual-impeller

    • C. 

      Rotary-vane

    • D. 

      Top-mounted

  • 9. 
    What item prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open  in a dual-impeller pump?
    • A. 

      An inlet screen

    • B. 

      An in-line filter

    • C. 

      A one-way check valve

    • D. 

      A two-way check valve

  • 10. 
    What does the arrow stamped on the body of a check valve indicate?
    • A. 

      Valve installation position to prevent air entrapment

    • B. 

      Location of manufactures data block

    • C. 

      Direction of fuel flow

    • D. 

      Direction of by-pass fuel flow

  • 11. 
    What feature prevents excess pressure from building up in trapped lines or within the body of a sliding gate valve?
    • A. 

      One-way check valves

    • B. 

      Spring-loaded check valves

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve

    • D. 

      Thermal relief valve

  • 12. 
    What type of seal is between the disc and the valve body on a disc-type valve?
    • A. 

      O-ring

    • B. 

      V-ring

    • C. 

      Gasket

    • D. 

      Metal-to-Metal

  • 13. 
    The best method for troubleshooting a fighter engine feed system component you suspect of leaking is to
    • A. 

      Operate the component and check for leaks.

    • B. 

      Pressurize the manifold with air and check for leaks.

    • C. 

      Pressurize the manifold with fuel and check for leaks.

    • D. 

      Stand test with fuel for 30 minutes and listen for leaks.

  • 14. 
    What is first checked when operating a boost pump problem on a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Continuity across the pressure switch

    • B. 

      Direct fuel pressure reading of the pump

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure switch reading

    • D. 

      Power to the boost pump

  • 15. 
    On a tanker aircraft, what prevents the engine from running out of fuel and flaming out if its main tank is hit by small arms fire?
    • A. 

      Automatic fuel monitoring system

    • B. 

      Engine flameout protection device

    • C. 

      Crossfeed system

    • D. 

      Fuel tank and engine sensing device

  • 16. 
    You are troubleshooting a malfunction of the crossfeed system on a tanker aircraft when you determine the is no pressure available to route fuel to the crossfeed manifold. The most probable cause of this malfunction is
    • A. 

      A malfunctioning boost pump.

    • B. 

      FOD stuck in a shutoff valve.

    • C. 

      An inoperative pressure transmitter.

    • D. 

      A stuck open check valve.

  • 17. 
    What is the most probable cause when a circuit breaker for a shutoff valve continues to "pop?"
    • A. 

      An open in the shut off valve circuit

    • B. 

      A defective circuit breaker

    • C. 

      Too much pressure in the system

    • D. 

      The valve motor has shorted out

  • 18. 
    What is the purpose of the power transfer method of transferring fuel on a fighter jet?
    • A. 

      Pressurize and scavenge the tanks

    • B. 

      Augment fuel transfer and scavenge the tanks

    • C. 

      Pressurize the tanks

    • D. 

      Augment fuel transfer

  • 19. 
    How many boost pumps are used on a fighter aircraft power transfer system?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 20. 
    Which fuel tanks will transfer fuel first in a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      External centerline

    • B. 

      Left wing external

    • C. 

      Right wing external

    • D. 

      Left and right wing external

  • 21. 
    You are troubleshooting a problem on a fighter aircraft. You find that none of the external tanks transferred fuel with the selection switch in the NORM position; however, the external wing tanks did transfer fuel with the switch in the WING FIRST position. The most probable cause of this malfunction is
    • A. 

      Centerline refuel/transfer valve is inoperative.

    • B. 

      External vent and pressurization valve is bad.

    • C. 

      External transfer shutoff valve is bad.

    • D. 

      Inoperative wing float valve.

  • 22. 
    How is the fuel level control valve on a cargo aircraft operated and controlled respectively?
    • A. 

      Solenoid/manually

    • B. 

      Hydro mechanically/solenoid

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure/solenoid

    • D. 

      Hydro mechanically/fuel pressure

  • 23. 
    What cargo aircraft component is designed to sense fuel pressure and transmit a signal to an indicator on the fuel management panel to allow determination of the boost pump output pressure?
    • A. 

      Pressure sensing element

    • B. 

      Pressure transmitter

    • C. 

      Pressure switch

    • D. 

      Pressure gauge

  • 24. 
    Which indication shows that a boost pump on a cargo aircraft  is putting out sufficient pressure?
    • A. 

      PRESS LOW light goes off

    • B. 

      PRESS LOW light illuminates

    • C. 

      Pressure indicator reads 16 psi

    • D. 

      Pressure indicator reads 20 psi

  • 25. 
    Which kind of fuel valves control the flow of fuel through the jettison system?
    • A. 

      Transfer

    • B. 

      Refuel

    • C. 

      Dump

    • D. 

      Vent

  • 26. 
    What safety feature in the bomber aircraft fuel jettison system prevents the accidental loss of fuel while the aircraft is on the ground?
    • A. 

      The DUMP switch cover is safety-wired closed.

    • B. 

      The DUMP switch is spring loaded to the OFF position.

    • C. 

      The landing gear must be in the airborne position.

    • D. 

      A shorting plug must be connected for the dump valve to open.

  • 27. 
    In addition to the dump valve, which valve(s) on a bomber aircraft must be open to allow fuel into the wing transfer lines to be dumped overboard?
    • A. 

      Ballast tank isolation valve

    • B. 

      Forward weapons bay vent disconnect valve

    • C. 

      Ballast tank isolation valve and forward weapons bay vent disconnect valve

    • D. 

      Main pressure actuated vent valve and forward weapons bay vent disconnect valve

  • 28. 
    Which would most likely be used to control the automatic pump shutoff, when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Pressure switch

    • B. 

      Toggle switch

    • C. 

      Float switch

    • D. 

      Float valve

  • 29. 
    Refueling by using the fuel-level control valves is a much safer operation than filler neck refueling because the valves will
    • A. 

      Provide an automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level.

    • B. 

      Automatically stop the flow of fuel into a tank prior to overflow.

    • C. 

      Signal the refueling monitor when to stop the fuel flow.

    • D. 

      Shut down the refueling vehicle if the tanks start to overflow.

  • 30. 
    What principle is used to control the fuel-level control valve?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic-electrical

    • B. 

      Electrical-mechanical

    • C. 

      Pneumatic-mechanical

    • D. 

      Hydro mechanical

  • 31. 
    What part of a piston-type fuel-level control valve prevents fuel from entering the tank?
    • A. 

      A spring

    • B. 

      The float

    • C. 

      A pilot valve

    • D. 

      The diaphragm

  • 32. 
    Approximately how much air space is left at the top of the fuel tanks of a cargo aircraft after ground refueling?
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      3%

    • C. 

      5%

    • D. 

      7%

  • 33. 
    Which cargo aircraft components should be operationally checked during the first few minutes of ground refueling?
    • A. 

      Single point receptacle drain pump and valve

    • B. 

      Refueling isolation shutoff valves

    • C. 

      Fuel-level control valves

    • D. 

      Separation shutoff valves

  • 34. 
    During refueling on a fighter aircraft, fuel was vented overboard the refueling operation would not stop. The most probable cause of the is an inoperative
    • A. 

      Refuel/transfer float valve

    • B. 

      Refuel shutoff valve

    • C. 

      Selective refueling shutoff valve

    • D. 

      Refuel/transfer control valve

  • 35. 
    What light on a bomber aircraft aerial refueling system  if all conditions are satisfied prior to boom and receptacle connection? 
    • A. 

      Amber DISC light

    • B. 

      Blue STATUS light

    • C. 

      Green LATCHED light

    • D. 

      Blue READY/NWS light

  • 36. 
    The aerial refueling circuitry on a bomber aerial refueling system is energized by the cam-operated aerial refuel
    • A. 

      Master switch.

    • B. 

      Pressure switch.

    • C. 

      Pull-to-refuel switch.

    • D. 

      Pull-to-refuel-handle.

  • 37. 
    What action(s) will generate command output signals from the electrical multiplex bus (EMUX) and energize the aerial refuel power supply on a bomber aircraft?
    • A. 

      Pushing up on the PULL REFUEL T-handle and placing the MODE switch in the NORM position.

    • B. 

      Pulling down on the PULL REFUEL T-handle and placing the MODE switch in the NORM position.

    • C. 

      Pulling down on the PULL REFUEL T-handle.

    • D. 

      Place the MODE switch in the NORM position.

  • 38. 
    Which condition will result in an automatic disconnect of the boom and receptacle during aerial refueling on a bomber aircraft?
    • A. 

      Boom travel limits are exceeded

    • B. 

      Reset trigger on pilot's stick is pressed

    • C. 

      Low pressure condition exists

    • D. 

      Fuel center of gravity is off balance

  • 39. 
    A manual disconnect of the tanker and receiver on a bomber aircraft has been accomplished. What action will reset the Universal Aerial Refueling Receptacle Slipway Instillation (UARRSI) and signal amplifier, causing the READY/NWS light to illuminate?
    • A. 

      Cycling the slipway to closed and open.

    • B. 

      Pressing the aerial refueling RESET button.

    • C. 

      Placing the pilot trigger switch to the first detent.

    • D. 

      Placing the MODE switch to the NORM position.

  • 40. 
    You are troubleshooting a malfunction in a bomber aerial refueling system. The fault code of the malfunction is 28-25-AM. What does the letter A indicate?
    • A. 

      The faulty component within the system

    • B. 

      Corrective action required to fix the problem

    • C. 

      The faulty system or subsystem

    • D. 

      A fault isolation diagram is provided

  • 41. 
    You are troubleshooting a problem on a bomber aircraft. At a certain point, the fault isolation diagram requests that you enter a parameter monitor code (PMC). To comply with the request you would enter the code on the
    • A. 

      System status panel in the aft crew station.

    • B. 

      System status panel on the windshield center post.

    • C. 

      CITS control and display panel on the windshield center post.

    • D. 

      CITS control and display panel in the aft crew station.

  • 42. 
    What type displacement jet/ejector pumps are in the tank scavenge system of a cargo aircraft?
    • A. 

      Constant

    • B. 

      Positive

    • C. 

      Variable

    • D. 

      Venturi

  • 43. 
    Combined with the ejector pumps, what cargo aircraft components keep the boost pump inlet submerged in fuel at all times?
    • A. 

      Vent box

    • B. 

      Float valve

    • C. 

      Surge box

    • D. 

      Check valve

  • 44. 
    You can determine whether the tank scavenge system on cargo aircraft is operating properly by checking the
    • A. 

      Fuel quantity indicators

    • B. 

      Sump low lights

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure indicators and the fuel quantity indicators

    • D. 

      Sump low lights and fuel quantity indicators

  • 45. 
    On a cargo aircraft, how much fuel must be present in a tank to perform a scavenge system operational check?
    • A. 

      6,000 lbs

    • B. 

      12,000 lbs

    • C. 

      18,000 lbs

    • D. 

      24,000 lbs

  • 46. 
    Which situation will cause the tank scavenge system's ejector pumps to not operate at full efficiency?
    • A. 

      Trapped fuel in surge box.

    • B. 

      Boost pump inlet screen clogged.

    • C. 

      Jet pump control inoperative.

    • D. 

      Low boost pump pressure.

  • 47. 
    What effect, if any, would a missing flapper valve have on the operation of the tank scavenge system?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      Undesired fuel would flow into the sump box.

    • C. 

      Fuel would be allowed to flow out of the surge box.

    • D. 

      Fuel would be stuck in the sump box.

  • 48. 
    How is fuel drained from the main wing manifold of a cargo aircraft after a defuel operation?
    • A. 

      Rotary vane pump

    • B. 

      Gravity flow

    • C. 

      Poppet drain valve

    • D. 

      Ejector pump

  • 49. 
    The aerial refueling manifold drain pump on a cargo aircraft is
    • A. 

      A turbine-type pump with positive displacement.

    • B. 

      A rotary-vane type pump with positive displacement.

    • C. 

      Centrifugal-vane type pump with variable displacement.

    • D. 

      Ejector-vane type pump with variable displacement.

  • 50. 
    When troubleshooting a manifold drain system, the best method you can use to determine whether or not a single point receptacle manifold drain shutoff valve has opened is to
    • A. 

      Observe the cannon plug position.

    • B. 

      Observe the manual override lever.

    • C. 

      Listen to the actuator motor for the valve.

    • D. 

      Take a voltage reading at the cannon plug.

  • 51. 
    While trouble shooting a problem with the manifold drain system on a cargo aircraft, it seem the SPR manifold does not drain after a refueling operation. You place the GRD REFUEL to the DRAIN position and then take a voltage reading at the applicable pins on the cannon plug for the SPR drain shutoff valve. You determine that 115 VAC is present and that the manual override lever is in the CLOSED position. In this situation, the malfunctioning component is most likely
    • A. 

      The GRD REFUEL switch.

    • B. 

      An inoperative valve actuator motor.

    • C. 

      The applicable circuit breaker.

    • D. 

      Faulty wiring.

  • 52. 
    What is the purpose of the cargo aircraft vent system?
    • A. 

      Assist in fuel transfer

    • B. 

      Pressurize external tanks

    • C. 

      Prevent overboard fuel spillage.

    • D. 

      Aid in the collapse of a fuel cell.

  • 53. 
    How does the fuel vent float valve operate?
    • A. 

      Air pressure

    • B. 

      Fuel pressure

    • C. 

      Mechanical linkage

    • D. 

      Electrical solenoid

  • 54. 
    Which situation could result in the malfunction in a fuel vent float valve?
    • A. 

      Operating the valve in a "dry" tank

    • B. 

      Rough handling of the valve

    • C. 

      Loose electrical connections of the valve

    • D. 

      Overfilling the fuel tank

  • 55. 
    Which action will initiate the combat pressure schedule of the internal vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Place the air refuel switch to the STANDBY position.

    • B. 

      Allow pressure in the internal tanks to fall below the control valve.

    • C. 

      Open the fuel tank manual depressurization valve

    • D. 

      Place the tank inert switch to the TANK INERTING position.

  • 56. 
    At what air pressure does the external tank and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft regulate the external tanks pressure between?
    • A. 

      10 to 14 psi

    • B. 

      15 to 19 psi

    • C. 

      19 to 24 psi

    • D. 

      25 to 29 psi

  • 57. 
    Where is the internal tank vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft located?
    • A. 

      Vent tank

    • B. 

      A-1 tank

    • C. 

      Forward reservoir tank

    • D. 

      Left wing tank

  • 58. 
    What would be the most probable cause if all external tanks on a fighter aircraft failed to transfer fuel?
    • A. 

      Refuel/transfer valve failed in the centerline fuel tank.

    • B. 

      Vent and pressurization valve stuck closed.

    • C. 

      Vent and pressurization valve stuck open.

    • D. 

      Remote sensing pressure relief valve inoperative.

  • 59. 
    What feature in a fighter fuel quantity indicator will indicate the sum of fuel in all tanks on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Probe

    • B. 

      Fuel load summation

    • C. 

      Fuel quantity select panel

    • D. 

      Totalizer

  • 60. 
    What type of capacitance tank units are used in external tanks on fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Externally-mounted

    • B. 

      Internally-mounted

    • C. 

      Flange-mounted

    • D. 

      Plate-mounted

  • 61. 
    On a fighter aircraft, the total digital readout displays the total fuel on the aircraft with the fuel quantity select switch in all positions except
    • A. 

      EXT CTR.

    • B. 

      NORM.

    • C. 

      RSVR.

    • D. 

      TEST.

  • 62. 
    Where are the fuel low-level sensors located on a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      A-1 and F-1 tanks

    • B. 

      Left and right external wing

    • C. 

      Left and right internal wing

    • D. 

      Reservoir tank units

  • 63. 
    Which component, when uncovered, will result in the illumination of a FUEL LOW light on the caution light panel of a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Control unit

    • B. 

      Fuel flow switch

    • C. 

      Fuel level sensor

    • D. 

      Probe

  • 64. 
    What is the unit of measurement for the opposition to current flow?
    • A. 

      Amp.

    • B. 

      Ohm.

    • C. 

      Volt.

    • D. 

      Watt.

  • 65. 
    A shutoff valve motor in an aircraft electrical circuit can be considered a
    • A. 

      Conductor.

    • B. 

      Control device.

    • C. 

      Load device.

    • D. 

      Power source.

  • 66. 
    What type of conductor is used extensively on aircraft to reduce weight?
    • A. 

      Multiple ground

    • B. 

      Copper tubing

    • C. 

      Wire junction

    • D. 

      Wire bus

  • 67. 
    Which external electrical circuit component may be considered to be both a protective device and a load device?
    • A. 

      Toggle switch

    • B. 

      Solenoid

    • C. 

      Resistor

    • D. 

      Relay

  • 68. 
    Solenoids are commonly used in aircraft fuel systems to
    • A. 

      Close a fire shutoff valve.

    • B. 

      Energize a boost pump circuit.

    • C. 

      Manually control a fuel level control valve.

    • D. 

      Open a disk-type shutoff valve.

  • 69. 
    Which component is designed to quickly connect and disconnect wires, thereby simplifying the installation of a shutoff valve?
    • A. 

      Cannon Plug

    • B. 

      Multiple group

    • C. 

      Wire bus

    • D. 

      Wire junction

  • 70. 
    While pins on a cannon plug are lettered for ease of identification, which letters are not used?
    • A. 

      B, E, and I

    • B. 

      C, Q, and S

    • C. 

      I, O, and Q

    • D. 

      O, R, and V

  • 71. 
    Which electrical schematic marking indicates a circuit breaker that protects an AC circuit from the isolated bus at 115 volts?
    • A. 

      28VDC ISO BUS

    • B. 

      28VDC ESS BUS

    • C. 

      115VAC ISO BUS

    • D. 

      115VAC ESS BUS

  • 72. 
    What is the purpose of a travel limit switch in an aircraft fuel system circuit?
    • A. 

      Allow a boost or transfer pump to operate.

    • B. 

      Energize a fuel level control valve solenoid.

    • C. 

      Send a signal to a light when the valve has closed.

    • D. 

      Remove power to a shutoff valve after it has opened or closed.

  • 73. 
    What does the letters "OL" on a multimeter digital display indicate?
    • A. 

      Meter is functioning normally.

    • B. 

      Test leads are incorrectly connected in the circuit.

    • C. 

      Circuit voltage is higher than the highest range selected.

    • D. 

      Battery on meter has less than 60 hours of life remaining.

  • 74. 
    To turn a multimeter on have it in the auto-range mode, you would
    • A. 

      Depress and hold the RANGE button for three seconds.

    • B. 

      Depress and hold the AUTO button for three seconds.

    • C. 

      Place the function selector rotary switch to any position other than off.

    • D. 

      Place the function selector rotary switch to the AUTO position.

  • 75. 
    What type of technical manual would you use to troubleshoot an electrical system problem on a modern-type aircraft?
    • A. 

      Fault isolation

    • B. 

      General vehicle

    • C. 

      Job guide

    • D. 

      Maintenance

  • 76. 
    You are trouble shooting an electrical circuit with the power off and all switches are in the closed or normal position. You check for continuity between the pins on a cannon plug and ground and find that an open exists. This would indicate
    • A. 

      Electrical shop personnel assistance is required.

    • B. 

      Faulty wiring in the circuit must be repaired.

    • C. 

      It is safe to apply power to the circuit.

    • D. 

      The meter setting are incorrect.

  • 77. 
    In what type of aircraft fuselage construction does  weight become a problem?
    • A. 

      Cantilever

    • B. 

      Monocoque

    • C. 

      Semimonocoque

    • D. 

      Truss

  • 78. 
    In the Semimonocoque type of fuselage construction, the longerons
    • A. 

      Are the strongest members of the fuselage.

    • B. 

      Provide attachment points for the skin.

    • C. 

      Provide shape for the fuselage.

    • D. 

      Servo no significant purpose.

  • 79. 
    Which major assembly provides the lifting for an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Elevator

    • B. 

      Empennage

    • C. 

      Engines

    • D. 

      Wings

  • 80. 
    Which flight control surface controls the directional movement about the axis of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Auxiliary flight controls

    • B. 

      Critical flight controls

    • C. 

      Primary flight controls

    • D. 

      Secondary flight controls

  • 81. 
    Ailerons and elevators are an example of
    • A. 

      Auxiliary flight controls.

    • B. 

      Backup flight controls.

    • C. 

      Primary flight controls.

    • D. 

      Secondary flight controls.

  • 82. 
    The proper "grip length" of a bolt on an aircraft is
    • A. 

      Slightly longer then the material being joined.

    • B. 

      One-half inch longer than the material being joined.

    • C. 

      The same as the thickness of the material being joined.

    • D. 

      Slightly shorter than the thickness of the material being joined.

  • 83. 
    Which type of bolt is used in fuel cell cavities and serves as attachment points for fuel cells?
    • A. 

      Eye bolts

    • B. 

      Hex head

    • C. 

      Internal wrenching

    • D. 

      Standard Bolt

  • 84. 
    Which type of screw would most likely be found on fuel system electrical components?
    • A. 

      Flathead

    • B. 

      Fillister

    • C. 

      Roundhead

    • D. 

      Socket hand

  • 85. 
    What type of rivet may be use for both interior and exterior application?
    • A. 

      Countersunk

    • B. 

      Universal head

    • C. 

      Roundhead

    • D. 

      Flathead

  • 86. 
    What is a feature of a hi-lok type fastener?
    • A. 

      It can be installed with hand tools.

    • B. 

      It can easily be overtorqued.

    • C. 

      It is a low-strength threaded fastener.

    • D. 

      It is a single-part fastener.

  • 87. 
    What is he allowable limit for scratches and nicks on straight sections of tubing?
    • A. 

      A dent on the heel of a bend with less then the recommended radius.

    • B. 

      A nick measuring in 12% of the tubing diameter.

    • C. 

      A scratch that measures 15% of the tubing wall thickness.

    • D. 

      No deeper then 15% of the tubing wall thickness.

  • 88. 
    What is not considered an unserviceable hose condition?
    • A. 

      Any evidence of abrasion or distortion.

    • B. 

      Clamps that do not restrict flow.

    • C. 

      Hardening or lack of flexibility.

    • D. 

      Separation of the cover.

  • 89. 
    What part of the Wiggins coupling provides the sealing action when the coupling is torqued?
    • A. 

      Gasket

    • B. 

      O-ring

    • C. 

      Snap ring

    • D. 

      Split washer

  • 90. 
    When securing closely spaced bolts what is the maximum length of safety wire that can be used?
    • A. 

      6 in.

    • B. 

      16 in.

    • C. 

      20 in.

    • D. 

      24 in.

  • 91. 
    What size cotter pin should be installed in a fastener?
    • A. 

      The smallest size that will fit.

    • B. 

      The largest size that will fit.

    • C. 

      Depends on the size of the bolt it's securing.

    • D. 

      One that is long enough to be bent over the head.

  • 92. 
    Some metals produce corrosion products that are so tightly bound to the corroding metal that they form an invisible oxide film. This film is called
    • A. 

      A corroding film

    • B. 

      A passive film

    • C. 

      An electrolyte film

    • D. 

      An active film

  • 93. 
    Moderate corrosion is usually removed from an aircraft surface by
    • A. 

      Brushing with a steel wire brush.

    • B. 

      Light hand sanding.

    • C. 

      Light mechanical sanding.

    • D. 

      Scrubbing with steel wool.

  • 94. 
    When installing removable screws and bolts, what portion is coated with sealant?
    • A. 

      All metal surfaces

    • B. 

      Lower sides of the heads of screws and bolts

    • C. 

      The holes where the screws and bolts will be installed

    • D. 

      Threads and shanks

  • 95. 
    Conversion coating (MIL-C-81706, Class 1A) is used to coat
    • A. 

      Aluminum tubing after removing corrosion.

    • B. 

      Stainless steel tubing which is exposed to outside environment.

    • C. 

      The interior of a fuel cell after removing fungus.

    • D. 

      Zinc plated fasteners prior to their instillation.

  • 96. 
    Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?
    • A. 

      Adjustable jaw

    • B. 

      Allen

    • C. 

      Recessed

    • D. 

      Socket

  • 97. 
    What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy?
    • A. 

      Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth

    • B. 

      Approved cleaning solvent

    • C. 

      JP-4 or gasoline

    • D. 

      Methyl Ethyl ketone (MEK)

  • 98. 
    Accident prevention involving hand tools is a matter of
    • A. 

      Ample practice and common sense.

    • B. 

      Good supervision and ample practice.

    • C. 

      Good working conditions and an ample amount of hands-on training.

    • D. 

      Proper instruction and training in safety practices.

  • 99. 
    Which type of torque wrench is most commonly used?
    • A. 

      Breakaway

    • B. 

      Digital

    • C. 

      Manual

    • D. 

      T-Handle

  • 100. 
    How many foot-pounds of torque  are produced by 120 inch-pounds of force on a breakaway type  torque wrench?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      60

  • 101. 
    The ratio of output pressure and input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is
    • A. 

      10 to 1.

    • B. 

      25 to 1.

    • C. 

      50 to 1.

    • D. 

      125 to 1.

  • 102. 
    After you are finished using a sealant fillet gun, what must be done to the gun?
    • A. 

      Clean off residual sealant

    • B. 

      Discard the residual sealant

    • C. 

      Replace the cartridge

    • D. 

      Turn off the pressure

  • 103. 
    What is the pressure ratio for the high-pressure injection gun?
    • A. 

      50 to 1.

    • B. 

      60 to 1.

    • C. 

      70 to 1.

    • D. 

      80 to 1.

  • 104. 
    What will happen to an air hose if it is run over by heavy equipment?
    • A. 

      It will get dirty.

    • B. 

      It will roll and become twisted.

    • C. 

      It will rupture.

    • D. 

      Nothing, air hoses are built for such conditions.

  • 105. 
    If you operate a pneumatic power tool higher then the specified pressure,
    • A. 

      Air compressors may pump condensation into the tool.

    • B. 

      It could cause "freeze-up" problems.

    • C. 

      It could explode and cause injury.

    • D. 

      It will automatically stop.

  • 106. 
    What button is pressed to turn on the T477W bonding meter display and change the meter range?
    • A. 

      ILLUMINATE

    • B. 

      START

    • C. 

      TEST

    • D. 

      LIGHT

  • 107. 
    What fuel maintenance support equipment item provides both low- and high-air pressure systems?
    • A. 

      MC-1A

    • B. 

      MC-2A

    • C. 

      MC-5

    • D. 

      MC-7

  • 108. 
    What fuel maintenance support equipment item is designed to operate pneumatic  tools at a maximum air pressure of 200psi?
    • A. 

      MC-1A

    • B. 

      MC-2A

    • C. 

      MC-1

    • D. 

      MC-2

  • 109. 
    How often should you empty the explosion proof vacuum?
    • A. 

      After every use

    • B. 

      Before every use

    • C. 

      Daily

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 110. 
    Which heater is not explosion proof and must be kept outside the fuel repair area?
    • A. 

      MC-1

    • B. 

      MC-2A

    • C. 

      HDU-13/M

    • D. 

      H-1

  • 111. 
    What system is installed in hangers that are used for curing sealant and purging?
    • A. 

      Air conditioner

    • B. 

      Climate control unit

    • C. 

      Rhine air fan

    • D. 

      New generation heater

  • 112. 
    What equipment provides air for rapid purging of fuel tanks and for breathing?
    • A. 

      Air and nitrogen servicing trailer

    • B. 

      Ambient ventilation and breathing air pump

    • C. 

      Fuel cell and tank servicing cart

    • D. 

      Ventilation trailer

  • 113. 
    What equipment item is used to support the inerting of a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Fuel cell and tank servicing cart

    • B. 

      MA-1 blower

    • C. 

      Nitrogen cart

    • D. 

      Ventilation trailer

  • 114. 
    What indication do you have that a generator unit is supplying power to the aircraft?
    • A. 

      A flashing amber light will illuminate on the unit.

    • B. 

      A light inside the aircraft will illuminate.

    • C. 

      The aircraft cockpit and wing lights will illuminate.

    • D. 

      You can hear the generator operating.

  • 115. 
    Maintenance stands used specifically for fuel system maintenance should be equipped with
    • A. 

      Handrail steps and wheel locks.

    • B. 

      Static discharge plates and hand rails.

    • C. 

      Static discharge plates.

    • D. 

      Wheel locks and bonding wire reels.

  • 116. 
    You are sitting in an outside repair area, how many individual feet may be required when using combination purging?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      65

  • 117. 
    Aircraft which are adjacent to an open fuel systems repair area must not be operated under their own power within
    • A. 

      50 ft.

    • B. 

      100 ft.

    • C. 

      150 ft.

    • D. 

      200 ft.

  • 118. 
    What outside agency must be notified prior to opening fuel tanks?
    • A. 

      Bioenvironmental engineering services

    • B. 

      Civil engineering

    • C. 

      Fire protection services

    • D. 

      Wing safety

  • 119. 
    How many people are required for fuel tank entry?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 120. 
    All "hot work" performed on an aircraft in a fuel system repair facility must be approved by the
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • B. 

      Ground safety office.

    • C. 

      Fire protection services.

    • D. 

      Fuel tank entry chief.

  • 121. 
    What is the minimum safe distance between an aircraft using full powered radar and the fuel system repair area?
    • A. 

      100 ft.

    • B. 

      200 ft.

    • C. 

      300 ft.

    • D. 

      400 ft.

  • 122. 
    An air compressor operating outside the fuel system repair area
    • A. 

      Does not require grounding or bonding.

    • B. 

      Must be bonded.

    • C. 

      Must be grounded.

    • D. 

      Must be grounded and bonded.

  • 123. 
    During tank entry, the  attendant is responsible for
    • A. 

      Alerting the fire department.

    • B. 

      Checking air supply source.

    • C. 

      Designating the entry authority.

    • D. 

      Evacuating the tank.

  • 124. 
    How often must the Emergency Response Plan be exercised?
    • A. 

      Every 6 months

    • B. 

      Every year

    • C. 

      Every 18 months

    • D. 

      Ever 2 years

  • 125. 
    What should the entry authority do with a canceled entry permit after task completion?
    • A. 

      Forward it to the base engineer.

    • B. 

      Forward it to the ground safety office.

    • C. 

      Forward it to the logistics group commander.

    • D. 

      Maintain it for a year.

  • 126. 
    What must be done when draining fuel into a metallic container?
    • A. 

      Bond the container to the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Ensure all facility doors are open.

    • C. 

      Place the container on the ground.

    • D. 

      Place several pieces of absorbent mat on the ground.

  • 127. 
    When blow purging an aircraft fuel tank, what step must be taken immediately after removing the access door?
    • A. 

      Bond the duct to the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Place the duct in the tank opening.

    • C. 

      Take a LEL reading of the tank atmosphere.

    • D. 

      Turn on the blower unit.

  • 128. 
    When removing fire suppression foam from an aircraft fuel tank
    • A. 

      Remove it as quickly as possible.

    • B. 

      Tear it as evenly as possible.

    • C. 

      Wear chemical-resistant gloves.

    • D. 

      Wear a half-face respirator.

  • 129. 
    What step must be accomplished before the structural support members of an integral fuel tank are removed?
    • A. 

      All panels have been accounted for.

    • B. 

      Permission has been given by the system manager.

    • C. 

      Replacement fasteners have been found.

    • D. 

      The stress load has been removed.

  • 130. 
    What is the purpose of the stringers in an integral fuel tank?
    • A. 

      To act as primary structural members.

    • B. 

      To give shape to the wing.

    • C. 

      To provide attachment points for the skin.

    • D. 

      To strengthen the spars.

  • 131. 
    What step should be taken first when attempting to locate a leak exit point on or near a common tank boundary?
    • A. 

      Defuel both tanks.

    • B. 

      Defuel the inboard tank.

    • C. 

      Defuel the outboard tank.

    • D. 

      Drain residual fuel from outboard tank.

  • 132. 
    What is the maximum PSI of air pressure that can be used to help dry a fuel leak once located the exit point?
    • A. 

      20 psi

    • B. 

      25 psi

    • C. 

      30 psi

    • D. 

      35 psi

  • 133. 
    Which aircraft fuel leak location is considered external?
    • A. 

      Lower wing surface

    • B. 

      Flats

    • C. 

      Slats

    • D. 

      Vented dry bay

  • 134. 
    What type of illustration of the structure should be drawn to aid  in locating a seal plane when troubleshooting a fuel leak?
    • A. 

      Cross-sectional

    • B. 

      Horizontal

    • C. 

      Inside

    • D. 

      Top

  • 135. 
    After finding the exact leak exit point, what is the next step prior to repairing the fuel leak?
    • A. 

      Drain the leaking fuel tank.

    • B. 

      Find the leak source.

    • C. 

      Prepare the dye injector.

    • D. 

      Remove defective sealant.

  • 136. 
    What is the last step performed while conducting the blow back method of leak source isolation?
    • A. 

      Adjust air source

    • B. 

      Apply air pressure

    • C. 

      Document the leak

    • D. 

      Mark the area

  • 137. 
    When should the hollow bolt dye injector method be used to isolate a leak source in an integral fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Any time the leak is larger than a class A.

    • B. 

      In conjunction with the pressure box.

    • C. 

      When the double cup assembly was unsuccessful.

    • D. 

      When the leak is at a common tank boundary.

  • 138. 
    What is the application life of sealant based on?
    • A. 

      50°F and 70% humidity.

    • B. 

      70°F and 50% humidity.

    • C. 

      Average temperature of the fuel.

    • D. 

      Water content of the fuel.

  • 139. 
    The time required for sealant to cure to a point where it will not stick to a plastic film is the
    • A. 

      Application time.

    • B. 

      Cure time.

    • C. 

      Drying time.

    • D. 

      Tack-free time.

  • 140. 
    Which type of access door seal is attached to the door during manufacture and requires and requires replacement for the entire access door in the event of a seal failure?
    • A. 

      Bonded-in-place

    • B. 

      Molded-in-place

    • C. 

      Formed-in-place

    • D. 

      Flat gasket

  • 141. 
    You should not apply sealant to an aircraft surface if the temperature is less than
    • A. 

      70°F

    • B. 

      60°F

    • C. 

      55°F

    • D. 

      50°F

  • 142. 
    When using a high power injection gun, which step will protect the structure?
    • A. 

      Applying a temporary repair.

    • B. 

      Providing an air escape.

    • C. 

      Removing only one screw.

    • D. 

      Using a low pressure injection gun.

  • 143. 
    Which is the most preferred temporary repair method?
    • A. 

      Aluminum foil patch with sealant

    • B. 

      Epoxy tab

    • C. 

      Hardman epoxy with aluminum foil patch

    • D. 

      Oylite stik

  • 144. 
    Which may be used to accelerate the curing of sealant?
    • A. 

      Accelerator

    • B. 

      Cold, dehumidified air

    • C. 

      Heat

    • D. 

      Moist heating pad

  • 145. 
    If the sealant passes all tests, the shelf life can be extended
    • A. 

      2 months from the test date.

    • B. 

      3 months from the test date.

    • C. 

      3 months from the expiration date.

    • D. 

      6 months from the expiration date.

  • 146. 
    Where are the self-sealing locations on a combination fuel cell?
    • A. 

      Bottom and aft

    • B. 

      Forward and aft

    • C. 

      Top and bottom

    • D. 

      Top and forward

  • 147. 
    What is the maximum hours a fuel cell should be allowed to remain without fuel before being plasticized or oiled?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 148. 
    When folding a bladder cell, the folds should not be located
    • A. 

      Close to any cell openings.

    • B. 

      In any particular symmetrical pattern.

    • C. 

      On the flat portion of the folded package.

    • D. 

      On compartment mounting pads.

  • 149. 
    Never attempt to fold, unfold, or flex a bladder cell if its temperature is below
    • A. 

      50°F.

    • B. 

      55°F.

    • C. 

      60°F.

    • D. 

      65°F.

  • 150. 
    Which condition will likely result in a fuel cell fitting leak?
    • A. 

      Applying torque to fitting bolts after instillation

    • B. 

      Hair or lint between an o-rings and its groove

    • C. 

      Installing a used but serviceable o-ring

    • D. 

      Petrolatum on the surface of an o-ring.

  • 151. 
    What is the most important factor in isolating in a fuel cell leak?
    • A. 

      Construction of a cross-sectional view.

    • B. 

      Knowledge of the fuel cell and cavity system.

    • C. 

      The size of the fuel leak and repair procedures.

    • D. 

      Whether or not the cell is a bladder type.

  • 152. 
    Which discrepancy would likely result in a fast and severe type fuel cell leak?
    • A. 

      Delamination

    • B. 

      Loose cell fitting bolt

    • C. 

      Loose interconnect fitting

    • D. 

      Pinhole

  • 153. 
    Which cell repair is best performed at depot or contractor facilities?
    • A. 

      Blister repairs

    • B. 

      Corner repairs

    • C. 

      Corrosion treatment

    • D. 

      Loose seams or patches

  • 154. 
    Which material is used for repairs on the outside of a bladder cell?
    • A. 

      Nylon fabric

    • B. 

      Rubber stock

    • C. 

      Rubberized rayon

    • D. 

      Semicured sealant

  • 155. 
    When a cell requires two patches, how much larger then the first should you cut the second?
    • A. 

      1/2 inch

    • B. 

      1 inch

    • C. 

      1 1/2 inches

    • D. 

      2 inches

  • 156. 
    What is the curing time for a cell repair using the vulcanization (hot patch) method?
    • A. 

      30 min

    • B. 

      1 hour

    • C. 

      2 hours

    • D. 

      4 hours

  • 157. 
    What action should be taken when a defect is taken in a removed fuel cell?
    • A. 

      Condemn the cell and order a new one.

    • B. 

      Pressurize the cell and check for other leaks.

    • C. 

      Refer to the applicable TO for allowable limits.

    • D. 

      Repair the defect and pressurize the cell to ensure it's repaired.

  • 158. 
    During an exterior fuel cell inspection, what is the maximum blister or ply separation before the cell requires replacement?
    • A. 

      1/2 inch

    • B. 

      1 inch

    • C. 

      2 inches

    • D. 

      2 1/2 inches

  • 159. 
    Fuel cells up to 1,000 gallons can be pressurized up to how many psi?
    • A. 

      1/4 psi

    • B. 

      1/2 psi

    • C. 

      3/4 psi

    • D. 

      1 psi

  • 160. 
    What AFSC identifies the awarded specialty that an airman is most highly qualified to perform duty?
    • A. 

      CAFSC

    • B. 

      PAFSC

    • C. 

      2AFSC

    • D. 

      DAFSC

  • 161. 
    A CAFSC is used to identify an
    • A. 

      Authorized manning position in which the airman is assigned.

    • B. 

      Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements.

    • C. 

      Awarded specialty in which an airman is qualified to preform all duties.

    • D. 

      Awarded AFSC other than primary AFSC.

  • 162. 
    Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of a STS?
    • A. 

      All tasks listed on the STS.

    • B. 

      Only those that are performed frequently.

    • C. 

      Core tasks only.

    • D. 

      Only mission critical tasks.

  • 163. 
    As an Aircraft Journeyman what are you duties regarding hazardous materials?
    • A. 

      Handle and label them according to only local environmental standards.

    • B. 

      None. You are not authorized to handle hazardous materials.

    • C. 

      Dispose of the according to applicable AFOSH standards.

    • D. 

      Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards.

  • 164. 
    Responsibility and accountability for mission results rest with which commander?
    • A. 

      Wing

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Squadron

  • 165. 
    What are the three types of wings?
    • A. 

      Operational, objective, and home base.

    • B. 

      Composite, operational, and objective.

    • C. 

      Operational, air base, and specialized mission.

    • D. 

      Air base, specialized mission, and home base.

  • 166. 
    Which type group is responsible for operating the primary mission equipment?
    • A. 

      Mission support

    • B. 

      Accessories flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance

    • D. 

      Operations

  • 167. 
    Which organizational group is concerned with maintenance of air and space weapon systems?
    • A. 

      Maintenance

    • B. 

      Logistics

    • C. 

      Weapons

    • D. 

      Operations

  • 168. 
    To whom is the component maintenance squadron commander for the overall squadron management?
    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force.

    • B. 

      Combat wing commander.

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 169. 
    PMEL personnel are assigned to which flight?
    • A. 

      Aero space ground equipment.

    • B. 

      Munitions.

    • C. 

      Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.

    • D. 

      Fabrication.

  • 170. 
    Maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by which flight? 
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment

    • B. 

      Fuels

    • C. 

      Electro environmental

    • D. 

      Pneumatics

  • 171. 
    Who is responsible to make sure there is a balance between sortie production and fleet management?
    • A. 

      Maintenance squadron commanders

    • B. 

      Logistics group commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 172. 
    Responsibility for establishing procedures to clear repeat and recurring discrepancies rests with the maintenance
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Section chief

  • 173. 
    Responsibility for enforcing sound maintenance practices rests with the
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Section chief

  • 174. 
    Who ensures there is an orientation program developed for all newly assigned personnel.
    • A. 

      Operations group commander

    • B. 

      Supply technician

    • C. 

      Fuels journeyman

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 175. 
    Who advises Maintenance managers of support problems and recommends corrective actions?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance training flight chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance operation control center superintendant

  • 176. 
    Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status of resources is a function of the
    • A. 

      Maintenance and operations flight.

    • B. 

      Logistic readiness squadron.

    • C. 

      Civil engineering squadron.

    • D. 

      Weapons and tactic flight.

  • 177. 
    An over the shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action is a
    • A. 

      Quality inspection.

    • B. 

      Personnel evaluation.

    • C. 

      Technical inspection.

    • D. 

      Supplemental inspection.

  • 178. 
    The product improvement program emphasizes and promotes
    • A. 

      Time compliance TO deadlines.

    • B. 

      Deficiency analysis programs.

    • C. 

      Due in from maintenance deadlines.

    • D. 

      Deficiency reporting programs.

  • 179. 
    What source provides the career knowledge training required for upgrade to 5-skill level?
    • A. 

      Job Proficiency.

    • B. 

      CDC.

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard.

    • D. 

      Technical Orders.

  • 180. 
    What kind of workcards may be authorized for use during contingencies?
    • A. 

      Contingency decks.

    • B. 

      Inspection decks.

    • C. 

      Periodic workcards.

    • D. 

      Deployed workcards.

  • 181. 
    Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 182. 
    Which type of inspection looks for cut tires, FOD covers, and removal of safety pins?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 183. 
    Which type of inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 184. 
    Which inspection augments the basic post-flight?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 185. 
    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce
    • A. 

      Number of required inspections.

    • B. 

      Number of personnel conducting inspection.

    • C. 

      Out of commission time.

    • D. 

      Number of hours between inspections.

  • 186. 
    Which inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the weapon system and each of the requirements may be more extensive in scope?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Home station check

    • C. 

      Minor

    • D. 

      Major

  • 187. 
    Which inspection consists of checking certain components, areas, or systems to ensure no condition exists that could result in failure before the next schedules inspection.
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Phase

    • C. 

      Home station check

    • D. 

      Thru-flight

  • 188. 
    What type of inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 189. 
    What type of inspection is outlined in the -6 TO and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item requires inspection?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 190. 
    What type of inspection is conducted when an aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents.
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 191. 
    During an inspection, when are all write ups found and documented?
    • A. 

      Pre-inspection meeting

    • B. 

      Look phase

    • C. 

      Fix phase

    • D. 

      Post inspection phase

  • 192. 
    During an inspection, when does the performance of operational checks and functional check flights begin?
    • A. 

      Pre-inspection meeting

    • B. 

      Look phase

    • C. 

      Fix phase

    • D. 

      Post inspection phase

  • 193. 
    When you clear a discrepancy in AFTO 781, what will be placed over the symbol?
    • A. 

      Minimum signature

    • B. 

      Last name initial

    • C. 

      First name initial

    • D. 

      First and last name initials

  • 194. 
    Prior to performing maintenance, you review the AFTO 781's to ensure
    • A. 

      There are no potential safety hazards.

    • B. 

      There are no open fuel tanks.

    • C. 

      There are no open discrepancies.

    • D. 

      Air pressure in the tires are good before refueling.

  • 195. 
    What type of entry on AFTO 781 A does not require a symbol?
    • A. 

      Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem.

    • B. 

      Functional check flight due.

    • C. 

      Informational not affecting flight safety.

    • D. 

      Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot.

  • 196. 
    On the AFTO form 781H, after refueling the aircraft, the person who performs or supervises the operation puts their name in block 14 using what format?
    • A. 

      First name only

    • B. 

      Last name only

    • C. 

      Printed first and last name

    • D. 

      Minimum signature (first initial and last name)

  • 197. 
    What part of the AFTO Form 244 provides a means to document a quality control review of the form?
    • A. 

      PART II, NON-SCHDULED INSPECTIONS

    • B. 

      PART III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • C. 

      PART IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW

    • D. 

      PART V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD

  • 198. 
    What part of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document delayed discrepancies and overdue time changes?
    • A. 

      PART II, NON-SCHDULED INSPECTIONS

    • B. 

      PART III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • C. 

      PART IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW

    • D. 

      PART V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD

  • 199. 
    In which AFTO Form 95 block do you enter manufacturer's name?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 200. 
    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished the AFTO Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is
    • A. 

      Destroyed.

    • B. 

      Maintained as historical data.

    • C. 

      Re-accomplished.

    • D. 

      Cleared.

  • 201. 
    What percent of all accidents is due to natural causes?
    • A. 

      Eight

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Two

  • 202. 
    What may be considered a direct cause of any accident?
    • A. 

      Unchangeable circumstances

    • B. 

      Unsafe acts and conditions

    • C. 

      Lack of adequate training

    • D. 

      Inattentiveness

  • 203. 
    The first rule of good housekeeping is
    • A. 

      Scheduled clean up time.

    • B. 

      Clean floors.

    • C. 

      Personal cleanliness.

    • D. 

      A neat and orderly desk.

  • 204. 
    Many accidents can be prevented by simply
    • A. 

      Keeping your work area clean and orderly.

    • B. 

      Practicing good practical hygiene.

    • C. 

      Clean fuel spills at the end of the day.

    • D. 

      Keeping bench stock in its place.

  • 205. 
    All of these are an example of internal distractors except
    • A. 

      Daydreaming.

    • B. 

      Thinking about problems.

    • C. 

      Noises.

    • D. 

      Boredom.

  • 206. 
    The main purpose of ground mishap reporting is to
    • A. 

      Identify circumstances or causes so future accidents can be prevented.

    • B. 

      Establish the circumstances so that accidents can be properly classified.

    • C. 

      Determine if non-Air Force personnel or property was involved.

    • D. 

      Establish the causes to determine financial responsibility.

  • 207. 
    An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. What kind of mishap is this?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D

  • 208. 
    Which of these results would categorize an accident as a class C mishap?
    • A. 

      A fatality

    • B. 

      Property damage resulting in $5,000

    • C. 

      One or more days from work

    • D. 

      Permanent partial disability

  • 209. 
    Which best describes effective grounding?
    • A. 

      Bonding the aircraft to a static ground.

    • B. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point.

    • C. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to flow to dissipate between units.

    • D. 

      Providing static discharge plates on equipment.

  • 210. 
    An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. What kind of mishap is this?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D

  • 211. 
    The purpose of bonding is to eliminate
    • A. 

      Differential in electrical charges between a component and the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Static differential in an aircraft by providing a path to ground.

    • C. 

      Electrical charge by splitting it between two components.

    • D. 

      Static electricity.

  • 212. 
    What should you use to prevent other maintainers of inadvertently operating devices such as landing gear and flight control surfaces.
    • A. 

      Red Streamers

    • B. 

      Red Tags

    • C. 

      Danger Tags

    • D. 

      Warning tags

  • 213. 
    What type of communication may be used during ground refueling operations?
    • A. 

      Aircraft radio systems.

    • B. 

      Hand-held walkie-talkies.

    • C. 

      Aircraft intercommunication system.

    • D. 

      Battery-powered radios only.

  • 214. 
    Two major contributors to foreign object damage are poor 
    • A. 

      Organization and planning.

    • B. 

      Housekeeping and organization.

    • C. 

      Planning and work habits.

    • D. 

      Work habits and house keeping.

  • 215. 
    The three general classes of FOD are
    • A. 

      Metal, stone, misc.

    • B. 

      Stone, organic, misc.

    • C. 

      Metal, cloth, organic.

    • D. 

      Cloth, stone, misc.

  • 216. 
    What are two ways to control FOD?
    • A. 

      Tool control and Operation Clean Sweep.

    • B. 

      FOD walks and FOD bags.

    • C. 

      Trash detail and FOD walks.

    • D. 

      Tire checks and trash removal.

  • 217. 
    Volatility is the rate at which fuel
    • A. 

      Produces combustion

    • B. 

      Vaproizes

    • C. 

      Burns

    • D. 

      Evaporates

  • 218. 
    One of the most common signs of excessive fuel vapor inhalation is
    • A. 

      Euphoria.

    • B. 

      Skin irritation.

    • C. 

      Muscular uncoordination.

    • D. 

      Hallucinations.

  • 219. 
    What action must be taken regarding a Class I fuel spill on the flightline?
    • A. 

      Post people as fire guards and immediately notify fire protection personnel.

    • B. 

      Monitor the spill until fire protection personnel arrive.

    • C. 

      Immediately notify fire protection personnel and environmental services.

    • D. 

      Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved.

  • 220. 
    Which class of fuel spill is considered a ground mishap, and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 221. 
    Nitrogen can be dangerous because it
    • A. 

      Does not support life.

    • B. 

      Gives off toxic fumes.

    • C. 

      Is flammable.

    • D. 

      Is combustible.

  • 222. 
    At what percent of oxygen is the atmosphere level considered to be oxygen deficient?
    • A. 

      Anything greater then 23.5%.

    • B. 

      19.5% to 23.5%.

    • C. 

      23.5% or lower.

    • D. 

      Less than 19.5%.

  • 223. 
    Respirator training must be documented on AF form?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      623

    • C. 

      1071

    • D. 

      1098

  • 224. 
    How often should individually issued respirators be cleaned and sanitized?
    • A. 

      At the end of each day in which they were used.

    • B. 

      At the beginning of each day in which they were used.

    • C. 

      After every use.

    • D. 

      Before every use.

  • 225. 
    How often must respirators stored for emergency or rescue be inspected?
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Semiannually

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Daily

  • 226. 
    What footwear items are authorized for wear inside a fuel cell?
    • A. 

      Gym shoes.

    • B. 

      Clean boots with or without covers.

    • C. 

      Static resistant or neoprene booties.

    • D. 

      Steel-toe boots with covers.

  • 227. 
    Who determines the type of ear protection required for all aspect of your job?
    • A. 

      Personnel in the flight surgeon office.

    • B. 

      Local bioenvironmental flight personnel.

    • C. 

      Fuel element shop chief.

    • D. 

      Ground safety personnel.

  • 228. 
    What type of index TO Is most frequently used?
    • A. 

      Alphabetical

    • B. 

      Cross reference

    • C. 

      Numerical

    • D. 

      Quick reference

  • 229. 
    What is not listed by the index TO?
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Number of pages

    • C. 

      Changes

    • D. 

      Basic date

  • 230. 
    Which is a complete listings of TOs for a specific weapon system?
    • A. 

      Alphabetical index TO

    • B. 

      Cross reference table

    • C. 

      List of applicable pages

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 231. 
    What type of O&M TO will give you details theories of operation?
    • A. 

      Fault isolation

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      Job guide

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures

  • 232. 
    What type of O&M TO enables you to isolate a malfunctioning component?
    • A. 

      Check list

    • B. 

      General vehicle

    • C. 

      Job guide

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting

  • 233. 
    What type of TCTO is issued for condition that could result in a fatality if not corrected?
    • A. 

      Urgent action

    • B. 

      Routine action

    • C. 

      Immediate action

    • D. 

      Emergency action

  • 234. 
    Which of TCTO requires compliance within a specified time limit of one of ten days?
    • A. 

      Routine action

    • B. 

      Immediate action

    • C. 

      Emergency action

    • D. 

      Urgent action

  • 235. 
    Which TCTO can be identified by a boarder of alternately spaced red diagonals and red Xs on the title page?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 236. 
    What type of TOs are general in nature?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance

    • B. 

      Methods and procedures

    • C. 

      Policy and procedure

    • D. 

      Job guide

  • 237. 
    Which TO will give you detailed information on how to correctly complete Air Force TO forms?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-3

  • 238. 
    What type of TO is mainly a work simplification device?
    • A. 

      Time Compliance TO

    • B. 

      Index

    • C. 

      Directory

    • D. 

      Abbreviated

  • 239. 
    Inspection requirements from the -6 inspection TO is listed in
    • A. 

      Checklist.

    • B. 

      Inspection sequence charts.

    • C. 

      Inspection work cards.

    • D. 

      Job guides.

  • 240. 
    Which abbreviated TO is meant to be followed step by step?
    • A. 

      Inspection work cards

    • B. 

      Checklist

    • C. 

      Inspection sequence charts

    • D. 

      Fault isolation

  • 241. 
    What does the first number in the TO number designate?
    • A. 

      TO category

    • B. 

      Type of manual

    • C. 

      Specific system

    • D. 

      Component inspection requirements

  • 242. 
    If the aircraft TO number only has three parts, what does the third part identify?
    • A. 

      Series

    • B. 

      Category

    • C. 

      Type

    • D. 

      Volume

  • 243. 
    What does the fourth part of the MIDAS manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Aircraft model and series

    • B. 

      Chapter number and subject matter

    • C. 

      Type of aircraft

    • D. 

      Type of manual

  • 244. 
    What does the fifth part of the MIDAS manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Supplemental manual

    • B. 

      Chapter number

    • C. 

      Type of manual

    • D. 

      Subsystem

  • 245. 
    What are the three types of TO improvement reports?
    • A. 

      Immediate, urgent, and routine

    • B. 

      Emergency, interim, and urgent

    • C. 

      Interim, immediate, and priority

    • D. 

      Urgent, emergency, and routine

  • 246. 
    A work stoppage caused by a TO deficiency is considered to be a basis for what kind of TO improvement report?
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Routine

  • 247. 
    Which AFTO From 22 report requires a response within 45 calendar days after receipt?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Priority

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Record

  • 248. 
    The Air Force supply system
    • A. 

      Contains a limited amount of items, all of high value.

    • B. 

      Is consolidated for effective management.

    • C. 

      Is managed on a functional basis.

    • D. 

      Is CONUS orientated.

  • 249. 
    Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Interface

    • B. 

      Core Automated Maintenance

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply

    • D. 

      Bench Stock Management

  • 250. 
    Which supply element is the first point of contact in the process of obtaining material from supply?
    • A. 

      Retail stores

    • B. 

      Customer service

    • C. 

      Demand Processing

    • D. 

      Equipment management

  • 251. 
    Who allocates the money used to buy Air Force property?
    • A. 

      Headquarters, US Air Force

    • B. 

      Major Commands

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Congress

  • 252. 
    The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, loss, or destruction of government property causes by misuser negligence is known as what kind of liability?
    • A. 

      Property

    • B. 

      Pecuniary

    • C. 

      Command

    • D. 

      Personal

  • 253. 
    Commanders must ensure that records of supply transactions are
    • A. 

      Logged in the shop supply log.

    • B. 

      Signed at the working level.

    • C. 

      Kept accurate.

    • D. 

      Disposed of semiannually.

  • 254. 
    The term "custodian" as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Caretaker

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Janitor

  • 255. 
    What procedures are used to relieve personnel of property responsibility?
    • A. 

      Turn-in and property transfer

    • B. 

      Pecuniary liability and report of survey

    • C. 

      Report and survey transfer

    • D. 

      Pecuniary liability and transfer

  • 256. 
    Which element of base supply manages all due-in from maintenance (DIFM) material?
    • A. 

      Stock control

    • B. 

      Demand processing

    • C. 

      Pickup and delivery

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support

  • 257. 
    Which form is used to turn in a repair action that has been accomplished on a repair cycle as a result of a maintenance turnaround?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • B. 

      DOD Form 1575

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348-1

    • D. 

      AFTO From 341

  • 258. 
    Category 1, deficiency reports, must be submitted within
    • A. 

      36 hours.

    • B. 

      24 hours.

    • C. 

      5 workdays.

    • D. 

      2 workdays.

  • 259. 
    Which condition would be reported using the deficiency reporting system?
    • A. 

      Medical supply item deficiency.

    • B. 

      A pricing error for a boost pump.

    • C. 

      Boost pump deficiency due to nonconformance to specifications.

    • D. 

      Shut off valve defect caused by improper packing.

  • 260. 
    To prevent the introduction of foreign objects into the fuel transfer system of a cargo aircraft, the jettison mast is equipped with a
    • A. 

      Flapper.

    • B. 

      Check valve.

    • C. 

      Safety wire device.

    • D. 

      Flame arrester screen.

  • 261. 
    What valve must be open to allow fuel to flow  from a cargo aircraft single point receptacle to the main wing manifold during ground refueling?
    • A. 

      Refuel isolation

    • B. 

      Right separation

    • C. 

      Single separation

    • D. 

      Single point receptacle drain

  • 262. 
    When the FWD fuel system on the fighter aircraft is refueled, what tank will fill first?
    • A. 

      F-1

    • B. 

      Left wing

    • C. 

      Right wing

    • D. 

      FWD resevoir

  • 263. 
    What is the purpose of the tank scavenge system on a cargo aircraft?
    • A. 

      Drain fuel from the low sump areas of the tank.

    • B. 

      Reduce the amount of unusable fuel in the tank.

    • C. 

      Prevent the vent boxes from venting fuel overboard.

    • D. 

      Ensure an uninterrupted flow of fuel to the engines.

  • 264. 
    An advantage of low observable technologies is the ability of an
    • A. 

      Aircraft to maneuver better.

    • B. 

      Aircraft to strike before it's detected.

    • C. 

      Aircraft to take photos at low altitudes.

    • D. 

      Enemy to detect an aircraft sooner.

  • 265. 
    Which type of hose is  a medium pressure rubber hose that can be used in fuel system?
    • A. 

      MIL-H-7061

    • B. 

      MIL-H-7938

    • C. 

      MIL-H-8794

    • D. 

      Aeroquip 601

  • 266. 
    What is a feature of a T-handle torque wrench?
    • A. 

      Can be adjusted in small increments.

    • B. 

      Can change wrench sizes using the same handle.

    • C. 

      Has a preset torque.

    • D. 

      Has a rubberized handle.

  • 267. 
    What power tool could you use to remove a multitude of access door screws? 
    • A. 

      Air hammer

    • B. 

      Electric drill with adapter

    • C. 

      Impact wrench

    • D. 

      Speed handle

  • 268. 
    Before using a bench grinder, you should check the integrity of the grinding wheel by
    • A. 

      Listening for abnormal sounds as they rotate.

    • B. 

      Removing them and dropping them from a distance of one foot.

    • C. 

      Tapping them with a plastic mallet.

    • D. 

      Visually inspecting them.

  • 269. 
    Which tool would you use to repair a fuel cell fitting flange?
    • A. 

      Air chisel

    • B. 

      Bench grinder

    • C. 

      Pneumatic buffer

    • D. 

      Torque wrench

  • 270. 
    Which type of buffing attachment should you use on bladder cells and flanges?
    • A. 

      Arbor

    • B. 

      Band

    • C. 

      Pad

    • D. 

      Stone

  • 271. 
    The one-part sealant injection gun is used to inject one part sealant into
    • A. 

      Channels and under wing skin.

    • B. 

      Loose rivet holes.

    • C. 

      Prepacks.

    • D. 

      Voids inside the tank.

  • 272. 
    Rubber buckets must be emptied after use in order to prevent a
    • A. 

      FOD and fire damage.

    • B. 

      Safety or spill hazard.

    • C. 

      Spill or foreign object hazard.

    • D. 

      Static electricity hazard.

  • 273. 
    When a water monometer is used on a fuel tank, you should
    • A. 

      Ensure that the positive pressure connection is plugged when the fuel tank is under negative pressure.

    • B. 

      Ensure the monometer safety relief valves are calibrated.

    • C. 

      Relieve tank pressure by disconnecting the monometer hose.

    • D. 

      Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.

  • 274. 
    Prior to using a photo-ionization detector, what is the first item you should check?
    • A. 

      Alarm conditions

    • B. 

      Calibration date

    • C. 

      Inspection date

    • D. 

      Oxygen level

  • 275. 
    The model T477W bonding meter is designed to measure
    • A. 

      Amperage.

    • B. 

      Resistance.

    • C. 

      Voltage.

    • D. 

      Wattage.

  • 276. 
    Which is a feature of the MC-7 air compressor?
    • A. 

      Can be used as a source of breathing air.

    • B. 

      Capable of producing high volumes of air.

    • C. 

      Delivers a maximum pressure of 200 psi.

    • D. 

      Supplements a gas engine to provide more power (torque.)

  • 277. 
    The operating  temperature range of the HDU-13/M heater is
    • A. 

      0 to 170°F.

    • B. 

      20 to 180°F.

    • C. 

      30 to 190°F.

    • D. 

      40 to 200°F.

  • 278. 
    After the defective sealant has been removed, how far from the ends of the fillet should you abrade to prepare the surface for the new fillet?
    • A. 

      1/4 inch

    • B. 

      1/2 inch

    • C. 

      3/4 inch

    • D. 

      I inch

  • 279. 
    What material is an authorized sealant scraper made from?
    • A. 

      Brass

    • B. 

      Copper

    • C. 

      Titanium

    • D. 

      Plastic

  • 280. 
    What test is performed on a cell repair area to determine if the cement is ready for patch application?
    • A. 

      Elasticity

    • B. 

      Knuckle

    • C. 

      Fingertip

    • D. 

      Soapsuds