2A654 CDC All UREs (100 Questions) Quiz-1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 202

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2A654 CDC All UREs (100 Questions) Quiz-1

All the UREs of CDC 2A654. There are 280 questions but it will pick a random 100 for you to answer. (Alternate)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is first checked when operating a boost pump problem on a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Continuity across the pressure switch

    • B. 

      Direct fuel pressure reading of the pump

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure switch reading

    • D. 

      Power to the boost pump

  • 2. 
    What part of a piston-type fuel-level control valve prevents fuel from entering the tank?
    • A. 

      A spring

    • B. 

      The float

    • C. 

      A pilot valve

    • D. 

      The diaphragm

  • 3. 
    Which cargo aircraft components should be operationally checked during the first few minutes of ground refueling?
    • A. 

      Single point receptacle drain pump and valve

    • B. 

      Refueling isolation shutoff valves

    • C. 

      Fuel-level control valves

    • D. 

      Separation shutoff valves

  • 4. 
    You can determine whether the tank scavenge system on cargo aircraft is operating properly by checking the
    • A. 

      Fuel quantity indicators

    • B. 

      Sump low lights

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure indicators and the fuel quantity indicators

    • D. 

      Sump low lights and fuel quantity indicators

  • 5. 
    What feature in a fighter fuel quantity indicator will indicate the sum of fuel in all tanks on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Probe

    • B. 

      Fuel load summation

    • C. 

      Fuel quantity select panel

    • D. 

      Totalizer

  • 6. 
    Moderate corrosion is usually removed from an aircraft surface by
    • A. 

      Brushing with a steel wire brush.

    • B. 

      Light hand sanding.

    • C. 

      Light mechanical sanding.

    • D. 

      Scrubbing with steel wool.

  • 7. 
    A CAFSC is used to identify an
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements.

  • 8. 
    Responsibility and accountability for mission results rest with which commander?
    • A. 

      Wing

    • B. 

      Group

  • 9. 
    Which type group is responsible for operating the primary mission equipment?
    • A. 

      Mission support

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Operations

  • 10. 
    Which organizational group is concerned with maintenance of air and space weapon systems?
    • A. 

      Maintenance

    • B. 

      Logistics

    • C. 

      Null

  • 11. 
    To whom is the component maintenance squadron commander for the overall squadron management?
    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force.

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 12. 
    Who is responsible to make sure there is a balance between sortie production and fleet management?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Logistics group commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 13. 
    Responsibility for establishing procedures to clear repeat and recurring discrepancies rests with the maintenance
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Null

  • 14. 
    Responsibility for enforcing sound maintenance practices rests with the
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Null

  • 15. 
    Who ensures there is an orientation program developed for all newly assigned personnel.
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Supply technician

    • C. 

      Fuels journeyman

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 16. 
    Who advises Maintenance managers of support problems and recommends corrective actions?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance training flight chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance operation control center superintendant

  • 17. 
    Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status of resources is a function of the
    • A. 

      Maintenance and operations flight.

    • B. 

      Logistic readiness squadron.

    • C. 

      Civil engineering squadron.

    • D. 

      Weapons and tactic flight.

  • 18. 
    The product improvement program emphasizes and promotes
    • A. 

      Time compliance TO deadlines.

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Due in from maintenance deadlines.

    • D. 

      Deficiency reporting programs.

  • 19. 
    Which inspection augments the basic post-flight?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 20. 
    Which inspection consists of checking certain components, areas, or systems to ensure no condition exists that could result in failure before the next schedules inspection.
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Home station check

  • 21. 
    What type of inspection is outlined in the -6 TO and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item requires inspection?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Calendar

  • 22. 
    What type of inspection is conducted when an aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents.
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 23. 
    During an inspection, when are all write ups found and documented?
    • A. 

      Pre-inspection meeting

    • B. 

      Look phase

  • 24. 
    During an inspection, when does the performance of operational checks and functional check flights begin?
    • A. 

      Pre-inspection meeting

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Fix phase

    • D. 

      Post inspection phase

  • 25. 
    What part of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document delayed discrepancies and overdue time changes?
    • A. 

      PART II, NON-SCHDULED INSPECTIONS

    • B. 

      PART III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • C. 

      PART V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD

  • 26. 
    Which of these results would categorize an accident as a class C mishap?
    • A. 

      A fatality

    • B. 

      Property damage resulting in $5,000

    • C. 

      One or more days from work

  • 27. 
    What type of index TO Is most frequently used?
    • A. 

      Alphabetical

    • B. 

      Cross reference

    • C. 

      Numerical

    • D. 

      Quick reference

  • 28. 
    What is not listed by the index TO?
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Number of pages

    • C. 

      Changes

    • D. 

      Basic date

  • 29. 
    What type of O&M TO will give you detailed theories of operation?
    • A. 

      Fault isolation

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      Job guide

    • D. 

      Null

  • 30. 
    What type of O&M TO enables you to isolate a malfunctioning component?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      General vehicle

    • C. 

      Troubleshooting

  • 31. 
    What type of TCTO is issued for condition that could result in a fatality if not corrected?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Immediate action

    • D. 

      Null

  • 32. 
    Which of TCTO requires compliance within a specified time limit of one of ten days?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Urgent action

  • 33. 
    Which TCTO can be identified by a boarder of alternately spaced red diagonals and red Xs on the title page?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Null

  • 34. 
    Inspection requirements from the -6 inspection TO is listed in
    • A. 

      Checklist.

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Inspection work cards.

    • D. 

      Job guides.

  • 35. 
    If the aircraft TO number only has three parts, what does the third part identify?
    • A. 

      Series

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Type

  • 36. 
    What does the fourth part of the MIDAS manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Chapter number and subject matter

    • C. 

      Type of aircraft

    • D. 

      Null

  • 37. 
    What does the fifth part of the MIDAS manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Supplemental manual

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Subsystem

  • 38. 
    A work stoppage caused by a TO deficiency is considered to be a basis for what kind of TO improvement report?
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Immediate

  • 39. 
    Which AFTO From 22 report requires a response within 45 calendar days after receipt?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Record

  • 40. 
    The Air Force supply system
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Is consolidated for effective management.

    • C. 

      Is managed on a functional basis.

    • D. 

      Null

  • 41. 
    Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Core Automated Maintenance

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply

    • D. 

      Bench Stock Management

  • 42. 
    Which supply element is the first point of contact in the process of obtaining material from supply?
    • A. 

      Retail stores

    • B. 

      Customer service

    • C. 

      Demand Processing

    • D. 

      Equipment management

  • 43. 
    Which condition would be reported using the deficiency reporting system?
    • A. 

      Medical supply item deficiency.

    • B. 

      A pricing error for a boost pump.

    • C. 

      Boost pump deficiency due to nonconformance to specifications.

    • D. 

      Null

  • 44. 
    What type valve is the crossfeed valve in a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Fuel pressure-operated gate

    • B. 

      Hydraulic-operated gate

    • C. 

      Motor-operated butterfly

    • D. 

      Null

  • 45. 
    What tanks must be operating to use body tank fuel to feed the engines on a tanker aircraft?
    • A. 

      Air refueling

    • B. 

      Alternate

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Null

  • 46. 
    What causes fuel to transfer from the reserve tank on a tanker aircraft during flight?
    • A. 

      Air pressure

    • B. 

      Boost pump pressure

    • C. 

      Gravity

    • D. 

      Null

  • 47. 
    On a tanker aircraft, what prevents the engine from running out of fuel and flaming out if its main tank is hit by small arms fire?
    • A. 

      Automatic fuel monitoring system

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Crossfeed system

    • D. 

      Fuel tank and engine sensing device

  • 48. 
    You are troubleshooting a malfunction of the crossfeed system on a tanker aircraft when you determine the is no pressure available to route fuel to the crossfeed manifold. The most probable cause of this malfunction is
    • A. 

      A malfunctioning boost pump.

    • B. 

      FOD stuck in a shutoff valve.

  • 49. 
    What valve must be open to allow fuel to flow  from a cargo aircraft single point receptacle to the main wing manifold during ground refueling?
    • A. 

      Refuel isolation

    • B. 

      Right separation

    • C. 

      Single separation

    • D. 

      Single point receptacle drain

  • 50. 
    During refueling on a fighter aircraft, fuel was vented overboard the refueling operation would not stop. The most probable cause of the is an inoperative
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Refuel shutoff valve

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Null

  • 51. 
    You are troubleshooting a malfunction in a bomber aerial refueling system. The fault code of the malfunction is 28-25-AM. What does the letter A indicate?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Corrective action required to fix the problem

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      A fault isolation diagram is provided

  • 52. 
    What type displacement jet/ejector pumps are in the tank scavenge system of a cargo aircraft?
    • A. 

      Constant

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Variable

    • D. 

      Null

  • 53. 
    When troubleshooting a manifold drain system, the best method you can use to determine whether or not a single point receptacle manifold drain shutoff valve has opened is to
    • A. 

      Observe the cannon plug position.

    • B. 

      Observe the manual override lever.

    • C. 

      Listen to the actuator motor for the valve.

    • D. 

      Null

  • 54. 
    While trouble shooting a problem with the manifold drain system on a cargo aircraft, it seem the SPR manifold does not drain after a refueling operation. You place the GRD REFUEL to the DRAIN position and then take a voltage reading at the applicable pins on the cannon plug for the SPR drain shutoff valve. You determine that 115 VAC is present and that the manual override lever is in the CLOSED position. In this situation, the malfunctioning component is most likely
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      An inoperative valve actuator motor.

    • C. 

      The applicable circuit breaker.

  • 55. 
    Where is the internal tank vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft located?
    • A. 

      Vent tank

    • B. 

      Null

  • 56. 
    What would be the most probable cause if all external tanks on a fighter aircraft failed to transfer fuel?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Vent and pressurization valve stuck closed.

    • C. 

      Vent and pressurization valve stuck open.

  • 57. 
    What type of capacitance tank units are used in external tanks on fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Externally-mounted

    • B. 

      Internally-mounted

    • C. 

      Flange-mounted

    • D. 

      Plate-mounted

  • 58. 
    Where are the fuel low-level sensors located on a fighter aircraft?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Left and right external wing

    • C. 

      Reservoir tank units

  • 59. 
    A shutoff valve motor in an aircraft electrical circuit can be considered a
    • A. 

      Conductor.

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Load device.

  • 60. 
    Which external electrical circuit component may be considered to be both a protective device and a load device?
    • A. 

      Toggle switch

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Resistor

  • 61. 
    Solenoids are commonly used in aircraft fuel systems to
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Manually control a fuel level control valve.

    • D. 

      Open a disk-type shutoff valve.

  • 62. 
    To turn a multimeter on have it in the auto-range mode, you would
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Place the function selector rotary switch to any position other than off.

  • 63. 
    What type of technical manual would you use to troubleshoot an electrical system problem on a modern-type aircraft?
    • A. 

      Fault isolation

    • B. 

      General vehicle

    • C. 

      Null

  • 64. 
    You are trouble shooting an electrical circuit with the power off and all switches are in the closed or normal position. You check for continuity between the pins on a cannon plug and ground and find that an open exists. This would indicate
    • A. 

      Electrical shop personnel assistance is required.

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      It is safe to apply power to the circuit.

  • 65. 
    In the Semimonocoque type of fuselage construction, the longerons
    • A. 

      Are the strongest members of the fuselage.

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Servo no significant purpose.

  • 66. 
    Which flight control surface controls the directional movement about the axis of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Critical flight controls

    • C. 

      Primary flight controls

    • D. 

      Secondary flight controls

  • 67. 
    Which type of hose is  a medium pressure rubber hose that can be used in fuel system?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      MILF-H-7938

    • C. 

      MIL-H-8794

  • 68. 
    Conversion coating (MIL-C-81706, Class 1A) is used to coat
    • A. 

      Aluminum tubing after removing corrosion.

    • B. 

      Stainless steel tubing which is exposed to outside environment.

    • C. 

      Null

  • 69. 
    Which tool would you use to repair a fuel cell fitting flange?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic buffer

    • B. 

      Torque wrench

    • C. 

      Air chisel

    • D. 

      Bench grinder

  • 70. 
    What fuel maintenance support equipment item provides both low- and high-air pressure systems?
    • A. 

      MC-1A

    • B. 

      MC-2AAA

  • 71. 
    Which is a feature of the MC-7 air compressor?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Capable of producing high volumes of air.

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      Supplements a gas engine to provide more power (torque.)

  • 72. 
    What equipment provides air for rapid purging of fuel tanks and for breathing?
    • A. 

      Air and nitrogen servicing trailer

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Fuel cell and tank servicing cart

    • D. 

      Ventilation trailer

  • 73. 
    What equipment item is used to support the inerting of a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      MA-1 blower

    • C. 

      Nitrogen cart

  • 74. 
    What is the purpose of the stringers in an integral fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      To give shape to the wing.

    • C. 

      To provide attachment points for the skin.

  • 75. 
    What step should be taken first when attempting to locate a leak exit point on or near a common tank boundary?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      Defuel the inboard tank.

    • C. 

      Defuel the outboard tank.

    • D. 

      Drain residual fuel from outboard tank.

  • 76. 
    Which aircraft fuel leak location is considered external?
    • A. 

      Lower wing surface

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      Slats

    • D. 

      Null

  • 77. 
    After the defective sealant has been removed, how far from the ends of the fillet should you abrade to prepare the surface for the new fillet?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      1/2 inch

    • C. 

      3/4 inch

    • D. 

      Null

  • 78. 
    You should not apply sealant to an aircraft surface if the temperature is less than
    • A. 

      70°F

    • B. 

      60°F

    • C. 

      Null

    • D. 

      50°F

  • 79. 
    When a cell requires two patches, how much larger then the first should you cut the second?
    • A. 

      1 inch

    • B. 

      Null

    • C. 

      2 inches

  • 80. 
    During an exterior fuel cell inspection, what is the maximum blister or ply separation before the cell requires replacement?
    • A. 

      Null

    • B. 

      1 inch

    • C. 

      2 1/2 inches