2a553a 2011 Vol 2
New 2A553A 2011 Comm/Nav CDC URE questions from Air University practice test. . . . � ENJOY
- 1.
(201) What structural areas are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- A.
Doors
- B.
Nacelles
- C.
Windows
- D.
Plates and skins
Correct Answer
A. Doors -
- 2.
(201) What is provided on some large doors to provide access for inspections?
- A.
Small, hinged doors
- B.
Small inspection inlets
- C.
Small, hinged windows
- D.
Small inspection outlets
Correct Answer
A. Small, hinged doors -
- 3.
(202) What components are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?
- A.
Initiators
- B.
Stabilizers
- C.
Safety pins
- D.
Red streamers
Correct Answer
C. Safety pins -
- 4.
(202) How do independent positioning determining subsystems function?
- A.
By recording radar data
- B.
By calculating aircraft attitude
- C.
Independent of inertial navigation
- D.
Independent of ground equipment
Correct Answer
D. Independent of ground equipment -
- 5.
(203) Which is not part of an engine indicating system?
- A.
Fuel flow
- B.
Oil quantity
- C.
Engine vibration
- D.
Water temperature
Correct Answer
D. Water temperature -
- 6.
(204) Ejection seats in military aircraft are particularly dangerous because
- A.
People do not get the proper training on them
- B.
The system contains an explosive charge
- C.
Checklists are not always available
- D.
All aircraft use different systems
Correct Answer
B. The system contains an explosive charge -
- 7.
(204) What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
- A.
25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake
- B.
50 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake
- C.
50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides of the engine intake
- D.
25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides of the engine intake
Correct Answer
A. 25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake -
- 8.
(204) When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
- A.
From the side of the wheel
- B.
At a 45° angle to the wheel
- C.
From the front of or behind the wheel
- D.
Only after the blowout screen is in place
Correct Answer
C. From the front of or behind the wheel -
- 9.
(204) What happens when radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
Heat is produced
- C.
Your heart beats irregularly
- D.
Your internal organs start deteriorating
Correct Answer
B. Heat is produced -
- 10.
(204) What is the minimum safe distance from an ultra-high frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
10 feet
Correct Answer
A. 1 foot -
- 11.
(204) The minimum safe distance from a high-frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
10 feet
Correct Answer
C. 5 feet -
- 12.
(204) The variables upon which radiation hazards depend do not include the
- A.
Strength of emission
- B.
Time (length) of exposure
- C.
Experience of the operator
- D.
Number of units operating in the area
Correct Answer
C. Experience of the operator -
- 13.
(204) The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
- A.
75 dBA
- B.
84 dBA
- C.
96 dBA
- D.
100 dBA
Correct Answer
B. 84 dBA -
- 14.
(204) What is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
- A.
Wearing loose, comfortable clothing
- B.
Buttoning your shirt cuffs
- C.
Taking off your watch
- D.
Taking off your rings
Correct Answer
A. Wearing loose, comfortable clothing -
- 15.
(205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Isochronal
Correct Answer
C. Preflight -
- 16.
(205) Which statement does not describe the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?
- A.
May use contingency inspection work card decks for a limited period of time
- B.
Consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit
- C.
Applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft
- D.
Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept
Correct Answer
D. Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept -
- 17.
(206) What type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Preflight
- C.
End-of-runway
- D.
Basic postflight
Correct Answer
B. Preflight -
- 18.
(206) When is the thruflight inspection performed?
- A.
After the last flight of the day
- B.
Before the aircraft goes on alert
- C.
Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
- D.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed
Correct Answer
C. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops -
- 19.
(207) Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Major
- C.
Minor
- D.
Periodic
Correct Answer
D. Periodic -
- 20.
(207) Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Major
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Hourly postflight
Correct Answer
A. Phase -
- 21.
(208) When the home station check inspection becomes due during a mission, it is completed at the base
- A.
To which the aircraft belongs
- B.
Where the first intermediate stop is made
- C.
From which the mission is being performed
- D.
Nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due
Correct Answer
A. To which the aircraft belongs -
- 22.
(209) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
- A.
Special
- B.
Operator
- C.
Acceptance
- D.
Periodic and scheduled lubrication
Correct Answer
B. Operator -
- 23.
(209) Acceptance inspections are performed when
- A.
Directed by the major command or local policy
- B.
Newly assigned support equipment arrives
- C.
Directed by the applicable technical order
- D.
Equipment is being transferred
Correct Answer
B. Newly assigned support equipment arrives -
- 24.
(210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, are the responsibility of
- A.
Aerospace ground equipment mechanics
- B.
Avionics backshop personnel
- C.
Propulsion mechanics
- D.
Flight line technicians
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace ground equipment mechanics -
- 25.
(210) The AFTO Form 245 is used
- A.
To document quality assurance evaluations
- B.
To document scheduled maintenance on aircraft
- C.
As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244
- D.
To allow supervisors to review equipment maintenance documentation
Correct Answer
C. As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244 -
- 26.
(211) The AFTO Form 781-series are not used to document aircraft
- A.
Inspections
- B.
Flight records
- C.
Configurations
- D.
Component repair
Correct Answer
D. Component repair -
- 27.
(211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on an AFTO Form
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
A. 781A -
- 28.
(211) Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Detailed description of the corrective action
- B.
Technical order reference(s)
- C.
Technician’s signature
- D.
Supervisor’s signature
Correct Answer
B. Technical order reference(s) -
- 29.
(211) If you find a malfunction during an operational check, how do you document the malfunction on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Enter it in the current discrepancy block
- B.
Leave OP CK open until malfunction cleared
- C.
Sign off as OP CK OK and enter new write up
- D.
Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter new malfunction
Correct Answer
D. Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter new malfunction -
- 30.
(211) Which AFTO Form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
Correct Answer
C. 781H -
- 31.
(211) Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Engine technician
- D.
Production supervisor
Correct Answer
A. Pilot -
- 32.
(211) Which AFTO Form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time?
- A.
781A
- B.
781J
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
B. 781J -
- 33.
(211) Who is responsible for making entries on the Aerospace Vehicle – Engine Flight form?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Production supervisor
- D.
Maintenance technician
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance technician -
- 34.
(211) Which AFTO Form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
Correct Answer
C. 781K -
- 35.
(211) Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
- A.
Inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period
- B.
All immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders upon compliance
- C.
The status of depot inspections
- D.
Higher authority inspections
Correct Answer
A. Inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period -
- 36.
(211) AFTO Form 78L is used to
- A.
Document engine cycle times
- B.
Document delayed discrepancies
- C.
Provide time compliance technical order record of completion
- D.
Record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items
Correct Answer
D. Record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items -
- 37.
(212) What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
- A.
Using non-conducting packaging materials
- B.
Using proper insulating materials
- C.
Dehumidified air
- D.
Humid air.
Correct Answer
D. Humid air. -
- 38.
(213) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components?
- A.
Using protective tote boxes
- B.
Covering line replaceable unit (LRU) connector plugs
- C.
Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
- D.
Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
Correct Answer
A. Using protective tote boxes -
- 39.
(213) When working on electrostatic discharge sensitive devices in the shop area, you must use
- A.
A grounded line replaceable unit cable
- B.
Nonconductive antistatic mats
- C.
A grounded workbench
- D.
Ungrounded floor mats
Correct Answer
C. A grounded workbench -
- 40.
(213) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an electrostatic discharge protected area?
- A.
Use of certain ionizers
- B.
Wearing of personal clothing
- C.
Improper use of conductive bags
- D.
Improper use of conductive tote boxes
Correct Answer
A. Use of certain ionizers -
- 41.
(214) Shielded cable consists of
- A.
A metallic braid over the insulation
- B.
A metal conductor covered with a dielectric
- C.
An inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric
- D.
A compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies
Correct Answer
A. A metallic braid over the insulation -
- 42.
(214) Which type of cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another?
- A.
Electromagnetic pulse
- B.
Insulated wire
- C.
Shielded
- D.
Coaxial
Correct Answer
D. Coaxial -
- 43.
(215) Which is not a type of connector coupling?
- A.
Friction
- B.
Bayonet
- C.
Insertion
- D.
Threaded
Correct Answer
C. Insertion -
- 44.
(215) What is not a radio-frequency connector precaution?
- A.
Never step on the cable
- B.
Ensure a good grip when using pliers
- C.
Ensure you solder double shielded cables together
- D.
Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable
Correct Answer
B. Ensure a good grip when using pliers -
- 45.
(216) The serial transmission bit rate for the Military Standard 1553B data bus is
- A.
1 megabits per second (Mbps)
- B.
16 Mbps
- C.
32 Mbps
- D.
64 Mbps
Correct Answer
A. 1 megabits per second (Mbps) -
- 46.
(216) What is the structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word?
- A.
20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
- B.
32 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
- C.
20 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits
- D.
32 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits
Correct Answer
A. 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit -
- 47.
(216) A Military Standard 1553B data bus message must contain at least one command word with a maximum of
- A.
3 data words
- B.
16 data words
- C.
20 data words
- D.
32 data words
Correct Answer
D. 32 data words -
- 48.
(216) What is not a function of the Military Standard 1553B data bus mode codes?
- A.
Resetting terminals
- B.
Synchronizing the subsystem time
- C.
Executing a bus controller broadcast command
- D.
Commanding a remote terminal to initiate a system self-test
Correct Answer
C. Executing a bus controller broadcast command -
- 49.
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
- A.
Disturbances in lay uniformity
- B.
Greater elasticity of the glass fibers
- C.
Reduced optical power transmission
- D.
Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing
Correct Answer
C. Reduced optical power transmission -
- 50.
(217) What is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals?
- A.
Detector
- B.
Receiver
- C.
Photodiode
- D.
Light-emitting diode
Correct Answer
C. Photodiode -
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Mar 19, 2022Quiz Edited by
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Mar 29, 2011Quiz Created by
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