2a553a 2011 Vol 2

64 Questions

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University Quizzes & Trivia

New 2A553A 2011 Comm/Nav CDC URE questions from Air University practice test. . . . � ENJOY


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) What structural areas are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
    • A. 

      Doors

    • B. 

      Nacelles

    • C. 

      Windows

    • D. 

      Plates and skins

  • 2. 
    (201) What is provided on some large doors to provide access for inspections?
    • A. 

      Small, hinged doors

    • B. 

      Small inspection inlets

    • C. 

      Small, hinged windows

    • D. 

      Small inspection outlets

  • 3. 
    (202) What components are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?
    • A. 

      Initiators

    • B. 

      Stabilizers

    • C. 

      Safety pins

    • D. 

      Red streamers

  • 4. 
    (202) How do independent positioning determining subsystems function?
    • A. 

      By recording radar data

    • B. 

      By calculating aircraft attitude

    • C. 

      Independent of inertial navigation

    • D. 

      Independent of ground equipment

  • 5. 
    (203) Which is not part of an engine indicating system?
    • A. 

      Fuel flow

    • B. 

      Oil quantity

    • C. 

      Engine vibration

    • D. 

      Water temperature

  • 6. 
    (204) Ejection seats in military aircraft are particularly dangerous because
    • A. 

      People do not get the proper training on them

    • B. 

      The system contains an explosive charge

    • C. 

      Checklists are not always available

    • D. 

      All aircraft use different systems

  • 7. 
    (204) What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
    • A. 

      25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake

    • B. 

      50 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake

    • C. 

      50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides of the engine intake

    • D. 

      25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides of the engine intake

  • 8. 
    (204) When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
    • A. 

      From the side of the wheel

    • B. 

      At a 45° angle to the wheel

    • C. 

      From the front of or behind the wheel

    • D. 

      Only after the blowout screen is in place

  • 9. 
    (204) What happens when radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
    • A. 

      Nothing

    • B. 

      Heat is produced

    • C. 

      Your heart beats irregularly

    • D. 

      Your internal organs start deteriorating

  • 10. 
    (204) What is the minimum safe distance from an ultra-high frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
    • A. 

      1 foot

    • B. 

      3 feet

    • C. 

      5 feet

    • D. 

      10 feet

  • 11. 
    (204) The minimum safe distance from a high-frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
    • A. 

      1 foot

    • B. 

      3 feet

    • C. 

      5 feet

    • D. 

      10 feet

  • 12. 
    (204) The variables upon which radiation hazards depend do not include the
    • A. 

      Strength of emission

    • B. 

      Time (length) of exposure

    • C. 

      Experience of the operator

    • D. 

      Number of units operating in the area

  • 13. 
    (204) The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
    • A. 

      75 dBA

    • B. 

      84 dBA

    • C. 

      96 dBA

    • D. 

      100 dBA

  • 14. 
    (204) What is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
    • A. 

      Wearing loose, comfortable clothing

    • B. 

      Buttoning your shirt cuffs

    • C. 

      Taking off your watch

    • D. 

      Taking off your rings

  • 15. 
    (205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Preflight

    • D. 

      Isochronal

  • 16. 
    (205) Which statement does not describe the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?
    • A. 

      May use contingency inspection work card decks for a limited period of time

    • B. 

      Consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit

    • C. 

      Applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft

    • D. 

      Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept

  • 17. 
    (206) What type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Preflight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway

    • D. 

      Basic postflight

  • 18. 
    (206) When is the thruflight inspection performed?
    • A. 

      After the last flight of the day

    • B. 

      Before the aircraft goes on alert

    • C. 

      Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops

    • D. 

      After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed

  • 19. 
    (207) Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Minor

    • D. 

      Periodic

  • 20. 
    (207) Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Preflight

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 21. 
    (208) When the home station check inspection becomes due during a mission, it is completed at the base
    • A. 

      To which the aircraft belongs

    • B. 

      Where the first intermediate stop is made

    • C. 

      From which the mission is being performed

    • D. 

      Nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due

  • 22. 
    (209) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Periodic and scheduled lubrication

  • 23. 
    (209) Acceptance inspections are performed when
    • A. 

      Directed by the major command or local policy

    • B. 

      Newly assigned support equipment arrives

    • C. 

      Directed by the applicable technical order

    • D. 

      Equipment is being transferred

  • 24. 
    (210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, are the responsibility of
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment mechanics

    • B. 

      Avionics backshop personnel

    • C. 

      Propulsion mechanics

    • D. 

      Flight line technicians

  • 25. 
    (210) The AFTO Form 245 is used
    • A. 

      To document quality assurance evaluations

    • B. 

      To document scheduled maintenance on aircraft

    • C. 

      As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244

    • D. 

      To allow supervisors to review equipment maintenance documentation

  • 26. 
    (211) The AFTO Form 781-series are not used to document aircraft
    • A. 

      Inspections

    • B. 

      Flight records

    • C. 

      Configurations

    • D. 

      Component repair

  • 27. 
    (211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on an AFTO Form
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781B

    • C. 

      781K

    • D. 

      781L

  • 28. 
    (211) Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?
    • A. 

      Detailed description of the corrective action

    • B. 

      Technical order reference(s)

    • C. 

      Technician’s signature

    • D. 

      Supervisor’s signature

  • 29. 
    (211) If you find a malfunction during an operational check, how do you document the malfunction on the AFTO Form 781A?
    • A. 

      Enter it in the current discrepancy block

    • B. 

      Leave OP CK open until malfunction cleared

    • C. 

      Sign off as OP CK OK and enter new write up

    • D. 

      Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter new malfunction

  • 30. 
    (211) Which AFTO Form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781B

    • C. 

      781H

    • D. 

      781J

  • 31. 
    (211) Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H?
    • A. 

      Pilot

    • B. 

      Crew chief

    • C. 

      Engine technician

    • D. 

      Production supervisor

  • 32. 
    (211) Which AFTO Form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781J

    • C. 

      781K

    • D. 

      781L

  • 33. 
    (211) Who is responsible for making entries on the Aerospace Vehicle – Engine Flight form?
    • A. 

      Pilot

    • B. 

      Crew chief

    • C. 

      Production supervisor

    • D. 

      Maintenance technician

  • 34. 
    (211) Which AFTO Form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781B

    • C. 

      781K

    • D. 

      781L

  • 35. 
    (211) Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
    • A. 

      Inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period

    • B. 

      All immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders upon compliance

    • C. 

      The status of depot inspections

    • D. 

      Higher authority inspections

  • 36. 
    (211) AFTO Form 78L is used to
    • A. 

      Document engine cycle times

    • B. 

      Document delayed discrepancies

    • C. 

      Provide time compliance technical order record of completion

    • D. 

      Record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items

  • 37. 
    (212) What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
    • A. 

      Using non-conducting packaging materials

    • B. 

      Using proper insulating materials

    • C. 

      Dehumidified air

    • D. 

      Humid air.

  • 38. 
    (213) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components?
    • A. 

      Using protective tote boxes

    • B. 

      Covering line replaceable unit (LRU) connector plugs

    • C. 

      Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation

    • D. 

      Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft

  • 39. 
    (213) When working on electrostatic discharge sensitive devices in the shop area, you must use
    • A. 

      A grounded line replaceable unit cable

    • B. 

      Nonconductive antistatic mats

    • C. 

      A grounded workbench

    • D. 

      Ungrounded floor mats

  • 40. 
    (213) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an electrostatic discharge protected area?
    • A. 

      Use of certain ionizers

    • B. 

      Wearing of personal clothing

    • C. 

      Improper use of conductive bags

    • D. 

      Improper use of conductive tote boxes

  • 41. 
    (214) Shielded cable consists of
    • A. 

      A metallic braid over the insulation

    • B. 

      A metal conductor covered with a dielectric

    • C. 

      An inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric

    • D. 

      A compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies

  • 42. 
    (214) Which type of cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another?
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic pulse

    • B. 

      Insulated wire

    • C. 

      Shielded

    • D. 

      Coaxial

  • 43. 
    (215) Which is not a type of connector coupling?
    • A. 

      Friction

    • B. 

      Bayonet

    • C. 

      Insertion

    • D. 

      Threaded

  • 44. 
    (215) What is not a radio-frequency connector precaution?
    • A. 

      Never step on the cable

    • B. 

      Ensure a good grip when using pliers

    • C. 

      Ensure you solder double shielded cables together

    • D. 

      Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable

  • 45. 
    (216) The serial transmission bit rate for the Military Standard 1553B data bus is
    • A. 

      1 megabits per second (Mbps)

    • B. 

      16 Mbps

    • C. 

      32 Mbps

    • D. 

      64 Mbps

  • 46. 
    (216) What is the structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word?
    • A. 

      20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit

    • B. 

      32 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit

    • C. 

      20 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits

    • D. 

      32 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits

  • 47. 
    (216) A Military Standard 1553B data bus message must contain at least one command word with a maximum of
    • A. 

      3 data words

    • B. 

      16 data words

    • C. 

      20 data words

    • D. 

      32 data words

  • 48. 
    (216) What is not a function of the Military Standard 1553B data bus mode codes?
    • A. 

      Resetting terminals

    • B. 

      Synchronizing the subsystem time

    • C. 

      Executing a bus controller broadcast command

    • D. 

      Commanding a remote terminal to initiate a system self-test

  • 49. 
    Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
    • A. 

      Disturbances in lay uniformity

    • B. 

      Greater elasticity of the glass fibers

    • C. 

      Reduced optical power transmission

    • D. 

      Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing

  • 50. 
    (217) What is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals?
    • A. 

      Detector

    • B. 

      Receiver

    • C. 

      Photodiode

    • D. 

      Light-emitting diode

  • 51. 
    (217) Optoelectronic transducers perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
    • A. 

      Amplify output circuit signals

    • B. 

      Convert electrical signals to light signals

    • C. 

      Convert optical energy to electrical energy

    • D. 

      Emit light when current is passed through them

  • 52. 
    (218) Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
    • A. 

      The radio-frequency is not impeded

    • B. 

      Connectors mate properly

    • C. 

      Solder adheres properly

    • D. 

      Proper connection

  • 53. 
    (218) Flux is designed to
    • A. 

      Keep the connection clean

    • B. 

      Ensure electrical conductivity

    • C. 

      Bond the electrical connection

    • D. 

      Prevent oxygen from combining with the metal

  • 54. 
    (219) Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves
    • A. 

      Cooling the iron by dipping in water

    • B. 

      Jerking the iron to remove excess solder

    • C. 

      Tapping the iron on a table to remove excess solder

    • D. 

      Keeping the iron in a proper holder when you are not using it

  • 55. 
    (219) What is of the utmost importance in the soldering process?
    • A. 

      Cleanliness

    • B. 

      Stripping the wires

    • C. 

      Connecting the wires

    • D. 

      Type of soldering iron

  • 56. 
    (220) Which is not a type of solderless connector?
    • A. 

      Splice

    • B. 

      Terminal lug

    • C. 

      Connector splice

    • D. 

      Connector plug pins

  • 57. 
    (220) What type of solderless connector is used to permit easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?
    • A. 

      Splice

    • B. 

      Terminal lug

    • C. 

      Connector splice

    • D. 

      Connector plug pins

  • 58. 
    (221) One purpose of crimper positioners is to
    • A. 

      Put the pin contacts in the proper position

    • B. 

      Align the crimper handles to the pin contact

    • C. 

      Put the turret head in line with the pin contact

    • D. 

      Adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins

  • 59. 
    (221) The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact
    • A. 

      Insertion into a rear-release connector plug

    • B. 

      Insertion into a front-release connector plug

    • C. 

      Extraction from a rear-release connector plug.

    • D. 

      Extraction from a front-release connector plug

  • 60. 
    (221) One way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use
    • A. 

      Silicone tape

    • B. 

      Silicone caulking

    • C. 

      Heat-shrinkable tape

    • D. 

      Electrical wrapping tape

  • 61. 
    (222) The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat-shrink products is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Tool operator

    • B. 

      Pressure controller

    • C. 

      Air/nitrogen regulator

    • D. 

      Tubular heating element

  • 62. 
    (223) Electromagnetic pulse hardened cable is considered nonreparable by local personnel if it has damage to the
    • A. 

      Broken internal wires

    • B. 

      Damage to the cable jacket

    • C. 

      Broken wires at the connector

    • D. 

      Damage to the outer braided shield

  • 63. 
    (223) To what precaution must you adhere prior to performing a wire repair job?
    • A. 

      Ensure proper lighting

    • B. 

      Inventory required tools

    • C. 

      Read all procedures in TO 1–1A–14

    • D. 

      Read the warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft

  • 64. 
    (224) What is not considered to be a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?
    • A. 

      Lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping

    • B. 

      Tie all wire groups or bundles twelve inches or less apart

    • C. 

      Do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundle located inside a conduit

    • D. 

      When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to