2a553a 2011 Vol 2
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New 2A553A 2011 Comm/Nav CDC URE questions from Air University practice test. . . . � ENJOY
- 1.(201) What structural areas are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- A.
Doors
- B.
Nacelles
- C.
Windows
- D.
Plates and skins
- 2.(201) What is provided on some large doors to provide access for inspections?
- A.
Small, hinged doors
- B.
Small inspection inlets
- C.
Small, hinged windows
- D.
Small inspection outlets
- 3.(202) What components are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?
- A.
Initiators
- B.
Stabilizers
- C.
Safety pins
- D.
Red streamers
- 4.(202) How do independent positioning determining subsystems function?
- A.
By recording radar data
- B.
By calculating aircraft attitude
- C.
Independent of inertial navigation
- D.
Independent of ground equipment
- 5.(203) Which is not part of an engine indicating system?
- A.
Fuel flow
- B.
Oil quantity
- C.
Engine vibration
- D.
Water temperature
- 6.(204) Ejection seats in military aircraft are particularly dangerous because
- A.
People do not get the proper training on them
- B.
The system contains an explosive charge
- C.
Checklists are not always available
- D.
All aircraft use different systems
- 7.(204) What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
- A.
25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake
- B.
50 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake
- C.
50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides of the engine intake
- D.
25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides of the engine intake
- 8.(204) When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
- A.
From the side of the wheel
- B.
At a 45° angle to the wheel
- C.
From the front of or behind the wheel
- D.
Only after the blowout screen is in place
- 9.(204) What happens when radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
Heat is produced
- C.
Your heart beats irregularly
- D.
Your internal organs start deteriorating
- 10.(204) What is the minimum safe distance from an ultra-high frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
10 feet
- 11.(204) The minimum safe distance from a high-frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
10 feet
- 12.(204) The variables upon which radiation hazards depend do not include the
- A.
Strength of emission
- B.
Time (length) of exposure
- C.
Experience of the operator
- D.
Number of units operating in the area
- 13.(204) The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
- A.
75 dBA
- B.
84 dBA
- C.
96 dBA
- D.
100 dBA
- 14.(204) What is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
- A.
Wearing loose, comfortable clothing
- B.
Buttoning your shirt cuffs
- C.
Taking off your watch
- D.
Taking off your rings
- 15.(205) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Isochronal
- 16.(205) Which statement does not describe the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?
- A.
May use contingency inspection work card decks for a limited period of time
- B.
Consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit
- C.
Applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft
- D.
Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept
- 17.(206) What type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Preflight
- C.
End-of-runway
- D.
Basic postflight
- 18.(206) When is the thruflight inspection performed?
- A.
After the last flight of the day
- B.
Before the aircraft goes on alert
- C.
Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
- D.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed
- 19.(207) Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Major
- C.
Minor
- D.
Periodic
- 20.(207) Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Major
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Hourly postflight
- 21.(208) When the home station check inspection becomes due during a mission, it is completed at the base
- A.
To which the aircraft belongs
- B.
Where the first intermediate stop is made
- C.
From which the mission is being performed
- D.
Nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due
- 22.(209) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
- A.
Special
- B.
Operator
- C.
Acceptance
- D.
Periodic and scheduled lubrication
- 23.(209) Acceptance inspections are performed when
- A.
Directed by the major command or local policy
- B.
Newly assigned support equipment arrives
- C.
Directed by the applicable technical order
- D.
Equipment is being transferred
- 24.(210) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, are the responsibility of
- A.
Aerospace ground equipment mechanics
- B.
Avionics backshop personnel
- C.
Propulsion mechanics
- D.
Flight line technicians
- 25.(210) The AFTO Form 245 is used
- A.
To document quality assurance evaluations
- B.
To document scheduled maintenance on aircraft
- C.
As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244
- D.
To allow supervisors to review equipment maintenance documentation
- 26.(211) The AFTO Form 781-series are not used to document aircraft
- A.
Inspections
- B.
Flight records
- C.
Configurations
- D.
Component repair
- 27.(211) Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on an AFTO Form
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
- 28.(211) Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Detailed description of the corrective action
- B.
Technical order reference(s)
- C.
Technician’s signature
- D.
Supervisor’s signature
- 29.(211) If you find a malfunction during an operational check, how do you document the malfunction on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Enter it in the current discrepancy block
- B.
Leave OP CK open until malfunction cleared
- C.
Sign off as OP CK OK and enter new write up
- D.
Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter new malfunction
- 30.(211) Which AFTO Form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
- 31.(211) Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Engine technician
- D.
Production supervisor
- 32.(211) Which AFTO Form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time?
- A.
781A
- B.
781J
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
- 33.(211) Who is responsible for making entries on the Aerospace Vehicle – Engine Flight form?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Production supervisor
- D.
Maintenance technician
- 34.(211) Which AFTO Form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
- D.
781L
- 35.(211) Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
- A.
Inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period
- B.
All immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders upon compliance
- C.
The status of depot inspections
- D.
Higher authority inspections
- 36.(211) AFTO Form 78L is used to
- A.
Document engine cycle times
- B.
Document delayed discrepancies
- C.
Provide time compliance technical order record of completion
- D.
Record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items
- 37.(212) What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
- A.
Using non-conducting packaging materials
- B.
Using proper insulating materials
- C.
Dehumidified air
- D.
Humid air.
- 38.(213) Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components?
- A.
Using protective tote boxes
- B.
Covering line replaceable unit (LRU) connector plugs
- C.
Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
- D.
Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
- 39.(213) When working on electrostatic discharge sensitive devices in the shop area, you must use
- A.
A grounded line replaceable unit cable
- B.
Nonconductive antistatic mats
- C.
A grounded workbench
- D.
Ungrounded floor mats
- 40.(213) Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an electrostatic discharge protected area?
- A.
Use of certain ionizers
- B.
Wearing of personal clothing
- C.
Improper use of conductive bags
- D.
Improper use of conductive tote boxes
- 41.(214) Shielded cable consists of
- A.
A metallic braid over the insulation
- B.
A metal conductor covered with a dielectric
- C.
An inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric
- D.
A compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies
- 42.(214) Which type of cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another?
- A.
Electromagnetic pulse
- B.
Insulated wire
- C.
Shielded
- D.
Coaxial
- 43.(215) Which is not a type of connector coupling?
- A.
Friction
- B.
Bayonet
- C.
Insertion
- D.
Threaded
- 44.(215) What is not a radio-frequency connector precaution?
- A.
Never step on the cable
- B.
Ensure a good grip when using pliers
- C.
Ensure you solder double shielded cables together
- D.
Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable
- 45.(216) The serial transmission bit rate for the Military Standard 1553B data bus is
- A.
1 megabits per second (Mbps)
- B.
16 Mbps
- C.
32 Mbps
- D.
64 Mbps
- 46.(216) What is the structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word?
- A.
20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
- B.
32 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
- C.
20 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits
- D.
32 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits
- 47.(216) A Military Standard 1553B data bus message must contain at least one command word with a maximum of
- A.
3 data words
- B.
16 data words
- C.
20 data words
- D.
32 data words
- 48.(216) What is not a function of the Military Standard 1553B data bus mode codes?
- A.
Resetting terminals
- B.
Synchronizing the subsystem time
- C.
Executing a bus controller broadcast command
- D.
Commanding a remote terminal to initiate a system self-test
- 49.Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
- A.
Disturbances in lay uniformity
- B.
Greater elasticity of the glass fibers
- C.
Reduced optical power transmission
- D.
Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing
- 50.(217) What is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals?
- A.
Detector
- B.
Receiver
- C.
Photodiode
- D.
Light-emitting diode
- 51.(217) Optoelectronic transducers perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
- A.
Amplify output circuit signals
- B.
Convert electrical signals to light signals
- C.
Convert optical energy to electrical energy
- D.
Emit light when current is passed through them
- 52.(218) Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
- A.
The radio-frequency is not impeded
- B.
Connectors mate properly
- C.
Solder adheres properly
- D.
Proper connection
- 53.(218) Flux is designed to
- A.
Keep the connection clean
- B.
Ensure electrical conductivity
- C.
Bond the electrical connection
- D.
Prevent oxygen from combining with the metal
- 54.(219) Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves
- A.
Cooling the iron by dipping in water
- B.
Jerking the iron to remove excess solder
- C.
Tapping the iron on a table to remove excess solder
- D.
Keeping the iron in a proper holder when you are not using it
- 55.(219) What is of the utmost importance in the soldering process?
- A.
Cleanliness
- B.
Stripping the wires
- C.
Connecting the wires
- D.
Type of soldering iron
- 56.(220) Which is not a type of solderless connector?
- A.
Splice
- B.
Terminal lug
- C.
Connector splice
- D.
Connector plug pins
- 57.(220) What type of solderless connector is used to permit easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?
- A.
Splice
- B.
Terminal lug
- C.
Connector splice
- D.
Connector plug pins
- 58.(221) One purpose of crimper positioners is to
- A.
Put the pin contacts in the proper position
- B.
Align the crimper handles to the pin contact
- C.
Put the turret head in line with the pin contact
- D.
Adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins
- 59.(221) The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact
- A.
Insertion into a rear-release connector plug
- B.
Insertion into a front-release connector plug
- C.
Extraction from a rear-release connector plug.
- D.
Extraction from a front-release connector plug
- 60.(221) One way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use
- A.
Silicone tape
- B.
Silicone caulking
- C.
Heat-shrinkable tape
- D.
Electrical wrapping tape
- 61.(222) The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat-shrink products is controlled by the
- A.
Tool operator
- B.
Pressure controller
- C.
Air/nitrogen regulator
- D.
Tubular heating element
- 62.(223) Electromagnetic pulse hardened cable is considered nonreparable by local personnel if it has damage to the
- A.
Broken internal wires
- B.
Damage to the cable jacket
- C.
Broken wires at the connector
- D.
Damage to the outer braided shield
- 63.(223) To what precaution must you adhere prior to performing a wire repair job?
- A.
Ensure proper lighting
- B.
Inventory required tools
- C.
Read all procedures in TO 1–1A–14
- D.
Read the warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft
- 64.(224) What is not considered to be a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?
- A.
Lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping
- B.
Tie all wire groups or bundles twelve inches or less apart
- C.
Do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundle located inside a conduit
- D.
When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to
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