2A552 CDC Pretest
.
- 1.
At what horsepower is the H–60 auxiliary power unit (APU) rated?
- A.
60
- B.
90
- C.
120
- D.
150
Correct Answer
B. 90 -
- 2.
At what horsepower is the H–60 auxiliary power unit (APU) rated?
- A.
60
- B.
90
- C.
120
- D.
150
Correct Answer
B. 90 -
- 3.
What three words epitomize the core values of the United States Air Force?
- A.
Integrity, service, and quality.
- B.
Integrity, service, and excellence.
- C.
Integrity, service, and professionalism.
- D.
Honesty, dedication, and professionalism.
Correct Answer
B. Integrity, service, and excellence. -
- 4.
The bedrock of the Air Force core values is
- A.
Honesty.
- B.
Integrity.
- C.
Excellence.
- D.
Professionalism.
Correct Answer
B. Integrity. -
- 5.
What are the three enlisted force structure tiers?
- A.
Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), commissioned officer (CO).
- B.
Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt).
- C.
Junior enlisted Airman, uncommissioned officer (UCO), noncommissioned officer (NCO).
- D.
Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO).
Correct Answer
D. Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO). -
- 6.
What is the primary focus in the noncommissioned officer (NCO) tier?
- A.
Advancement.
- B.
Up-grade training.
- C.
Developing Airman.
- D.
Mission accomplishment.
Correct Answer
D. Mission accomplishment. -
- 7.
How should you treat safety, when it is integrated effectively into your job training?
- A.
As part of the training.
- B.
As the same as the training.
- C.
As a separate item from the training.
- D.
Do not treat it as part of the training.
Correct Answer
C. As a separate item from the training. -
- 8.
Which type of containers must be used for combustible wastes, rags, and other flammable materials?
- A.
Plastics containers..
- B.
Metal mesh containers.
- C.
Metal containers with self-closing lids.
- D.
Plastics containers with self-closing lids.
Correct Answer
C. Metal containers with self-closing lids. -
- 9.
A major cause of safety mishaps is
- A.
Haste.
- B.
Laziness.
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Inexperience.
Correct Answer
C. Horseplay. -
- 10.
Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?
- A.
Rings.
- B.
Dog tags.
- C.
Wristwatches.
- D.
Plastic rim glasses.
Correct Answer
D. Plastic rim glasses. -
- 11.
Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?
- A.
Dizziness.
- B.
Headaches.
- C.
Emotional irritability.
- D.
Muscular imbalance.
Correct Answer
C. Emotional irritability. -
- 12.
When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not exceed
- A.
15 pounds per square inch (psi).
- B.
30 psi.
- C.
45 psi.
- D.
60 psi.
Correct Answer
B. 30 psi. -
- 13.
What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating?
- A.
5 feet.
- B.
15 feet.
- C.
25 feet.
- D.
50 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 25 feet. -
- 14.
What is the maximum safe noise level before hearing loss occurs?
- A.
110 decibels (dB).
- B.
110 decibels (dB).
- C.
95 dB.
- D.
85 dB.
Correct Answer
C. 95 dB. -
- 15.
Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered ―explosives-loaded‖?
- A.
Flares.
- B.
Survival kit.
- C.
Pyrotechnics rescue kit.
- D.
Fire-extinguisher cartridges.
Correct Answer
A. Flares. -
- 16.
The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by
- A.
Distance criteria.
- B.
Maintenance criteria.
- C.
The type of fire extinguisher.
- D.
The availability of fire extinguishers.
Correct Answer
A. Distance criteria. -
- 17.
A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. C -
- 18.
Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?
- A.
Supplement.
- B.
Change sheet.
- C.
Staff summary sheet.
- D.
Operating instruction.
Correct Answer
A. Supplement. -
- 19.
In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?
- A.
First.
- B.
Second.
- C.
Third.
- D.
Fourth.
Correct Answer
C. Third. -
- 20.
What technical order (TO) third-part numbers identify time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?
- A.
–1 through –50
- B.
–1 through –100
- C.
–101 through –500.
- D.
–501 and higher.
Correct Answer
D. –501 and higher. -
- 21.
Which technical order (TO) is a methods and procedures TO?
- A.
TO 0–1–01, Applicable Publication.
- B.
TO 00–5–1–WA–1, AF Technical Order System.
- C.
T0 1–1–1, Procedures.
- D.
TO 1H–60(H)G–2–1.
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–5–1–WA–1, AF Technical Order System. -
- 22.
Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?
- A.
Zone.
- B.
Schematic.
- C.
Wiring diagram.
- D.
Reference designation index.
Correct Answer
B. Schematic. -
- 23.
Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?
- A.
TO 00–5–1–WA–1, AF Technical Order System.
- B.
TO 00–5–15–WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.
- C.
TO 00–20–1–WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policy and Procedures.
- D.
TO 00–20–3–WA–1, Maintenance Processing of Reparable Property and Repair Cycle Asset Control System.
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–5–15–WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System. -
- 24.
How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?
- A.
Immediately.
- B.
Within 30 days.
- C.
At the next TO revision.
- D.
Within one to five days or before the next flight.
Correct Answer
A. Immediately. -
- 25.
What category Air Force technical order (AFTO) IMT 22 report would you submit for a nonemergency technical order (TO) defect involving a hazardous condition that could result in personnel injury?
- A.
Emergency
- B.
Immediate.
- C.
Routine.
- D.
Urgent.
Correct Answer
D. Urgent. -
- 26.
Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?
- A.
Air Force (AF) Form 95, Historical Data.
- B.
AF Form 126, Flight Data Document.
- C.
Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.
- D.
AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document. -
- 27.
Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781 series forms?
- A.
Crew chief
- B.
Flight chief
- C.
Flight engineer
- D.
Maintenance expediter
Correct Answer
A. Crew chief -
- 28.
Which form is used to show physical presence or absence of aircraft –21 equipment?
- A.
Air Force (AF) IMT 126, Transfer/Shipping List.
- B.
Department of Defense (DD) Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document.
- C.
AF IMT 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record.
- D.
AF IMT 2721, Property Record.
Correct Answer
C. AF IMT 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record. -
- 29.
Which section may be included and aligned under an aircraft/helicopter maintenance unit (AMU/HMU)?
- A.
Aircraft, Specialist, and Debrief.
- B.
Aircraft, Scheduling, and Depot.
- C.
Aircraft, Debrief, and Operations.
- D.
Aircraft, Support, and Operations.
Correct Answer
A. Aircraft, Specialist, and Debrief. -
- 30.
Which section within the Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) normally performs organizational-level maintenance on aircraft?
- A.
Support.
- B.
Aircraft.
- C.
Operations.
- D.
Maintenance.
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft. -
- 31.
Who is the first line manager and supervisor of maintenance production?
- A.
Production superintendent (pro super).
- B.
Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- C.
Operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
- D.
Flight commander/flight chief or aircraft maintenance unit officer in charge (AMU OIC)/superintendent (AMU/OIC SUPT).
Correct Answer
B. Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC). -
- 32.
Who manages, controls, and directs resources to accomplish all unscheduled and scheduled maintenance to generate aircraft?
- A.
Flightline expediter.
- B.
Production superintendent (pro super).
- C.
Maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
- D.
Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer
A. Flightline expediter. -
- 33.
What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?
- A.
CDDAR duty roster.
- B.
Emergency recall or mobilization rosters
- C.
On call beeper program.
- D.
A permanent CDDAR crew that works during non duty hours.
Correct Answer
B. Emergency recall or mobilization rosters -
- 34.
Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?
- A.
Flight Chief.
- B.
Wing Commander (WG/CC).
- C.
Production Superintendant (pro super).
- D.
Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC). -
- 35.
What part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) outlines specific training that individuals should receive to develop and progress throughout their career?
- A.
Part I.
- B.
Part II.
- C.
Part III.
- D.
Part IV.
Correct Answer
A. Part I. -
- 36.
What form is used to document local or unique training requirements not contained in the specialty training standard (STS)?
- A.
Air Force (AF) Form 623, Individual training record folder.
- B.
AF Form 2426, Training request and completion.
- C.
AF Form 623A, On-the-job training record continuation sheet.
- D.
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS. -
- 37.
What is the mandated automated training tool for maintaining on-the-job (OJT) records?
- A.
Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).
- B.
Advanced Distance Learning System (ADLS).
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer
D. Training Business Area (TBA). -
- 38.
Who assigns your role and the actions you are allowed to perform in Training Business Area (TBA)?
- A.
Training manager.
- B.
TBA manager.
- C.
Flight chief.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Training manager. -
- 39.
Which inspection method requires the aircraft to be sent to a fixed station for inspection and maintenance?
- A.
Line.
- B.
Dock.
- C.
Ramp.
- D.
In-place.
Correct Answer
B. Dock. -
- 40.
How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Five.
Correct Answer
D. Five. -
- 41.
Which inspection consolidates the Pre-flight and Basic Post-flight inspections into a single inspection?
- A.
Combined Pre-flight and Post-flight.
- B.
Home Station Checks.
- C.
In-depth Post-flight.
- D.
Walk-Around.
Correct Answer
A. Combined Pre-flight and Post-flight. -
- 42.
What type inspection must be performed after a hard landing?
- A.
Phase inspection.
- B.
Special inspection.
- C.
Acceptance inspection.
- D.
Basic Post-flight inspection.
Correct Answer
B. Special inspection. -
- 43.
When the granted extension period of a replacement schedule has been reached, the aircraft will be
- A.
Allowed to fly till the next scheduled inspection is due.
- B.
Allowed an additional 50 hours.
- C.
Used only for training missions.
- D.
Grounded.
Correct Answer
D. Grounded. -
- 44.
The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for
- A.
Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level maintenance data.
- B.
Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level maintenance data.
- C.
Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level maintenance data.
- D.
Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level maintenance data.
Correct Answer
D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level maintenance data. -
- 45.
The three phases of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) operational events subsystem are
- A.
Input, output, and archive.
- B.
On-line, off-line, and update.
- C.
Data recording, tracking, and retrieval.
- D.
Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.
Correct Answer
D. Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis. -
- 46.
In the supply system, critical items are generally a small number of items that cause the largest number of
- A.
Mission delays.
- B.
On-time takeoffs.
- C.
Not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions.
- D.
Partial mission capable supply (PMCS) conditions.
Correct Answer
C. Not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions. -
- 47.
Which form is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item?
- A.
Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 346, Processing Tag.
- B.
AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.
- C.
Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1, DIFM Notice.
- D.
DD Form 1348–6, Department of Defense (DOD) Single Line Item Requisition System Document.
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag. -
- 48.
To verify the Daily Document Register (D04), what Air Force (AF) Form should a requesting organization or shop retain?
- A.
1150, Turn-in Request.
- B.
1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
- C.
2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.
- D.
2413, Supply Control Log.
Correct Answer
D. 2413, Supply Control Log. -
- 49.
Within how many hours is the submission of a Category I deficiency report required?
- A.
12.
- B.
24.
- C.
36.
- D.
48.
Correct Answer
B. 24. -
- 50.
What deficiency designation is used when a component’s failure was the result of a defect or nonconforming condition of an overhauled component?
- A.
Dropped Object Report (DOR).
- B.
Material Deficiency Report (MDR).
- C.
Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR).
- D.
Armed Instruction Deficiency Roster (AIDR).
Correct Answer
C. Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR). -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Nov 24, 2016Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 20, 2016Quiz Created by
55HMU
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A251 Quizzes
- 2A651 Quizzes
- 2A652 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A656 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A852 Quizzes
- 2AX5X Quizzes
- 2AX7X Quizzes
- 2S051 Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 2T251 Quizzes
- 3d052 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3D153 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 3P071 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3dx7x Quizzes
Back to top