2A552 CDC Pretest

1. Which type of containers must be used for combustible wastes, rags, and other flammable materials?

Plastics containers..

Metal mesh containers.

Metal containers with self-closing lids.

Plastics containers with self-closing lids.

2. Prior to lowering jacks and aircraft, you must

Clear the area beneath the aircraft of all obstructions.

Check electrical power switches.

Check fluid level in jacks.

Call for wind velocity.

3. Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?

Rings.

Dog tags.

Wristwatches.

Plastic rim glasses.

4. To prevent scratching the windshield when you are performing an operational check of the H–60 windshield wiper system, keep the windshield wet or

Install the safety locks

Remove the wiper assemblies

Install a cotter pin in the wiper hold-off pin holes

Apply a light film of vegetable oil to the wiper blades

5. Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered ―explosives-loaded‖?

Flares.

Survival kit.

Pyrotechnics rescue kit.

Fire-extinguisher cartridges.

6. A pilot would use autorotation

To ensure a smooth landing in windy weather.

To counteract ground resonance during landing.

During an emergency landing with an engine failure.

During abnormal in-flight operation of the tail rotor.

7. Within how many hours is the submission of a Category I deficiency report required?

12.

24.

36.

48.

8. What three words epitomize the core values of the United States Air Force?

Integrity, service, and quality.

Integrity, service, and excellence.

Integrity, service, and professionalism.

Honesty, dedication, and professionalism.

9. Which limit switch on the H–60 (Lucas-Western) rescue hoist will actuate to stop the hoist cable when there is 3½ to 4½ wraps of cable remaining on the drum?

Up limit

Full-out limit

Deceleration up-limit

Deceleration down-limit

10. The bedrock of the Air Force core values is

Honesty.

Integrity.

Excellence.

Professionalism.

11. What system is used to operationally check the H–60 hydraulic system during ground operations?

Backup hydraulic.

Utility hydraulic.

No. 1 hydraulic.

No. 2 hydraulic.

12. The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the

Handle at the lowest setting.

Handle at the highest setting.

Locking mechanism in the ON position.

Locking mechanism in the OFF position.

13. What is the mandated automated training tool for maintaining on-the-job (OJT) records?

Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).

Advanced Distance Learning System (ADLS).

Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

Training Business Area (TBA).

14. What are the three enlisted force structure tiers?

Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), commissioned officer (CO).

Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt).

Junior enlisted Airman, uncommissioned officer (UCO), noncommissioned officer (NCO).

Junior enlisted Airman, noncommissioned officer (NCO), senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO).

15. What happens when the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts?

Nothing.

The liquid crystal display (LCD) blinks

The LCD displays ―LOW BAT‖.

The protractor automatically shuts down.

16. When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, how many bolts may be wired in a series?

3.

4.

5.

6.

17. Although you must perform certain checks anytime you replace hydraulic components on the H–60, what are you not always required to do?

Ensure there are no leaks.

Bleed the affected system.

Perform a functional check flight (FCF)

18. Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?

Supplement.

Change sheet.

Staff summary sheet.

Operating instruction.

19. A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by

Inspecting the property on issue.

Inspecting the property on turn-in.

Making frequent visits to base activities.

Obtaining written reports from supervisors.

20. Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?

Zone.

Schematic.

Wiring diagram.

Reference designation index.

21. To avoid injury and prevent cable fouling when raising or lowering the rescue hoist cable on an H–60, you should use

Rubber gloves and maintain tension on the cable

Leather gloves and maintain tension on the cable

Rubber gloves and avoid having tension on the cable.

Leather gloves and avoid having tension on the cable

22. What method of cleaning aircraft can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers, as well as disbond adhesives and craze plastics?

Portable spray pump.

Universal wash unit.

Steam cleaning.

Hand washing.

23. On the H–60, when will fuel automatically transfer?

One main fuel tank is at 887 pounds and the other is at less than 1,000 pounds

Both auxiliary fuel tank levels are less than 800 pounds

Both main fuel tank levels are more than 1,050 pounds

Both auxiliary fuel tanks are empty.

24. An aircraft weight and balance update is required

Monthly.

Semiannually.

When a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed

When small changes have been made to the vertical and/or lateral balance of the aircraft.

25. When an H–60 damper and reservoir are fully serviced, the indicator will show full

Red

Blue

Gold

Yellow

26. How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?

Immediately.

Within 30 days.

At the next TO revision.

Within one to five days or before the next flight.

27. What is the most likely cause of a birdcaged rescue hoist cable on an H–60?

Hook bearing not rotating freely.

Cable getting caught in the cable guide

Lifting more weight than the cable is rated for

Cable rubbing against the other cable or other structural members

28. The fuel servicing point is identified by a black

Circle.

Square.

Diamond.

Four-pointed star.

29. Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?

Flight Chief.

Wing Commander (WG/CC).

Production Superintendant (pro super).

Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

30. When the PROBE STATUS UNLKD indicator extinguishes, what light illuminates in the H–60 in-flight refuel system?

RDY

PROBE

UNLKD

EXTEND

31. What component receives oil at a flow rate of 5.5 gallons per minute (gpm) from the engine oil tank assembly, in order to lubricate the engine accessory gearbox?

Oil pump

Fuel pump

Air oil separator

Oil temperature sensor

32. At what horsepower is the H–60 auxiliary power unit (APU) rated?

60

90

120

150

33. The ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP) provides for all ground refuel and defuel modes, a basic display of fuel system status, total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and

Basic display of fuel system failures.

Cabin door safety interlock status.

Hydraulic system status.

Oxygen system status.

34. What system on the nose landing gear (NLG) provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing of the aircraft?

Hike.

Chamber.

Elevation.

Extension.

35. Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781 series forms?

Crew chief

Flight chief

Flight engineer

Maintenance expediter

36. What is not measured by the digital protractor?

Tilt.

Level.

Angles.

Distance.

37. On the generator control panel of the –86 Hobart generator set, the indication of a clogged air filter is a

Red air service indicator flag.

Red air service indicator light.

Yellow air service indicator flag

Yellow air service indicator light.

38. Where is the H–60 parking brake handle located?

Aft of the center console

Forward of the center console

On the pilot’s side of the center console.

On the copilot’s side of the center console

39. A major cause of safety mishaps is

Haste.

Laziness.

Horseplay.

Inexperience.

40. Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

Dizziness.

Headaches.

Emotional irritability.

Muscular imbalance.

41. What aerodynamic force acts in the opposite direction of drag?

Lift.

Speed.

Thrust.

Gravity.

42. What deficiency designation is used when a component's failure was the result of a defect or nonconforming condition of an overhauled component?

Dropped Object Report (DOR).

Material Deficiency Report (MDR).

Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR).

Armed Instruction Deficiency Roster (AIDR).

43. Which of these is not part of corrosion prevention?

Cleaning.

Painting.

Removing rust

Inspecting and early detection.

44. Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

Knurl beside the fork.

Groove by the cable eye.

Knurl beside the pin eye.

Groove or knurl on the end of the barrel.

45. On a standard electrical connector, the key and keyway are located

Adjacent to the A or 1 pin.

Adjacent to the B or 2 pin.

At a 6 o’clock position on cannon plug halves.

At a 12 o’clock position on cannon plug halves.

46. What is the minimum number of tow crewmembers necessary for a normal towing operation?

Two.

Three.

Four.

Five.

47. Which two emergency signals are heard most often aboard naval vessels?

Defense and Flooding/Fire.

Collision and Flooding/Fire.

General Quarters and Flooding/Fire.

General Quarters and Man Overboard.

48. When the explosive squib is fired, the H–60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light will extinguish when

The hook opens

The hook closes

New squib is installed

The hook open lever is reset

49. The H–60 stabilator vibration absorber is attached to the

Left stabilator keeper pin.

Right stabilator keeper pin.

Left stabilator attachment fitting

Right stabilator attachment fitting.

50. You must replace the brake linings on an H–60 when the brake lining wear pin is

Flush with the housing nut

.05 inch from the housing nut.

.10 inch from the housing nut

.15 inch from the housing nut.

51. What type of shock strut is installed on the H–60 tail landing gear?

One-stage air-oil

Two-stage air-oil

Three-stage air-oil.

Four-stage air-oil.

52. Natural frequency is defined as the frequency at which an object or component will vibrate if it is

Static

Excited

Stationary

Statically charged

53. Which inspection method requires the aircraft to be sent to a fixed station for inspection and maintenance?

Line.

Dock.

Ramp.

In-place.

54. What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?

CDDAR duty roster.

Emergency recall or mobilization rosters

On call beeper program.

A permanent CDDAR crew that works during non duty hours.

55. The three electroluminescent 115 volts alternating current (VAC) lights that provide an alternate lighting source for illuminating the instrument panel are the

Instrument panel secondary lights.

Glareshield secondary floodlights

Side console secondary lights.

Overhead secondary lights.

56. What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating?

5 feet.

15 feet.

25 feet.

50 feet.

57. The proprotor fairings and other components are made of a composite material containing a copper mesh used for

Reinforcement.

Corrosion resistance

Aircraft ergonomic stability.

Distribution and dissipation of electrical charges

58. What section of the H60 is designed to give a smooth airflow induction for cooling major aircraft systems and subsystem components?

Stabilator

Tail rotor pylon

Main rotor pylon

Transition section

59. Which helicopter flight characteristic usually develops during takeoff or landing and when the helicopter/tiltrotor is 87 to 95 percent airborne?

Auto rotation.

Ground resonance.

Dissymmetry of lift.

60. To avoid placing undue stress on the brake assembly when servicing the upper stage of the shock strut, you need to

Deflate the tire.

Set the parking brake

Release the parking brake

Use a skid plate under the tire

61. What components are the main entry points for fuel into the left and right forward sponson cells?

Ground pressure refuel adapters.

Cap and adapter assemblies.

Fuel level control valves.

Refuel/defuel valves.

62. What is another name for engine wash cart?

Hobart.

Soap/water cart.

Spray unit cart.

Corrosion control cart.

63. When reinstalling a main transmission module on an H–60 power train, what must you do if you find the breakaway torque is less than 32-inch pounds?

Re-torque the main flange bolts.

Change to high-shear nuts

Replace the mount bolts

Replace the barrel nuts

64. What type of sling is used to remove aircraft engines?

Special-purpose.

Medium-duty.

Heavy-duty.

Simple.

65. In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?

First.

Second.

Third.

Fourth.

66. The type of rotor control that is phased out during conversion from helicopter mode to aircraft mode is the

Flaperons.

Elevators.

Rudders.

Cyclic.

67. If you turn the pitch link three notches while making an autorotation adjustment on an H–60, how much will you change the main rotor speed (Nr)?

One percent.

Two percent

Three percent

Four percent.

68. The part of a cannon plug that completes the electrical circuit is

Metal shells.

Connector halves.

Dielectric contacts.

Pin-and-socket contacts.

69. Which regulated alternating current (AC) voltages can the –86 Hobart generator set deliver to the aircraft?

28.5.

110/210.

115/200 or 230/400.

100/210 or 215/315.

70. What type inspection must be performed after a hard landing?

Phase inspection.

Special inspection.

Acceptance inspection.

Basic Post-flight inspection.

71. On the engine wash cart, the mixer assembly produces a water to soap ratio of

1:2

1:4

2:1

4:1

72. Which Integrated Vehicle Health Monitoring System (IVHMS) component provides the interface between the IVHMS and the aircrew?

Remote Data Concentrator (RDC).

Control Display Unit (CDU).

Aircrew Interlink Unit (AIU).

Data Transfer Unit (DTU).

73. How should you treat safety, when it is integrated effectively into your job training?

As part of the training.

As the same as the training.

As a separate item from the training.

Do not treat it as part of the training.

74. When installing a main module on an H–60 power train, the task will be easier if you line up the

Back mount bolt holes first

Front mount bolt holes first.

Left-side mount bolt holes first, then the right-side mount bolt holes

Right-side mount bolt holes first, then the left-side mount bolt holes

75. On an H–60, what screw threaded component's procedures are identified by SC ?

Safety Critical

Sole Component

Same Component

Safety Compliance

76. What type of H–60 hydraulic leak check observation would you use if the location of a component does not permit you to directly observe the leak?

Direct

Indirect

Extended

Expanded

77. The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for

Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level maintenance data.

Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level maintenance data.

Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level maintenance data.

Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level maintenance data.

78. Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?

Air Force (AF) Form 95, Historical Data.

AF Form 126, Flight Data Document.

Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

AFTO Form 781F, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Report and Maintenance Document.

79. Which special tool is used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel?

Rig pin kit.

Tensiometer.

Torque wrench.

Propeller protractor.

80. What color are the cockpit floodlights?

White and blue

White and yellow.

White and green

Green and yellow

81. Both H–60 engine fire extinguisher containers will automatically fire into both main engine compartments upon a ground impact of

1 G or more.

3 or more Gs.

7 or more Gs

10 or more Gs.

82. Lubrications that are procured in containers larger than the 1-quart size must be

Shelf-inspected before use.

Properly sealed after use.

Discarded after use

Filtered before use.

83. The AF/M32R–3 oxygen servicing trailer is designed to transport a maximum of how many oxygen cylinders?

3

6

8

10

84. Which form is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item?

Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 346, Processing Tag.

AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1, DIFM Notice.

DD Form 1348–6, Department of Defense (DOD) Single Line Item Requisition System Document.

85. Which aircraft design provides the best weight-to-strength ratio?

Truss.

Monocoque.

Modified truss.

Semi-monocoque.

86. What windows are configured with explosive (fast burn) escape separators to provide emergency egress for the pilots?

Left/right windshields.

Left/right side windows.

Left/right cockpit canopies.

Left/right look-down windows.

87. How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?

Two.

Three.

Four.

Five.

88. The Data Transfer Memory Units (DTMU) are available in sizes ranging from

64 to 512 megabytes (MB).

64 to 612 megabytes (MB).

10 to 64 megabytes (MB).

20 to 64 megabytes (MB).

89. On the H–60, the selected position for the cyclic stick will be maintained in the longitudinal axis by the actuator's

Stability augmentation system (SAS) 1 function

Flight path stabilization (FPS) function

SAS2 function

TRIM function.

90. What are the two modes of operation for the rescue hoist system?

BACKUP and NORMAL.

OVERRIDE and BACKUP.

BACKUP and EMERGENCY.

NORMAL and EMERGENCY.

91. In the supply system, critical items are generally a small number of items that cause the largest number of

Mission delays.

On-time takeoffs.

Not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions.

Partial mission capable supply (PMCS) conditions.

92. How many broken wires are allowed to remain in a critical fatigue area on an H–60 tail rotor (TR) cable?

None

One

Two

Three

93. The T700 engine module that extracts most of the energy from the exhaust gases for output power is the

Hot section

Cold section

Power turbine

Axxessory gearbox

94. Which technical order (TO) is a methods and procedures TO?

TO 0–1–01, Applicable Publication.

TO 00–5–1–WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

T0 1–1–1, Procedures.

TO 1H–60(H)G–2–1.

95. If the pressure in an H–60 rotor blade is safe, the slots in the blade inspection method pressure indicator will be

Red

Black

White

Yellow

96. What is used as the dielectric in the H–60 fuel quantify indicating system?

Alternating current (AC) current

Direct current (DC) current

Fuel

Air

97. How is the weight of the aircraft determined?

Through the use of a slide rule.

The manufactures design gross weight is used.

Actual weighing and proper use of the aircraft’s –9 series technical order.

Through a combination of actual weighing, accurate record keeping, and proper use of the aircraft’s –5 series technical order.

98. Which inspection consolidates the Pre-flight and Basic Post-flight inspections into a single inspection?

Combined Pre-flight and Post-flight.

Home Station Checks.

In-depth Post-flight.

Walk-Around.

99. What does the engine anti–icing air system provide in order to prevent the formation of ice?

De-icing fluid

Continuous heating.

On demand heating.

Aircrew controlled heating

100. Which section within the Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) normally performs organizational-level maintenance on aircraft?

Support.

Aircraft.

Operations.

Maintenance.

101. The windshield anti-ice system heating elements on the H–60 will heat the windshield surface to a temperature of

70 – 115F.

90 – 150F.

70 – 115C

70 – 150C.

102. Detailed procedures for performing operational checks of the H–60 hydraulic system are found in the Fault Isolation Procedures Manual, technical order (TO) 1H–60(H)G–2–

3

5

7

9

103. If you find it is difficult to pull the input module free from the main module when removing the input module from an H–60 power train, what can you use to help break the input module loose?

Bolts

A screwdriver.

A large wooden mallet

The hydraulic separator unit.

104. Following installation, the H–60 vibration absorber that requires a tuning weight adjustment using the 8500 Balancer/Analyzer and functional check flight is the

Stabilator

Cabin

Roll

Tail

105. What component is designed to reduce rotor-induced vibrations and provide anti-ice protection for the proprotor blade assemblies?

Grip assemblies

Proprotor gearboxes (PRGB).

Pendulum damper assemblies.

Tip weight support assemblies

106. Where is the T700 engine oil tank located?

Internally in the swirl frame.

Internally in the main frame.

Externally on the swirl frame.

Externally on the main frame

107. Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?

TO 00–5–1–WA–1, AF Technical Order System.

TO 00–5–15–WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System.

TO 00–20–1–WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policy and Procedures.

TO 00–20–3–WA–1, Maintenance Processing of Reparable Property and Repair Cycle Asset Control System.

108. When determining vibration, how do you convert hertz (Hz) into revolutions per minute (rpm)?

Multiplying Hz by 60.

Multiplying Hz by 2.

Dividing Hz by 60.

Dividing Hz by 2.

109. What component prevents inadvertent engine shutdown when the condition lever is moved from the FLY to START position?

Nacelle waste gate.

CRANK/START gate.

CRANK/START lever.

Rotor brake control lever.

110. Who assigns your role and the actions you are allowed to perform in Training Business Area (TBA)?

Training manager.

TBA manager.

Flight chief.

Supervisor.

111. What eliminates nose up attitude during hover and low speed forward flight?

Tail rotor

Stabilator

Cyclic input

Main rotor pitch

112. What components of the alternating current (AC) system continuously check that the voltages are within the 109–115 volts AC (VAC) tolerance on each phase of the bus?

Bus bars

Circuit breakers.

Terminal boards.

Dedicated bus health monitors

113. Before servicing an H–60 landing gear strut with nitrogen, you must ensure there

Are no nitrogen leaks

Are no hydraulic fluid leaks.

Is adequate nitrogen pressure.

Is proper hydraulic fluid pressure

114. Which is not considered a condition requiring an aircraft to be weighed and balanced?

When the aircraft technical order (TO) mandates it.

When actual weight and balance data is not available

When recorded weight and balance data is suspected of being in error.

When a new main gearbox has been installed and the gearbox historical records cannot be found.

115. The H–60 intermediate gearbox transmits torque to the tail gearbox and also changes the angle of drive about

22°.

34°

46°.

58°

116. To achieve optimum compressor performance, the T700 engine fuel system positions the compressor variable

Exist vanes

Exist blades

Rotor blades

Stator vanes

117. The H–60 instrument display system is not equipped with a

No.1 signal data converter (SDC).

Pilot display unit (PDU).

Steering command unit.

No.2 SDC.

118. The boom head assembly is designed to swivel

120 degrees about the boom cable axis, 60 degrees either side of center.

220 degrees about the boom cable axis, 90 degrees either side of center.

360 degrees about the boom cable axis, 60 degrees either side of center.

360 degrees about the boom cable axis, 90 degrees either side of center.

119. On an H–60, how often does the electronic sequence unit (ESU) take a reading of the major parameters of the auxiliary power unit (APU)?

Every 50 milliseconds

Every millisecond

Once each second.

Once each minute

120. On the H–60, the valve type used to mix engine or auxiliary power unit bleed-air with the ambient air to obtain the desired temperature is

Bleed-air mixing.

Engine air mixing

Bleed-air regulating

Engine air regulating

121. What component provides control and monitoring of fuel center of gravity (CG) management system operation for the left side of the aircraft, and monitoring of the low level sensor in the left feed tank?

Fuel management unit (FMU) 1 (left FMU).

Central processing unit (CPU).

FMU 2 (right FMU).

FMU 3

122. What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–7 stand?

7

10

16

20

123. What technical order (TO) third-part numbers identify time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?

–1 through –50

–1 through –100

–101 through –500.

–501 and higher.

124. At what horsepower is the H–60 auxiliary power unit (APU) rated?

60

90

120

150

125. What component engages and disengages the auxiliary power unit (APU)?

Integral overrunning clutch.

APU transmission adapter.

Planetary assembly

APU gearbox.

126. The engine fuel cooled oil cooler is designed to cool the oil in degrees (°) Fahrenheit (F) to below

240° F.

250° F.

260° F.

280° F.

127. At what horsepower is the H–60 auxiliary power unit (APU) rated?

60

90

120

150

128. The hydraulic relief valves on the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit are set at what minimum and maximum levels to relieve the low and high pressure systems from excessive pressure?

50 pounds per square inch (psi) (low); 1,500 psi (high).

100 psi (low); 2,500 psi (high).

100 psi (low); 3,300 psi (high).

500 psi (low); 3,500 psi (high).

129. The elastomeric bearings on the H–60 rotor hub for the main rotor (MR) are designed to

Absorb MR vibrations.

Allow the MR to be folded.

Absorb MR head engagement loads.

Allow the MR blades to droop, flap, lead, and lag.

130. A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class

C

D

B

A

131. The roll vibration absorbers on the H–60 are installed under the

Main landing gear drag beam support fairings

Tail and main landing gear drag beam.

Main landing gear drag beam only.

Tail landing gear drag beam only.

132. When the H–60 refuel probe is extended, where does the fuel from the retract side of the probe flow?

No. 1 main fuel tank

No. 2 main fuel tank

Internal auxiliary fuel tank

External auxiliary fuel tank

133. When the outside air temperature is between 5 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) and 40°F, what should be the percentage ratio mix of water-to-methanol/isopropyl alcohol when cleaning aircraft engines?

60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

50% water and 50% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

25% water and 75% methanol or isopropyl alcohol

20% water and 80% methanol or isopropyl alcohol.

134. The H–60 stabilator position indicator has a marked range of

10 DN to 50 UP.

25 DN to 30 UP

30 DN to 20 UP

45 DN to 10 UP

135. What are the minimum and maximum heights for the B–4 maintenance stand?

Three to seven feet.

Three to ten feet.

Five to ten feet.

Five to 15 feet.

136. Torque effect is a good example of

Newton’s first law of motion.

Newton’s third law of motion.

The negative effects of tail rotor reaction.

The negative effects of main rotor reaction.

137. The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by

Distance criteria.

Maintenance criteria.

The type of fire extinguisher.

The availability of fire extinguishers.

138. A tuned nose vibration absorber reduces what type of H–60 cockpit centerline vertical vibration?

1/rev

2/rev

3/rev

4/rev

139. All aircraft fuel servicing/defueling operations will be performed in accordance with local activities supplemental instructions and

Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR) 00–80T–109.

Technical Order (TO) 1V–22(C)B–1.

NAVAIR A1–V22AC–MRC–000.

TO 1V–22(C)B–6.

140. Which Department of Defense (DD) form should be used to record aircraft weight and balance data?

DD Form 1150.

DD Form. 1131.

DD Form 365

DD Form 362.

141. On navy ships, what is stamped onto the compartment bulkhead and gives information on where you are and the compartment's function?

Bull's eye.

Color code.

Locator map.

Numeric code.

142. When the granted extension period of a replacement schedule has been reached, the aircraft will be

Allowed to fly till the next scheduled inspection is due.

Allowed an additional 50 hours.

Used only for training missions.

Grounded.

143. What is the primary focus in the noncommissioned officer (NCO) tier?

Advancement.

Up-grade training.

Developing Airman.

Mission accomplishment.

144. Nitrogen (N2) tubes are labeled with tape that identifies nitrogen tubes with the legend PNEUMATIC and a

Green band followed by a band of square symbols

Green band followed by a band of rectangle symbols

Blue and orange band of continuous X-formed lattice.

Blue and orange band followed by a band of rectangle symbols

145. What type of cabin lights provide general purpose interior lighting to the passenger compartment cabin area?

Dome

Panel

Interior

Secondary

146. Which part of the main landing gear shock strut absorbs normal landing loads on the H–60?

Upper

Lower

Center

Nitrogen

147. What is the maximum number of seconds the auxiliary power unit (APU) can operate in CRANK mode?

15

30

45

60

148. What independent hydraulic system(s) provide hydraulic power to the Osprey?

Auxiliary hydraulic power system.

Hydraulic system 1 and 2 only.

Main hydraulic power system.

Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3.

149. What monitors the fluid level in the reservoirs for hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3?

Hydraulic reservoir quantity multi-function display (MFD) control layer

Hydraulic fluid level monitor (HFLM).

Fluid compensation valves.

Remote switching valves.

150. When setting your torque wrench prior to torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft clamp, you must figure out the

Bolt friction torque, and add it to the required torque value.

Nut friction torque, and add it to the required torque value.

Bolt friction torque, and subtract it from the torque value.

Nut friction torque, and subtract it from the torque value.

151. What effect does the engine's compressor rotor have on the velocity of the incoming airflow?

Eliminate

Decrease

Maintain

Increase

152. What is the purpose of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial Support Equipment Record (Continuation)?

Documents off-equipment maintenance.

A continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

The inspection checklist for support equipment.

The support equipment training document.

153. How many degrees must the search/landing lights be extended before they can be turned on?

10

30

45

60

154. The engine trailer is customized to each aircraft by installing

Slings.

Fixtures.

Adapters.

Support assemblies.

155. What kind of filter elements does the inlet particle separator (IPS) filter assembly filters contain?

Three metal mesh internal throw away.

Two paper fabric internal throw away.

Three metal mesh internal cleanable

Two paper fabric internal cleanable.

156. If the H–60 main transmission lubrication system pressure exceeds 55 pounds per square inch (psi), the bypass valve starts to open and the extra oil returns back to the

Inlet side of the pump

Outlet side of the pump

Inlet side of the oil cooler

Outlet side of the oil cooler.

157. For de-icing, the H–60 main rotor (MR) blade has

A Nomex honeycomb filler.

A replaceable nickel strip.

Electro-thermal blankets

De-icing boots.

158. What components provide artificial feel forces and magnetic brake functions for the mechanical flight controls?

Cockpit control thrust drive actuators (CCTDA) and cockpit control feel drive actuators(CCFDA).

CCTDAs and cockpit control position transducers (CCPT).

CCPTs and thrust control levers (TCL).

CCFDAs and CCPTs.

159. What provides control and indication of the primary landing gear extension/retraction system and control of the emergency extension system in the event the primary system fails?

Drag strut/actuator.

Gas control manifold (GCM).

Landing gear control unit (LGCU).

Emergency gear extension unit (EGEU).

160. The digital electronic control validates fault codes continually when the T700 engine is operated at

100 percent rotor speed.

Flight idle or below

Flight idle or above

Any speed

161. What component of the engine air particle separator (EAPS) system distributes anti-ice air to the EAPS housing and turning vanes?

Power turbine assembly

Housing seal assembly

Bleed air tubing.

Brush seal.

162. In the direct current (DC) power system, what solid-state device contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay that automatically disconnects the aircraft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS to prevent excess battery drain during ground servicing?

Battery indicator relay

Battery relay control unit.

Battery indicator and test panel

APU start battery auxiliary relay

163. At the hook end, how many feet of the visible cable of the rescue hoist cable is colored orange?

10

14

20

24

164. Who is the first line manager and supervisor of maintenance production?

Production superintendent (pro super).

Section noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

Operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

Flight commander/flight chief or aircraft maintenance unit officer in charge (AMUOIC)/superintendent (AMU/OIC SUPT).

165. If either the yaw or roll trim actuator should jam, an H–60 pilot can control the inputs by

Elastomeric bearings

Spring cylinders.

Slip clutches.

Sheer pins.

166. What allows for thermal expansion when the brakes on an H–60 are OFF?

Master cylinder.

Slave mixer valve.

Parking brake valve

Wheel brake assembly.

167. During night vision imaging system (NVG) mode of operation, which anticollision light(s) is disabled?

Top

Both

Neither

Bottom

168. What mode of operation does the ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP) operate in?

NORMAL.

REFUEL.

OFF.

ON.

169. What category Air Force technical order (AFTO) IMT 22 report would you submit for a nonemergency technical order (TO) defect involving a hazardous condition that could result in personnel injury?

Emergency

Immediate.

Routine.

Urgent.

170. What form of corrosion causes a buildup of corrosion deposits just below the metal surface, resulting in a separation of the surface grains?

Intergranular.

Exfoliation.

Galvanic.

Pitting.

171. What provides a signal to the de-ice controller for heating of the rotor blades?

Outside air temperature (OAT) sensor

Ice detector sensor

Distributor

Slip ring.

172. When pressed, the H–60 servo jam simulation button causes the

No. 1 and No. 2 PRI SERVO PRESS caution capsule to illuminate

No. 1 or No. 2 PRI SERVO PRESS caution capsule to illuminate

Primary servo to automatically switch to the second stage

Primary servo to hydraulically depressurize the manifold.

173. When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not exceed

15 pounds per square inch (psi).

30 psi.

45 psi.

60 psi.

174. What hydraulic system #1 component regulates hydraulic fluid temperature by providing a maximum pressure-to-return leak path flow of up to 2 gallons per minute (gpm), when fluid temperature is below 40 degrees Fahrenheit, to rapidly heat up the hydraulic system fluid and maximize hydraulic system operation?

Remote switching valve module.

Thermal control valve module.

Flight control module # 1.

Thermal static pilot valve.

175. The oil tank assembly ensures adequate delivery of oil to the engine by the oil pump from sea level up to an altitude of

10,000 feet

20,000 feet.

30,000 feet

40,000 feet

176. What is the purpose of air transport kits (ATK)?

Facilitate quick teardown and buildup of your helicopter

Secure the helicopter to the floor of the transport aircraft

Facilitate the folding of the main rotor blades

Pull the helicopter into the transport aircraft.

177. What connects the flight control components on an H–60?

Bellcranks.

Cables and pulleys

Push-pull rods and servos.

Special self-retaining bolts

178. How can a pilot on an H–60 disengage the yaw trim when the airspeed is below 60 knots?

Using the flight path stabilization switch

The yaw trim disengage switch.

Releasing the control pedal switches

Pressing the control pedal switches

179. Gaseous oxygen (GOX) high-pressure cylinders are painted what color?

White with a green band near the bottom.

Green with a white band near the bottom.

White with a green band near the top.

Green with a white band near the top.

180. What part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) outlines specific training that individuals should receive to develop and progress throughout their career?

Part I.

Part II.

Part III.

Part IV.

181. What is the tail rotor (TR) balance goal when using the Integrated Vehicle Health Monitoring System (IVHMS)?

0.10 inches per second (IPS).

0.15 inches per second (IPS).

0.20 inches per second (IPS).

0.25 inches per second (IPS).

182. The three phases of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) operational events subsystem are

Input, output, and archive.

On-line, off-line, and update.

Data recording, tracking, and retrieval.

Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.

183. What routes oil and fuel through the T700 engine accessory gearbox (AGB)?

Internal lines

External lines

Internal passages

External passages

184. The attachment point for the tail wheel assembly on the H–60 tail landing gear is the

Fork assembly

Axle assembly

Yoke assembly

Shock strut

185. What components provide alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) conversion for those systems requiring DC voltage?

DC regulated inverters.

DC bus health monitors.

DC regulated converters.

Feed-through capacitor power filters

186. Vibration is best defined as the periodic back and forth movement of a component caused by

Unbalance or external forces

Unbalance or internal forces.

Vibration or external force

Balance or internal forces

187. The pylon driveshaft assembly transfers power from the proprotor gearbox (PRGB) to the

Left engine

Right engine

Tilt axis gearbox (TAGB)

Midwing gearbox (MWGB)

188. Which form is used to show physical presence or absence of aircraft –21 equipment?

Air Force (AF) IMT 126, Transfer/Shipping List.

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document.

AF IMT 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record.

AF IMT 2721, Property Record.

189. When you start the first hydraulic high-pressure pump motor on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, approximately how many seconds must you wait before you proceed to the next system so that the motor can go into the ―run‖ configuration?

3-4

5-10

13-18

20-30

190. Who must monitor the main tank pressure indicators during single point refueling?

Refuel supervisor.

Nozzle operator.

Fuel truck driver.

Fire guard.

191. The planetary assembly is mounted to the

Cam set plate.

Proprotor blade.

Blade fold support.

Pitch lock mechanism

192. What technical order (TO) should you consult for loading and offloading your helicopter on a transport aircraft?

1H–1–39.

1C17A9.

1H60(H)G29.

The –9 TO of the aircraft you are using for transport.

193. In an emergency, what provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned?

Fuel jettison shutoff valve.

Fuel dump control panel

Jettison tube assembly

Fuel dump valves.

194. Which limit switch on the H–60 (Breeze-Eastern) rescue hoist will actuate to stop the cable when there is a minimum of 4 wraps remaining on the drum?

Up limit

Full-out limit.

Emergency full-out.

Deceleration up-limit.

195. What midwing gearbox (MWGB) oil component vents the gearbox to the atmosphere to equalize internal and external case pressure?

Breather

Manifold

Filler cap

Cooler/blower assembly

196. When the 28 volts direct current (VDC) is removed (power removed from the aircraft), how long will the solid state countdown timer maintain the emergency egress lighting system (EELS) control box in an extended operational state?

Forty five minutes

Twenty minutes.

Two hours.

One hour.

197. What portion of the composite material of the aerial refueling probe tube assembly is bonded in order to protect the aircraft from electromagnetic environmental effects?

Two static discharge cables.

Two copper grounding strips.

Three copper grounding strips.

Three external copper grounding straps.

198. How many drive train and gearbox accelerometers are located throughout the H-60 helicopter?

10

20

30

50

199. The H–60 internal auxiliary fuel tank bladder will ballistically self-seal a shrapnel hole up to

5 millimeters

10 millimeters

15 millimeters

20 millimeters

200. What frame construction type gets its strength from the skin of the aircraft?

Truss.

Monocopue.

Modified truss.

Semi-monocoque.

2A552 CDC Pretest

1. Which type of containers must be used for combustible wastes, rags, and other flammable materials?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Prior to lowering jacks and aircraft, you must

3. Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical systems?

4. To prevent scratching the windshield when you are performing an operational check of the H–60 windshield wiper system, keep the windshield wet or

5. Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered ―explosives-loaded‖?

6. A pilot would use autorotation

7. Within how many hours is the submission of a Category I deficiency report required?

8. What three words epitomize the core values of the United States Air Force?

9. Which limit switch on the H–60 (Lucas-Western) rescue hoist will actuate to stop the hoist cable when there is 3½ to 4½ wraps of cable remaining on the drum?

10. The bedrock of the Air Force core values is

11. What system is used to operationally check the H–60 hydraulic system during ground operations?

12. The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the

13. What is the mandated automated training tool for maintaining on-the-job (OJT) records?

14. What are the three enlisted force structure tiers?

15. What happens when the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts?

16. When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, how many bolts may be wired in a series?

17. Although you must perform certain checks anytime you replace hydraulic components on the H–60, what are you not always required to do?

18. Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher headquarters?

19. A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by

20. Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?

21. To avoid injury and prevent cable fouling when raising or lowering the rescue hoist cable on an H–60, you should use

22. What method of cleaning aircraft can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers, as well as disbond adhesives and craze plastics?

23. On the H–60, when will fuel automatically transfer?

24. An aircraft weight and balance update is required

25. When an H–60 damper and reservoir are fully serviced, the indicator will show full

26. How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?

27. What is the most likely cause of a birdcaged rescue hoist cable on an H–60?

28. The fuel servicing point is identified by a black

29. Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?

30. When the PROBE STATUS UNLKD indicator extinguishes, what light illuminates in the H–60 in-flight refuel system?

31. What component receives oil at a flow rate of 5.5 gallons per minute (gpm) from the engine oil tank assembly, in order to lubricate the engine accessory gearbox?

32. At what horsepower is the H–60 auxiliary power unit (APU) rated?

33. The ground refuel/defuel panel (GRDP) provides for all ground refuel and defuel modes, a basic display of fuel system status, total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and

34. What system on the nose landing gear (NLG) provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing of the aircraft?

35. Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781 series forms?

36. What is not measured by the digital protractor?

37. On the generator control panel of the –86 Hobart generator set, the indication of a clogged air filter is a

38. Where is the H–60 parking brake handle located?

39. A major cause of safety mishaps is

40. Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

41. What aerodynamic force acts in the opposite direction of drag?

42. What deficiency designation is used when a component's failure was the result of a defect or nonconforming condition of an overhauled component?

43. Which of these is not part of corrosion prevention?

44. Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

45. On a standard electrical connector, the key and keyway are located

46. What is the minimum number of tow crewmembers necessary for a normal towing operation?

47. Which two emergency signals are heard most often aboard naval vessels?

48. When the explosive squib is fired, the H–60 CARGO HOOK OPEN light will extinguish when

49. The H–60 stabilator vibration absorber is attached to the

50. You must replace the brake linings on an H–60 when the brake lining wear pin is

51. What type of shock strut is installed on the H–60 tail landing gear?

52. Natural frequency is defined as the frequency at which an object or component will vibrate if it is

53. Which inspection method requires the aircraft to be sent to a fixed station for inspection and maintenance?

54. What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?

55. The three electroluminescent 115 volts alternating current (VAC) lights that provide an alternate lighting source for illuminating the instrument panel are the

56. What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is operating?

57. The proprotor fairings and other components are made of a composite material containing a copper mesh used for

58. What section of the H60 is designed to give a smooth airflow induction for cooling major aircraft systems and subsystem components?

59. Which helicopter flight characteristic usually develops during takeoff or landing and when the helicopter/tiltrotor is 87 to 95 percent airborne?

60. To avoid placing undue stress on the brake assembly when servicing the upper stage of the shock strut, you need to

61. What components are the main entry points for fuel into the left and right forward sponson cells?

62. What is another name for engine wash cart?

63. When reinstalling a main transmission module on an H–60 power train, what must you do if you find the breakaway torque is less than 32-inch pounds?

64. What type of sling is used to remove aircraft engines?

65. In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?

66. The type of rotor control that is phased out during conversion from helicopter mode to aircraft mode is the

67. If you turn the pitch link three notches while making an autorotation adjustment on an H–60, how much will you change the main rotor speed (Nr)?

68. The part of a cannon plug that completes the electrical circuit is

69. Which regulated alternating current (AC) voltages can the –86 Hobart generator set deliver to the aircraft?

70. What type inspection must be performed after a hard landing?

71. On the engine wash cart, the mixer assembly produces a water to soap ratio of

72. Which Integrated Vehicle Health Monitoring System (IVHMS) component provides the interface between the IVHMS and the aircrew?

73. How should you treat safety, when it is integrated effectively into your job training?

74. When installing a main module on an H–60 power train, the task will be easier if you line up the

75. On an H–60, what screw threaded component's procedures are identified by ** SC **?

76. What type of H–60 hydraulic leak check observation would you use if the location of a component does not permit you to directly observe the leak?

77. The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for

75. On an H–60, what screw threaded component's procedures are identified by SC ?