1st Law Corner Online Quiz Competition, 2018
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
In which of the following case, Constitutional validity of section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being violate of Art.20(3) of the Constitution ?
- A.
State of U.P. Vs. Deoman Upadhyay
- B.
State of Bombay Vs. Kathikalu
- C.
Inayatullah Vs. State of Maharashtra
- D.
NandiniSatpathi Vs. P.L. Dhani
Correct Answer
B. State of Bombay Vs. KathikaluExplanation
The correct answer is State of Bombay Vs. Kathikalu because in this case, the Constitutional validity of section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being a violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In case of red- hearing prospectus the refund is made with an interest of-
- A.
10
- B.
12
- C.
15
- D.
16
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
In case of red- hearing prospectus, the refund is made with an interest of 15%. This means that if an investor decides to withdraw their investment before the specified period ends, they will receive their initial investment amount along with an additional 15% as interest. This is a way to compensate the investor for the inconvenience caused by the early withdrawal and to encourage them to invest for the full duration of the prospectus.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Ownership is the __________ recognition of a claim.
- A.
De Jure
- B.
De facto
- C.
Ipso facto
- D.
Per se
Correct Answer
A. De JureExplanation
De Jure refers to something that is recognized or established by law. In the context of ownership, De Jure recognition means that a claim of ownership is legally recognized and enforceable. This implies that the ownership is based on legal rights and obligations, and is not merely based on practical or factual circumstances (De facto). The other options, Ipso facto and Per se, do not specifically relate to legal recognition or claims of ownership.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Some provisions of the Indian Penal Code have been amended by the –
- A.
Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985
- B.
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
- C.
Information Technology Act, 2000
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
C. Information Technology Act, 2000Explanation
The Information Technology Act, 2000 has amended some provisions of the Indian Penal Code. This act was introduced to provide legal recognition to electronic transactions and to address the issues related to electronic commerce, cybersecurity, and data protection. It includes provisions related to cybercrime and penalties for offenses committed using electronic means. Therefore, the correct answer is the Information Technology Act, 2000.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following statement is wrong:
- A.
Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under section 313 Cr.PC
- B.
Accused can refuse to answer any question when he is examined under Section 313 Cr.PC
- C.
Accused can be put any question by the court at any stage of the trial.
- D.
Evidence which incriminates the accused has to be put to him or her by the court.
Correct Answer
A. Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under section 313 Cr.PCExplanation
The correct answer is "Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under section 313 Cr.PC". This statement is wrong because an oath is not administered to the accused before their examination under section 313 of the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.PC). The accused is only required to state the truth and nothing but the truth, but no oath is administered.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which Constitutional Amendment Act seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at Centre and state must not exceed 15 percent of the total number of the members of Lok Sabha and total number of members of that State Assembly respectively?
- A.
95th
- B.
93rd
- C.
91st
- D.
97th
Correct Answer
C. 91stExplanation
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act seeks to limit the size of the Council of Ministers at both the Centre and state levels. According to this amendment, the size of the Council of Ministers must not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members in the State Assembly. This amendment was introduced to prevent the excessive expansion of the Council of Ministers, which can lead to inefficiency and unnecessary expenditure.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following terms means “under consideration of a Court of Law”?
- A.
Sine qua non
- B.
Res judicata
- C.
Double jeopardy
- D.
Sub judice
Correct Answer
D. Sub judiceExplanation
Sub judice means "under consideration of a Court of Law."Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which one of the following is incorrect ?
- A.
Goa attains full statehood in 1987
- B.
Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by 56th Amendment of Indian Constitution
- C.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
- D.
Diu is an Island in the Gulf of Kambhat.
Correct Answer
C. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954Explanation
The statement "Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954" is incorrect. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule until 1954, not French colonial rule.Rate this question:
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- 9.
According to John Austin the subject matter of Jurisprudence is _________ law.
- A.
Positive
- B.
Negative
- C.
A and B
- D.
Metaphysical
Correct Answer
A. PositiveExplanation
According to John Austin, the subject matter of Jurisprudence is positive law. Positive law refers to the law that is actually enacted and enforced by a political authority, such as statutes, regulations, and case law. This is in contrast to natural law or metaphysical law, which is based on moral or philosophical principles. Austin believed that Jurisprudence should focus on the study and analysis of positive law to understand its nature, sources, and functions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’.
- A.
Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of ‘Z’.
- B.
‘X’ and “Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’.
- C.
‘X’ is not liable as he did not reform over act.
- D.
Both (a) and (c).
Correct Answer
B. ‘X’ and “Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’.Explanation
Both 'X' and 'Y' are liable for the murder of 'Z'. Although 'X' did not physically hit 'Z' with the spear, they were still involved in the act of murder by standing on guard with a weapon. 'Y' actually killed 'Z', but 'X' played a role in facilitating the crime. Therefore, both individuals can be held responsible for the murder.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following suits is of civil nature?
- A.
Suits relating to right to property.
- B.
Suits relating to right of worship.
- C.
Suits for damages for civil wrong
- D.
All of these.
Correct Answer
D. All of these.Explanation
All of the options mentioned in the question are suits of civil nature. Suits relating to the right to property and the right of worship are civil suits as they involve disputes between individuals or entities regarding their rights and interests. Suits for damages for civil wrong are also civil suits as they involve seeking compensation for harm caused by someone's negligence or intentional actions. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are suits of civil nature.Rate this question:
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- 12.
For an offence under section 376 I.P.C. evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which section of the Evidence Act ?
- A.
Section 53-A
- B.
Section 114-A
- C.
Section 53
- D.
Section 119
Correct Answer
A. Section 53-AExplanation
Section 53-A of the Evidence Act states that in cases of sexual offences, evidence of the character of the victim is not relevant. This means that the past behavior or reputation of the victim cannot be used as evidence to prove or disprove the offence under section 376 I.P.C. Therefore, section 53-A is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the relevancy of the victim's character in such cases.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who among the following was never the speaker of Lok Sabha ?
- A.
Balram Bhagat
- B.
G.S Dhillon
- C.
K.V.K Sundaram
- D.
Hukum Singh
Correct Answer
C. K.V.K SundaramExplanation
K.V.K Sundaram was never the speaker of Lok Sabha.Rate this question:
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- 14.
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘Right to sleep” is a Fundamental right ?
- A.
Naaz Foundation case.
- B.
Re Ramlila Maidan case
- C.
Anna Hazare case
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. Re Ramlila Maidan caseExplanation
In the Re Ramlila Maidan case, the Supreme Court held that the right to sleep is a fundamental right. This case involved a protest at Ramlila Maidan in Delhi, where the police forcibly evicted the protestors during the night. The court ruled that sleep is an essential part of the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. It emphasized that the right to peaceful protest cannot be curtailed by depriving individuals of their basic human need for sleep. Therefore, the Supreme Court recognized the right to sleep as a fundamental right in this case.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The companies which are formed under Companies Act .1956.They will be called as-
- A.
Statutory Companies
- B.
Registered Companies
- C.
Charted Companies
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. Registered CompaniesExplanation
Companies formed under the Companies Act 1956 are referred to as "Registered Companies." This act provides regulations and guidelines for the formation, management, and dissolution of companies in India. The term "Registered Companies" signifies that these companies have undergone the necessary legal procedures and are officially registered under the Companies Act 1956.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Mistake of fact is ---
- A.
Not an excuse
- B.
A good excuse
- C.
Mistake of law
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. A good excuseExplanation
Mistake of fact refers to a situation where someone makes an error in understanding or perceiving a certain fact or situation. It can sometimes be considered a good excuse because it can be used as a defense in legal cases. If someone can prove that they made a mistake of fact, it can potentially mitigate their liability or responsibility for certain actions. However, it is important to note that not all mistakes of fact are considered valid excuses, as it depends on the specific circumstances and legal context.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The sources of international Law include:
- A.
General principles of law, recognized by most nations.
- B.
Only general principles of law, recognized by all nations.
- C.
All international treaties.
- D.
Only customary practices.
Correct Answer
A. General principles of law, recognized by most nations.Explanation
International law is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of nations in their relations with each other. These rules and principles can be derived from various sources. One of the sources of international law is general principles of law, which are recognized by most nations. These principles are considered to be fundamental and universal in nature, and they provide a basis for the development and interpretation of international law. While international treaties and customary practices are also important sources of international law, they do not encompass all the sources. Therefore, the correct answer is general principles of law, recognized by most nations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
‘A’ sells his house to ‘B’ with a condition that ‘B’ cannot transfer his house to anyone except ‘C’. The sale is-
- A.
Valid but condition is void.
- B.
Void
- C.
Unlawful
- D.
Voidable
Correct Answer
A. Valid but condition is void.Explanation
The correct answer is "Valid but condition is void." This means that the sale of the house from 'A' to 'B' is legally valid, but the condition that 'B' cannot transfer the house to anyone except 'C' is considered void. This means that 'B' is not legally bound by this condition and can transfer the house to anyone they choose, not just 'C'.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Under which Article of Indian Constitution did the President make reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Election in year 2002 ?
- A.
Article 142
- B.
Article 143
- C.
Article 144
- D.
Article 145
Correct Answer
B. Article 143Explanation
In the given question, the President referred to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution to seek the Court's opinion on the Constitutional validity of Election Commission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Election in the year 2002. Article 143 empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact that has arisen or is likely to arise, and the Court's opinion on such matters is binding. Therefore, the President utilized this provision to seek clarity and guidance from the highest judicial authority in the country.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A is accused of the murder of B. At his trial which of the following facts may be in issues ? (1) A Caused B’S Death (2) A is an honest person. (3)A had received grave and sudden provocation from B. (4) A Was awarded for social services Select the correct answer-
- A.
1 and 2
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
1, 2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4Explanation
In a murder trial, the following facts may be in issue: (1) whether A caused B's death, (2) whether A is an honest person, (3) whether A had received grave and sudden provocation from B, and (4) whether A was awarded for social services. All of these facts could be relevant to the case and may need to be examined and proven or disproven during the trial.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Under Civil Procedure Code, in which of the following cases the Court cannot reject the plaint ?
- A.
Where the relief claimed is undervalued, and the plaintiff, on being required by the court to correct the valuation within a time to be fixed by the court, fails to do so.
- B.
Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by the law.
- C.
When the plaint is insufficiently stamped and the plaintiff on being required by the court to supply the requisite stamp paper within a time to be fixed by the court, fails to do so.
- D.
Where the plaint discloses a cause of action.
Correct Answer
D. Where the plaint discloses a cause of action.Explanation
The court cannot reject the plaint when it discloses a cause of action. This means that the plaint contains all the necessary facts and elements to support a legal claim. In other words, the plaintiff has provided enough information to show that they have a valid legal claim against the defendant. The court cannot reject the plaint solely on the basis of the cause of action being disclosed.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which one of the following is correct ?
- A.
The Judges of High Court of States in India are appointed by the Governor of that State just as the Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
- B.
No procedure has been laid down in the Indian Constitution to remove the Governor from his/her post
- C.
In India same person cannot be appointed as the Governor of two or more states at the same time.
- D.
In case of Union Territory having legislative set up, the chief minister is appointed by the Lt Governor on the basis of majority.
Correct Answer
B. No procedure has been laid down in the Indian Constitution to remove the Governor from his/her postExplanation
The correct answer is "No procedure has been laid down in the Indian Constitution to remove the Governor from his/her post." This means that there is no specific process mentioned in the Indian Constitution for removing a Governor from their position. This implies that the Governor cannot be easily removed from their post and there are no clear guidelines on how to do so.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Aristotle was ___________ philosopher.
- A.
English
- B.
Roman
- C.
Arab
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
D. None of theseExplanation
The question asks for the nationality or origin of Aristotle, and the answer "None of these" implies that he was not English, Roman, or Arab. Aristotle was actually a Greek philosopher, so the correct answer is "None of these."Rate this question:
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- 24.
While calculating direct tax payable u/s 7 of the payment of Bonus Act which of the following should not be considered ?
- A.
Profits
- B.
Capital gains
- C.
Unabsorbed depreciation
- D.
Speculation loss
Correct Answer
C. Unabsorbed depreciationExplanation
In the calculation of direct tax payable under Section 7 of the Payment of Bonus Act, unabsorbed depreciation should not be considered. Unabsorbed depreciation refers to the portion of depreciation that has not been fully utilized to reduce taxable income in previous years. Since it is already accounted for in previous tax calculations, it should not be included again when calculating the direct tax payable under the Payment of Bonus Act.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The primary function of the Finance Commission of India is to-
- A.
Prepare the Annual budget
- B.
To advice the President on financial matters
- C.
Distribute revenue between the union and states
- D.
Allocate funds to various ministers of the union and states
Correct Answer
B. To advice the President on financial mattersExplanation
The Finance Commission of India is primarily responsible for advising the President on financial matters. This includes providing recommendations on matters related to the distribution of revenue between the union and states. The commission plays a crucial role in ensuring a fair and equitable distribution of funds between the central government and the state governments, taking into account various factors such as population, area, and fiscal capacity. By advising the President on financial matters, the Finance Commission helps in maintaining fiscal discipline and promoting fiscal federalism in the country.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A court to which decree has been transferred for execution cannot, while executing-
- A.
Order attachment
- B.
Execute the decree against the legal representatives of the deceased judgment debtor
- C.
Send the decree for execution to another court
- D.
Order execution at the instance of the transferee of the decree
Correct Answer
D. Order execution at the instance of the transferee of the decreeExplanation
When a decree is transferred to a court for execution, the court cannot order attachment, execute the decree against the legal representatives of the deceased judgment debtor, or send the decree for execution to another court. However, the court can order execution at the request of the transferee of the decree.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Under Indian Constitution, which one of following is not a fundamental duty ?
- A.
To vote in a public election
- B.
To develop the scientific temper
- C.
To safeguard public property
- D.
To abide the Constitution and respects its ideas
Correct Answer
A. To vote in a public electionExplanation
The correct answer is "To vote in a public election". The reason this is not a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution is because voting in a public election is a right and not a duty. While it is encouraged for citizens to exercise their right to vote, it is not legally binding and therefore not considered a fundamental duty. The other options listed are all fundamental duties under the Indian Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Codification is the process of transformation corpus juris into-
- A.
Precedent
- B.
Executed law
- C.
Enacted law
- D.
None of them
Correct Answer
C. Enacted lawExplanation
Codification is the process of transforming a body of laws or legal principles into a systematic and organized set of written laws. In this process, the laws are compiled, organized, and enacted into a formal legal code. Therefore, the correct answer "Enacted law" accurately describes the outcome of the codification process, where the laws are transformed into a written and enforceable legal code.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A Hindu dies having behind father and son and son’s daughter’s son. They are-
- A.
Class I heirs
- B.
Class II heirs
- C.
Preferable heirs
- D.
None of above
Correct Answer
B. Class II heirsExplanation
Class II heirs are the correct answer because according to Hindu succession laws, Class II heirs include the father and son of the deceased. The son's daughter's son is not considered a Class I heir, which includes the son, daughter, widow, mother, etc. Therefore, the father and son, along with the son's daughter's son, fall under the category of Class II heirs.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is the highest law officer of Government of India ?
- A.
Attorney General
- B.
Solicitor General
- C.
Advocate General
- D.
Chief Justice of India
Correct Answer
A. Attorney GeneralExplanation
The highest law officer of the Government of India is the Attorney General. The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India and is the chief legal advisor to the government. They represent the government in legal matters and provide legal opinions to the government when required. The Attorney General also represents the government in the Supreme Court and has the power to appear in any court of India.Rate this question:
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Sep 06, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 23, 2018Quiz Created by
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