1st Law Corner Online Quiz Competition, 2018

Both 'X' and 'Y' are liable for the murder of 'Z'. Although 'X' did not physically hit 'Z' with the spear, they were still involved in the act of murder by standing on guard with a weapon. 'Y' actually killed 'Z', but 'X' played a role in facilitating the crime. Therefore, both individuals can be held responsible for the murder.

All of the options mentioned in the question are suits of civil nature. Suits relating to the right to property and the right of worship are civil suits as they involve disputes between individuals or entities regarding their rights and interests. Suits for damages for civil wrong are also civil suits as they involve seeking compensation for harm caused by someone's negligence or intentional actions. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are suits of civil nature.

According to John Austin, the subject matter of Jurisprudence is positive law. Positive law refers to the law that is actually enacted and enforced by a political authority, such as statutes, regulations, and case law. This is in contrast to natural law or metaphysical law, which is based on moral or philosophical principles. Austin believed that Jurisprudence should focus on the study and analysis of positive law to understand its nature, sources, and functions.

Mistake of fact refers to a situation where someone makes an error in understanding or perceiving a certain fact or situation. It can sometimes be considered a good excuse because it can be used as a defense in legal cases. If someone can prove that they made a mistake of fact, it can potentially mitigate their liability or responsibility for certain actions. However, it is important to note that not all mistakes of fact are considered valid excuses, as it depends on the specific circumstances and legal context.

Sub judice means "under consideration of a Court of Law."

The Information Technology Act, 2000 has amended some provisions of the Indian Penal Code. This act was introduced to provide legal recognition to electronic transactions and to address the issues related to electronic commerce, cybersecurity, and data protection. It includes provisions related to cybercrime and penalties for offenses committed using electronic means. Therefore, the correct answer is the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Companies formed under the Companies Act 1956 are referred to as "Registered Companies." This act provides regulations and guidelines for the formation, management, and dissolution of companies in India. The term "Registered Companies" signifies that these companies have undergone the necessary legal procedures and are officially registered under the Companies Act 1956.

Codification is the process of transforming a body of laws or legal principles into a systematic and organized set of written laws. In this process, the laws are compiled, organized, and enacted into a formal legal code. Therefore, the correct answer "Enacted law" accurately describes the outcome of the codification process, where the laws are transformed into a written and enforceable legal code.

In the Re Ramlila Maidan case, the Supreme Court held that the right to sleep is a fundamental right. This case involved a protest at Ramlila Maidan in Delhi, where the police forcibly evicted the protestors during the night. The court ruled that sleep is an essential part of the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. It emphasized that the right to peaceful protest cannot be curtailed by depriving individuals of their basic human need for sleep. Therefore, the Supreme Court recognized the right to sleep as a fundamental right in this case.

The highest law officer of the Government of India is the Attorney General. The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India and is the chief legal advisor to the government. They represent the government in legal matters and provide legal opinions to the government when required. The Attorney General also represents the government in the Supreme Court and has the power to appear in any court of India.

The correct answer is "Valid but condition is void." This means that the sale of the house from 'A' to 'B' is legally valid, but the condition that 'B' cannot transfer the house to anyone except 'C' is considered void. This means that 'B' is not legally bound by this condition and can transfer the house to anyone they choose, not just 'C'.

In the given question, the President referred to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution to seek the Court's opinion on the Constitutional validity of Election Commission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Election in the year 2002. Article 143 empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact that has arisen or is likely to arise, and the Court's opinion on such matters is binding. Therefore, the President utilized this provision to seek clarity and guidance from the highest judicial authority in the country.

Section 53-A of the Evidence Act states that in cases of sexual offences, evidence of the character of the victim is not relevant. This means that the past behavior or reputation of the victim cannot be used as evidence to prove or disprove the offence under section 376 I.P.C. Therefore, section 53-A is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the relevancy of the victim's character in such cases.

The correct answer is "To vote in a public election". The reason this is not a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution is because voting in a public election is a right and not a duty. While it is encouraged for citizens to exercise their right to vote, it is not legally binding and therefore not considered a fundamental duty. The other options listed are all fundamental duties under the Indian Constitution.

The statement "Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954" is incorrect. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule until 1954, not French colonial rule.

The correct answer is "Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under section 313 Cr.PC". This statement is wrong because an oath is not administered to the accused before their examination under section 313 of the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.PC). The accused is only required to state the truth and nothing but the truth, but no oath is administered.

K.V.K Sundaram was never the speaker of Lok Sabha.

De Jure refers to something that is recognized or established by law. In the context of ownership, De Jure recognition means that a claim of ownership is legally recognized and enforceable. This implies that the ownership is based on legal rights and obligations, and is not merely based on practical or factual circumstances (De facto). The other options, Ipso facto and Per se, do not specifically relate to legal recognition or claims of ownership.

The correct answer is State of Bombay Vs. Kathikalu because in this case, the Constitutional validity of section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being a violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution.

When a decree is transferred to a court for execution, the court cannot order attachment, execute the decree against the legal representatives of the deceased judgment debtor, or send the decree for execution to another court. However, the court can order execution at the request of the transferee of the decree.

The question asks for the nationality or origin of Aristotle, and the answer "None of these" implies that he was not English, Roman, or Arab. Aristotle was actually a Greek philosopher, so the correct answer is "None of these."

International law is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of nations in their relations with each other. These rules and principles can be derived from various sources. One of the sources of international law is general principles of law, which are recognized by most nations. These principles are considered to be fundamental and universal in nature, and they provide a basis for the development and interpretation of international law. While international treaties and customary practices are also important sources of international law, they do not encompass all the sources. Therefore, the correct answer is general principles of law, recognized by most nations.

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act seeks to limit the size of the Council of Ministers at both the Centre and state levels. According to this amendment, the size of the Council of Ministers must not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members in the State Assembly. This amendment was introduced to prevent the excessive expansion of the Council of Ministers, which can lead to inefficiency and unnecessary expenditure.

Class II heirs are the correct answer because according to Hindu succession laws, Class II heirs include the father and son of the deceased. The son's daughter's son is not considered a Class I heir, which includes the son, daughter, widow, mother, etc. Therefore, the father and son, along with the son's daughter's son, fall under the category of Class II heirs.

The court cannot reject the plaint when it discloses a cause of action. This means that the plaint contains all the necessary facts and elements to support a legal claim. In other words, the plaintiff has provided enough information to show that they have a valid legal claim against the defendant. The court cannot reject the plaint solely on the basis of the cause of action being disclosed.

In the calculation of direct tax payable under Section 7 of the Payment of Bonus Act, unabsorbed depreciation should not be considered. Unabsorbed depreciation refers to the portion of depreciation that has not been fully utilized to reduce taxable income in previous years. Since it is already accounted for in previous tax calculations, it should not be included again when calculating the direct tax payable under the Payment of Bonus Act.

In case of red- hearing prospectus, the refund is made with an interest of 15%. This means that if an investor decides to withdraw their investment before the specified period ends, they will receive their initial investment amount along with an additional 15% as interest. This is a way to compensate the investor for the inconvenience caused by the early withdrawal and to encourage them to invest for the full duration of the prospectus.

The Finance Commission of India is primarily responsible for advising the President on financial matters. This includes providing recommendations on matters related to the distribution of revenue between the union and states. The commission plays a crucial role in ensuring a fair and equitable distribution of funds between the central government and the state governments, taking into account various factors such as population, area, and fiscal capacity. By advising the President on financial matters, the Finance Commission helps in maintaining fiscal discipline and promoting fiscal federalism in the country.

The correct answer is "No procedure has been laid down in the Indian Constitution to remove the Governor from his/her post." This means that there is no specific process mentioned in the Indian Constitution for removing a Governor from their position. This implies that the Governor cannot be easily removed from their post and there are no clear guidelines on how to do so.

In a murder trial, the following facts may be in issue: (1) whether A caused B's death, (2) whether A is an honest person, (3) whether A had received grave and sudden provocation from B, and (4) whether A was awarded for social services. All of these facts could be relevant to the case and may need to be examined and proven or disproven during the trial.