Air Force Instruction 'afi' Quiz Questions

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Air Force Instruction

For one to join the air force one must have completed certain career development courses. These courses are geared towards qualifying the candidates to be the best candidate for the air force. How much do you know about these courses? Take the quiz below and find out. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When completing the career development course, how much time is given to complete each volume?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      3 months

    • D. 

      12 months

  • 2. 
    What Air Force Instruction can you reference to determine trainee responsibilities?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2201

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2101

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2202

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2102

  • 3. 
    What Air Force Instruction is referred to as the "little, brown book," and gives information on the enlisted tier responsibilities?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2101

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2201

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2618

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2903

  • 4. 
    Who is inherently responsible for base force protection (FP)?
    • A. 

      Commanders

    • B. 

      Antiterrorism officer

    • C. 

      All military members

    • D. 

      Force protection manager

  • 5. 
    The application of active and passive defense measures, employed across the legally-defined ground dimension of the operational environment, to mitigate potential risks, and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations is known as what?
    • A. 

      Force Protection

    • B. 

      Integrated Defense

    • C. 

      Agile combat support

    • D. 

      Installation security plans

  • 6. 
    What is the place in which the commander can directly influence operations that expand and contract depending on friendly force control?
    • A. 

      Point of interest

    • B. 

      Area of influence

    • C. 

      Base of staging

    • D. 

      Enemy battlespace

  • 7. 
    (005) What is the most important aspect of intelligence reporting?
    • A. 

      Content

    • B. 

      Lateness

    • C. 

      Truth

    • D. 

      Relevance

  • 8. 
    What ensures that your message serves its purpose at its destination?
    • A. 

      Content

    • B. 

      Accuracy

    • C. 

      Truth

    • D. 

      Relevance

  • 9. 
    What do the objectives of integrated defense provide for the conduct of integrated defense?
    • A. 

      Resources

    • B. 

      A central focus

    • C. 

      Conditions for success

    • D. 

      Objectives and guidance

  • 10. 
    Where can you find the process for submitting a MISREP?
    • A. 

      ATO

    • B. 

      SPINS

    • C. 

      SITREP

    • D. 

      Command directives

  • 11. 
    Which type of intelligence data includes information on the number of aircraft on a specific mission?
    • A. 

      Flight detail

    • B. 

      Operational data

    • C. 

      Enemy air reaction data

    • D. 

      Surface-to-air missile data

  • 12. 
    (007) Intelligence operations are which of the following?
    • A. 

      Simultaneous

    • B. 

      Out of order

    • C. 

      Sequential

    • D. 

      Separate

  • 13. 
    An ideal ISR strategy should be designed to maximize what?
    • A. 

      Intelligence preparation of the operational environment

    • B. 

      The intelligence cycle

    • C. 

      Battlespace awareness

    • D. 

      The targeting cycle

  • 14. 
    During the ISR Process, when does planning and direction occur?
    • A. 

      When directed by the commander

    • B. 

      Only in times of war

    • C. 

      Continuously

    • D. 

      Occasionally

  • 15. 
    What kind of planning do commanders engage in order to conduct operations?
    • A. 

      Mindless

    • B. 

      Reactive

    • C. 

      Adaptive

    • D. 

      Proactive

  • 16. 
    Identification of needs for intelligence regarding all aspects of the operational environment starts with which phase of the intelligence process?
    • A. 

      Analysis and production

    • B. 

      Evaluation and feedback

    • C. 

      Planning and direction

    • D. 

      Collection

  • 17. 
    What is the most significant aspect of collection because of the operational needs for intelligence often exceeding intelligence capabilities?
    • A. 

      Need of the requestor

    • B. 

      Urgency of the request

    • C. 

      Prioritization

    • D. 

      Reliability

  • 18. 
    Who determines the availability and capability of collection assets and resources that might contribute to requirement satisfaction?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Intelligence analyst

    • C. 

      Collection manager

    • D. 

      JFC

  • 19. 
    What is developed to compare characteristics of the requirement's target with the characteristics of available assets or resources to determine collection suitability?
    • A. 

      RFIs

    • B. 

      PIRs

    • C. 

      CCIRs

    • D. 

      EEIs

  • 20. 
    (010) What phase in the ISR process follows the collection phase?
    • A. 

      Planning and direction

    • B. 

      Analysis and production

    • C. 

      Processing and exploitation

    • D. 

      Dissemination and integration

  • 21. 
    What type of data is converted into information that can be readily disseminated, used, transmitted, and exploited by intelligence analysts to produce multidiscipline intelligence products?
    • A. 

      Time sensitive

    • B. 

      Top Secret

    • C. 

      Important

    • D. 

      Raw

  • 22. 
    Resulting information that is not yet fully subject to analytical assessment and receives tier one analysis for time-critical production but has not been subjected to full, analytical assessment is an example of what?
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Production

    • C. 

      Processing

    • D. 

      Analysis and production

  • 23. 
    In addition to providing intelligence products that anticipate the needs of the commander, products must include the following elements.
    • A. 

      Timeliness, accuracy, usability and completeness

    • B. 

      Timeliness and accuracy only

    • C. 

      Timeliness, accuracy, usability, completeness, relevance, objectiveness and availability

    • D. 

      Timeliness, accuracy, usability, completeness, relevance and objectiveness

  • 24. 
    Analysis and production is done primarily by whom?
    • A. 

      DIA

    • B. 

      JISE

    • C. 

      JIOC

    • D. 

      All-source analysts

  • 25. 
    During ______, information is received, organized and entered into appropriate databases by the analysis and production elements of intelligence community organizations.
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Evaluation

    • C. 

      Integration

    • D. 

      Interpretation

  • 26. 
    What is the most important requirement of the dissemination process?
    • A. 

      Communication

    • B. 

      Organization

    • C. 

      Continuous management

    • D. 

      Procedures

  • 27. 
    This traditional ISR asset was originally designed as a maritime patrol and anit-submarine aircraft?
    • A. 

      RC-135 COBRA BALL

    • B. 

      RC-12 GUARDRAIL

    • C. 

      MR Mk1P Nimrod

    • D. 

      Tornado GR1A

  • 28. 
    What consists of the DB-110 reconnaissance system with a charged couple device day sensor, mid-wave indium antinomide infrared sensor, and provides real-time day and night targeting?
    • A. 

      Goodrich Raptor reconnaissance pod

    • B. 

      Guidance Terminal reconnaissance pod

    • C. 

      Tactical Tiger View reconnaissance pod

    • D. 

      Sniper Spot reconnaissance pod

  • 29. 
    What non-traditional ISR asset was purchased to fill the void left behind from the retirement of the TARPS system?
    • A. 

      WSV

    • B. 

      TARS

    • C. 

      SHARP

    • D. 

      ATARS

  • 30. 
    This model is a tool used to characterize the sort of processes that typically happen in a collection cycle for a given sensor.
    • A. 

      Tasking, collection, processing, evaluation, and dissemination (TCPED)

    • B. 

      Tasking, collection, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TCPED)

    • C. 

      Tasking, communication, processing, evaluation, and dissemination (TCPED)

    • D. 

      Tasking, communication, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TCPED)

  • 31. 
    (015) This phase of the TCPED model refers to the execution of collection operations.
    • A. 

      Tasking

    • B. 

      Collection

    • C. 

      Processing

    • D. 

      Exploitation

  • 32. 
    _________  are typically in high demand, and requirements usually exceed platform capabilities and inventory.
    • A. 

      ISR assets

    • B. 

      Collection Managers

    • C. 

      AOCs

    • D. 

      DCGSs

  • 33. 
    This weapon system is the operational-level command and control center that provides the Commander Air Force Forces with the capability to direct and supervise the activities of assigned forces.
    • A. 

      Air operations and space center

    • B. 

      Air and space operations center

    • C. 

      Air operations division

    • D. 

      Air operations system

  • 34. 
    The ________ division focuses on long-range planning of air, space, and information operations to achieve theater objectives by developing, refining, disseminating, and assessing the JFACC air and space strategy.
    • A. 

      Combat operations

    • B. 

      Strategy

    • C. 

      Combat plans

    • D. 

      ISR

  • 35. 
    The primary products of this division include the air tasking order (ATO), airspace control order (ACO) and joint integrated prioritized target list (JIPTL).
    • A. 

      Intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance division

    • B. 

      Combat operations division

    • C. 

      Combat plans division

    • D. 

      Air mobility division

  • 36. 
    What team in the AOC collaborates with collection managers, reconnaissance and surveillance planners, platform/PED liaisons, and the PED center to ensure the ISR operations are synchronized with joint operations?
    • A. 

      ISR ops team

    • B. 

      Targets/tactical assessment team

    • C. 

      Airlift control team

    • D. 

      ACF team

  • 37. 
    This ISRD team conducts dynamic intelligence preparation of the operational environment and provides the context for understanding the adversary's intentions.
    • A. 

      ISR operations team

    • B. 

      Combat intelligence team

    • C. 

      Targets/tactical assessment team

    • D. 

      Analysis, correlation and fusion team

  • 38. 
    Which team within the air mobility division coordinates closely with the rescue coordination cell?
    • A. 

      Airlift control team

    • B. 

      Air Mobility control team

    • C. 

      Air Refueling control team

    • D. 

      Aeromedical evacuation control team

  • 39. 
    Who is specifically focused on providing detailed, tailored intelligence products and reporting globally deployed elements?
    • A. 

      SOF DGS

    • B. 

      AFISRA

    • C. 

      480th ISR Wing

    • D. 

      DCGS-A

  • 40. 
    Which enterprise serves the Navy's primary system for managing, processing, storing and sharing critical multi-source intelligence and targeting data and products?
    • A. 

      DCGS-SOF

    • B. 

      DCGS-MC

    • C. 

      DCGS-N

    • D. 

      DCGS-A

  • 41. 
    Why does the DART provide external support?
    • A. 

      To ensure requirements are satisfied only

    • B. 

      To obtain operations details only

    • C. 

      To produce tailored products only

    • D. 

      To ensure requirements are satisfied, obtain operations details, and produce tailored products

  • 42. 
    What does the DART keep the MPC informed of?
    • A. 

      Intelligence gaps

    • B. 

      Mission requirements

    • C. 

      RFIs

    • D. 

      RFIs and intelligence gaps

  • 43. 
    What product, produced by the DART, is used to graphically depict real-time intelligence data, activity, and reference, while meeting supported unit desired effects?
    • A. 

      PMB

    • B. 

      Digital overlays

    • C. 

      All source EYELID report

    • D. 

      AF DCGS Analysis report

  • 44. 
    What is the most enduring aspect of the DCGS architecture?
    • A. 

      Assembled crews

    • B. 

      Exploitation crews

    • C. 

      Collected data

    • D. 

      Disseminated data

  • 45. 
    Which of the following phases are not part of the mission planning cycle?
    • A. 

      ATO planning

    • B. 

      Execution phase

    • C. 

      Receive the ATO

    • D. 

      Mission planning phase

  • 46. 
    Which charts will normally depict the target areas for mission planning?
    • A. 

      GNC

    • B. 

      ONC

    • C. 

      TPC

    • D. 

      JOG

  • 47. 
    In the third phase of the air tasking cycle, what provides the bases for weaponeering assessment activities?
    • A. 

      MAAP

    • B. 

      JIPTL

    • C. 

      ATO

    • D. 

      ACO

  • 48. 
    Which of the following is correct, given the following set of an ATO?MSNACFT/2/ACTYPE:F-16C/TEXAN01/A1/111/22222/33333//.
    • A. 

      There will be two a1 aircraft flying a mission with call sign TEXAN01.

    • B. 

      The call sign of the refueling aircraft is TEXAN01.

    • C. 

      The aircraft assigned with this mission are F-16Cs.

    • D. 

      There will be four aircraft flying this mission.

  • 49. 
    What is used to get aircraft to specific areas for mission accomplishment, and does not have altitude restrictions?
    • A. 

      MRR

    • B. 

      BDZ

    • C. 

      ATR

    • D. 

      ROZ

  • 50. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility for the section of the SPINS that provides guidance to subordinate and supporting commanders of the JFACCs overall C2 battle plan?
    • A. 

      C2 planning

    • B. 

      Strategy division

    • C. 

      Judge advocate general

    • D. 

      Electronic warfare coordination cell

  • 51. 
    What is the purpose of the first step in the IPOE process
    • A. 

      To define the intelligence problem by identifying the specific aspects of the environment, the activities within it, and the space where they exist

    • B. 

      To determine the adversary's COGs, capabilities, doctrinal principles and TTPs.

    • C. 

      To determine how the battlespace affects adversary and friendly operations

    • D. 

      To define the limits of the operational environment.

  • 52. 
    Which dimension shapes the way military operations are conducted?
    • A. 

      Information

    • B. 

      Physical

    • C. 

      Human

    • D. 

      Aerospace

  • 53. 
    What IPOE dimension links the physical and cognitive dimensions?
    • A. 

      Human

    • B. 

      Aerospace

    • C. 

      Information

    • D. 

      Surface

  • 54. 
    What is the second step in the IPOE process?
    • A. 

      Evaluate the adversary

    • B. 

      Describe the operational environment effects

    • C. 

      Define the limits of the operational environment

    • D. 

      Determine the adversary courses of action.

  • 55. 
    Which dimension of the physical environment is not constrained by physical boundaries?
    • A. 

      Air

    • B. 

      Land

    • C. 

      Space

    • D. 

      Information

  • 56. 
    ___________ are those characteristics, capabilities, or localities from which a military force, nation, or alliance derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight?
    • A. 

      Centers of gravity

    • B. 

      Courses of action

    • C. 

      Strengths

    • D. 

      National treasures

  • 57. 
    When discussing the modified combined obstacle overlay (MCOO), what is the definition of an avenue of approach (AA)?
    • A. 

      An air or ground route of an attacking force of a given size leading to its objective

    • B. 

      A specific direction or route that the main attack or center of mass of the unit will follow.

    • C. 

      A route for a force of a particular size to reach an objective or key terrain

    • D. 

      The direction of attack used primarily in counterattacks.

  • 58. 
    Which ring in Warden's 5-ring Model is the least effective area for air power to decisively destroy the adversary's ability to conduct military operations?
    • A. 

      Population

    • B. 

      Fielded forces

    • C. 

      Infrastructure

    • D. 

      Leadership

  • 59. 
    Step 4 of the IPOE process identifies and develops _________.
    • A. 

      All of the required intelligence

    • B. 

      How the battle space affects both adversary and friendly operations

    • C. 

      The adversary's likely COA that will influence accomplishment of the command's mission.

    • D. 

      The adversary's COG, capabilities, doctrinal principles, and applicable tactics, techniques and procedures (TTP) absent of environmental constraints.

  • 60. 
    In what order should courses of action be developed?
    • A. 

      In order of priority and commanders guidance

    • B. 

      In order of its probability of adoption

    • C. 

      In chronological order

    • D. 

      In alphabetical order

  • 61. 
    What level of IPOE seeks to create an analytic synergy through the integration of services and components?
    • A. 

      Joint

    • B. 

      Tactical

    • C. 

      Strategic

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 62. 
    Whose responsibility is it to provide achievable and measurable guidance, objectives and intent for IPOE?
    • A. 

      Combat operations division

    • B. 

      Intelligence staff

    • C. 

      Strategy division

    • D. 

      COMAFFOR/JFACC

  • 63. 
    What is the term that refers to energy that spreads out as it travels away from its source?
    • A. 

      Signal

    • B. 

      Radiation

    • C. 

      Gamma Rays

    • D. 

      Ultra Violet rays

  • 64. 
    What is the rate at which pulses or pulse groups are transmitted called?
    • A. 

      Pulse width

    • B. 

      Pulse repetition frequency

    • C. 

      Pulse repetition time

    • D. 

      Pulse repetition interval

  • 65. 
    The distance a target is from the radar site at the time of detection is called what?
    • A. 

      Range

    • B. 

      Altitude

    • C. 

      Azimuth

    • D. 

      Velocity/direction

  • 66. 
    The speed at which the target moves in relation to the radar system and is usually expressed in knots is called what?
    • A. 

      Range

    • B. 

      Altitude

    • C. 

      Azimuth

    • D. 

      Velocity/direction

  • 67. 
    ____________ radar eliminates ground clutter and provides range, azimuth, and velocity resolution.
    • A. 

      Pulse

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Monopulse

    • D. 

      Pulse Doppler

  • 68. 
    Identify the method of scan that continuously scans 360 degrees in azimuth.
    • A. 

      Linear

    • B. 

      Raster

    • C. 

      Conical

    • D. 

      Circular

  • 69. 
    _____________ provides search, track, and missile guidance to air-to-air weapons
    • A. 

      Early warning

    • B. 

      Height finding

    • C. 

      Air intercept

    • D. 

      Acquisitions

  • 70. 
    What type of jamming uses a wide-band noise transmitter designed to deny the use of frequencies over wide portions of the EM spectrum?
    • A. 

      Spot

    • B. 

      Sweep

    • C. 

      Barrage

    • D. 

      Precision

  • 71. 
    What samples the receiver noise content at the end of each PRF and sets the gain accordingly for the next pulse interval?
    • A. 

      Automatic gain control

    • B. 

      Automatic noise level

    • C. 

      Frequency agility

    • D. 

      Polarization

  • 72. 
    What does the Rivet Joint's electronic support mission provide to national and theater consumers?
    • A. 

      ELINT

    • B. 

      SIGINT

    • C. 

      GEOINT

    • D. 

      HUMINT

  • 73. 
    What is the measure of how well an object absorbs incident Infrared Radiation and reradiates it?
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Emissivity

    • C. 

      Thermal capacity

    • D. 

      Absolute temperature

  • 74. 
    Visible light occupies a very small part of the entire spectrum, from about _____ to ______ nanometers.
    • A. 

      100 to 150

    • B. 

      1000 to 1100

    • C. 

      1500 to 2200

    • D. 

      400 to 700

  • 75. 
    When considering the radar significance of cultural features in suburban areas, what will reflect less energy that concrete and masonry used in urban areas?
    • A. 

      The houses

    • B. 

      Sidewalks and parks

    • C. 

      Sidewalks, parks, roads, and railroads

    • D. 

      Shingle roofs, wooden structures, grass and dirt

  • 76. 
    When an aircraft __________, virtually all cultural, reflected energy comes from the sides of the structures. This effect is known as urban reversal or frontal effect.
    • A. 

      Reaches 17,500 feet

    • B. 

      Descends to low level

    • C. 

      Rapidly increase attitude

    • D. 

      Reaches 15,000 feet.

  • 77. 
    When classifying radar returns of military installations, what is the usual method of classification?
    • A. 

      Find the housing area first

    • B. 

      Classify which building is the command building

    • C. 

      Classify the installation into the broad category first

    • D. 

      Find the petroleum, oil, and lubrication facilities first

  • 78. 
    Which of the following will produce hot infrared signatures?
    • A. 

      Boilers and furnaces

    • B. 

      Dirt roads

    • C. 

      Houses

    • D. 

      Fields

  • 79. 
    Which if the following is NOT a factor affecting the thermal signature of equipment?
    • A. 

      The size of the equipment

    • B. 

      Camouflage painting on the equipment

    • C. 

      Activity on the equipment

    • D. 

      Netting on the equipment

  • 80. 
    What U.S. Government organization was made to ensure the ability to operate effectively in cyberspace and efficiently organize appropriate resources?
    • A. 

      US Cyber Command

    • B. 

      Defense Intelligence Agency

    • C. 

      US Communications Command

    • D. 

      Department of Homeland Security's US Computer Emergency Readiness Team

  • 81. 
    How does the DoD, and U.S. Government maximize talent and capabilities, leverage respective authorities, and operate more effectively to achieve DoD's mission in the cyberspace realm?
    • A. 

      Letting each MAJCOM have their own cyber element.

    • B. 

      By not setting any boundaries or guidelines for USCYBERCOM to follow.

    • C. 

      Giving USCYBERCOM an unlimited amount of resources

    • D. 

      Co-locating USCYBERCOM and NSA.

  • 82. 
    How does cyberspace contribute to U.S. freedom of action?
    • A. 

      U.S. military operations are secure from the enemy's awareness.

    • B. 

      Actions in cyberspace occur faster than the adversary's capability react

    • C. 

      U.S C2 and intelligence functions depend on operations within cyberspace

    • D. 

      All branches of the U.S. government are able to operate on a common network

  • 83. 
    How many and what type of cyber threats is the U.S. prone to?
    • A. 

      5; Traditional, Irregular, Catastrophic, Disruptive, Usual

    • B. 

      5; Traditional, Irregular, Catastrophic, Natural, Unplanned

    • C. 

      6; Traditional, Irregular, Catastrophic, Disruptive, Natural, Accidental

    • D. 

      6; Traditional, Irregular, Catastrophic, Disorderly, Usual, Accidental

  • 84. 
    A cyber-attack producing WMD-like effects is an example of what type of cyberspace threat category?
    • A. 

      Traditional

    • B. 

      Accidental

    • C. 

      Catastrophic

    • D. 

      Disruptive

  • 85. 
    What is an example of a Disruptive cyber threat?
    • A. 

      The targeting of global research, investment, development, and industrial processes provide.

    • B. 

      Terrorists using cyberspace to communicate anonymously

    • C. 

      Focusing cyber weapons against our capabilities that enable our air, land, maritime, special operations, and space forces

    • D. 

      A WMD or a similar effect destroying a communications system

  • 86. 
    While most threats to cyberspace operations can be characterized as originating from entities having hostile intent there are some threats that must be considered that are not hostile. What are those non-hostile threat categories?
    • A. 

      Irregular and Traditional

    • B. 

      Catastrophic and Disruptive

    • C. 

      Accidental and Traditional

    • D. 

      Natural and Accidental

  • 87. 
    Waiting to learn of an imminent attack before addressing important critical infrastructure vulnerabilities is
    • A. 

      Safe and resourceful.

    • B. 

      Risky and unacceptable

    • C. 

      Invulnerable and desirable

    • D. 

      Good sound judgment

  • 88. 
    Which characteristic is NOT correct concerning insider vulnerability?
    • A. 

      Trusted people with legitimate access rights to enterprise information systems and networks

    • B. 

      Trusted individuals that pose a significant threat to the enterprise and beyond

    • C. 

      Provides a potential avenue for individuals who seek to harm them

    • D. 

      Compromised unsuspecting individuals with data rights.

  • 89. 
    Regarding cyberspace activities, what is the largest target of adversary exploitation and attack attempts?
    • A. 

      US private sector

    • B. 

      Electric and nuclear facilities

    • C. 

      US government and military networks

    • D. 

      Commercial services and telecommunications

  • 90. 
    Which component of Space Situational Awareness provides the characterization and assessment of foreign (adversary and third party) space capabilities?
    • A. 

      Intelligence

    • B. 

      Surveillance

    • C. 

      Reconnaissance

    • D. 

      Environmental Monitoring

  • 91. 
    Which component of Space Situational Awareness includes the characterization and assessment of space weather on satellites and links, terrestrial weather near important ground nodes, and natural and man-made phenomena in outer space?
    • A. 

      Intelligence

    • B. 

      Command and Control

    • C. 

      Environmental Monitoring

    • D. 

      Surveillance and Reconnaissance

  • 92. 
    If adversaries reconstitute their command and control (C2) capabilities via satellite communications (SATCOM) after their ground-based communications network has been destroyed by precision bombing, what operations may be employed in conjuction to reduce or eliminate their ability to communicate with their forces?
    • A. 

      Defensive counterspace operations

    • B. 

      Offensive counterspace operations

    • C. 

      Counterspace operations

    • D. 

      Deceive, disrupt, deny, degrade, or destroy operations

  • 93. 
    If a direct assent anti-satellite weapon was launched against an ISR satellite, which OCS category would it be effecting?
    • A. 

      Terrestrial nodes

    • B. 

      Space nodes

    • C. 

      Communication links

    • D. 

      Military nodes

  • 94. 
    A low-altitude direct ascent ASAT is a(n) _________ weapon, which are ______ impact weapons that are launched on a booster from the ground or from an aircraft into a suborbital trajectory that is designed to intersect that of a low-Earth orbit (LEO) satellite.
    • A. 

      Kinetic; interceptor

    • B. 

      Interceptor; kinetic

    • C. 

      Direct energy weapon; kinetic

    • D. 

      Direct energy weapon; non-kinetic

  • 95. 
    What kind of operations are being conducted if an adversary gains access to a restricted computer and was able to control satellite maneuvers?
    • A. 

      Information Operations

    • B. 

      Kinetic Operations

    • C. 

      Malicious Operations

    • D. 

      Electronic Operations

  • 96. 
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