1c651 Vol.1

100 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
1c651 Vol.1

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) What space operation mission area is the space control enabler?
    • A. 

      Space lift.

    • B. 

      Space situational awareness (SSA).

    • C. 

      Satellite command and control (Sat C2).

    • D. 

      Intelligence/surveillance/reconnaissance (ISR).

  • 2. 
    (001) Which space force enhancement mission areas provides situational awareness, warning of attack, and feedback on how well United States forces are affecting the adversary’s understanding of the operational environment?
    • A. 

      Intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance (ISR).

    • B. 

      Environmental monitoring.

    • C. 

      Satellite communications.

    • D. 

      Missile warning.

  • 3. 
    (001) Which space mission area provides freedom of action in space for friendly forces?
    • A. 

      Space control.

    • B. 

      Missile warning.

    • C. 

      Space force application.

    • D. 

      Space force enhancement.

  • 4. 
    (001) What command authority is not an operational command authority but provides the requisite authority for services to execute their individual “organize, train, and equip” functions?
    • A. 

      Administrative control (ADCON).

    • B. 

      Combatant command (COCOM).

    • C. 

      Operational control (OPCON).

    • D. 

      Tactical control (TACON).

  • 5. 
    (001) What command authority is exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?
    • A. 

      Administrative control (ADCON).

    • B. 

      Combatant command (COCOM).

    • C. 

      Operational control (OPCON).

    • D. 

      Tactical control (TACON).

  • 6. 
    (001) What command authority is assigned over forces and is limited to the local direction and control of movements necessary to accomplish the missions?
    • A. 

      Administrative control (ADCON).

    • B. 

      Combatant command (COCOM).

    • C. 

      Operational control (OPCON).

    • D. 

      Tactical control (TACON).

  • 7. 
    (001) Which type of support is given to the supported force as a whole rather than to a particular subdivision?
    • A. 

      General.

    • B. 

      Mutual.

    • C. 

      Direct.

    • D. 

      Close.

  • 8. 
    (002) What was a conclusion of the Space Commission?
    • A. 

      Space professionals needed more extensive education and training.

    • B. 

      Fewer than 10 percent of flag officers came from space backgrounds.

    • C. 

      Officers from pilot career fields spent on average 4.5 years in space related positions.

    • D. 

      Officers from pilot career fields spent on average 3.5 years in space related positions.

  • 9. 
    (002) Which position provides strategic oversight of the Air Force Space Professional community?
    • A. 

      Director, Space Forces.

    • B. 

      Commander, Air Force Forces.

    • C. 

      Under Secretary of the Air Force.

    • D. 

      Space Professional Functional Authority.

  • 10. 
    (002) What goal of the United States Space Policy aims to improve information collection and sharing for space object collision avoidance?
    • A. 

      To energize competitive domestic industries to participate in global markets.

    • B. 

      To expand international cooperation on mutually beneficial space activities.

    • C. 

      To increase assurance and resilience of mission-essential functions.

    • D. 

      To strengthen stability in space.

  • 11. 
    (003) Which agreement proclaims that the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all humanity?
    • A. 

      Convention on Registration of Objects Launched into Outer Space.

    • B. 

      Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects.

    • C. 

      Agreement on the Rescue of Astronauts, the Return of Astronauts and the Return of Objects Launched into Outer Space.

    • D. 

      Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies.

  • 12. 
    (003) Which agreement provides that States shall take all possible steps to rescue and assist astronauts in distress and promptly return them to the launching States?
    • A. 

      Convention on Registration of Objects Launched into Outer Space.

    • B. 

      Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects.

    • C. 

      Agreement on the Rescue of Astronauts, the Return of Astronauts and the Return of Objects Launched into Outer Space.

    • D. 

      Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies.

  • 13. 
    (003) Which treaty was established 31 July 1991 to limit the number of launchers, warheads, and heavy bombers between the US and the Soviet Union?
    • A. 

      Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

    • B. 

      Memorandum of Understanding on Notifications of Missile Launches.

    • C. 

      Convention on the Prohibition of Military or Any Other Hostile Use of Environmental Modification Techniques.

    • D. 

      Treaty Between the United States of America and the Russian Federation On Strategic Offensive Reductions.

  • 14. 
    (004) What report suggested that Space Command be located in Colorado Springs, Colorado?
    • A. 

      Resolution 5130.

    • B. 

      Space Commission report.

    • C. 

      Government Accountability Office report.

    • D. 

      Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects.

  • 15. 
    (004) When did Space Command activate as a major command (MAJCOM)?
    • A. 

      1 September 1982.

    • B. 

      12 September 1982.

    • C. 

      1 December 1982.

    • D. 

      12 December 1982.

  • 16. 
    (004) On what date was the Peacekeeper deactivated?
    • A. 

      19 July 1994.

    • B. 

      10 August 1994.

    • C. 

      10 August 1995.

    • D. 

      19 July 1995.

  • 17. 
    (005) Who created frequency hopping to avoid jamming by using a piano roll?
    • A. 

      Hedy Lamarr.

    • B. 

      Heinrich Hertz.

    • C. 

      Guglielmo Marconi.

    • D. 

      Konsantin Tsiolkovsky.

  • 18. 
    (005) Which country launched an Earth satellite with Laika the dog?
    • A. 

      France.

    • B. 

      Germany.

    • C. 

      United States.

    • D. 

      Soviet Union.

  • 19. 
    (005) Which agency supplied on-orbit data for the Columbia investigation?
    • A. 

      Missile Warning Center.

    • B. 

      Space Surveillance Network.

    • C. 

      Joint Space Operations Center.

    • D. 

      National Aeronautics and Space Administration.

  • 20. 
    (006) What career field does the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) designator 1C indicate?
    • A. 

      Space Systems Operator.

    • B. 

      Law Enforcement Specialist.

    • C. 

      Electronic Systems Operator.

    • D. 

      Command and Control Systems.

  • 21. 
    (006) Which item in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) designates the career field subdivision?
    • A. 

      The second.

    • B. 

      The third.

    • C. 

      The fourth.

    • D. 

      The fifth.

  • 22. 
    (006) Which skill level indicates Airmen have the supervisory ability to fill positions requiring broad, general (and sometimes technical) knowledge?
    • A. 

      Craftsman.

    • B. 

      Apprentice.

    • C. 

      Journeyman.

    • D. 

      Superintendent.

  • 23. 
    (006) How many credits do you need to complete your associate degree in Air and Space Technology?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      24.

    • C. 

      44.

    • D. 

      64.

  • 24. 
    (006) What is the maximum amount of tuition available under the Air Force tuition assistance program?
    • A. 

      $500 per semester.

    • B. 

      $750 per semester.

    • C. 

      $4,500 per fiscal year.

    • D. 

      $5,000 per fiscal year.

  • 25. 
    (006) Which forces are not accommodated in Space 200?
    • A. 

      British.

    • B. 

      Canadian.

    • C. 

      Australian.

    • D. 

      North Korean.

  • 26. 
    (006) Which space operations discipline deals with completing routine and contingency commanding to individual satellites?
    • A. 

      Space lift.

    • B. 

      Missile warning.

    • C. 

      Space surveillance.

    • D. 

      Satellite command and control.

  • 27. 
    (006) Which space operations discipline is responsible for range management, launch preparation, and area clearance for all space launch and range activities.
    • A. 

      Range operations.

    • B. 

      Missile warning.

    • C. 

      Space surveillance.

    • D. 

      Satellite command and control.

  • 28. 
    (006) What may be typical duties of a journeyman?
    • A. 

      Handle any and all situations.

    • B. 

      Develop, coordinate, and monitor operational requirements.

    • C. 

      Plans, coordinates, and directs work activities and manages and controls resources.

    • D. 

      Indoctrinates newly assigned personnel and explains local operating procedures and directives.

  • 29. 
    (006) What may be a typical duty of superintendent?
    • A. 

      Handle any and all situations.

    • B. 

      Develop, coordinate, and monitor operational requirements.

    • C. 

      Plans, coordinates, and directs work activities, manages manpower and budget.

    • D. 

      Indoctrinates newly assigned personnel and explains local operating procedures and directives.

  • 30. 
    (006) What are the requirements to earn your senior badge?
    • A. 

      SSgt and above and awarded 1C671 skill level.

    • B. 

      Complete certification level 1; maintain combat mission ready status.

    • C. 

      Complete certification level 2 and Space 200; have six years’ experience.

    • D. 

      Complete certification level 3, your Community College of the Air Force and Space 300, and have nine years’ experience.

  • 31. 
    (006) What are the requirements to earn your master badge?
    • A. 

      Complete unit qualification training.

    • B. 

      Complete certification level 2 and Space 200; have six years’ experience.

    • C. 

      Complete certification level 1; have one year experience and a 5 skill level.

    • D. 

      MSgt and above, 5 years as 1C6 from 7-skill level award, and complete requirements for Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) degree in space operations.

  • 32. 
    (007) Which task is not a cyberspace operations officer performance task?
    • A. 

      Develop and coordinate important weather research studies.

    • B. 

      Plan, organize, and perform network defense, exploitation, and attack.

    • C. 

      Assures continued access through defensive and offensive cyber capabilities.

    • D. 

      Perform network operations to include establishment, operations, information assurance, and defense.

  • 33. 
    (007) Engineers are found primarily in what career field?
    • A. 

      Medical.

    • B. 

      Acquisitions.

    • C. 

      Security forces.

    • D. 

      Civil engineering.

  • 34. 
    (007) Which is the definition for exit Space Professional Experience Codes (SPEC)?
    • A. 

      The required experiences for the position.

    • B. 

      Prerequisite Space Professional Experience Code.

    • C. 

      The experience is earned while filling the position.

    • D. 

      The tracked experience and associated time based on duty history.

  • 35. 
    (008) Which command defends specified Department of Defense (DOD) information networks?
    • A. 

      Joint functional component command - Integrated Missile Defense.

    • B. 

      Joint functional component command - Global Strike.

    • C. 

      Joint functional component command - Space.

    • D. 

      United States Cyber Command.

  • 36. 
    (008) What is the mission of 14th Air Forces Strategic (AFSTRAT)?
    • A. 

      Operates and maintains intercontinental ballistic missile weapon systems.

    • B. 

      Advises United States Strategic Command on the proper employment of all AF forces.

    • C. 

      Organize, train, and sustain space forces in support of Commander Joint Functional Component Command-Space.

    • D. 

      Provides fully trained, combat ready forces to support United States and North Atlantic Treaty Organization commanders.

  • 37. 
    (008) Which space wing (SW) is responsible for the operation of the Western space lift range?
    • A. 

      21 SW.

    • B. 

      30 SW.

    • C. 

      45 SW.

    • D. 

      50 SW.

  • 38. 
    (008) Which squadron belongs to the 30 Space Wing?
    • A. 

      1st Range Operations Squadron.

    • B. 

      2d Range Operations Squadron.

    • C. 

      1st Space Operations Squadron.

    • D. 

      12th Space Warning Squadron.

  • 39. 
    (008) Which wing is responsible for the operation of the Eastern space lift range?
    • A. 

      21st Space Wing.

    • B. 

      30th Space Wing.

    • C. 

      45th Space Wing.

    • D. 

      50th Space Wing.

  • 40. 
    (008) Which numbered air force does the 30th and 45th Space Wings fall under?
    • A. 

      2nd Air Force.

    • B. 

      9th Air Force.

    • C. 

      14th Air Force.

    • D. 

      20th Air Force.

  • 41. 
    (008) What is the focus area of satellite operations for the 50 Space Wing?
    • A. 

      Move satellites into disposal orbits.

    • B. 

      Operates all space lift functions within the Eastern Range.

    • C. 

      Operates all space lift functions within the Western Range.

    • D. 

      Conducts world-class space superiority, control and surveillance operations.

  • 42. 
    (008) Which space operations squadron operates the Milstar system?
    • A. 

      1 Space Operations Squadron.

    • B. 

      2 Space Operations Squadron.

    • C. 

      3 Space Operations Squadron.

    • D. 

      4 Space Operations Squadron.

  • 43. 
    (008) Which center serves as the command center for the United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) commander for the day-to-day management of his or her forces and for providing situational awareness?
    • A. 

      United States Strategic Command Global Operations Center.

    • B. 

      Cheyenne Mountain Alternate Command Center.

    • C. 

      Air and Space Operations Center.

    • D. 

      Joint Space Operations Center.

  • 44. 
    (008) What command has the mission of conducting operations to deter, prevent, and defeat threats and aggression aimed at the United States?
    • A. 

      United States Central Command.

    • B. 

      United States Strategic Command.

    • C. 

      United States Northern Command.

    • D. 

      North American Aerospace Defense Command.

  • 45. 
    (008) What United States Northern Command combatant command provides homeland defense efforts and coordinates defense support of civil authorities?
    • A. 

      Joint Task Force-Alaska.

    • B. 

      Joint Task Force-Civil Support.

    • C. 

      Joint Force Headquarters-North.

    • D. 

      Joint Force Headquarters-National Capital Region.

  • 46. 
    (008) Which is not a North American Aerospace Defense Command regional headquarters?
    • A. 

      Tyndall Air Force Base (AFB), Florida.

    • B. 

      Elmendorf AFB, Alaska.

    • C. 

      Canadian Forces Base, Winnipeg, Manitoba.

    • D. 

      Cheyenne Mountain Air Force Station, Colorado.

  • 47. 
    (008) What organization operates the early warning radar (EWR) mission at Clear Air Force Station, Alaska?
    • A. 

      119th Command and Control Squadron.

    • B. 

      153d Command and Control Squadron.

    • C. 

      137th Space Warning Squadron.

    • D. 

      213th Space Warning Squadron.

  • 48. 
    (008) What organization conducts space operations and provides planning, integration, control, and coordination of Army forces and capabilities?
    • A. 

      United States Northern Command.

    • B. 

      North American Aerospace Defense Command.

    • C. 

      Marine Corps Forces United States Strategic Command.

    • D. 

      Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Forces Strategic Command.

  • 49. 
    (008) What organization maintains the critical 24/7 mission of maintaining on-orbit command, control, and communications of the Defense Satellite Communications System constellation in support of tactical and strategic missions?
    • A. 

      53d Signal Battalion.

    • B. 

      Fleet Forces Command.

    • C. 

      1st Space Battalion’s Army Space Support Company.

    • D. 

      1st Space Battalion’s Theater Missile Warning Company.

  • 50. 
    (008) Which is not a 1C6 space support duty at Nellis Air Force Base (AFB)?
    • A. 

      Provides space control expertise for all Red Flag exercises.

    • B. 

      Instructs and supports space innovation at the United States Air Force Weapons School.

    • C. 

      Is the subject matter expert in intercontinental ballistic missiles capabilities, targeting, and employment.

    • D. 

      Is the subject matter expert for integrating space command and control (C2) capabilities into all Nellis air operations. Defense (DOD) effects

  • 51. 
    (009) Which 310 Space Wing squadron provides nuclear detonation (NUDET) information to warfighters?
    • A. 

      8 Space Warning Squadron.

    • B. 

      6 Space Operations Squadron.

    • C. 

      7 Space Operations Squadron. (JFCC-IMD)

    • D. 

      9 Space Operations Squadron.

  • 52. 
    (009) Which 310 Space Wing squadron monitors satellite communication (SATCOM) links to intercept jammers?
    • A. 

      14 Test Squadron.

    • B. 

      380 Space Control Squadron.

    • C. 

      9 Space Operations Squadron.

    • D. 

      19 Space Operations Squadron. (SMDC/ARSTRAT)

  • 53. 
    (009) Which Air National Guard space unit is the first line of defense, looking over the horizon?
    • A. 

      153 Command and Control Squadron.

    • B. 

      213 Space Warning Squadron.

    • C. 

      216 Space Control Squadron. Marines

    • D. 

      14 Test Squadron.

  • 54. 
    (009) Operationally, the 233d Space Group falls under what agency for day-to-day missile warning operations?
    • A. 

      Air Material Command.

    • B. 

      Air Combat Command.

    • C. 

      Air Mobility Command.

    • D. 

      14 Air Force and AFSC.

  • 55. 
    (010) Which is not a responsibility of joint functional component command-space (JFCC SPACE)?
    • A. 

      Satellite communications.

    • B. 

      Space domain awareness.

    • C. 

      Launch/reentry warning.

    • D. 

      Protect and destroy.

  • 56. 
    (010) What is the mission of the Staff Judge Advocate (J006)?
    • A. 

      Advises commander, joint functional component command-space (CDR JFCC SPACE), staff, and centers on legal and policy relating to space operations.

    • B. 

      Staffs personnel program policies, advises joint functional component command-space leadership on all personnel issues.

    • C. 

      Documents joint functional component command-space intelligence needs in requirements management systems.

    • D. 

      Leads manpower and personnel accountability activities.

  • 57. 
    (010) Which center provides validation of real-time missile warning (MW) data into the global Integrated Tactical Warning Attack Assessment (ITWAA) system and the Theater Event System?
    • A. 

      Missile Warning Center.

    • B. 

      Joint Space Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Joint Navigation Warfare Center.

    • D. 

      Joint functional component command-space Operating Location - Omaha (OL-O).

  • 58. 
    (011) What organization provides qualification training for intercontinental ballistic missiles space surveillance, space control, missile warning, space lift, and satellite command and control (C2) operators?
    • A. 

      381st Training Group.

    • B. 

      381st Training Support Squadron.

    • C. 

      392d Training Squadron.

    • D. 

      533d Training Squadron.

  • 59. 
    (011) What organization conducts enlisted undergraduate space training (the initial career field course for all 1C6s) missile warning, space control, space surveillance, and satellite command and control (C2) training?
    • A. 

      381st Training Group.

    • B. 

      381st Training Support Squadron.

    • C. 

      392d Training Squadron. missiles (ICBM)

    • D. 

      533d Training Squadron.

  • 60. 
    (011) Which agency is in charge of designing, building, launching, and maintaining America’s intelligence satellites?
    • A. 

      Defense Intelligence Agency. missiles (ICBM)

    • B. 

      National Reconnaissance Office.

    • C. 

      National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency.

    • D. 

      National Security Agency/Central Security Service.

  • 61. 
    (012) Which national agency owns non-military United States’ space assets that provide critical space capabilities for warfighters?
    • A. 

      National Reconnaissance Office.

    • B. 

      National Security Space Institute.

    • C. 

      The Space and Missile Systems Center.

    • D. 

      The National Air and Space Intelligence Center.

  • 62. 
    (012) Which is an advantage to space assets?
    • A. 

      Space weather events shorten life expectancy.

    • B. 

      The type of orbit a satellite is in can reduce its lifetime.

    • C. 

      Systems may already be in position to support operation.

    • D. 

      Resources must be accounted for when planning to replenish assets.

  • 63. 
    (012) Why is precise time a disadvantage in space operations?
    • A. 

      It is not accurate.

    • B. 

      It is extremely susceptible to jamming.

    • C. 

      It takes multiple crews to operate and maintain.

    • D. 

      Satellite communications is heavily dependent on it.

  • 64. 
    (013) Which attribute is a disadvantage to civil, commercial, and foreign space assets?
    • A. 

      Multiple users.

    • B. 

      Have secure networks.

    • C. 

      Not owned by national agency.

    • D. 

      May not have sufficient flexibility for dynamic retasking.

  • 65. 
    (013) Which location is part of National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) ground segment?
    • A. 

      White Sands Complex.

    • B. 

      Puerto Rico Remote Ground Terminal.

    • C. 

      Holloman Air Force Base (AFB), New Mexico.

    • D. 

      Cape Canaveral Air Force Station (AFS), Florida.

  • 66. 
    (013) Which location is part of National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) ground segment?
    • A. 

      Holloman Air Force Base (AFB), New Mexico.

    • B. 

      Cape Canaveral Air Force Station (AFS), Florida.

    • C. 

      Guam Remote Ground Terminal.

    • D. 

      Hawaii Remote Ground Terminal.

  • 67. 
    (013) Which agencies work alongside National Oceanic and Atmosphere Administration (NOAA) with the management and operation of Polar Operational Environmental Satellites (POES)?
    • A. 

      National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and United States Air Force (USAF).

    • B. 

      Federal Aeronautical Administration (FAA) and USAF.

    • C. 

      USAF and Orbital Science.

    • D. 

      NASA and Orbital Science.

  • 68. 
    (014) Which item is not a focus of the planning phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process?
    • A. 

      Set goals and revise only once during the process.

    • B. 

      Plan the military forces to accomplish that strategy.

    • C. 

      Define the National Military Strategy to support national security.

    • D. 

      Ensure the necessary framework exists to manage Department of Defense resources effectively.

  • 69. 
    (014) How many years does the defense department funding program cover in the programming phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process?
    • A. 

      Six.

    • B. 

      Seven.

    • C. 

      Eight.

    • D. 

      Nine.

  • 70. 
    (014) When does the budget execution phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process begin?
    • A. 

      In the Off-Budget year.In the Off-Budget year.

    • B. 

      When the President’s budget is approved.

    • C. 

      The first year of a President’s term.

    • D. 

      When the President signs the appropriations bill.

  • 71. 
    (014) Which is not a non-material solution for addressing gaps?
    • A. 

      Training.

    • B. 

      Leadership.

    • C. 

      Changes to doctrine.

    • D. 

      Correction of a deficiency.

  • 72. 
    (014) Which Acquisition Category is used only for Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAP)?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 73. 
    (014) Which process uses metrics to assess the risks associated with technologies that will be used in major Defense Acquisition Programs (MADP)?
    • A. 

      Preliminary Design Review.

    • B. 

      Technology Readiness Levels.

    • C. 

      Technology Readiness Assessment.

    • D. 

      Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction exit.

  • 74. 
    (014) What happens after Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) receives a system and has the ability to operate and maintain it?
    • A. 

      Procurement.

    • B. 

      Initial Operational Capability.

    • C. 

      Operational Test and Evaluation.

    • D. 

      Initial Operational Test and Evaluation.

  • 75. 
    (014) Which phase has two major efforts that begin when the system deploys into the field?
    • A. 

      Test and evaluation.

    • B. 

      Operations and Support.

    • C. 

      Production and Deployment.

    • D. 

      Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase.

  • 76. 
    (014) Which organization is a direct reporting unit that tests new systems for the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Air Force Research Laboratory.

    • B. 

      Space and Missile Systems Center.

    • C. 

      Air Force Life Cycle Management Center.

    • D. 

      Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center.

  • 77. 
    (015) Which organization is backup to Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC), through level change operations?
    • A. 

      614th Air and Space Operations Center (AOC).

    • B. 

      614th AOC, Detachment 1.

    • C. 

      614th AOC, Detachment 2.

    • D. 

      614th AOC, Detachment 3.

  • 78. 
    (015) Which division of Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC) develops planning products to direct and synchronize Joint Functional Component Command-Space (JFCC SPACE) units through the joint space tasking order (JSTO)?
    • A. 

      Unified Space Vault.

    • B. 

      Strategy and Plans Division.

    • C. 

      Combat Operations Division.

    • D. 

      Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance Division.

  • 79. 
    (015) Which team is integral in predictive battlespace awareness?
    • A. 

      Unified Space Vault.

    • B. 

      Strategy Plans Division.

    • C. 

      Combat Operations Division.

    • D. 

      Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance Division.

  • 80. 
    (015) Which team is not part of the 614 Air and Space Operations Center (AOC)/Unified Space Vault (USV)?
    • A. 

      Space Control.

    • B. 

      Directed Energy.

    • C. 

      National Systems.

    • D. 

      Analysis, Correlation, and Fusion.

  • 81. 
    (015) Which division is in charge of qualification and continuation training and standardization and evaluation for the 614 Air and Space Operations Center?
    • A. 

      Unified Space Vault.

    • B. 

      Space Surveillance Division.

    • C. 

      Operations Support Division.

    • D. 

      Combat Operations Division.

  • 82. 
    (015) Which section provides the Single Integrated Space Picture (SISP) with data on foreign missile types and headcount?
    • A. 

      Missile tracking.

    • B. 

      Launch detection.

    • C. 

      Environmental monitoring.

    • D. 

      Space Situational Awareness.

  • 83. 
    (015) Which organization functions as the nerve center of an air campaign?
    • A. 

      Joint Space Operations Center.

    • B. 

      614 Air and Space Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Combined Air and Space Operations Center.

    • D. 

      United States Air Forces Central Command. (SMDC/ARSTRAT)

  • 84. 
    (016) What agency (s) works with the Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC) in processing and executing the joint space tasking order / air tasking order?
    • A. 

      614 Air and Space Operations Center, Detachment 1.

    • B. 

      Theater Air Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Space Surveillance Division.

    • D. 

      Unified Space Vault.

  • 85. 
    (016) Which part of the weaponeering and allocation stage uses targeteers and planners for desired effect estimations?
    • A. 

      Allocation.

    • B. 

      Weaponeering.

    • C. 

      Target validation.

    • D. 

      Target nomination.

  • 86. 
    (017) Launch detection is accomplished by what type of sensors?
    • A. 

      Air-based and sea-launched.

    • B. 

      Space-based and sea-launched.

    • C. 

      Space-based and ground-based.

    • D. 

      Foreign-based and domestic-based.

  • 87. 
    (017) Which satellites provide multispectral and hyperspectral imagery for environmental monitoring?
    • A. 

      National Aeronautics Space Administration research satellites.

    • B. 

      Defense Support Program satellites.

    • C. 

      Military satellite communications.

    • D. 

      Milstar satellites.

  • 88. 
    (017) Who approves allocation of satellite communications (SATCOM) resources to joint force commanders?
    • A. 

      Director, Space Forces.

    • B. 

      Space coordinating authority.

    • C. 

      Commander, United States Strategic Command.

    • D. 

      Commander, joint functional component command.

  • 89. 
    (017) Which positioning, timing, and navigation (PNT) operation allows for safe port operations and navigation through restricted waters?
    • A. 

      PNT enabling air operations.

    • B. 

      PNT enabling land operations.

    • C. 

      PNT enabling maritime operations.

    • D. 

      PNT enabling cyberspace operations.

  • 90. 
    (017) Which positioning, timing, and navigation (PNT) operation plays a key role in search and rescue operations?
    • A. 

      PNT enabling air operations.

    • B. 

      PNT enabling land operations.

    • C. 

      PNT enabling maritime operations.

    • D. 

      PNT enabling cyberspace operations.

  • 91. 
    (017) Which positioning, timing, and navigation (PNT) operation enables orbital rendezvous between space systems?
    • A. 

      PNT enabling air operations.

    • B. 

      PNT enabling land operations.

    • C. 

      PNT enabling space operations.

    • D. 

      PNT enabling cyberspace operations.

  • 92. 
    (018) When the theater commander, Air Force forces is dual-hatted as the Joint Forces Air and space Component Commander (JFCC), who serves as focal point in global and theater space operations?
    • A. 

      Director of Space Forces.

    • B. 

      Commander, United States Strategic Command.

    • C. 

      Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander.

    • D. 

      Commander, Joint Functional Component Command - Space.

  • 93. 
    (018) What capability of Global Space Mission Operations (GSMO) is a force multiplier for military operations?
    • A. 

      Missile tracking.

    • B. 

      Launch detection.

    • C. 

      Environmental monitoring.

    • D. 

      Re-task sensor coverage and integrate all-source intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) information.

  • 94. 
    (018) What function relies heavily on organizations that own and operate collection and exploitation assets?
    • A. 

      Collection operations management.

    • B. 

      Resource tasking or requests to task.

    • C. 

      Receipt and analysis of requirements.

    • D. 

      Collection requirements management.

  • 95. 
    (019) Which measure is not part of a layered defense to ensure operation of critical space systems?
    • A. 

      Diversion.

    • B. 

      Hardening of systems.

    • C. 

      Operations security (OPSEC).

    • D. 

      Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CC&D).

  • 96. 
    (019) The process of attack detection is distinguishing between hostile and
    • A. 

      Man-made events.

    • B. 

      Intentional and natural events.

    • C. 

      Unintentional and natural events.

    • D. 

      Intentional and man-made events.

  • 97. 
    (019) Which type of weapon system provides aggressive defense against terrestrial node attack and sabotage?
    • A. 

      Air defense assets.

    • B. 

      Physical security systems.

    • C. 

      Conventional and special operations forces.

    • D. 

      Attack detection and characterization systems.

  • 98. 
    (019) Which services are available to an adversary without indigenous space assets?
    • A. 

      Timely navigation.

    • B. 

      Weather monitoring.

    • C. 

      Satellite communications.

    • D. 

      Ultra-high resolution imagery.

  • 99. 
    (019) Which offensive space control (OSC) resource system employs standoff weapons as non-kinetic and kinetic capabilities?
    • A. 

      Aircraft.

    • B. 

      Surface forces.

    • C. 

      Special Operations Forces.

    • D. 

      Surface-to-surface missiles.

  • 100. 
    (019) During which resource operation are offensive space control (OSC) target elements of the terrestrial node affected?
    • A. 

      Anti-satellite operations.

    • B. 

      Cyberspace operations.

    • C. 

      Directed energy operations.

    • D. 

      Radiation warfare operations.