1c0 Vol 3 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) is considered jump inherent?

    • A.

      A. 1A1XX.

    • B.

      B. 1C0XX.

    • C.

      C. 1C2XX.

    • D.

      D. 1U1XX.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 1C2XX.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. 1C2XX. This Air Force specialty code is considered jump inherent, which means it involves parachute jumping as part of the job. The other AFSCs listed do not specifically involve parachute jumping.

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  • 2. 

    Individuals assigned to Air Force Specialty Code 1W0X2, Special Operations Weather, have a core competency to perform

    • A.

      A. flying duties.

    • B.

      B. parachute duties.

    • C.

      C. operational support duties.

    • D.

      D. career enlisted aviator duties.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. parachute duties.
    Explanation
    Individuals assigned to Air Force Specialty Code 1W0X2, Special Operations Weather, are specifically trained and equipped to provide weather support to special operations forces. This includes conducting parachute duties, such as conducting weather assessments and providing meteorological support for airborne operations. Parachute duties are an essential part of their role as they need to be able to accurately assess weather conditions for safe and successful parachute operations.

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  • 3. 

    Under certain circumstances, parachutists may be double billeted for up to how many days?

    • A.

      A. 30.

    • B.

      B. 60.

    • C.

      C. 90.

    • D.

      D. 120.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 90.
    Explanation
    Parachutists may be double billeted for up to 90 days under certain circumstances.

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  • 4. 

    Individuals occupying a jump inherent or a "J" coded unit manpower document (UMD)/joint manning document (JMD) billet are in what jump status?

    • A.

      A. Alert.

    • B.

      B. Active.

    • C.

      C. Standby.

    • D.

      D. Temporary.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Active.
    Explanation
    Individuals occupying a "J" coded unit manpower document (UMD)/joint manning document (JMD) billet are considered to be in an active jump status. This means that they are currently assigned to a position that requires them to be ready for immediate deployment or action. The term "jump" refers to the readiness and ability to quickly move or respond to a situation. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Active.

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  • 5. 

    The approving authority authorizing temporary jump status is

    • A.

      A. HQ USAF/A30-AT.

    • B.

      B. MAJCOM/A3.

    • C.

      C. the Unit commander.

    • D.

      D. the Host Aviation Resource Management office.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. MAJCOM/A3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. MAJCOM/A3. The MAJCOM/A3 is responsible for authorizing temporary jump status. This means that they have the authority to grant approval for individuals to participate in parachute jumps on a temporary basis. The Unit commander may have some authority in this area, but the final approval comes from the MAJCOM/A3. The HQ USAF/A30-AT and the Host Aviation Resource Management office are not mentioned as having the authority to authorize temporary jump status.

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  • 6. 

    What is the maximum number of days, within 24-month period, can an individual be placed in temporary jump status?

    • A.

      A. 60.

    • B.

      B. 90.

    • C.

      C. 120.

    • D.

      D. 365.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 365.
    Explanation
    An individual can be placed in temporary jump status for a maximum of 365 days within a 24-month period. This means that they can be in this status for a full year, allowing for a longer period of time for temporary placements or assignments.

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  • 7. 

    Which parachute system uses a line or strap attached from the parachute to an anchor cable inside the aircraft?

    • A.

      A. Static line.

    • B.

      B. Military free fall.

    • C.

      C. High Altitude Low Opening.

    • D.

      D. Low Altitude Low Opening.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Static line.
    Explanation
    A static line parachute system uses a line or strap attached from the parachute to an anchor cable inside the aircraft. This system allows the parachute to automatically deploy as the jumper exits the aircraft, as the line is attached to a fixed point and provides tension to open the parachute. This method is commonly used in military airborne operations and is suitable for low-altitude jumps where precision landing is not required. It ensures a controlled descent and allows multiple jumpers to exit the aircraft quickly and efficiently.

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  • 8. 

    Within how many days must the member perform a static line jump in order to maintain currency?

    • A.

      A. 30.

    • B.

      B. 60.

    • C.

      C. 90.

    • D.

      D. 180.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 180.
    Explanation
    To maintain currency, a member must perform a static line jump within 180 days. This means that they must complete a static line jump at least once every six months to stay current. This ensures that they stay proficient and up-to-date with the necessary skills and procedures for static line jumps.

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  • 9. 

    Within how many days must a free fall parachutist perform a free fall jump before being considered non-current?

    • A.

      A. 30.

    • B.

      B. 60.

    • C.

      C. 90

    • D.

      D. 180.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 180.
    Explanation
    A free fall parachutist must perform a free fall jump within 180 days before being considered non-current. This means that if the parachutist does not perform a free fall jump within this time frame, they will be considered out of practice or not up to date with their skills and may need to undergo additional training or recertification before jumping again.

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  • 10. 

    A member's qualification for jumpmaster duties is certified by the

    • A.

      A. Host Aviation Resource Management office.

    • B.

      B. unit commander.

    • C.

      C. wing commander.

    • D.

      D. senior jumpmaster.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. unit commander.
    Explanation
    The unit commander is responsible for certifying a member's qualification for jumpmaster duties. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the member's skills, experience, and training to determine if they are capable of performing the duties of a jumpmaster. The unit commander is in a position of leadership and is familiar with the requirements and standards for jumpmaster duties within their specific unit.

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  • 11. 

    Basic and advanced parachutist badges are awarded to members who complete an AF recognized parachute training course and

    • A.

      A. the US Army Basic Airborne Course.

    • B.

      B. satisfy requirements in AFI 11-410, Personnel Parachute Operations.

    • C.

      C. any sister-service parachutist course of instruction.

    • D.

      D. satisfy requirements in AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. satisfy requirements in AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
    Explanation
    The basic and advanced parachutist badges are awarded to members who complete an AF recognized parachute training course and satisfy requirements in AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges. This means that in addition to completing the parachute training course, individuals must also meet the specific requirements outlined in AFI 11-402 to be eligible for the badges. The other options mentioned (a, b, c) are not sufficient on their own to qualify for the badges.

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  • 12. 

    Once a parachutist badge is awarded, it is permanent unless the

    • A.

      A. badge is revoked.

    • B.

      B. member is suspended.

    • C.

      C. member is disqualified.

    • D.

      D. requirement is terminated.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. badge is revoked.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. badge is revoked. Once a parachutist badge is awarded, it remains permanent unless the badge is revoked. This means that the badge can only be taken away if the recipient does something to warrant its removal, such as violating the rules or regulations associated with earning and maintaining the badge. The other options, suspension, disqualification, and termination of requirements, do not necessarily result in the revocation of the badge.

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  • 13. 

    Members who meet the requirements for the award of a parachutist badge must apply by completeing an AF IMT

    • A.

      A. 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    • B.

      B. 196, Data for Parachutist Rating.

    • C.

      C. 1522, Individual Jump Record.

    • D.

      D. 922, ARMS Additional Training Accomplishment Report.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 196, Data for Parachutist Rating.
  • 14. 

    You must validate the number and type of jumps annotated on the AF IMT 196, Data for Parachutist Rating, against the member's

    • A.

      A. Individual Data Summary.

    • B.

      B. Individual Jump Record.

    • C.

      C. Jump Record Folder.

    • D.

      D. Aeronautical order.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Individual Jump Record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Individual Jump Record. The Individual Jump Record is the most appropriate document to validate the number and type of jumps annotated on the AF IMT 196, Data for Parachutist Rating, against the member's records. This record contains detailed information about each jump the individual has made, including the date, location, type of jump, and any special qualifications earned. By comparing the information on the AF IMT 196 with the Individual Jump Record, it can be determined if the jumps have been accurately recorded and if the member meets the requirements for their parachutist rating.

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  • 15. 

    What does a Bronze Star device on aparachutist's badge inidicate?

    • A.

      A. A combat jump.

    • B.

      B. Member is mission ready.

    • C.

      C. High-altitude low-opening qualification.

    • D.

      D. A jumpmaster qualification.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. A combat jump.
    Explanation
    The Bronze Star device on a parachutist's badge indicates a combat jump. This means that the individual has successfully completed a parachute jump during a combat operation. It signifies their participation and bravery in a combat situation, highlighting their dedication and service to their country.

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  • 16. 

    Who may recommend a member be prohibited from wearing the parachutist badge if the member is disqualified as a result of substantiated drug abuse?

    • A.

      A. Host Aviation Resource Management office.

    • B.

      B. Member's supervisor.

    • C.

      C. Member's first sergeant.

    • D.

      D. Commander's at any review level.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Commander's at any review level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Commander's at any review level. This means that any commander, regardless of their level of authority, has the power to recommend that a member be prohibited from wearing the parachutist badge if they have been disqualified due to substantiated drug abuse. This ensures that the decision-making power is not limited to a specific level of command and allows for appropriate action to be taken to address the issue.

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  • 17. 

    What must the remark state in the AO when prohibiting the wear of the parachutist badge?

    • A.

      A. That the badge is revoked.

    • B.

      B. The reason for prohibiting the wear.

    • C.

      C. That the member is prohited from wearing it.

    • D.

      D. The authority for prohibiting the wear.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. That the member is prohited from wearing it.
    Explanation
    The remark in the AO must state that the member is prohibited from wearing the parachutist badge. This implies that the member is no longer allowed to wear the badge and must comply with the prohibition. The remark does not necessarily need to mention the revocation of the badge, the reason for prohibiting the wear, or the authority for prohibiting the wear. The focus is on clearly stating that the member is not allowed to wear the badge.

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  • 18. 

    Which aviation service code (ASC) identifies a qualified non-career aviator assigned to a dual-coded (flying/jumping position) authorized to perform aircrew parachutist duties?

    • A.

      A. 9D.

    • B.

      B. 9E.

    • C.

      C. AA.

    • D.

      D. BA.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 9D.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9D. This aviation service code (ASC) identifies a qualified non-career aviator assigned to a dual-coded (flying/jumping position) authorized to perform aircrew parachutist duties.

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  • 19. 

    When a parachutist is no longer assigned to an authorized jump position, the member's aviation service code (ASC) will change from

    • A.

      A. 9E to 9J.

    • B.

      B. 9D to 9J.

    • C.

      C. 9E to 06.

    • D.

      D. 9D to 06.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 9E to 06.
    Explanation
    When a parachutist is no longer assigned to an authorized jump position, their aviation service code (ASC) will change from 9E to 06. This change indicates that the parachutist is no longer involved in parachute jumping duties and has transitioned to a different role or position within the aviation service. The new code 06 represents the change in responsibilities and duties for the member.

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  • 20. 

    Individuals assigned to dual-coded flying/jumping positions may receive

    • A.

      A. basic and allowance pay.

    • B.

      B. jump incentive pay only.

    • C.

      C. flight incentive pay only.

    • D.

      D. flight and jump incentive pay.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. flight and jump incentive pay.
    Explanation
    Individuals assigned to dual-coded flying/jumping positions are eligible to receive both flight and jump incentive pay. This means that they will receive additional compensation for both their flying and jumping duties. This is likely because these positions require additional training and expertise in both flying and jumping, and therefore warrant additional compensation.

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  • 21. 

    Most dual-coded flying/jumping parachutists are assigned to a non-career aviator positions identified by a duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) prefix of

    • A.

      A. C, J, or X.

    • B.

      B. J, X, or Q.

    • C.

      C. X, K, or Q.

    • D.

      D. X, W, or K.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. X, K, or Q.
  • 22. 

    A member's eligibility for parachutist service must be certified by the

    • A.

      A. commander.

    • B.

      B. Host Aviation Resource Management office.

    • C.

      C. first sergeant.

    • D.

      D. supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. commander.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. commander. The commander is responsible for certifying a member's eligibility for parachutist service. This is because the commander has the authority and knowledge to determine if a member meets the necessary requirements and qualifications to participate in parachutist service. The commander has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety and readiness of the unit, including the certification of personnel for specialized duties such as parachuting. The Host Aviation Resource Management office, first sergeant, and supervisor may have supporting roles or responsibilities in the process, but the ultimate decision lies with the commander.

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  • 23. 

    Certifying a member's eligibility for parachutist service includes the member's

    • A.

      A. criminal training.

    • B.

      B. security training.

    • C.

      C. first sergeant.

    • D.

      D. supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. supervisor.
    Explanation
    Certifying a member's eligibility for parachutist service includes the member's supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for evaluating the member's skills, training, and overall readiness for parachutist service. They ensure that the member meets all the necessary requirements and has successfully completed the required training. The supervisor plays a crucial role in certifying the member's eligibility and ensuring their safety during parachutist service.

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  • 24. 

    The effective date used to assign Aviation Service Code 06, Jump Requirement Terminated, when a member fails to complete the US Army Basic Airborne Course is the

    • A.

      A. class start date.

    • B.

      B. class graduation date.

    • C.

      C. day after disenrollment.

    • D.

      D. day of the disenrollment.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. day after disenrollment.
    Explanation
    When a member fails to complete the US Army Basic Airborne Course, Aviation Service Code 06, Jump Requirement Terminated, is assigned. The effective date used to assign this code is the day after disenrollment. This means that the code is applied starting from the day after the member is removed from the course.

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  • 25. 

    When placing a member in a dual-coded flying/jumping position, change the member's aviation service code from 9E, Active Parachutist, to 9D, Active Non-rated/Non-Career Enlisted Aviator Aircrew Member, effective the date the member

    • A.

      A. begins performing in-flight duties aboard USAF aircraft.

    • B.

      B. is assigned to a valid jump-inherent position.

    • C.

      C. enters a formal school where observation flights are performed.

    • D.

      D. enters a formal school where flight duties are part of curriculum

    Correct Answer
    D. D. enters a formal school where flight duties are part of curriculum
    Explanation
    When a member enters a formal school where flight duties are part of the curriculum, their aviation service code is changed from 9E to 9D. This is because they are transitioning from being an active parachutist to an active non-rated/non-career enlisted aviator aircrew member. The change is effective from the date the member begins performing flight duties as part of their school curriculum.

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  • 26. 

    You must publish an aeronautical order authorizing a member to perform a high altitude low opening (HALO) jump

    • A.

      A. when the member is officially assigned to a HALO-coded position.

    • B.

      B. prior to attending the military free fall course.

    • C.

      C. after completeing the military free fall course.

    • D.

      D. after performing a HALO jump.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. prior to attending the military free fall course.
  • 27. 

    What action must you take in the Aviation Resource Management System once a member becomes high altitude low opening (HALO) certified?

    • A.

      A. Click"Yes" in the jump Status field in the Aircrew Management window.

    • B.

      B. Click "Yes" in the HALO Certification field in the Aircrew Management window.

    • C.

      C. Publish aeronautical orders (AO) authorizing HALO duties effective the class start date of the military free fall (MFF) course.

    • D.

      D. Publish an AO authorizing HALO duties effective the class graduation date of the MFF course.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Click "Yes" in the HALO Certification field in the Aircrew Management window.
    Explanation
    Once a member becomes high altitude low opening (HALO) certified, the action that must be taken in the Aviation Resource Management System is to click "Yes" in the HALO Certification field in the Aircrew Management window. This indicates that the member has obtained the HALO certification and is qualified for HALO duties.

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  • 28. 

    Aeronautical orders for enlisted parachutists will have a termination date based on the earliest of the following dates except the

    • A.

      A. date of separation.

    • B.

      B. jump tour completion date.

    • C.

      C. change to active status date.

    • D.

      D. date of expected return from overseas.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. change to active status date.
    Explanation
    Aeronautical orders for enlisted parachutists will have a termination date based on the earliest of the following dates: date of separation, jump tour completion date, and date of expected return from overseas. The exception is the change to active status date, which is not considered as a factor for the termination date of the orders.

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  • 29. 

    The aeronautical order terminates for a member who is initially placed on jump status, but is not assigned to an authorizied jump position after graduating from the US Army Basic Airborne Course on the

    • A.

      A. member's date ofseparation.

    • B.

      B. member's jump tour completion date.

    • C.

      C. military free fall course graduation date.

    • D.

      D. US Army Basic Airborne Course graduation date.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. US Army Basic Airborne Course graduation date.
    Explanation
    After graduating from the US Army Basic Airborne Course, a member who is initially placed on jump status but is not assigned to an authorized jump position will have their aeronautical order terminated. This means that their jump status will no longer be valid. The termination occurs on the date of graduation from the course, as indicated by the correct answer choice d.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements must be included in the Remarks section of the aeronautical order for a member assigned to a dual-coded flying/jumping position?

    • A.

      A. When required for the mission, member is authorizied to perform military free fall duties.

    • B.

      B. When required for the mission, static line duties are authorized on any USAF aircraft.

    • C.

      C. When required for the mission, member is authorized to perform jumpmaster duties.

    • D.

      D. When required for the mission, aircrew duties may be performed on any USAF aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. When required for the mission, aircrew duties may be performed on any USAF aircraft.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. When required for the mission, aircrew duties may be performed on any USAF aircraft. This statement should be included in the Remarks section of the aeronautical order for a member assigned to a dual-coded flying/jumping position to indicate that they are authorized to perform aircrew duties on any USAF aircraft when necessary for their mission.

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  • 31. 

    The Remarks section of an aeronautical order for a USAF Academy (USAFA) cadet, who participates in a USAFA parachute program reads: The member is

    • A.

      A. entitled to high altitude low opening pay.

    • B.

      B. entitled to Hazardous Duty Incentive pay.

    • C.

      C. not entitled to Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay.

    • D.

      D. occupying a J-coded unit manpower document position.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. not entitled to Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay.
    Explanation
    The Remarks section of the aeronautical order states that the cadet is "not entitled to Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay." This means that the cadet will not receive any additional pay for participating in the parachute program.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not a cause for permanent disqualification?

    • A.

      A. Failure to satisfactorily perform jump duty.

    • B.

      B. Disenrollment from the military free fall course.

    • C.

      C. Member no longer desires to perform requied jump duties.

    • D.

      D. Member voluntarily requests termination of parachutist service.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Disenrollment from the military free fall course.
    Explanation
    Disenrollment from the military free fall course is not a cause for permanent disqualification because it refers to a specific course and does not necessarily affect the individual's ability to perform jump duties in the future. The other options, such as failure to perform jump duty, no longer desiring to perform jump duties, or voluntarily requesting termination of parachutist service, all indicate a lack of commitment or ability to perform jump duties, which can lead to permanent disqualification.

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  • 33. 

    How many days can a parachutist be suspended without major command (MAJCOM) approval?

    • A.

      A. 60.

    • B.

      B. 90.

    • C.

      C. 120.

    • D.

      D. 180.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 180.
    Explanation
    A parachutist can be suspended without major command (MAJCOM) approval for a maximum of 180 days. This means that they can be temporarily removed from active duty or suspended from their parachuting duties for a period of up to 180 days without needing approval from their commanding officer or higher authorities.

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  • 34. 

    Commanders will provide at least 120 calendar days notification before involuntarily terminating member's aviation service who are

    • A.

      A. parachutist qualified.

    • B.

      B. jumpmaster qualified.

    • C.

      C. dual-coded flying/jumping.

    • D.

      D. dual-coded military free fall/static line.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. dual-coded flying/jumping.
    Explanation
    Commanders are required to provide at least 120 calendar days notification before involuntarily terminating the aviation service of members who are dual-coded flying/jumping. This means that individuals who are qualified to both fly and jump from aircraft will be given a minimum of 120 days notice before their aviation service is terminated against their will.

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  • 35. 

    The 120-day advance notification policy applies to

    • A.

      A. basic pay.

    • B.

      B. flight pay only.

    • C.

      C. parachutist pay only.

    • D.

      D. flight and parachutist pay.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. flight pay only.
    Explanation
    The 120-day advance notification policy applies to flight pay only. This means that individuals receiving flight pay must be notified at least 120 days in advance of any changes or adjustments to their pay. This policy does not apply to basic pay or parachutist pay, as indicated by options a, c, and d.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for completeing and certifying all AF Forms 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Records and AF IMT's 922, Individual Jump Records?

    • A.

      A. Jumpmaster.

    • B.

      B. Commander.

    • C.

      C. Operations officer.

    • D.

      D. Aviation resource manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Jumpmaster.
    Explanation
    The Jumpmaster is responsible for completing and certifying all AF Forms 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Records, and AF IMTs 922, Individual Jump Records. This role is specifically designated to ensure the accuracy and completeness of these documents, as they pertain to jump-related activities. The Jumpmaster is trained in jump procedures and safety protocols, making them the most qualified individual to handle these records.

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  • 37. 

    What form is used as the primary source document for recording jump activity performed by multiple USAF members on a single day?

    • A.

      A. AF Form 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Record.

    • B.

      B. AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special. Operational Duty.

    • C.

      C. AF Form 922, Individual Jump Record.

    • D.

      D. AF Form 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AF Form 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Record. This form is used as the primary source document for recording jump activity performed by multiple USAF members on a single day. It is specifically designed for tracking jumps performed by multiple crew members during a mission. The other options listed are not relevant to recording jump activity or are for individual records rather than multi-crew records.

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  • 38. 

    Who ensures the following items are correct on the AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record: date, aircraft mission design series, drop zone, jump type and condition, parachute type, jump altitude and the remarks?

    • A.

      A. Squadron Aviation Resource Management office.

    • B.

      B. Host Aviation Resource Management office.

    • C.

      C. Unit commander.

    • D.

      D. Jumpmaster.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Jumpmaster.
    Explanation
    The jumpmaster is responsible for ensuring that the following items are correct on the AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record: date, aircraft mission design series, drop zone, jump type and condition, parachute type, jump altitude, and the remarks. The jumpmaster is a qualified individual who supervises and manages parachute operations, including conducting pre-jump inspections, ensuring the correct equipment is used, and verifying all necessary information is recorded accurately on the jump record.

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  • 39. 

    It is important for you to update jump accomplishments in the Aviation Resource Management System, in a timely manner to avoid interrupting the member's

    • A.

      A. flight duty training.

    • B.

      B. flight duty pay.

    • C.

      C. parachute duty training.

    • D.

      D. parachute duty pay.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. parachute duty pay.
    Explanation
    Updating jump accomplishments in the Aviation Resource Management System in a timely manner is important to avoid interrupting the member's parachute duty pay. This suggests that the system is used to track and record the member's parachute jumps, and timely updates are necessary to ensure accurate payment for their parachute duty.

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  • 40. 

    Using figure 2-5, what does a "T" in the jump Type option, indicate when updating jump accomplishments?

    • A.

      A. Mass Tactical or Operational.

    • B.

      B. High altitude low opening.

    • C.

      C. Tactical or operational.

    • D.

      D. Experimental or Test.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Tactical or operational.
    Explanation
    The "T" in the jump Type option indicates that the jump accomplishments being updated are related to either tactical or operational jumps. This means that the jump was conducted as part of a military operation or training exercise, rather than for experimental or test purposes.

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  • 41. 

    Which standard jump report provides an audit trail of individual jump activity?

    • A.

      A. Jump Activity Report.

    • B.

      B. Flying History Report.

    • C.

      C. Individual Jump Record.

    • D.

      D. Jump Activity Update Summary.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Jump Activity Update Summary.
    Explanation
    The Jump Activity Update Summary provides an audit trail of individual jump activity. This report summarizes the updates made to jump activities and provides details such as the date and time of the update, the user who made the update, and the specific changes made. It allows for easy tracking and monitoring of individual jump activity, ensuring accountability and transparency in the jumping process.

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  • 42. 

    To get a summary of career jump totals, the standard jump report you would refer to is the

    • A.

      A. Imdividual Data Summary.

    • B.

      B. Individual Jump Record.

    • C.

      C. Flying History Report.

    • D.

      D. Jump History Report.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Jump History Report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Jump History Report. This report would provide a summary of career jump totals, allowing individuals to track and analyze their jumping history. The other options, such as the Individual Data Summary and Individual Jump Record, may provide different types of information but would not specifically give a summary of career jump totals. The Flying History Report may provide information on flying activities but not specifically on career jump totals.

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  • 43. 

    What standard folder serves as a repository for all approved documents pertaining to a member's jump career?

    • A.

      A. Jump record folder.

    • B.

      B. Flight record folder.

    • C.

      C. Military personnel file.

    • D.

      D. Personnel information file.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Jump record folder.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Jump record folder. The jump record folder is a standard folder that serves as a repository for all approved documents related to a member's jump career. This folder contains important information such as jump logs, certifications, training records, and any other documentation pertaining to the member's jumps. It is used to maintain a comprehensive record of the member's jump career and is an essential tool for tracking and managing their progress and qualifications in this area.

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  • 44. 

    What Part 1 section, of the jump record folder, would you file Rule 3 request letters?

    • A.

      A. Aeronautical orders.

    • B.

      B. MIlitary pay orders.

    • C.

      C. Reports.

    • D.

      D. Other documents.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. MIlitary pay orders.
    Explanation
    Rule 3 request letters would be filed in the Military pay orders section of the jump record folder. This is because Rule 3 request letters are likely related to military pay, and therefore would be filed together with other military pay orders for easy access and organization.

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  • 45. 

    When must the Host Aviation Resource Management office conduct a cover to cover audit of the jump record folder?

    • A.

      A. Upon unit deactivation.

    • B.

      B. Every six months.

    • C.

      C. Upon PCS.

    • D.

      D. Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Upon PCS.
    Explanation
    The Host Aviation Resource Management office must conduct a cover to cover audit of the jump record folder upon PCS (Permanent Change of Station). This means that whenever a member of the unit is transferred to a different location, the jump record folder must be audited from cover to cover to ensure accuracy and completeness. This is important for maintaining the integrity of the jump record and ensuring that all necessary information is documented correctly.

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  • 46. 

    When conducting a jump record folder audit, ensure all formal training certificates have been entered into ARMS using the

    • A.

      A. Flyer window.

    • B.

      B. Passport window.

    • C.

      C. Personnel window.

    • D.

      D. Formal training window.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Formal training window.
    Explanation
    When conducting a jump record folder audit, it is important to ensure that all formal training certificates have been entered into ARMS. To do this, one should use the "Formal training window" in ARMS, as this is the designated area for recording and tracking formal training certificates. The other options (Flyer window, Passport window, and Personnel window) are not specifically designed for this purpose and would not be appropriate for entering formal training certificates.

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  • 47. 

    What does a periodic review of the jump record folder ensure?

    • A.

      A. Effectiveness.

    • B.

      B. Accuracy.

    • C.

      C. Continuity.

    • D.

      D. Standardization.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Accuracy.
    Explanation
    A periodic review of the jump record folder ensures accuracy. By regularly reviewing the jump record folder, any errors or discrepancies can be identified and corrected. This helps to ensure that the information recorded in the jump record folder is reliable and precise. It also allows for any necessary updates or adjustments to be made, ensuring that the jump record folder remains an accurate and up-to-date record of jumps.

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  • 48. 

    Jump record folder reviews are conducted

    • A.

      A. in person with the member's commander.

    • B.

      B. face-to-face with the member.

    • C.

      C. over the telephone with the member.

    • D.

      D. over a radio with the member's commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. face-to-face with the member.
    Explanation
    Jump record folder reviews are conducted face-to-face with the member. This means that the review is done in person, allowing for direct interaction and communication between the reviewer and the member. This method ensures a more thorough and accurate assessment of the jump record folder, as any questions or clarifications can be addressed immediately. Conducting the review in person also allows for a better understanding of the member's perspective and any challenges they may have encountered during their jumps.

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  • 49. 

    When outprocessing a parachutist, what must you include in the jump record package?

    • A.

      A. AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Speacial Operational Duty.

    • B.

      B. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Indivdual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.

    • C.

      C. AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.

    • D.

      D. AF Form 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Record.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
    Explanation
    The jump record package for outprocessing a parachutist must include the AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet. This form is used to document and calculate the individual's jump pay entitlement. It ensures that the parachutist receives the appropriate compensation for their jumps. The other options listed are not directly related to jump records or pay entitlements.

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  • 50. 

    When inprocessing a parachutist in the Aviation Resource Management System, the alpha character "H" in the Pay Reason field of the Incentive Pay window means

    • A.

      A. aviation career incentive pay.

    • B.

      B. hazardous duty incentive pay.

    • C.

      C. high altitude low opening.

    • D.

      D. career enlisted flier incentive pay.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. hazardous duty incentive pay.
    Explanation
    The alpha character "H" in the Pay Reason field of the Incentive Pay window in the Aviation Resource Management System indicates hazardous duty incentive pay. This means that the parachutist is receiving additional pay due to the hazardous nature of their duties.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Sarmgirl
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