A+ Essentials Exam - Software Domains

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 492
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A Plus Essential Quizzes & Trivia

CompTIA A+ Essentials Certification Exam Simulation
Focus on SOFTWARE related domains:
3.0 Operating Systems
5.0 Networking
6.0 Security
8.0 Communication and Professionalism


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the name of a graphical representation of a file, application, or folder?

    • A.

      File

    • B.

      Icon

    • C.

      Bookmark

    • D.

      Mouse

    Correct Answer
    B. Icon
    Explanation
    An icon is a graphical representation of a file, application, or folder. Icons are used to visually represent these objects in a user interface, making it easier for users to identify and interact with them. Icons are typically small images or symbols that represent the content or purpose of the object they are associated with. They serve as visual cues that help users navigate and locate files, applications, or folders on a computer system.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following items is not commonly found in a dialog box

    • A.

      Help button

    • B.

      Close button

    • C.

      OK button

    • D.

      Font button

    Correct Answer
    D. Font button
    Explanation
    A dialog box is a graphical user interface element that displays information or options to the user. Common items found in a dialog box include a Help button, Close button, and OK button. These buttons allow the user to access additional information, close the dialog box, or confirm their selection, respectively. However, a Font button is not commonly found in a dialog box. The Font button is typically found in formatting or editing menus, allowing the user to change the font style, size, or color of the text.

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  • 3. 

    In the Command Prompt window, what command is used to change the name of a folder or file?

    • A.

      MOVE

    • B.

      REN

    • C.

      CHANGE

    • D.

      REVISE

    Correct Answer
    B. REN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is REN. In the Command Prompt window, the REN command is used to change the name of a folder or file. This command allows the user to rename a folder or file by specifying the current name and the new name. By using the REN command, users can easily rename folders or files without having to use any graphical user interface.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following Windows utilities is used to secure data from unauthorized users?

    • A.

      REGEDIT

    • B.

      Compression

    • C.

      EFS

    • D.

      Network Neighborhood

    Correct Answer
    C. EFS
    Explanation
    EFS (Encrypting File System) is a Windows utility that is used to secure data from unauthorized users. It provides encryption for individual files and folders, ensuring that only authorized users can access the encrypted data. EFS uses a combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data. By encrypting the files and folders, EFS helps to prevent unauthorized access and protects sensitive information from being compromised.

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  • 5. 

    Which Registry key tracks individual users and user preferences?

    • A.

      HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

    • B.

      HKEY_USERS

    • C.

      HKEY_CURRENT_USER

    • D.

      HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

    Correct Answer
    B. HKEY_USERS
    Explanation
    HKEY_USERS is the correct answer because it is a Registry key that tracks individual users and user preferences. It contains subkeys for each user who has logged into the system, allowing for user-specific settings and configurations to be stored and accessed. This key is used to manage user profiles and preferences on a Windows operating system.

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  • 6. 

    During the boot process, the registry loads into what type of memory?

    • A.

      ROM

    • B.

      EEPROM

    • C.

      RAM

    • D.

      FLASH

    Correct Answer
    C. RAM
    Explanation
    During the boot process, the registry loads into RAM. RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of computer memory that is volatile, meaning its contents are lost when the power is turned off. The registry is a database in Windows operating systems that stores important configuration settings and options. Loading the registry into RAM allows for faster access to these settings during the boot process, improving the overall performance of the system.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following files contains the ARC Path pointing to the Boot Partition where the Operating System is located?     

    • A.

      Arp cache

    • B.

      Boot.ini

    • C.

      Config.sys

    • D.

      Drive.ini

    Correct Answer
    B. Boot.ini
    Explanation
    The correct answer is boot.ini. The boot.ini file contains the ARC (Advanced RISC Computing) Path, which specifies the location of the boot partition where the operating system is located. This file is used by the Windows operating system during the boot process to determine the location of the operating system files and the boot options.

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  • 8. 

    What registry hive has a list of hardware components and software drivers?

    • A.

      HKey_Classes_Root

    • B.

      HKey_Current_Config

    • C.

      HKey_Users

    • D.

      HKey_Local_Machine

    Correct Answer
    D. HKey_Local_Machine
    Explanation
    HKey_Local_Machine is the correct answer because it is a registry hive in Windows that contains information about the hardware components and software drivers installed on the computer. This hive is specific to the local machine and is accessible to all users on the system. It stores configuration settings and preferences for the hardware and software, making it an essential part of the Windows operating system.

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  • 9. 

    The loading of Windows XP is controlled by ______ .    

    • A.

      Autoexec.bat

    • B.

      Boot.ini

    • C.

      Config.sys

    • D.

      Ntldr

    Correct Answer
    D. Ntldr
    Explanation
    The loading of Windows XP is controlled by the ntldr file. This file is responsible for starting the operating system by loading the necessary files and drivers. It is located in the root directory of the system partition and is a crucial component for the boot process. It reads the boot.ini file to determine the available operating systems and their configurations, and then proceeds to load the appropriate system files to initiate the boot sequence.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following are advantages to using Windows XP Professional?

    • A.

      Reliability and stability of the operating system

    • B.

      Boot time is slower, but the system is more reliable

    • C.

      Ability to boot into DOS mode

    • D.

      Windows Image Acquisition is built into XP

    Correct Answer
    A. Reliability and stability of the operating system
    Explanation
    Windows XP Professional is known for its reliability and stability as an operating system. This means that it is less likely to crash or experience errors compared to other operating systems. This is an advantage because it ensures that users can work without interruptions and reduces the risk of data loss. Additionally, a reliable and stable operating system also provides a better user experience by minimizing downtime and improving overall system performance.

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  • 11. 

    Which file system offers the most security?

    • A.

      NTFS

    • B.

      FAT16

    • C.

      FAT32

    • D.

      OSPF

    Correct Answer
    A. NTFS
    Explanation
    NTFS (New Technology File System) offers the most security compared to the other file systems listed. NTFS provides features such as file and folder permissions, encryption, auditing, and access control lists (ACLs), which enhance security and protect data from unauthorized access or modifications. It also supports advanced security mechanisms like file system journaling and disk quotas. In contrast, FAT16 and FAT32 lack these advanced security features, making them less secure options. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a routing protocol and not a file system, so it is not relevant to the question.

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  • 12. 

    What tools can be used to backup the Windows XP registry

    • A.

      Device Manager

    • B.

      Sysprep

    • C.

      Backup

    • D.

      System Administrator Utility

    Correct Answer
    C. Backup
    Explanation
    Backup is the correct answer because it is a tool that can be used to backup the Windows XP registry. By creating a backup of the registry, users can safeguard against any potential issues or data loss that may occur during system changes or updates. This allows for easy restoration of the registry in case any problems arise.

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  • 13. 

    The ____________ holds snap-in tools used to maintain the computer as well as allows access to Device Manager, shared folders, and         performance logs.

    • A.

      Device Manager

    • B.

      Management Console

    • C.

      System Manager

    • D.

      Modem Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Management Console
    Explanation
    The Management Console holds snap-in tools used to maintain the computer as well as allows access to Device Manager, shared folders, and performance logs. It is a centralized tool in Windows operating systems that provides a graphical user interface (GUI) for managing various aspects of the system. It allows users to configure system settings, manage hardware devices, view system event logs, and perform various administrative tasks.

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  • 14. 

    What tool is used to analyze a hard drive and consolidate files and folders improving drive efficiency?

    • A.

      System Configuration

    • B.

      Disk defragmenter

    • C.

      Task Manager

    • D.

      Dr. Watson

    Correct Answer
    B. Disk defragmenter
    Explanation
    Disk defragmenter is a tool used to analyze a hard drive and consolidate files and folders, improving drive efficiency. When files are saved or deleted on a hard drive, they can become fragmented, meaning that parts of a file are scattered across different locations on the drive. This can slow down the computer's performance. Disk defragmenter rearranges the fragmented files, placing them closer together and in a more organized manner, which allows for faster access and improved efficiency when accessing files on the hard drive.

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  • 15. 

    The protocol suite used for Internet connectivity is:

    • A.

      TCP/IP

    • B.

      NetBEUI

    • C.

      IPX/SPX

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP/IP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TCP/IP because it is the most widely used protocol suite for Internet connectivity. TCP/IP stands for Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol and it is a set of protocols that allows computers to communicate with each other over the Internet. TCP/IP provides reliable and efficient data transmission, addressing, and routing capabilities, making it the foundation for Internet communication. NetBEUI and IPX/SPX were also used in the past for local area networks, but they are not commonly used for Internet connectivity. Therefore, the correct answer is TCP/IP.

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  • 16. 

    Before making changes to the registry, make a __________.

    • A.

      Boot disk

    • B.

      Backup tape

    • C.

      Boot CD

    • D.

      Registry backup

    Correct Answer
    D. Registry backup
    Explanation
    Before making changes to the registry, it is important to make a registry backup. This is because the registry is a crucial component of the Windows operating system that stores important configuration settings and information. Making a backup ensures that if any errors or issues occur during the changes, the registry can be restored to its previous state, preventing any potential damage or system instability.

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  • 17. 

    The extension of a batch file is:

    • A.

      BAT

    • B.

      EXE

    • C.

      COM

    • D.

      TXT

    Correct Answer
    A. BAT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BAT. In computing, a batch file is a script file containing a series of commands that are executed in sequence. The extension of a batch file is typically .BAT, which indicates to the operating system that it is a batch file and should be executed accordingly. The other options (EXE, COM, TXT) are not commonly used as extensions for batch files.

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  • 18. 

    Each network interface card has a unique 48 bit number burned into ROM called (an):

    • A.

      Token

    • B.

      MAC address

    • C.

      IP address

    • D.

      Host address

    Correct Answer
    B. MAC address
    Explanation
    A MAC address, or Media Access Control address, is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card. It is a 48-bit number burned into ROM, which distinguishes one device from another on a network. The MAC address is used at the data link layer of the OSI model to ensure that data packets are correctly delivered to the intended recipient. Unlike IP addresses, which can change and are assigned by a network administrator, MAC addresses are permanent and cannot be modified or reassigned.

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  • 19. 

    OSI is an acronym for:

    • A.

      Open System Interconnect

    • B.

      Operating System Interface

    • C.

      Ongoing Standard Integrity

    • D.

      Output System Input

    Correct Answer
    A. Open System Interconnect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Open System Interconnect. OSI is a reference model that defines how different software and hardware components in a network should communicate with each other. It consists of seven layers, each responsible for specific tasks in the network communication process. The term "Open System" refers to the ability of the model to work with different types of systems and technologies, while "Interconnect" emphasizes the model's focus on enabling seamless communication between these systems.

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  • 20. 

    In an Ethernet network, a ___________ connection is one that can transmit data in both directions, but not at the same time.

    • A.

      Full duplex

    • B.

      Simplex

    • C.

      Parallel

    • D.

      Half-duplex

    Correct Answer
    D. Half-duplex
    Explanation
    In an Ethernet network, a half-duplex connection allows for data transmission in both directions, but not simultaneously. This means that data can be sent or received, but not both at the same time. In contrast, a full-duplex connection allows for simultaneous two-way communication, while simplex allows for one-way communication only. Parallel does not describe the type of connection in terms of simultaneous data transmission.

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  • 21. 

    What encryption method used with wireless networks?

    • A.

      Shared

    • B.

      WEP

    • C.

      VPN

    • D.

      SSID

    Correct Answer
    B. WEP
    Explanation
    WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an encryption method used with wireless networks. It was one of the earliest methods used to secure wireless networks, but it is now considered to be weak and easily compromised. WEP uses a shared key authentication and encryption system, where all devices on the network use the same key to encrypt and decrypt data. However, WEP has several vulnerabilities that make it susceptible to attacks, such as the ability to crack the encryption key through packet sniffing. Therefore, it is no longer recommended to use WEP for securing wireless networks.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following cannot be prevented through firewall, antivirus, antispyware, antigrayware, encryption, and domain authentication techniques?

    • A.

      Spamming

    • B.

      Social engineering

    • C.

      Physical attacks

    • D.

      Denial of service attacks

    Correct Answer
    B. Social engineering
    Explanation
    Social engineering cannot be prevented through firewall, antivirus, antispyware, antigrayware, encryption, and domain authentication techniques because it involves manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or systems. It relies on psychological manipulation rather than technical vulnerabilities, making it difficult to detect and prevent through traditional security measures.

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  • 23. 

    What security term is used to describe logging keystrokes to obtain passwords?

    • A.

      Phishing

    • B.

      Social engineering

    • C.

      Malware

    • D.

      Spyware

    Correct Answer
    D. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is the correct answer because it refers to a type of malicious software that is designed to secretly monitor and collect information from a user's computer or device. One of the common activities of spyware is logging keystrokes, including passwords, without the user's knowledge or consent. This information can then be used by attackers to gain unauthorized access to accounts or steal sensitive information.

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  • 24. 

    What security term describes a program written to collect information and store it on the hard drive?

    • A.

      Virus

    • B.

      Intrusion detection and alerts

    • C.

      Cookie

    • D.

      Authentication

    Correct Answer
    C. Cookie
    Explanation
    A cookie is a small piece of data stored on a user's computer by a website, typically used to remember information about the user. In terms of security, cookies can be used to collect information about a user's browsing habits and store it on the hard drive. This information can then be accessed by the website or other third parties for various purposes, such as targeted advertising or website customization. Therefore, a program written to collect information and store it on the hard drive can be referred to as a cookie.

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  • 25. 

    What file system provides the best Windows XP security?

    • A.

      FAT16

    • B.

      FAT32

    • C.

      NTFS

    • D.

      OS2

    Correct Answer
    C. NTFS
    Explanation
    NTFS (New Technology File System) provides the best Windows XP security compared to the other options listed. NTFS offers features such as file and folder permissions, encryption, and auditing, which enhance the security of the operating system. It allows for more control over access to files and restricts unauthorized users from modifying or accessing sensitive data. NTFS also supports larger file sizes and has better recovery capabilities in case of system failures.

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  • 26. 

    What is the maximum number of simultaneous users that can access a Windows XP share?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    • E.

      10

    Correct Answer
    E. 10
    Explanation
    Windows XP has a maximum limit of 10 simultaneous users that can access a share. This means that at any given time, only 10 users can connect and access files or resources on a Windows XP share. Any additional users beyond this limit will be unable to connect until one of the existing connections is terminated.

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  • 27. 

    Which password would be most secure?

    • A.

      Byteme

    • B.

      1adyVol3

    • C.

      CAtchm3

    • D.

      Tennessee

    Correct Answer
    B. 1adyVol3
    Explanation
    The password "1adyVol3" would be the most secure because it follows a combination of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, and numbers. This makes it harder for hackers to guess or crack the password. Additionally, it is not a common word or phrase, further increasing its security.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is an example of social engineering?

    • A.

      Spamming

    • B.

      Phishing

    • C.

      Spyware

    • D.

      Malware

    Correct Answer
    B. Phishing
    Explanation
    Phishing is an example of social engineering because it involves manipulating individuals to gain sensitive information, such as passwords or credit card details, by disguising as a trustworthy entity. This is typically done through deceptive emails, messages, or websites that appear legitimate, tricking people into revealing their personal information unknowingly. Phishing attacks exploit human vulnerabilities and rely on social manipulation to deceive victims, making it a classic form of social engineering.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT and example of a network topology?

    • A.

      Star

    • B.

      Ring

    • C.

      Bus

    • D.

      Peer

    Correct Answer
    D. Peer
    Explanation
    The term "peer" does not refer to a network topology, but rather to a type of network connection or relationship. In a peer-to-peer network, devices are connected directly to each other without a central server. Network topologies, on the other hand, refer to the physical or logical layout of devices and connections in a network, such as star, ring, or bus. Therefore, "peer" is not an example of a network topology.

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  • 30. 

    How many wires are contained in an RJ-45 jack?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    D. 8
    Explanation
    An RJ-45 jack typically contains 8 wires. This is because an RJ-45 jack is commonly used for Ethernet connections, which require 8 wires for transmitting and receiving data. Each wire is responsible for carrying a specific signal or data, allowing for high-speed and reliable network connections.

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  • 31. 

    One of the oldest network topologies is the:

    • A.

      Bus

    • B.

      Mesh

    • C.

      Ring

    • D.

      Star

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Bus. A bus network topology is one of the oldest and simplest forms of network architecture. In this topology, all devices are connected to a single cable called the bus. Each device on the network can transmit data onto the bus, and all other devices receive that data. This makes it easy to add or remove devices from the network. However, if the bus cable fails, the entire network can go down.

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  • 32. 

    Voice grade cable is identified as:

    • A.

      Cat 1

    • B.

      Cat 2

    • C.

      Cat 3

    • D.

      Cat 4

    Correct Answer
    C. Cat 3
    Explanation
    Voice grade cable is identified as Cat 3 because it is designed to support voice communication and low-speed data transmission. It has a maximum bandwidth of 16 MHz and can carry up to 10 Mbps Ethernet signals. Cat 3 cables are commonly used for telephone systems and basic network connections. They have four twisted pairs of copper wires and are capable of transmitting signals up to a maximum distance of 100 meters.

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  • 33. 

    The two major classifications of fiber optic cable are:

    • A.

      Single and multi-mode

    • B.

      Plastic and glass

    • C.

      Flexible and inflexible

    • D.

      Colored and monochrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Single and multi-mode
    Explanation
    The correct answer is single and multi-mode. Fiber optic cables are classified based on the way they transmit light signals. Single-mode cables have a smaller core and allow only one mode of light to propagate, resulting in longer transmission distances. Multi-mode cables have a larger core and support multiple modes of light, making them suitable for shorter distances. Plastic and glass, flexible and inflexible, and colored and monochrome are not the classifications used for fiber optic cables.

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  • 34. 

    The access method used by wireless networks is ______.

    • A.

      Token passing

    • B.

      CSMA/CA

    • C.

      CSMA/CD

    • D.

      Mesh

    Correct Answer
    B. CSMA/CA
    Explanation
    CSMA/CA stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance. It is the access method used by wireless networks to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing collisions. In CSMA/CA, devices listen to the network before transmitting to check if it is busy. If the network is busy, they wait for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to avoid collisions and ensures efficient utilization of the wireless network.

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  • 35. 

    You wish to disable some Services, what path will lead to the Services MMC?

    • A.

      START – Control Panel – Administrative Tools – Device Manager - Services

    • B.

      START – Control Panel – Administrative Tools - Services

    • C.

      START - My Computer – Manage – System Tools - Services

    • D.

      START – All Programs – Accessories – System Tools - Services

    Correct Answer
    B. START – Control Panel – Administrative Tools - Services
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "START – Control Panel – Administrative Tools - Services". This is because the Services MMC (Microsoft Management Console) can be accessed through the Control Panel and then navigating to the Administrative Tools section.

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  • 36. 

    Pressing the ____ key during bootup will display the Advanced Options Menu.

    • A.

      Break

    • B.

      Del

    • C.

      F5

    • D.

      F8

    Correct Answer
    D. F8
    Explanation
    Pressing the F8 key during bootup will display the Advanced Options Menu. This menu provides various advanced startup options, such as safe mode, system restore, and boot logging, among others. By accessing this menu, users can troubleshoot and fix issues with their computer's startup process.

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  • 37. 

    Which utility safely displays information about hardware and software with no options for altering or erasing configuration settings?

    • A.

      Device Manager

    • B.

      System

    • C.

      Services

    • D.

      System Information

    Correct Answer
    D. System Information
    Explanation
    System Information is the correct answer because it is a utility that provides detailed information about the hardware and software of a computer system. It does not have options for altering or erasing configuration settings, making it a safe tool for displaying information without the risk of accidentally making changes to the system.

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  • 38. 

    The Recovery Console is accessed through the Windows ________ .

    • A.

      CD

    • B.

      MMC

    • C.

      Registry

    • D.

      Device Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. CD
    Explanation
    The Recovery Console is accessed through the Windows CD. This means that in order to access the Recovery Console, the user needs to have a Windows installation CD. The Recovery Console is a command-line tool that allows users to perform various troubleshooting and recovery tasks, such as repairing the Windows installation, restoring system files, or fixing boot issues. By using the Windows CD, users can boot into the Recovery Console and access its features to resolve issues with their Windows operating system.

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  • 39. 

    What algorithm is used to encrypt files on Windows 2000 and XP?

    • A.

      EWFS (Encrypting Windows File System)

    • B.

      WFE (Windows File Encryption)

    • C.

      EFS (Encrypting File System)

    • D.

      NTE (New Technology Encryption)

    Correct Answer
    C. EFS (Encrypting File System)
    Explanation
    EFS (Encrypting File System) is the algorithm used to encrypt files on Windows 2000 and XP. EFS provides transparent encryption and decryption of files and folders on NTFS volumes, ensuring that sensitive data remains secure. It uses symmetric key encryption to encrypt the file data and asymmetric key encryption to protect the symmetric key used for encryption. This algorithm allows users to encrypt individual files or entire directories, providing an additional layer of security for sensitive information.

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  • 40. 

    In Windows XP with the Control Panel set to Category View, Administrative Tools may be accessed throught which category?

    • A.

      Accessibility Options

    • B.

      Settings

    • C.

      Configuration

    • D.

      Performance and Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    D. Performance and Maintenance
    Explanation
    In Windows XP with the Control Panel set to Category View, the Administrative Tools can be accessed through the "Performance and Maintenance" category. This category includes various tools and settings related to system performance and maintenance tasks.

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  • 41. 

    While troubleshooting a customer’s computer you learn that the problem started after new software was installed on the computer.  Which of the following Windows utilities is best suited to help you proceed.

    • A.

      System Restore

    • B.

      Regedit

    • C.

      Change or Remove Programs

    • D.

      Automatic Updates

    Correct Answer
    A. System Restore
    Explanation
    System Restore is the best-suited Windows utility in this scenario because it allows the user to revert the computer's settings back to a previous point in time. By using System Restore, the customer can undo any changes made by the newly installed software and potentially resolve the problem. This utility is specifically designed to troubleshoot issues caused by software installations or updates, making it the most appropriate choice in this situation.

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  • 42. 

    From the desktop a shortcut to the Search utility is to press the  _____  key.

    • A.

      F1

    • B.

      F3

    • C.

      F5

    • D.

      F8

    Correct Answer
    B. F3
    Explanation
    Pressing the F3 key from the desktop creates a shortcut to the Search utility. This shortcut allows users to quickly access the Search utility without having to navigate through menus or open additional windows.

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  • 43. 

    From the desktop a shortcut to Help and Support Center is to press the  _____  key.

    • A.

      F1

    • B.

      F3

    • C.

      F5

    • D.

      F8

    Correct Answer
    A. F1
    Explanation
    Pressing the F1 key on the desktop creates a shortcut to the Help and Support Center. This key is commonly associated with accessing help and support features in various software applications and operating systems.

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  • 44. 

    When is the customer service call considered finished?

    • A.

      On arriving at the customer premises

    • B.

      On departing the customer premises

    • C.

      When the problem is repaired

    • D.

      The equipment is functioning to the customer’s satisfaction

    Correct Answer
    D. The equipment is functioning to the customer’s satisfaction
    Explanation
    The customer service call is considered finished when the equipment is functioning to the customer's satisfaction. This means that the issue or problem reported by the customer has been resolved and the equipment is working properly according to the customer's expectations. It indicates that the customer's needs and requirements have been met, and there is no further action or assistance required from the customer service representative.

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