Midwifery Revision MCQ Quiz With Answers

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  • 1/45 Questions

    What is the lower portion of the heart called?

    • Apex
    • Base
    • Mediastinum
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About This Quiz

The "Midwifery Questions and Answers" quiz is designed to test your knowledge and understanding of key concepts in the field of midwifery. This quiz offers an opportunity to assess your grasp of important topics related to maternal care, labor management, postnatal care, and newborn health.

Midwifery MCQ questions and answers focus on various aspects of midwifery practice, including clinical See moreskills, ethical considerations, and the latest evidence-based practices in obstetrics and gynecology. Each question is carefully crafted to ensure relevance to real-life scenarios, making it a valuable resource for those pursuing a career in midwifery or seeking certification. Take this quiz to sharpen your understanding and improve your readiness for real-world challenges in maternal healthcare.

Midwifery Revision MCQ Quiz With Answers - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the outer layer of the heart called?

    • Myocardium

    • Epicardium

    • Endocardium

    Correct Answer
    A. Epicardium
    Explanation
    The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart and serves as a protective barrier. It is a thin membrane that helps reduce friction between the heart and the surrounding organs, such as the lungs. The epicardium also contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics, all of which supply the heart with essential nutrients and oxygen. This layer is crucial in maintaining the heart's health and function, and damage to the epicardium can affect the heart's ability to pump blood effectively, leading to potential complications in cardiovascular health.

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  • 3. 

    Which valve is situated between the right atrium and ventricle and is composed of three flaps?

    • Mitral Valve

    • Semilunar Valve

    • Tricuspid Valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Tricuspid Valve
    Explanation
    The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle. It has three cusps, or flaps, that open and close to control blood flow. This valve ensures that blood flows in one direction—allowing blood to move from the atrium to the ventricle but preventing backflow during ventricular contraction. If the tricuspid valve is damaged or fails to function properly, it can lead to conditions such as tricuspid regurgitation, where blood flows backward, leading to complications such as heart failure and increased pressure in the veins.

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  • 4. 

    Which valve is situated between the left atrium and ventricle?

    • Tricuspid Valve

    • Mitral Valve

    • Semi-Lunar Valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitral Valve
    Explanation
    The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle. It consists of two flaps that open and close to regulate blood flow. When the left atrium contracts, the mitral valve opens, allowing oxygen-rich blood to flow into the left ventricle. Upon ventricular contraction, the valve closes to prevent blood from flowing backward into the atrium. If the mitral valve malfunctions, it can result in conditions like mitral regurgitation, where blood leaks backward, or mitral stenosis, where the valve becomes narrowed, leading to reduced blood flow.

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  • 5. 

    Which valves are situated in the pulmonary artery and the aorta as they leave the heart?

    • Tricuspid Valve

    • Mitral Valve

    • Semi-Lunar Valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-Lunar Valve
    Explanation
    The semilunar valves are located at the junctions where the pulmonary artery and aorta leave the heart. These valves include the pulmonary semilunar valve, located between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, and the aortic semilunar valve, situated between the left ventricle and aorta. Both valves have three cusps and prevent blood from flowing back into the heart after the ventricles contract. The function of the semilunar valves is vital for maintaining one-way blood flow from the heart to the lungs and the rest of the body, ensuring proper circulatory efficiency.

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  • 6. 

    Which vessel carries oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?

    • Aorta

    • Pulmonary Vein

    • Pulmonary Artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta
    Explanation
    The aorta is the correct answer because it is the largest artery in the body and carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart, while the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. Therefore, the aorta is the vessel that carries oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

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  • 7. 

    What is internal respiration?

    • Gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood

    • Gas exchange between the blood and body cells

    • Breathing indoors

    Correct Answer
    A. Gas exchange between the blood and body cells
    Explanation
    Internal respiration refers to the process of gas exchange that occurs between the blood and the body cells. During internal respiration, oxygen from the blood is delivered to the body cells, and carbon dioxide, a waste product of cellular respiration, is transported from the cells back into the bloodstream to be carried away. This process takes place in the capillaries, where the exchange of gases occurs through diffusion. The other options, gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood, and breathing indoors, do not accurately describe internal respiration.

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  • 8. 

    What is external respiration?

    • Breathing outdoors

    • Gas exchange between the blood and body cells

    • Gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood
    Explanation
    External respiration is the process of gas exchange between the alveoli (tiny air sacs in the lungs) and the blood. During external respiration, oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the alveolar membrane into the blood, while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuses into the alveoli to be exhaled. This process is essential for maintaining the 1 proper levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body.  

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  • 9. 

    Which term describes the stretchability of lung tissue?

    • Elasticity

    • Compliance

    • Expansion

    Correct Answer
    A. Compliance
    Explanation
    Compliance is the term that describes the stretchability of lung tissue. It refers to the ability of the lungs to expand and accommodate changes in volume. Lung compliance is an important factor in respiratory function, as it determines the ease with which the lungs can fill with air during inhalation and the ability to recoil during exhalation. It is influenced by the elasticity and surface tension of the lung tissue, as well as any pathological conditions that may affect lung function.

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  • 10. 

    By how much does the body cells need for oxygen increase in pregnancy?

    • 20%

    • 30%

    • 40%

    Correct Answer
    A. 20%
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the body's need for oxygen increases by 20%. This is because the growing fetus requires more oxygen for its development and growth. The mother's body adapts to this increased demand by increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and enhancing lung function. This ensures that enough oxygen is supplied to both the mother and the developing baby.

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  • 11. 

    Which hormone causes the maturation of an immature Graafian follicle?

    • Oestrogen

    • FSH

    • LH

    Correct Answer
    A. FSH
    Explanation
    FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is responsible for the maturation of an immature Graafian follicle. FSH is released by the pituitary gland and acts on the ovaries to stimulate the growth and development of follicles. As the follicle matures, it produces estrogen, which further stimulates the development of the uterine lining. LH (luteinizing hormone) is responsible for triggering ovulation and the release of the mature egg from the Graafian follicle.

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  • 12. 

    Which hormone's production by the Graafian follicle inhibits the production of FSH?

    • Estrogen

    • LH

    • Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Estrogen
    Explanation
    The production of estrogen by the Graafian follicle inhibits the production of FHS (follicle-stimulating hormone). Estrogen exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, reducing the secretion of FHS. This helps regulate the menstrual cycle and prevent excessive follicle development.

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  • 13. 

    What causes ovulation to occur during the menstrual cycle?

    • Oestrogen

    • FHS

    • LH

    Correct Answer
    A. LH
    Explanation
    LH, or luteinizing hormone, is responsible for causing ovulation. It is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the release of an egg from the ovary. Oestrogen and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) also play a role in the menstrual cycle, but LH is specifically responsible for triggering ovulation.

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  • 14. 

    What hormone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation?

    • LH

    • Oestrogen

    • Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Progesterone
    Explanation
    The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible for producing progesterone, which plays a crucial role in preparing the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg and maintaining pregnancy. Progesterone also helps regulate the menstrual cycle and prepares the breasts for milk production. LH (luteinizing hormone) is responsible for triggering ovulation, while estrogen is primarily produced by the ovaries and plays a role in the development of female reproductive organs and secondary sexual characteristics.

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  • 15. 

    Which phase of the menstrual cycle remains fairly constant regardless of the cycle's regularity?

    • Menstruation

    • Proliferation/Follicular

    • Secretary/Luteal

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary/Luteal
    Explanation
    The stage of the menstrual cycle that remains fairly constant regardless of the regularity of a woman's cycle is the Secretary/Luteal phase. This phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by the thickening of the uterine lining in preparation for a possible pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the uterine lining is shed during menstruation. This phase typically lasts for about 14 days and is regulated by the hormone progesterone.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following statements about the vagina is false?

    • It is 8-10cm long.

    • It is described as a potential tube.

    • It is joined to the ovaries.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is joined to the ovaries.
    Explanation
    The given statement "It is joined to the ovaries" is false. The vagina is a muscular canal that connects the uterus to the external opening of the female reproductive system. It is not directly connected to the ovaries, which are located in the pelvic cavity and produce eggs. The ovaries are connected to the uterus by the fallopian tubes, not the vagina.

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  • 17. 

    What type of fiber is the cervix made of?

    • Collagenous

    • Striated

    • Columnar

    Correct Answer
    A. Collagenous
    Explanation
    The cervix is made of collagenous fibers. Collagen is a protein that provides strength and support to tissues in the body. In the cervix, collagen fibers help to maintain the structural integrity and stability of the organ. These fibers also play a role in the elasticity of the cervix, allowing it to stretch during childbirth and then return to its original shape.

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  • 18. 

    Which two terms describe the position of the uterus?

    • Anteverted & Antiflexed

    • Fully Flexed & Anteverted

    • Anteflexed & Fully Verted

    Correct Answer
    A. Anteverted & Antiflexed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Anteverted & Antiflexed. The term "anteverted" refers to the position of the uterus where the uterus is tilted forward towards the bladder. The term "antiflexed" refers to the position of the uterus where the uterus is bent or flexed forward at the cervix. These terms describe the position and flexion of the uterus in relation to its normal anatomical position.

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  • 19. 

    How much does the non-pregnant uterus typically weigh?

    • 10g

    • 50g

    • 80g

    Correct Answer
    A. 50g
    Explanation
    The non-pregnant uterus typically weighs around 50g. This is the average weight for a healthy uterus that is not carrying a pregnancy. It is important to note that the weight can vary slightly depending on factors such as age, hormonal changes, and overall health. However, 50g is a commonly accepted estimate for the weight of a non-pregnant uterus.

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  • 20. 

    Where is oxytocin produced in the body?

    • Anterior Pituitary

    • Posterior Pituitary

    • Placenta

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior Pituitary
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is produced in the posterior pituitary gland. This gland is located at the base of the brain and is responsible for storing and releasing various hormones, including oxytocin. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in several physiological processes, such as childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. It is released in response to stimuli like nipple stimulation during breastfeeding or uterine contractions during labor. Therefore, the correct answer is the posterior pituitary.

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  • 21. 

    Which combination of hormones stimulates contractions of the uterus?

    • Oestrogen & Progesterone

    • Oxytocin & Oestrogen

    • Oxytocin & Progesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin & Oestrogen
    Explanation
    Oxytocin and estrogen are the hormones that stimulate contractions of the uterus. Oxytocin is responsible for initiating and strengthening contractions during labor and childbirth. Estrogen plays a role in preparing the uterus for contractions by promoting the growth and development of uterine muscles. Together, these hormones work in coordination to facilitate the contractions necessary for labor and delivery.

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  • 22. 

    What is amenorrhoea?

    • Absence of monthly menstrual bleeding.

    • Frequent urination.

    • Softening of the cervix.

    Correct Answer
    A. Absence of monthly menstrual bleeding.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Absence of monthly menstrual bleeding." Amenorrhoea refers to the absence of menstrual periods in women of reproductive age. It can be caused by various factors such as pregnancy, hormonal imbalances, certain medical conditions, stress, excessive exercise, or certain medications. It is important for women experiencing amenorrhoea to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment if necessary.

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  • 23. 

    What does attitude refer to in the context of childbirth?

    • The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the uterus.

    • Relationship of fetal limbs and head to its trunk.

    • Part of the presentation which determines the position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Relationship of fetal limbs and head to its trunk.
    Explanation
    Attitude refers to the relationship of the fetal limbs and head to its trunk. It describes the position and posture of the fetus in the womb. This term is used to determine the position of the fetus during pregnancy and childbirth. It helps healthcare providers understand the orientation of the fetus and plan for a safe delivery. The attitude can vary and may affect the ease of delivery, making it an important consideration in obstetrics.

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  • 24. 

    What are the pools of blood formed as the chorionic villi penetrate the decidua called?

    • Sinuses

    • Exchange beds

    • Projections

    Correct Answer
    A. Sinuses
    Explanation
    As the chorionic villi penetrate the decidua, they erode the walls of maternal blood vessels, causing small pools of blood to form. These pools of blood are known as sinuses. Sinuses play a crucial role in facilitating the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products between the maternal and fetal circulations. They provide a large surface area for efficient transfer of substances, ensuring the proper nourishment and oxygenation of the developing fetus.

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  • 25. 

    At full term, what fraction of the fetal weight does the placenta weigh?

    • 1/6

    • 1/10

    • 1/8

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/6
    Explanation
    At full term, the placenta typically weighs approximately 1/6 of the fetal weight. This is because the placenta serves as a connection between the mother and the fetus, providing oxygen, nutrients, and removing waste products. As the fetus grows, the placenta also increases in size to meet the growing demands of the developing baby. Therefore, it makes sense that the placenta would weigh a significant fraction of the fetal weight at full term.

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  • 26. 

    What are the lobes on the maternal side of the placenta called?

    • Decidua

    • Cotyledons

    • Sulci

    Correct Answer
    A. Cotyledons
    Explanation
    The lobes on the maternal side of the placenta are called cotyledons. Cotyledons are specialized structures that develop on the surface of the placenta and are responsible for the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the fetus. They are composed of maternal tissue and contain numerous blood vessels that facilitate the transfer of oxygen and nutrients to the developing fetus. Cotyledons play a crucial role in supporting the growth and development of the fetus during pregnancy.

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  • 27. 

    Which vessels are found in the umbilical cord?

    • 2 Veins & 1 Artery

    • 1 Vein & 2 Arteries

    • 1 Vein & 1 Artery

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Vein & 2 Arteries
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 Vein & 2 Arteries. In the umbilical cord, there is one vein called the umbilical vein and two arteries called the umbilical arteries. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus, while the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. This arrangement allows for the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus.

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  • 28. 

    Which membrane lines the cavity of the uterus, developing from the trophoblast of the early embryo?

    • Chorion

    • Plasma

    • Amnion

    Correct Answer
    A. Chorion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Chorion. The chorion is a membrane that lines the cavity of the uterus and develops from the trophoblast of the early embryo. It plays a crucial role in the formation of the placenta and is responsible for the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the developing fetus. The chorion also produces hormones that are important for maintaining pregnancy.

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  • 29. 

    From where is an amniotic fluid secreted?

    • Chorion

    • Amnion

    • Placenta

    Correct Answer
    A. Amnion
    Explanation
    The amniotic fluid is secreted from the amnion. The amnion is a membrane that surrounds and protects the developing embryo or fetus. It plays a crucial role in providing a protective environment for the fetus, cushioning it from external shocks and maintaining a stable temperature. The amniotic fluid is constantly produced and replenished by the amnion throughout pregnancy.

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  • 30. 

    Which structure carries oxygenated blood across the placenta to the fetus?

    • Umbilical Vein

    • Umbilical Artery

    • Fetal Artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Umbilical Vein
    Explanation
    The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. This vein is responsible for delivering nutrients and oxygen to the developing fetus, while also removing waste products. Once the blood reaches the fetus, it branches out into smaller vessels to supply the various organs and tissues. The umbilical vein plays a crucial role in fetal circulation and is essential for the growth and development of the fetus.

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  • 31. 

    What is effacement?

    • Dilation of the internal os.

    • Dilation of the external os.

    • Dilation of the cervix.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilation of the cervix.
    Explanation
    Effacement is the thinning and shortening of the cervix during labor, typically expressed as a percentage. As labor progresses, the cervix becomes progressively thinner and shorter, eventually becoming fully effaced, allowing for the passage of the baby through the birth canal.

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  • 32. 

    Where is milk produced?

    • Acini Cells

    • Myo-epithelial Cells

    • Mammary Glands

    Correct Answer
    A. Mammary Glands
    Explanation
    Milk is produced in the mammary glands of mammals. The acini cells are specifically responsible for the production and secretion of milk in the mammary glands. These cells are specialized to synthesize and secrete the components of milk, including proteins, fats, and sugars. The myo-epithelial cells, on the other hand, are involved in the contraction of the mammary glands during milk ejection. Therefore, while both acini cells and myo-epithelial cells play important roles in the process of milk production, it is the acini cells that are directly responsible for producing milk.

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  • 33. 

    What is the primary role of a midwife during prenatal care?

    • Performing major surgical procedures

    • Prescribing all types of medications

    • Monitoring the health of the mother and fetus

    • Designing nutritional programs for pediatric care

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring the health of the mother and fetus
    Explanation
    Midwives play a crucial role in prenatal care by regularly assessing the health of both the mother and fetus throughout the pregnancy. This includes checking vital signs, monitoring fetal development, and providing guidance on health practices to ensure a safe and healthy pregnancy. Their role is integral in anticipating, preventing, and managing potential complications through regular check-ups and support, thereby promoting the overall wellbeing of mother and child.

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  • 34. 

    Which hormone stimulates the release of milk?

    • Prolactin

    • Oxytocin

    • Oestrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is the hormone that stimulates the release of milk. It is produced in the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in the milk ejection reflex, also known as the let-down reflex, which allows for the flow of milk from the mammary glands to the nipple. It is released in response to the suckling of the baby or the stimulation of the nipples, causing the contraction of the smooth muscles surrounding the milk ducts and facilitating the release of milk.

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  • 35. 

    Where does haemopoiesis (blood production) take place?

    • Spleen

    • Red Bone Marrow

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Red Bone Marrow
    Explanation
    Haemopoiesis, the production of blood, takes place in the red bone marrow. This is where stem cells differentiate and mature into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. The red bone marrow is found in the spongy bone tissue of certain bones, such as the hip bones, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae. It is responsible for continuously replenishing the body's blood supply throughout life.

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  • 36. 

    Platelets are also known as:

    • Erythrocytes

    • Leucocytes

    • Thrombocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombocytes
    Explanation
    Platelets are also known as thrombocytes. Thrombocytes are small, colorless cell fragments found in the blood. They play a crucial role in blood clotting, preventing excessive bleeding. Platelets are not the same as erythrocytes (red blood cells) or leucocytes (white blood cells). Erythrocytes are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, while leucocytes are involved in the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is thrombocytes.

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  • 37. 

    Red blood cells are also known as:

    • Erythrocytes

    • Leucocytes

    • Thrombocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythrocytes
    Explanation
    Red blood cells are also known as erythrocytes. Erythrocytes are the most common type of blood cell and their main function is to transport oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. They contain a protein called hemoglobin which binds to oxygen and gives the cells their red color. Leucocytes and thrombocytes, on the other hand, refer to white blood cells and platelets respectively, which have different functions in the immune system and blood clotting.

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  • 38. 

    White blood cells are also known as:

    • Erythrocytes

    • Leucocytes

    • Thrombocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Leucocytes
    Explanation
    White blood cells are also known as leukocytes. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, responsible for carrying oxygen in the bloodstream. Thrombocytes are platelets, involved in blood clotting. Leukocytes, on the other hand, are the cells of the immune system that help fight off infections and diseases. They play a crucial role in the body's defense mechanism against pathogens and foreign substances.

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  • 39. 

    What term describes the initial development of the zygote cells?

    • Cleavage

    • Differentiation

    • Implantation

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleavage
    Explanation
    Cleavage is the correct answer because it refers to the process of the zygote cells dividing and multiplying rapidly after fertilization. During cleavage, the zygote undergoes multiple rounds of cell division, resulting in the formation of a multicellular embryo. This initial development is crucial for the formation of different cell types and the overall growth of the embryo. Differentiation, on the other hand, refers to the process by which cells become specialized and take on specific functions, while implantation refers to the attachment of the embryo to the uterine wall.

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  • 40. 

    What term describes the outer layer of the blastocyst in embryonic development from which the placenta and chorionic membrane develop?

    • Trophoblast

    • Blastocyte

    • Sinuses

    Correct Answer
    A. Trophoblast
    Explanation
    The outer layer of the blastocyst in embryonic life form from which the placenta and chorionic membrane develop is called the trophoblast. The trophoblast is responsible for implantation of the embryo into the uterine wall and plays a crucial role in the development of the placenta, which is essential for providing nutrients and oxygen to the developing fetus.

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  • 41. 

    Which term refers to the immature female reproductive cell that is released during the reproductive process?

    • Oocyte

    • Ovum

    • Ovary

    Correct Answer
    A. Oocyte
    Explanation
    The immature female reproductive cell that is released during the reproductive process is called an "oocyte." An oocyte is the early stage of the female egg cell's development. It undergoes maturation processes before becoming a fully matured egg cell, known as an "ovum." The ovary is the organ where oocytes are produced and released during the menstrual cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is "A) Oocyte" because it specifically represents the immature stage of the female reproductive cell.

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  • 42. 

    What is the lining of the uterus called during pregnancy?

    • Decidua

    • Endometrium

    • Basal

    Correct Answer
    A. Decidua
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the lining of the uterus undergoes changes and is called decidua. The decidua plays a crucial role in supporting the developing fetus by providing nutrients and oxygen. It also helps in the attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall and acts as a protective barrier for the growing embryo. The decidua is shed during childbirth and is replaced by a new lining in the postpartum period. The endometrium refers to the inner lining of the uterus, but during pregnancy, it transforms into the decidua. The basal layer is the deepest layer of the endometrium and is not specifically related to pregnancy.

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  • 43. 

    What type of fiber is the endometrium made of?

    • Columnar

    • Striated

    • Collagenous

    Correct Answer
    A. Columnar
    Explanation
    The endometrium is made of columnar fibers. Columnar epithelial tissue is characterized by its tall, elongated cells that are shaped like columns. This type of tissue is found in the lining of the uterus, which is the endometrium. The columnar fibers help to support and protect the uterus, and they also play a role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy.

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  • 44. 

    What is the term for the soft spot on a newborn’s skull where the bones haven’t fused together?

    • Anterior fontanelle

    • Posterior fontanelle

    • Occipital fontanelle

    • Parietal fontanelle

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior fontanelle
    Explanation
    The soft spot on a newborn’s skull is known as the anterior fontanelle. It is a membranous gap between the bones of an infant's skull that allows for flexibility during childbirth and accommodates rapid brain growth after birth. The anterior fontanelle usually closes between 12 to 18 months. Its elasticity ensures that, despite the pressures of labor, the baby’s head can safely pass through the birth canal. Monitoring the fontanelle’s development is essential as premature closure or delayed fusion may indicate underlying health issues. Proper skull and brain development depend on these open spaces, making the fontanelle crucial for infant health.

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  • 45. 

    Which stage of labor involves the full dilation of the cervix and the delivery of the baby?

    • First stage

    • Second stage

    • Third stage

    • Latent phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Second stage
    Explanation
    The second stage of labor begins once the cervix is fully dilated (10 cm) and continues until the baby is delivered. This stage involves intense contractions, enabling the mother to push and guide the baby down the birth canal. Proper monitoring and coaching can make this stage efficient, reducing risks of complications. Duration varies; in first-time mothers, it often lasts longer than in subsequent births. This stage ends with the baby's head emerging, or "crowning," signaling imminent delivery. An extended second stage can lead to fetal distress, highlighting the importance of timely, managed progression to ensure both mother and child’s safety.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 5, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 06, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Julia Donaldson

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