International Midwives Day 2020 Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 153
Questions: 20 | Attempts: 153

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International Midwives Day 2020 Quiz - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All of the following are true regarding after pains except:

    • A.

      M/C in multiparous females

    • B.

      Pain worsens when infant suckles 

    • C.

      Decreases in intensity by 5th day   

    • D.

       They become more pronounced as parity increases

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreases in intensity by 5th day   
    Explanation
    After pains are uterine contractions that occur after childbirth. They are more common in multiparous females (those who have given birth multiple times) and become more pronounced with each subsequent pregnancy. After pains are caused by the release of oxytocin, which is triggered by breastfeeding. Therefore, the pain worsens when the infant suckles. However, after pains do not decrease in intensity by the 5th day. Instead, they typically peak around the 2nd or 3rd day postpartum and gradually subside over the next few days.

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  • 2. 

    Contraceptive method of choice among lactating women

    • A.

      BARRIER METHOD

    • B.

      PROGESTIN ONLY PILL

    • C.

      OCP

    • D.

      LACTATION AMENORRHEA

    Correct Answer
    B. PROGESTIN ONLY PILL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Progestin Only Pill (POP) because it is considered the contraceptive method of choice among lactating women. The POP contains only progestin hormone, which does not affect milk production or quality. It is safe to use while breastfeeding and does not have any negative effects on the infant. Additionally, the POP is easy to use and does not require strict adherence to a daily schedule like combination oral contraceptive pills. Therefore, lactating women often opt for the Progestin Only Pill as their preferred contraceptive method.

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  • 3. 

    DRUG OF CHOICE TO PREVENT SEIZURES IN ECLAMPSIA

    • A.

      KCL

    • B.

      LABETALOL

    • C.

      METHYLDOPA

    • D.

      MgSO4

    Correct Answer
    D. MgSO4
    Explanation
    MgSO4 is the drug of choice to prevent seizures in eclampsia. Eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by seizures and high blood pressure. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is a central nervous system depressant that helps to prevent and control seizures. It works by blocking the release of certain neurotransmitters and reducing the excitability of the nervous system. MgSO4 is considered the most effective and safe drug for preventing seizures in eclampsia, and it is commonly used in clinical practice.

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  • 4. 

    For first 2 hrs after delivery, temperature should be recorded:

    • A.

      EVERY 5 MIN.

    • B.

      EVERY 15 MIN.

    • C.

      EVERY 30 MIN.

    • D.

      HOURLY

    Correct Answer
    A. EVERY 5 MIN.
    Explanation
    In the first 2 hours after delivery, it is crucial to closely monitor the temperature of the newborn. This frequent temperature recording every 5 minutes allows for early detection of any abnormalities or changes that may indicate potential health issues. By monitoring the temperature at such short intervals, healthcare professionals can promptly intervene and provide necessary interventions if needed, ensuring the well-being and safety of the newborn.

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  • 5. 

    UTERUS BECOMES IN PELVIC ORGAN AFTER DELIVERY IN

    • A.

      10-12 DAYS

    • B.

      12-14 DAYS

    • C.

      14-16 DAYS

    • D.

      18-20 DAYS

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-12 DAYS
    Explanation
    After delivery, the uterus goes through a process called involution, where it gradually returns to its pre-pregnancy size and position. This process typically takes around 6 weeks. However, within the first 10-12 days after delivery, the uterus significantly decreases in size and shifts from being an abdominal organ to a pelvic organ. This is because the uterus undergoes contractions to expel any remaining placental tissue and to close off blood vessels at the site where the placenta was attached. As a result, the uterus moves down into the pelvic cavity.

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  • 6. 

    IMPORTANT FEATURE OF PREGNANCY IN 2ND TRIMESTER

    • A.

      LIGHTENING

    • B.

      QUICKENING

    • C.

      AMENORRHEA

    • D.

      MORNING SICKNESS

    Correct Answer
    B. QUICKENING
    Explanation
    Quickening is the correct answer because it refers to the first time a pregnant woman feels the movements of her baby in the womb. This typically occurs during the second trimester, around 18-25 weeks of pregnancy. Quickening is an important milestone in pregnancy as it signifies the baby's growth and development. It is a reassuring sign for expectant mothers and helps create a bond between the mother and the baby.

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  • 7. 

    MOST IMPORTANT OBSERVATION OF APGAR SCORING

    • A.

      RESPIRATORY RATE

    • B.

      HEART RATE

    • C.

      PRESENCE OF MECONIUM

    • D.

      EVALUATION OF MORO REFLEX

    Correct Answer
    B. HEART RATE
    Explanation
    The most important observation of Apgar scoring is the heart rate. This is because the heart rate reflects the overall well-being and functioning of the newborn. A low heart rate can indicate potential issues with the baby's circulation or oxygenation, while a normal or high heart rate indicates that the baby is in good health. Therefore, monitoring and evaluating the heart rate is crucial in determining the newborn's immediate medical needs and ensuring appropriate interventions are taken if necessary.

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  • 8. 

    A woman with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, the os is open but no products have come out. The diagnosis is:

    • A.

      MISSED ABORTION

    • B.

      INEVITABLE ABORTION

    • C.

      INCOMPLETE ABORTION

    • D.

      COMPLETE ABORTION

    Correct Answer
    D. COMPLETE ABORTION
    Explanation
    In a complete abortion, all of the products of conception have been expelled from the uterus. In this case, the woman is experiencing bleeding per vaginum, which suggests that there has been some form of abortion. However, on speculum examination, the os is open but no products have come out. This indicates that the abortion is complete, as there are no remaining products of conception in the uterus.

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  • 9. 

    The method not suitable for MTP in 3rd month of pregnancy is:

    • A.

      D&C

    • B.

      HYSTERECTOMY

    • C.

      SUCTION AND EVACUATION

    • D.

      MVA 

    Correct Answer
    D. MVA 
    Explanation
    MVA stands for Manual Vacuum Aspiration, which is a method used for early pregnancy termination. It is a non-surgical procedure that involves the use of a handheld suction device to remove the contents of the uterus. This method is considered safe and effective for terminating pregnancies up to 12 weeks gestation. Therefore, it is suitable for MTP in the 3rd month of pregnancy.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy?

    • A.

      Serum iron

    • B.

      Serum ferritin

    • C.

      Serum transferrin

    • D.

      Serum iron binding capacity

    Correct Answer
    B. Serum ferritin
    Explanation
    Serum ferritin is the most sensitive test for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body, and low levels of serum ferritin indicate a depletion of iron stores. This test is more accurate than measuring serum iron levels, as serum iron can fluctuate throughout the day and may not accurately reflect iron stores. Serum transferrin and serum iron binding capacity are also not as sensitive as serum ferritin in detecting iron depletion.

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  • 11. 

    Total amount of iron needed by the fetus during entire pregnancy is:

    • A.

      500mg

    • B.

      1000mg

    • C.

      800mg

    • D.

      300mg

    Correct Answer
    D. 300mg
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the fetus requires iron for the production of red blood cells and to support its growth and development. Iron is essential for the transport of oxygen to the fetus and for the formation of the placenta. The recommended daily intake of iron for pregnant women is around 27 mg. Over the course of the entire pregnancy, the total amount of iron needed by the fetus is estimated to be around 300 mg. This is because the fetus gradually accumulates iron throughout the pregnancy, with the highest demand occurring in the later stages.

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  • 12. 

    Maximum strain of parturient heart occurs during:

    • A.

      During antenatal phase

    • B.

      Option 2third trimester

    • C.

      Labour

    • D.

      Immediate postpartum

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate postpartum
    Explanation
    The maximum strain of the parturient heart occurs during the immediate postpartum period. This is because during labor and delivery, the heart experiences increased workload and stress due to the increased cardiac output required to support the mother and the baby. After delivery, there is a sudden decrease in blood volume and cardiac output, which can put additional strain on the heart. Additionally, hormonal changes and the process of uterine involution can also contribute to the increased strain on the heart during this period.

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  • 13. 

    Ventouse in 2nd stage of labour is contraindicated in:

    • A.

      Heart disease

    • B.

      Uterine inertia

    • C.

      Preterm labour

    • D.

      Persistent occipito posterior position

    Correct Answer
    C. Preterm labour
    Explanation
    Ventouse in the 2nd stage of labor is contraindicated in preterm labor because the use of a vacuum extractor may increase the risk of complications in preterm infants, such as intraventricular hemorrhage or retinal hemorrhage. Preterm infants have fragile blood vessels and delicate tissues that are more susceptible to injury. Therefore, alternative methods, such as forceps or cesarean section, may be considered in preterm labor cases to minimize the risk to the baby.

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  • 14. 

    Zavenelli’s manoeuver done in:

    • A.

      Shoulder dystocia

    • B.

      Deep transverse arrest

    • C.

      Retained placenta

    • D.

      Face presesntation

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder dystocia
    Explanation
    Zavenelli's maneuver is a technique used in cases of shoulder dystocia, which is a complication during childbirth where the baby's shoulder becomes stuck behind the mother's pubic bone. This maneuver involves pushing the baby's head back into the birth canal and performing a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby. This technique is not used in deep transverse arrest, retained placenta, or face presentation.

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  • 15. 

    Prolactin is released from the

    • A.

      Anterior pituitary 

    • B.

      Adrenal gland

    • C.

      Ovaries

    • D.

      Thyroid gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior pituitary 
    Explanation
    Prolactin is released from the anterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary gland is responsible for producing and releasing various hormones, including prolactin. Prolactin plays a crucial role in lactation, as it stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands. It also has other functions such as regulating the immune system, metabolism, and reproductive functions. The adrenal gland, ovaries, and thyroid gland are not directly involved in the production and release of prolactin.

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  • 16. 

    Snowstorm appearance is the peculiar feature of

    • A.

      Placenta previa

    • B.

      Hydatidform mole

    • C.

      Threatened abortion

    • D.

      Ectopic pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydatidform mole
    Explanation
    A hydatidiform mole is a rare condition where abnormal cells grow in the uterus instead of a normal pregnancy. One of the characteristic features of a hydatidiform mole is the appearance of snowstorm-like images on ultrasound. This is due to the abnormal growth of placental tissue, which forms grape-like clusters instead of a developing fetus. Therefore, the correct answer is hydatidiform mole.

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  • 17. 

    In ischiopagus conjoined twins , fusion occurs at which region?

    • A.

      Thorax

    • B.

      Posterior

    • C.

      Caudal

    • D.

      Cephalic

    Correct Answer
    C. Caudal
    Explanation
    In ischiopagus conjoined twins, fusion occurs at the caudal region. This means that the twins are joined together at the lower part of their bodies, specifically the region near the tailbone or coccyx. The term "caudal" refers to the tail or lower part of the body.

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  • 18. 

    Known causes of breech presentation are all except

    • A.

      Prematurity

    • B.

      Hydrocephalus

    • C.

      Placenta previa

    • D.

      Arcuate uterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Prematurity
    Explanation
    Breech presentation refers to a situation where the baby's buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first during delivery, instead of the head. Prematurity is not a known cause of breech presentation. Prematurity refers to a baby being born before the completion of the full term of pregnancy. The known causes of breech presentation include hydrocephalus (a condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the brain), placenta previa (a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix), and an arcuate uterus (a uterus with a slight indentation at the top).

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  • 19. 

    Recommended mode of delivery for a women with Covid-19

    • A.

      Vaginal delivery

    • B.

      Cesarean section

    • C.

      Instrumental delivery

    • D.

      Individualised based on case

    Correct Answer
    D. Individualised based on case
    Explanation
    The recommended mode of delivery for a woman with Covid-19 should be individualized based on the specific case. This means that the decision should be made considering factors such as the severity of the infection, the health of the mother and baby, and the resources available. It is important to assess the risks and benefits of each delivery method and make a decision that ensures the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 20. 

    Which complication occur to infant of diabetic mother?

    • A.

      Atelactasis

    • B.

      Microcephaly

    • C.

      Pneumothorax

    • D.

      Macrosomia

    Correct Answer
    D. Macrosomia
    Explanation
    Macrosomia refers to a condition where a baby is significantly larger than average at birth, often weighing more than 8 pounds 13 ounces. This complication occurs in infants of diabetic mothers due to the excess glucose crossing the placenta and stimulating the baby's pancreas to produce extra insulin. The excess insulin leads to increased growth and fat deposition in the baby, resulting in macrosomia. This condition can increase the risk of birth injuries, such as shoulder dystocia, and may require a cesarean delivery.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 04, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Assistprof.nursi
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